DAY – 22 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
Kartavya Desk Staff
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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB): It is a statutory body set up under the Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2008. It promotes basic research in Science and Engineering and to provide financial assistance to persons engaged in research. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both the statements correct. The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament, 2008. The mandate is to supports basic research in emerging areas of Science & Engineering. Promoting basic research in Science and Engineering and to provide financial assistance to persons engaged in such research, academic institutions, research and development laboratories, industrial concerns and other agencies for such research and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto are the primary and distinctive mandate of the Board. SERB aims to build up best management systems which would match the best global practices in the area of promotion and funding of basic research. Incorrect Solution: C Both the statements correct. The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament, 2008. The mandate is to supports basic research in emerging areas of Science & Engineering. Promoting basic research in Science and Engineering and to provide financial assistance to persons engaged in such research, academic institutions, research and development laboratories, industrial concerns and other agencies for such research and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto are the primary and distinctive mandate of the Board. SERB aims to build up best management systems which would match the best global practices in the area of promotion and funding of basic research.
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB):
• It is a statutory body set up under the Science and Engineering Research Board Act, 2008.
• It promotes basic research in Science and Engineering and to provide financial assistance to persons engaged in research.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Both the statements correct.
• The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament, 2008. The mandate is to supports basic research in emerging areas of Science & Engineering.
• Promoting basic research in Science and Engineering and to provide financial assistance to persons engaged in such research, academic institutions, research and development laboratories, industrial concerns and other agencies for such research and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto are the primary and distinctive mandate of the Board.
• SERB aims to build up best management systems which would match the best global practices in the area of promotion and funding of basic research.
Solution: C
Both the statements correct.
• The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament, 2008. The mandate is to supports basic research in emerging areas of Science & Engineering.
• Promoting basic research in Science and Engineering and to provide financial assistance to persons engaged in such research, academic institutions, research and development laboratories, industrial concerns and other agencies for such research and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto are the primary and distinctive mandate of the Board.
• SERB aims to build up best management systems which would match the best global practices in the area of promotion and funding of basic research.
• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points HIMANSH, a High-altitude research station is located in (a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand (c) Ladakh (d) Sikkim Correct Solution: A As part of the Indian government’s initiatives for better understanding of glacier –climate inter-relationship and quantify the Himalayan glacier responses towards the climate change, National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR), Goa, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences has established a high-altitude research station in Himalaya called HIMANSH. HIMANSH is a dedicated Research Station established at Sutri Dhaka, Chandra Basin, Lahaul-Spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh which has an altitude of 4080m above mean sea level. Objectives: To facilitate Himalayan Cryosphare Studies in Chandra basin to study the dynamics and the rate of change of Himalayan glaciers to understand its impact on hydrology and climate. Incorrect Solution: A As part of the Indian government’s initiatives for better understanding of glacier –climate inter-relationship and quantify the Himalayan glacier responses towards the climate change, National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR), Goa, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences has established a high-altitude research station in Himalaya called HIMANSH. HIMANSH is a dedicated Research Station established at Sutri Dhaka, Chandra Basin, Lahaul-Spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh which has an altitude of 4080m above mean sea level. Objectives: To facilitate Himalayan Cryosphare Studies in Chandra basin to study the dynamics and the rate of change of Himalayan glaciers to understand its impact on hydrology and climate.
#### 2. Question
HIMANSH, a High-altitude research station is located in
• (a) Himachal Pradesh
• (b) Uttarakhand
• (c) Ladakh
• (d) Sikkim
Solution: A
As part of the Indian government’s initiatives for better understanding of glacier –climate inter-relationship and quantify the Himalayan glacier responses towards the climate change, National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR), Goa, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences has established a high-altitude research station in Himalaya called HIMANSH. HIMANSH is a dedicated Research Station established at Sutri Dhaka, Chandra Basin, Lahaul-Spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh which has an altitude of 4080m above mean sea level.
Objectives: To facilitate Himalayan Cryosphare Studies in Chandra basin to study the dynamics and the rate of change of Himalayan glaciers to understand its impact on hydrology and climate.
Solution: A
As part of the Indian government’s initiatives for better understanding of glacier –climate inter-relationship and quantify the Himalayan glacier responses towards the climate change, National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR), Goa, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences has established a high-altitude research station in Himalaya called HIMANSH. HIMANSH is a dedicated Research Station established at Sutri Dhaka, Chandra Basin, Lahaul-Spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh which has an altitude of 4080m above mean sea level.
Objectives: To facilitate Himalayan Cryosphare Studies in Chandra basin to study the dynamics and the rate of change of Himalayan glaciers to understand its impact on hydrology and climate.
• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) has been initiated by: (a) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (b) NITI aayog (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry (d) Ministry of Human Resource Development Correct Solution: B The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country. AlM’s objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels. The Atal Innovation Mission has following two core functions: Entrepreneurship promotion through Self-Employment and Talent Utilization, wherein innovators would be supported and mentored to become successful entrepreneurs. Innovation promotion: to provide a platform where innovative ideas are generated. Incorrect Solution: B The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country. AlM’s objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels. The Atal Innovation Mission has following two core functions: Entrepreneurship promotion through Self-Employment and Talent Utilization, wherein innovators would be supported and mentored to become successful entrepreneurs. Innovation promotion: to provide a platform where innovative ideas are generated.
#### 3. Question
Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) has been initiated by:
• (a) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
• (b) NITI aayog
• (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
• (d) Ministry of Human Resource Development
Solution: B
The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.
AlM’s objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels.
The Atal Innovation Mission has following two core functions:
• Entrepreneurship promotion through Self-Employment and Talent Utilization, wherein innovators would be supported and mentored to become successful entrepreneurs.
• Innovation promotion: to provide a platform where innovative ideas are generated.
Solution: B
The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.
AlM’s objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels.
The Atal Innovation Mission has following two core functions:
• Entrepreneurship promotion through Self-Employment and Talent Utilization, wherein innovators would be supported and mentored to become successful entrepreneurs.
• Innovation promotion: to provide a platform where innovative ideas are generated.
• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to the ‘Thermoplastics’, consider the following statements: Thermoplastic materials have very high melting points. Thermoplastics can be remolded and recycled without negatively affecting the material’s physical properties. PVC is an example of thermoplastic. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B A thermoplastic is a material, usually a plastic polymer, which becomes soft when heated and hard when cooled. They have very low melting point. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Thermoplastic materials can be cooled and heated several times without any change in their chemistry or mechanical properties. When thermoplastics are heated, they melt to a liquid. They freeze to a glassy state when cooled enough. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Thermoplastic materials have many features. Some products made from thermoplastic materials are used for electronic applications. They protect against electrostatic discharge and radio frequency interference. Thermoplastics are one of the main two types of plastics. Thermoplastic can be moulded into any shape. Thermoplastics differ from thermosetting polymers. Thermosets form irreversible chemical bonds during the curing process. The most produced plastics are: Polyethylene (PE), Polypropylene, Polyvinyl chloride (PVC). Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B A thermoplastic is a material, usually a plastic polymer, which becomes soft when heated and hard when cooled. They have very low melting point. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Thermoplastic materials can be cooled and heated several times without any change in their chemistry or mechanical properties. When thermoplastics are heated, they melt to a liquid. They freeze to a glassy state when cooled enough. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Thermoplastic materials have many features. Some products made from thermoplastic materials are used for electronic applications. They protect against electrostatic discharge and radio frequency interference. Thermoplastics are one of the main two types of plastics. Thermoplastic can be moulded into any shape. Thermoplastics differ from thermosetting polymers. Thermosets form irreversible chemical bonds during the curing process. The most produced plastics are: Polyethylene (PE), Polypropylene, Polyvinyl chloride (PVC). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
#### 4. Question
With reference to the ‘Thermoplastics’, consider the following statements:
• Thermoplastic materials have very high melting points.
• Thermoplastics can be remolded and recycled without negatively affecting the material’s physical properties.
• PVC is an example of thermoplastic.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 1 and 2 only
• (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
A thermoplastic is a material, usually a plastic polymer, which becomes soft when heated and hard when cooled. They have very low melting point. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Thermoplastic materials can be cooled and heated several times without any change in their chemistry or mechanical properties. When thermoplastics are heated, they melt to a liquid. They freeze to a glassy state when cooled enough. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Thermoplastic materials have many features. Some products made from thermoplastic materials are used for electronic applications. They protect against electrostatic discharge and radio frequency interference. Thermoplastics are one of the main two types of plastics.
Thermoplastic can be moulded into any shape. Thermoplastics differ from thermosetting polymers. Thermosets form irreversible chemical bonds during the curing process.
The most produced plastics are: Polyethylene (PE), Polypropylene, Polyvinyl chloride (PVC). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Solution: B
A thermoplastic is a material, usually a plastic polymer, which becomes soft when heated and hard when cooled. They have very low melting point. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Thermoplastic materials can be cooled and heated several times without any change in their chemistry or mechanical properties. When thermoplastics are heated, they melt to a liquid. They freeze to a glassy state when cooled enough. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Thermoplastic materials have many features. Some products made from thermoplastic materials are used for electronic applications. They protect against electrostatic discharge and radio frequency interference. Thermoplastics are one of the main two types of plastics.
Thermoplastic can be moulded into any shape. Thermoplastics differ from thermosetting polymers. Thermosets form irreversible chemical bonds during the curing process.
The most produced plastics are: Polyethylene (PE), Polypropylene, Polyvinyl chloride (PVC). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following provisions regarding Outer Space Treaty: States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both the statements are correct. Outer Space Treaty (OST) treaty entered into force in October 1967. The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following principles: Exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all mankind; Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States; Outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means; States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner; Incorrect Solution: C Both the statements are correct. Outer Space Treaty (OST) treaty entered into force in October 1967. The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following principles: Exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all mankind; Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States; Outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means; States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner;
#### 5. Question
Consider the following provisions regarding Outer Space Treaty:
• States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner
• Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Outer Space Treaty (OST) treaty entered into force in October 1967.
The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following principles:
• Exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all mankind;
• Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States;
• Outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means;
States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner;
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Outer Space Treaty (OST) treaty entered into force in October 1967.
The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following principles:
• Exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all mankind;
• Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States;
• Outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means;
States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner;
• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding ISRO’s SpaDeX Mission: The mission aims to demonstrate in-space rendezvous, docking, and undocking using two indigenously developed spacecraft in low Earth orbit. The SpaDeX mission will contribute to critical capabilities for India’s future missions such as sample return from Mars and Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS). The SpaDeX spacecraft has been launched by GSLV-Mk III into a geostationary orbit for docking demonstration. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1: Correct SpaDeX is a technology demonstrator mission to develop and test autonomous docking and rendezvous capability. It uses two small spacecraft (~220 kg each), named SDX01 (Chaser) and SDX02 (Target), in low Earth orbit (LEO). Statement 2: Correct This technology is crucial for complex future missions like: Human landing on the Moon Sample return missions Construction and operation of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) Statement 3: Incorrect The launch vehicle is PSLV-C60, not GSLV Mk III. Orbit: 470 km circular LEO, not geostationary orbit. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1: Correct SpaDeX is a technology demonstrator mission to develop and test autonomous docking and rendezvous capability. It uses two small spacecraft (~220 kg each), named SDX01 (Chaser) and SDX02 (Target), in low Earth orbit (LEO). Statement 2: Correct This technology is crucial for complex future missions like: Human landing on the Moon Sample return missions Construction and operation of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) Statement 3: Incorrect The launch vehicle is PSLV-C60, not GSLV Mk III. Orbit: 470 km circular LEO, not geostationary orbit.
#### 6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ISRO’s SpaDeX Mission:
• The mission aims to demonstrate in-space rendezvous, docking, and undocking using two indigenously developed spacecraft in low Earth orbit.
• The SpaDeX mission will contribute to critical capabilities for India’s future missions such as sample return from Mars and Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS).
• The SpaDeX spacecraft has been launched by GSLV-Mk III into a geostationary orbit for docking demonstration.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: B
Statement 1: Correct
• SpaDeX is a technology demonstrator mission to develop and test autonomous docking and rendezvous capability.
• It uses two small spacecraft (~220 kg each), named SDX01 (Chaser) and SDX02 (Target), in low Earth orbit (LEO).
Statement 2: Correct
• This technology is crucial for complex future missions like: Human landing on the Moon Sample return missions Construction and operation of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS)
• Human landing on the Moon
• Sample return missions
• Construction and operation of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS)
Statement 3: Incorrect
• The launch vehicle is PSLV-C60, not GSLV Mk III.
Orbit: 470 km circular LEO, not geostationary orbit.
Solution: B
Statement 1: Correct
• SpaDeX is a technology demonstrator mission to develop and test autonomous docking and rendezvous capability.
• It uses two small spacecraft (~220 kg each), named SDX01 (Chaser) and SDX02 (Target), in low Earth orbit (LEO).
Statement 2: Correct
• This technology is crucial for complex future missions like: Human landing on the Moon Sample return missions Construction and operation of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS)
• Human landing on the Moon
• Sample return missions
• Construction and operation of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS)
Statement 3: Incorrect
• The launch vehicle is PSLV-C60, not GSLV Mk III.
Orbit: 470 km circular LEO, not geostationary orbit.
• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points With reference to the GPS-aided Geo augmented navigation (GAGAN), consider the following statements: It is a joint satellite-based augmentation system project between ISRO and Airports Authority of India. It is inter-operable with other international SBAS systems like US-WAAS and European EGNOS. GAGAN GEO footprint extends from Africa to Australia and has expansion capability for seamless navigation services across the region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) and Airports Authority of India (AAI) have implemented the GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation-GAGAN project as a Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) for the Indian Airspace. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The objective of GAGAN to establish, deploy and certify satellite-based augmentation system for safety-of-life civil aviation applications in India has been successfully completed. The system is inter-operable with other international SBAS systems like US-WAAS, European EGNOS, and Japanese MSAS etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct. GAGAN GEO footprint extends from Africa to Australia and has expansion capability for seamless navigation services across the region. GAGAN provides the additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary for all phases of flight, from enroute through approach for all qualified airports within the GAGAN service volume. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: D The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) and Airports Authority of India (AAI) have implemented the GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation-GAGAN project as a Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) for the Indian Airspace. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The objective of GAGAN to establish, deploy and certify satellite-based augmentation system for safety-of-life civil aviation applications in India has been successfully completed. The system is inter-operable with other international SBAS systems like US-WAAS, European EGNOS, and Japanese MSAS etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct. GAGAN GEO footprint extends from Africa to Australia and has expansion capability for seamless navigation services across the region. GAGAN provides the additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary for all phases of flight, from enroute through approach for all qualified airports within the GAGAN service volume. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
#### 7. Question
With reference to the GPS-aided Geo augmented navigation (GAGAN), consider the following statements:
• It is a joint satellite-based augmentation system project between ISRO and Airports Authority of India.
• It is inter-operable with other international SBAS systems like US-WAAS and European EGNOS.
• GAGAN GEO footprint extends from Africa to Australia and has expansion capability for seamless navigation services across the region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 2 and 3 only
• (c) 3 only
• (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) and Airports Authority of India (AAI) have implemented the GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation-GAGAN project as a Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) for the Indian Airspace. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The objective of GAGAN to establish, deploy and certify satellite-based augmentation system for safety-of-life civil aviation applications in India has been successfully completed. The system is inter-operable with other international SBAS systems like US-WAAS, European EGNOS, and Japanese MSAS etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
GAGAN GEO footprint extends from Africa to Australia and has expansion capability for seamless navigation services across the region. GAGAN provides the additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary for all phases of flight, from enroute through approach for all qualified airports within the GAGAN service volume. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Solution: D
The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) and Airports Authority of India (AAI) have implemented the GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation-GAGAN project as a Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) for the Indian Airspace. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The objective of GAGAN to establish, deploy and certify satellite-based augmentation system for safety-of-life civil aviation applications in India has been successfully completed. The system is inter-operable with other international SBAS systems like US-WAAS, European EGNOS, and Japanese MSAS etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
GAGAN GEO footprint extends from Africa to Australia and has expansion capability for seamless navigation services across the region. GAGAN provides the additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary for all phases of flight, from enroute through approach for all qualified airports within the GAGAN service volume. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Low Temperature Thermal Desalination (LTTD) technology: It is a process under which the warm surface sea water is flash evaporated at low pressure and the vapour is condensed with cold deep-sea water. LTTD technology does not require any chemical pre- and post-treatment of seawater. It is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The LTTD is a process under which the warm surface sea water is flash evaporated at low pressure and the vapour is condensed with cold deep sea water. The LTTD technology does not require any chemical pre and post-treatment of seawater and thus the pollution problems are minimal and suitable for island territories. Since no effluent treatment is required, it gives less operational maintenance problems compared to other desalination processes. Hence, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. The LTTD technology is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: D The LTTD is a process under which the warm surface sea water is flash evaporated at low pressure and the vapour is condensed with cold deep sea water. The LTTD technology does not require any chemical pre and post-treatment of seawater and thus the pollution problems are minimal and suitable for island territories. Since no effluent treatment is required, it gives less operational maintenance problems compared to other desalination processes. Hence, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. The LTTD technology is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
#### 8. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Low Temperature Thermal Desalination (LTTD) technology:
• It is a process under which the warm surface sea water is flash evaporated at low pressure and the vapour is condensed with cold deep-sea water.
• LTTD technology does not require any chemical pre- and post-treatment of seawater.
• It is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 1 only
• (c) 2 and 3 only
• (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
The LTTD is a process under which the warm surface sea water is flash evaporated at low pressure and the vapour is condensed with cold deep sea water. The LTTD technology does not require any chemical pre and post-treatment of seawater and thus the pollution problems are minimal and suitable for island territories. Since no effluent treatment is required, it gives less operational maintenance problems compared to other desalination processes. Hence, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
The LTTD technology is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Solution: D
The LTTD is a process under which the warm surface sea water is flash evaporated at low pressure and the vapour is condensed with cold deep sea water. The LTTD technology does not require any chemical pre and post-treatment of seawater and thus the pollution problems are minimal and suitable for island territories. Since no effluent treatment is required, it gives less operational maintenance problems compared to other desalination processes. Hence, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
The LTTD technology is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Retroviruses are any of a group of RNA viruses which insert a DNA copy of their genome into the host cell in order to replicate. HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is an example for retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements given above are correct. Retrovirus is a type of virus that uses RNA as its genetic material. After infecting a cell, a retrovirus uses an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA into DNA. The retrovirus then integrates its viral DNA into the DNA of the host cell, which allows the retrovirus to replicate. HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is a retrovirus. Antiretroviral drugs are medications for the treatment of infection by retroviruses, primarily HIV. Different classes of antiretroviral drugs act at different stages of the HIV life cycle. Combination of several (typically three or four) antiretroviral drugs is known as Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART). Incorrect Solution: C Both statements given above are correct. Retrovirus is a type of virus that uses RNA as its genetic material. After infecting a cell, a retrovirus uses an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA into DNA. The retrovirus then integrates its viral DNA into the DNA of the host cell, which allows the retrovirus to replicate. HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is a retrovirus. Antiretroviral drugs are medications for the treatment of infection by retroviruses, primarily HIV. Different classes of antiretroviral drugs act at different stages of the HIV life cycle. Combination of several (typically three or four) antiretroviral drugs is known as Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART).
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements:
• Retroviruses are any of a group of RNA viruses which insert a DNA copy of their genome into the host cell in order to replicate.
• HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is an example for retrovirus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Both statements given above are correct.
Retrovirus is a type of virus that uses RNA as its genetic material. After infecting a cell, a retrovirus uses an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA into DNA. The retrovirus then integrates its viral DNA into the DNA of the host cell, which allows the retrovirus to replicate. HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is a retrovirus.
Antiretroviral drugs are medications for the treatment of infection by retroviruses, primarily HIV.
Different classes of antiretroviral drugs act at different stages of the HIV life cycle.
Combination of several (typically three or four) antiretroviral drugs is known as Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART).
Solution: C
Both statements given above are correct.
Retrovirus is a type of virus that uses RNA as its genetic material. After infecting a cell, a retrovirus uses an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA into DNA. The retrovirus then integrates its viral DNA into the DNA of the host cell, which allows the retrovirus to replicate. HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is a retrovirus.
Antiretroviral drugs are medications for the treatment of infection by retroviruses, primarily HIV.
Different classes of antiretroviral drugs act at different stages of the HIV life cycle.
Combination of several (typically three or four) antiretroviral drugs is known as Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART).
• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Senescent cells: It is a type of stem cells. It produces high number of nucleotides that builds DNA Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Both the statements are incorrect. Senescent cells are the opposite of stem cells, they can never divide again. New research finds that ageing, senescent cells stop producing nucleotides, the building block of DNA. When young cells were prevented from producing nucleotides, the cells became senescent. Incorrect Solution: D Both the statements are incorrect. Senescent cells are the opposite of stem cells, they can never divide again. New research finds that ageing, senescent cells stop producing nucleotides, the building block of DNA. When young cells were prevented from producing nucleotides, the cells became senescent.
#### 10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Senescent cells:
• It is a type of stem cells.
• It produces high number of nucleotides that builds DNA
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Both the statements are incorrect.
Senescent cells are the opposite of stem cells, they can never divide again. New research finds that ageing, senescent cells stop producing nucleotides, the building block of DNA. When young cells were prevented from producing nucleotides, the cells became senescent.
Solution: D
Both the statements are incorrect.
Senescent cells are the opposite of stem cells, they can never divide again. New research finds that ageing, senescent cells stop producing nucleotides, the building block of DNA. When young cells were prevented from producing nucleotides, the cells became senescent.
• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Soil based Microbial Fuel Cells: These depend on electrons from bacteria to create an electric circuit. These can be used to fuel underground sensors used in green infrastructures. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C A team led by North Western University developed a new fuel cell that can harvest energy from microbes living in the soil. Instead of using chemicals to generate electricity, they harvest electricity from bacteria that naturally give out electrons to nearby conductors. These electrons flow from anodo to cathode to create an electric circuit It can last forever as long as there is organic carbon in the soil for the microbes to break down. This will generate power with the help of microbes in the soil and can potentially be used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture application The fuel is around the size of a book and can potentially be used to fuel sensors used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture. It could become a sustainable, renewable alternative to toxic chemicals that could lead into the ground when used in soil. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C A team led by North Western University developed a new fuel cell that can harvest energy from microbes living in the soil. Instead of using chemicals to generate electricity, they harvest electricity from bacteria that naturally give out electrons to nearby conductors. These electrons flow from anodo to cathode to create an electric circuit It can last forever as long as there is organic carbon in the soil for the microbes to break down. This will generate power with the help of microbes in the soil and can potentially be used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture application The fuel is around the size of a book and can potentially be used to fuel sensors used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture. It could become a sustainable, renewable alternative to toxic chemicals that could lead into the ground when used in soil. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct
#### 11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Soil based Microbial Fuel Cells:
• These depend on electrons from bacteria to create an electric circuit.
• These can be used to fuel underground sensors used in green infrastructures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
• A team led by North Western University developed a new fuel cell that can harvest energy from microbes living in the soil.
• Instead of using chemicals to generate electricity, they harvest electricity from bacteria that naturally give out electrons to nearby conductors.
• These electrons flow from anodo to cathode to create an electric circuit
• It can last forever as long as there is organic carbon in the soil for the microbes to break down.
• This will generate power with the help of microbes in the soil and can potentially be used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture application
• The fuel is around the size of a book and can potentially be used to fuel sensors used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture.
• It could become a sustainable, renewable alternative to toxic chemicals that could lead into the ground when used in soil.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct
Solution: C
• A team led by North Western University developed a new fuel cell that can harvest energy from microbes living in the soil.
• Instead of using chemicals to generate electricity, they harvest electricity from bacteria that naturally give out electrons to nearby conductors.
• These electrons flow from anodo to cathode to create an electric circuit
• It can last forever as long as there is organic carbon in the soil for the microbes to break down.
• This will generate power with the help of microbes in the soil and can potentially be used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture application
• The fuel is around the size of a book and can potentially be used to fuel sensors used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture.
• It could become a sustainable, renewable alternative to toxic chemicals that could lead into the ground when used in soil.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct
• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Liquefied Natural Gas is a mixture of methane and hydrocarbons. LNG is used as a Marine fuel due to lower emission of sulphur oxides compared to traditional Marine fuels. The first ever Small Scale Liquefied Natural Gas (SSLNG) unit of India has been set up by Oil India Limited. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: D The major component of natural gas is methane which typically accounts for 70% to 90% of its composition Natural gas also contains small number of other hydrocarbons including ethane, propane and butane. Liquefied natural gas is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state about -162°C, to make it easier and safer to store and transport Hence statement 1 is correct LNG has several applications including as a fuel for trucks, buses and other vehicles offering reduced emissions of Nitrogen oxides, particulate matter and other Greenhouse gases compared to diesel. LNG is increasingly used as a fuel for ships and vessels, especially in emission-controlled areas due to its lower emissions of sulphur oxides and particulate matter compared to traditional Marine fuels. Hence statement 2 is correct Recently, the Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas inaugurated India’s first Small Scale Liquefied Natural Gas unit at GAIL India Limited’s Vijaypur complex in Madhya Pradesh. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The major component of natural gas is methane which typically accounts for 70% to 90% of its composition Natural gas also contains small number of other hydrocarbons including ethane, propane and butane. Liquefied natural gas is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state about -162°C, to make it easier and safer to store and transport Hence statement 1 is correct LNG has several applications including as a fuel for trucks, buses and other vehicles offering reduced emissions of Nitrogen oxides, particulate matter and other Greenhouse gases compared to diesel. LNG is increasingly used as a fuel for ships and vessels, especially in emission-controlled areas due to its lower emissions of sulphur oxides and particulate matter compared to traditional Marine fuels. Hence statement 2 is correct Recently, the Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas inaugurated India’s first Small Scale Liquefied Natural Gas unit at GAIL India Limited’s Vijaypur complex in Madhya Pradesh. Hence statement 3 is incorrect
#### 12. Question
Consider the following statements:
• Liquefied Natural Gas is a mixture of methane and hydrocarbons.
• LNG is used as a Marine fuel due to lower emission of sulphur oxides compared to traditional Marine fuels.
• The first ever Small Scale Liquefied Natural Gas (SSLNG) unit of India has been set up by Oil India Limited.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 3 only
• (c) 1, 2 and 3
• (d) 1 and 2 only
Solution: D
• The major component of natural gas is methane which typically accounts for 70% to 90% of its composition
• Natural gas also contains small number of other hydrocarbons including ethane, propane and butane.
• Liquefied natural gas is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state about -162°C, to make it easier and safer to store and transport
Hence statement 1 is correct
• LNG has several applications including as a fuel for trucks, buses and other vehicles offering reduced emissions of Nitrogen oxides, particulate matter and other Greenhouse gases compared to diesel.
• LNG is increasingly used as a fuel for ships and vessels, especially in emission-controlled areas due to its lower emissions of sulphur oxides and particulate matter compared to traditional Marine fuels.
Hence statement 2 is correct
• Recently, the Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas inaugurated India’s first Small Scale Liquefied Natural Gas unit at GAIL India Limited’s Vijaypur complex in Madhya Pradesh.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect
Solution: D
• The major component of natural gas is methane which typically accounts for 70% to 90% of its composition
• Natural gas also contains small number of other hydrocarbons including ethane, propane and butane.
• Liquefied natural gas is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state about -162°C, to make it easier and safer to store and transport
Hence statement 1 is correct
• LNG has several applications including as a fuel for trucks, buses and other vehicles offering reduced emissions of Nitrogen oxides, particulate matter and other Greenhouse gases compared to diesel.
• LNG is increasingly used as a fuel for ships and vessels, especially in emission-controlled areas due to its lower emissions of sulphur oxides and particulate matter compared to traditional Marine fuels.
Hence statement 2 is correct
• Recently, the Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas inaugurated India’s first Small Scale Liquefied Natural Gas unit at GAIL India Limited’s Vijaypur complex in Madhya Pradesh.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect
• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points The First ever Nuclear Energy Summit was Organised in 2024 by: (a) International Atomic Energy Agency (b) International Renewable Energy Agency (c) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (d) International Energy Agency Correct Solution: A The first Global Nuclear Energy Summit was jointly organised by the International Atomic Energy Agency and Belgium to promote nuclear energy. The Summit was attended by more than 30 Nations including India and European Union. It was organised in the wake of historic inclusion of nuclear energy in the Global stocktake agreed at the UN climate change conference 2023. Inclusion in globalstock called for accelerating its deployment. Currently nuclear energy is responsible for around 25% of global low carbon electricity production. The International Atomic Energy Association is an autonomous International Organisation within the United Nations system; it works with member states and partners worldwide to promote safe, secure and peaceful nuclear Technology. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution: A The first Global Nuclear Energy Summit was jointly organised by the International Atomic Energy Agency and Belgium to promote nuclear energy. The Summit was attended by more than 30 Nations including India and European Union. It was organised in the wake of historic inclusion of nuclear energy in the Global stocktake agreed at the UN climate change conference 2023. Inclusion in globalstock called for accelerating its deployment. Currently nuclear energy is responsible for around 25% of global low carbon electricity production. The International Atomic Energy Association is an autonomous International Organisation within the United Nations system; it works with member states and partners worldwide to promote safe, secure and peaceful nuclear Technology. Hence option A is correct
#### 13. Question
The First ever Nuclear Energy Summit was Organised in 2024 by:
• (a) International Atomic Energy Agency
• (b) International Renewable Energy Agency
• (c) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
• (d) International Energy Agency
Solution: A
• The first Global Nuclear Energy Summit was jointly organised by the International Atomic Energy Agency and Belgium to promote nuclear energy.
• The Summit was attended by more than 30 Nations including India and European Union.
• It was organised in the wake of historic inclusion of nuclear energy in the Global stocktake agreed at the UN climate change conference 2023.
• Inclusion in globalstock called for accelerating its deployment.
• Currently nuclear energy is responsible for around 25% of global low carbon electricity production.
• The International Atomic Energy Association is an autonomous International Organisation within the United Nations system; it works with member states and partners worldwide to promote safe, secure and peaceful nuclear Technology.
Hence option A is correct
Solution: A
• The first Global Nuclear Energy Summit was jointly organised by the International Atomic Energy Agency and Belgium to promote nuclear energy.
• The Summit was attended by more than 30 Nations including India and European Union.
• It was organised in the wake of historic inclusion of nuclear energy in the Global stocktake agreed at the UN climate change conference 2023.
• Inclusion in globalstock called for accelerating its deployment.
• Currently nuclear energy is responsible for around 25% of global low carbon electricity production.
• The International Atomic Energy Association is an autonomous International Organisation within the United Nations system; it works with member states and partners worldwide to promote safe, secure and peaceful nuclear Technology.
Hence option A is correct
• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Unlike Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors, Fast Breeder Reactors (FBR) use neutrons with high kinetic energy for fission reaction. FBRs employ a mixture of Uranium and Plutonium as fuel for the reaction. FBRs are envisaged as means of full utilisation of Thorium reserves of India. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors are fuelled by natural Uranium to generate electricity; plutonium is generated as a by product which is extracted to create a Uranium -Plutonium mixed oxide fuel; this is subsequently used as a fuel for Fast Breeder Reactor. The word Fast comes from the fact that FBRs use fast neutrons for the fission reaction instead of slow neutrons traditionally employed by PHWRs. Fast neutron is a free neutron with high kinetic energy level of 1MeV; while slow neutrons are those with low kinetic energy typically below 1 electron volt. In FRBs, The Uranium 238 blanket surrounding the fuel core will undergo nuclear transmutation to produce more fuel, thus earning the name breeder The use of Thorium 232 which in itself is not a fissile material, as a blanket, is also envisaged in this second stage By transmutation Thorium will create fissile Uranium 233 which will be used as a fuel in the third stage nuclear program of India. FBR is thus a stepping stone for the third stage of the nuclear program of India paving the way for eventual full utilisation of abundant Thorium Reserves of the country. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors are fuelled by natural Uranium to generate electricity; plutonium is generated as a by product which is extracted to create a Uranium -Plutonium mixed oxide fuel; this is subsequently used as a fuel for Fast Breeder Reactor. The word Fast comes from the fact that FBRs use fast neutrons for the fission reaction instead of slow neutrons traditionally employed by PHWRs. Fast neutron is a free neutron with high kinetic energy level of 1MeV; while slow neutrons are those with low kinetic energy typically below 1 electron volt. In FRBs, The Uranium 238 blanket surrounding the fuel core will undergo nuclear transmutation to produce more fuel, thus earning the name breeder The use of Thorium 232 which in itself is not a fissile material, as a blanket, is also envisaged in this second stage By transmutation Thorium will create fissile Uranium 233 which will be used as a fuel in the third stage nuclear program of India. FBR is thus a stepping stone for the third stage of the nuclear program of India paving the way for eventual full utilisation of abundant Thorium Reserves of the country. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct
#### 14. Question
Consider the following statements:
• Unlike Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors, Fast Breeder Reactors (FBR) use neutrons with high kinetic energy for fission reaction.
• FBRs employ a mixture of Uranium and Plutonium as fuel for the reaction.
• FBRs are envisaged as means of full utilisation of Thorium reserves of India.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: C
• Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors are fuelled by natural Uranium to generate electricity; plutonium is generated as a by product which is extracted to create a Uranium -Plutonium mixed oxide fuel; this is subsequently used as a fuel for Fast Breeder Reactor.
• The word Fast comes from the fact that FBRs use fast neutrons for the fission reaction instead of slow neutrons traditionally employed by PHWRs.
• Fast neutron is a free neutron with high kinetic energy level of 1MeV; while slow neutrons are those with low kinetic energy typically below 1 electron volt.
• In FRBs, The Uranium 238 blanket surrounding the fuel core will undergo nuclear transmutation to produce more fuel, thus earning the name breeder
• The use of Thorium 232 which in itself is not a fissile material, as a blanket, is also envisaged in this second stage
• By transmutation Thorium will create fissile Uranium 233 which will be used as a fuel in the third stage nuclear program of India.
• FBR is thus a stepping stone for the third stage of the nuclear program of India paving the way for eventual full utilisation of abundant Thorium Reserves of the country.
Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Solution: C
• Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors are fuelled by natural Uranium to generate electricity; plutonium is generated as a by product which is extracted to create a Uranium -Plutonium mixed oxide fuel; this is subsequently used as a fuel for Fast Breeder Reactor.
• The word Fast comes from the fact that FBRs use fast neutrons for the fission reaction instead of slow neutrons traditionally employed by PHWRs.
• Fast neutron is a free neutron with high kinetic energy level of 1MeV; while slow neutrons are those with low kinetic energy typically below 1 electron volt.
• In FRBs, The Uranium 238 blanket surrounding the fuel core will undergo nuclear transmutation to produce more fuel, thus earning the name breeder
• The use of Thorium 232 which in itself is not a fissile material, as a blanket, is also envisaged in this second stage
• By transmutation Thorium will create fissile Uranium 233 which will be used as a fuel in the third stage nuclear program of India.
• FBR is thus a stepping stone for the third stage of the nuclear program of India paving the way for eventual full utilisation of abundant Thorium Reserves of the country.
Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct
• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to the Anusandhan National Research Foundation: It is a statutory body chaired by the Prime Minister of India. The Science and Engineering Research Board has been subsumed into ANRF. Under the Early Career Research Grant, ANRF will provide grant of upto Rs 60 lakhs for a period of 3 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The Anusandhan National Research Foundation has been established with the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act 2023. It aims to promote research and development and foster a culture of research and innovation throughout universities, colleges and laboratories in the country. It will act as an Apex body to provide high level strategic direction of scientific research under recommendations of the National Education Policy. Under the guidance of Prime Minister, the president of its governing Board, the foundation is set to commence several new initiatives to string them Research and innovation ecosystem in the country. With establishment of ANRF, the Science and Engineering Research Board established by an act of parliament in 2008 has been subsumed into ANRF. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct ANRF is initiating Prime Minister’s Early Career Research Grant to assist researchers to initiate their research career in a new institution with a flexible budget and progressive initiatives for ease of doing research Under it research grant of upto Rs 60 lakhs plus overheads for a period of 3 years will be provided. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: D The Anusandhan National Research Foundation has been established with the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act 2023. It aims to promote research and development and foster a culture of research and innovation throughout universities, colleges and laboratories in the country. It will act as an Apex body to provide high level strategic direction of scientific research under recommendations of the National Education Policy. Under the guidance of Prime Minister, the president of its governing Board, the foundation is set to commence several new initiatives to string them Research and innovation ecosystem in the country. With establishment of ANRF, the Science and Engineering Research Board established by an act of parliament in 2008 has been subsumed into ANRF. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct ANRF is initiating Prime Minister’s Early Career Research Grant to assist researchers to initiate their research career in a new institution with a flexible budget and progressive initiatives for ease of doing research Under it research grant of upto Rs 60 lakhs plus overheads for a period of 3 years will be provided. Hence statement 3 is correct
#### 15. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Anusandhan National Research Foundation:
• It is a statutory body chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
• The Science and Engineering Research Board has been subsumed into ANRF.
• Under the Early Career Research Grant, ANRF will provide grant of upto Rs 60 lakhs for a period of 3 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 and 3 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) 1 and 2 only
• (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
• The Anusandhan National Research Foundation has been established with the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act 2023.
• It aims to promote research and development and foster a culture of research and innovation throughout universities, colleges and laboratories in the country.
• It will act as an Apex body to provide high level strategic direction of scientific research under recommendations of the National Education Policy.
• Under the guidance of Prime Minister, the president of its governing Board, the foundation is set to commence several new initiatives to string them Research and innovation ecosystem in the country.
• With establishment of ANRF, the Science and Engineering Research Board established by an act of parliament in 2008 has been subsumed into ANRF.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct
• ANRF is initiating Prime Minister’s Early Career Research Grant to assist researchers to initiate their research career in a new institution with a flexible budget and progressive initiatives for ease of doing research
• Under it research grant of upto Rs 60 lakhs plus overheads for a period of 3 years will be provided.
Hence statement 3 is correct
Solution: D
• The Anusandhan National Research Foundation has been established with the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act 2023.
• It aims to promote research and development and foster a culture of research and innovation throughout universities, colleges and laboratories in the country.
• It will act as an Apex body to provide high level strategic direction of scientific research under recommendations of the National Education Policy.
• Under the guidance of Prime Minister, the president of its governing Board, the foundation is set to commence several new initiatives to string them Research and innovation ecosystem in the country.
• With establishment of ANRF, the Science and Engineering Research Board established by an act of parliament in 2008 has been subsumed into ANRF.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct
• ANRF is initiating Prime Minister’s Early Career Research Grant to assist researchers to initiate their research career in a new institution with a flexible budget and progressive initiatives for ease of doing research
• Under it research grant of upto Rs 60 lakhs plus overheads for a period of 3 years will be provided.
Hence statement 3 is correct
• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Small Reactors: Bharat Small Reactors (BSRs) are an upgrade of India’s existing 220 MW Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR) technology. Unlike Small Modular Reactors (SMRs), BSRs are factory-fabricated and designed for rapid on-site assembly to reduce construction time. The deployment of around 40–50 BSRs is expected to add approximately 10 GW to India’s nuclear power capacity in the coming decade. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B BSRs are based on proven 220 MW PHWR designs, like those used at Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) in Kalpakkam. These are being upgraded and repurposed for use as captive power plants in industries and to support India’s clean energy goals. (Hence statement 1 is correct) BSR are *not factory-built or modular; they are conventional site-built PHWRs. SMRs, like those gaining traction globally, are the ones fabricated in factories and assembled on-site. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Each BSR = ~220 MW → 40–50 reactors would generate ~10–11 GW. This aligns with India’s energy transition goals and net-zero targets by 2070. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Incorrect Solution: B BSRs are based on proven 220 MW PHWR designs, like those used at Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) in Kalpakkam. These are being upgraded and repurposed for use as captive power plants in industries and to support India’s clean energy goals. (Hence statement 1 is correct) BSR are not factory-built or modular; they are conventional site-built PHWRs. SMRs, like those gaining traction globally, are the ones fabricated in factories and assembled on-site. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Each BSR = ~220 MW → 40–50 reactors would generate ~10–11 GW. This aligns with India’s energy transition goals and net-zero targets by 2070. (Hence statement 3 is correct*)
#### 16. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Small Reactors:
• Bharat Small Reactors (BSRs) are an upgrade of India’s existing 220 MW Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR) technology.
• Unlike Small Modular Reactors (SMRs), BSRs are factory-fabricated and designed for rapid on-site assembly to reduce construction time.
• The deployment of around 40–50 BSRs is expected to add approximately 10 GW to India’s nuclear power capacity in the coming decade.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: B
• BSRs are based on proven 220 MW PHWR designs, like those used at Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) in Kalpakkam.
• These are being upgraded and repurposed for use as captive power plants in industries and to support India’s clean energy goals. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• BSR are *not factory-built* or modular; they are conventional site-built PHWRs.
• SMRs, like those gaining traction globally, are the ones fabricated in factories and assembled on-site. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
• Each BSR = ~220 MW → 40–50 reactors would generate ~10–11 GW.
• This aligns with India’s energy transition goals and net-zero targets by 2070. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Solution: B
• BSRs are based on proven 220 MW PHWR designs, like those used at Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) in Kalpakkam.
• These are being upgraded and repurposed for use as captive power plants in industries and to support India’s clean energy goals. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• BSR are *not factory-built* or modular; they are conventional site-built PHWRs.
• SMRs, like those gaining traction globally, are the ones fabricated in factories and assembled on-site. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
• Each BSR = ~220 MW → 40–50 reactors would generate ~10–11 GW.
• This aligns with India’s energy transition goals and net-zero targets by 2070. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Tribo- Electric Nanogenerator Technology: It is associated with generation of electricity from human motion. It can feature GPS technology for real time tracking of individuals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Recently IIT Indore has developed advanced footwear for the armed forces integrating Tribo- Electric Nanogenerator Technology that generates electricity from human motion The Tribo-electric nanogenerators are devices capable of converting mechanical movement into electrical energy. This innovation powers small electronic devices and features GPS and RFID Technology for real time tracking of soldiers, enhancing safety and operational efficiency These shoes have potential application in tracking old people, in industrial setups, athletic sectors, offering benefits like Location tracking and performance analysis of individuals. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Recently IIT Indore has developed advanced footwear for the armed forces integrating Tribo- Electric Nanogenerator Technology that generates electricity from human motion The Tribo-electric nanogenerators are devices capable of converting mechanical movement into electrical energy. This innovation powers small electronic devices and features GPS and RFID Technology for real time tracking of soldiers, enhancing safety and operational efficiency These shoes have potential application in tracking old people, in industrial setups, athletic sectors, offering benefits like Location tracking and performance analysis of individuals. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct
#### 17. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Tribo- Electric Nanogenerator Technology:
• It is associated with generation of electricity from human motion.
• It can feature GPS technology for real time tracking of individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
• Recently IIT Indore has developed advanced footwear for the armed forces integrating Tribo- Electric Nanogenerator Technology that generates electricity from human motion
• The Tribo-electric nanogenerators are devices capable of converting mechanical movement into electrical energy.
• This innovation powers small electronic devices and features GPS and RFID Technology for real time tracking of soldiers, enhancing safety and operational efficiency
• These shoes have potential application in tracking old people, in industrial setups, athletic sectors, offering benefits like Location tracking and performance analysis of individuals.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct
Solution: C
• Recently IIT Indore has developed advanced footwear for the armed forces integrating Tribo- Electric Nanogenerator Technology that generates electricity from human motion
• The Tribo-electric nanogenerators are devices capable of converting mechanical movement into electrical energy.
• This innovation powers small electronic devices and features GPS and RFID Technology for real time tracking of soldiers, enhancing safety and operational efficiency
• These shoes have potential application in tracking old people, in industrial setups, athletic sectors, offering benefits like Location tracking and performance analysis of individuals.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct
• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points The term Tokamak is sometimes seen in news; which of the following best describes it? (a) A reaction to increase half life of radioactive materials (b) A machine to convert non-radioactive elements to radioactive ones through artificial transmutation process (c) A nuclear reactor designed to produce recyclable nuclear waste (d) An experimental machine designed to harness the energy of fusion reaction Correct Solution: D The Tokamak is designed as an experimental machine designed to harness the energy of fusion; inside a Tokamak, a fusion plasma is created and confined by strong magnetic fields. The energy produced through the fusion of atoms in the plasma is absorbed as heat in the walls of the vessel. Just like a conventional power plant, a fusion Power plant will use this heat to produce steam and then electricity by way of turbines and generators. The heart of a Tokamak is a doughnut shaped vacuum chamber. Inside, under the influence of extreme heat and pressure, a gaseous hydrogen fuel becomes a plasma- a hot electrically charged gas. In a star, as in a fusion device, plasmas provide the environment in which light elements can fuse and yield energy. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D The Tokamak is designed as an experimental machine designed to harness the energy of fusion; inside a Tokamak, a fusion plasma is created and confined by strong magnetic fields. The energy produced through the fusion of atoms in the plasma is absorbed as heat in the walls of the vessel. Just like a conventional power plant, a fusion Power plant will use this heat to produce steam and then electricity by way of turbines and generators. The heart of a Tokamak is a doughnut shaped vacuum chamber. Inside, under the influence of extreme heat and pressure, a gaseous hydrogen fuel becomes a plasma- a hot electrically charged gas. In a star, as in a fusion device, plasmas provide the environment in which light elements can fuse and yield energy. Hence option D is correct
#### 18. Question
The term Tokamak is sometimes seen in news; which of the following best describes it?
• (a) A reaction to increase half life of radioactive materials
• (b) A machine to convert non-radioactive elements to radioactive ones through artificial transmutation process
• (c) A nuclear reactor designed to produce recyclable nuclear waste
• (d) An experimental machine designed to harness the energy of fusion reaction
Solution: D
• The Tokamak is designed as an experimental machine designed to harness the energy of fusion; inside a Tokamak, a fusion plasma is created and confined by strong magnetic fields.
• The energy produced through the fusion of atoms in the plasma is absorbed as heat in the walls of the vessel.
• Just like a conventional power plant, a fusion Power plant will use this heat to produce steam and then electricity by way of turbines and generators.
• The heart of a Tokamak is a doughnut shaped vacuum chamber.
• Inside, under the influence of extreme heat and pressure, a gaseous hydrogen fuel becomes a plasma- a hot electrically charged gas.
• In a star, as in a fusion device, plasmas provide the environment in which light elements can fuse and yield energy.
Hence option D is correct
Solution: D
• The Tokamak is designed as an experimental machine designed to harness the energy of fusion; inside a Tokamak, a fusion plasma is created and confined by strong magnetic fields.
• The energy produced through the fusion of atoms in the plasma is absorbed as heat in the walls of the vessel.
• Just like a conventional power plant, a fusion Power plant will use this heat to produce steam and then electricity by way of turbines and generators.
• The heart of a Tokamak is a doughnut shaped vacuum chamber.
• Inside, under the influence of extreme heat and pressure, a gaseous hydrogen fuel becomes a plasma- a hot electrically charged gas.
• In a star, as in a fusion device, plasmas provide the environment in which light elements can fuse and yield energy.
Hence option D is correct
• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: In a Gravity Energy Storage system electrical energy is converted into gravitational potential energy. Statement – II: Gravity Energy Storage system works by lifting of heavy mass during periods of excess energy generation and releasing it during rise in energy demand. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: A In a gravity energy storage system, electrical energy is converted into gravitational potential energy by lifting a heavy (like water, concrete block or compressed earth blocks) to a higher position. When there is excess electrical energy typically from Renewable sources like wind or solar, it is used to lift heavy mass against gravity; this lifting process stores energy as gravitational potential energy. When energy demand rises, the mass is released, descending to drive water through a turbine generating electricity. This system is profitable as it lasts for decades with minimal maintenance compared to battery system; also, it is environmentally friendly as no harmful chemical is used. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution: A In a gravity energy storage system, electrical energy is converted into gravitational potential energy by lifting a heavy (like water, concrete block or compressed earth blocks) to a higher position. When there is excess electrical energy typically from Renewable sources like wind or solar, it is used to lift heavy mass against gravity; this lifting process stores energy as gravitational potential energy. When energy demand rises, the mass is released, descending to drive water through a turbine generating electricity. This system is profitable as it lasts for decades with minimal maintenance compared to battery system; also, it is environmentally friendly as no harmful chemical is used. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1
#### 19. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement – I:
In a Gravity Energy Storage system electrical energy is converted into gravitational potential energy.
Statement – II:
Gravity Energy Storage system works by lifting of heavy mass during periods of excess energy generation and releasing it during rise in energy demand.
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I
• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I
• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect
• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct
Solution: A
• In a gravity energy storage system, electrical energy is converted into gravitational potential energy by lifting a heavy (like water, concrete block or compressed earth blocks) to a higher position.
• When there is excess electrical energy typically from Renewable sources like wind or solar, it is used to lift heavy mass against gravity; this lifting process stores energy as gravitational potential energy.
• When energy demand rises, the mass is released, descending to drive water through a turbine generating electricity.
• This system is profitable as it lasts for decades with minimal maintenance compared to battery system; also, it is environmentally friendly as no harmful chemical is used.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1
Solution: A
• In a gravity energy storage system, electrical energy is converted into gravitational potential energy by lifting a heavy (like water, concrete block or compressed earth blocks) to a higher position.
• When there is excess electrical energy typically from Renewable sources like wind or solar, it is used to lift heavy mass against gravity; this lifting process stores energy as gravitational potential energy.
• When energy demand rises, the mass is released, descending to drive water through a turbine generating electricity.
• This system is profitable as it lasts for decades with minimal maintenance compared to battery system; also, it is environmentally friendly as no harmful chemical is used.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1
• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Zinc air batteries rely on atmospheric Oxygen for generating energy. Unlike lithium-ion batteries, zinc air batteries are rechargeable and can only be used in electric vehicles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Zinc air batteries utilise zinc as the anode and oxygen from air as the cathode to generate energy. This type of battery is known for high energy density which makes it an attractive option for various applications including hearing aids and other small electronic devices. Hence statement 1 is correct Zinc air batteries are more environment friendly and lighter due to usage of air; But these are non rechargeable unlike lithium-ion battery that can be recharged. Zinc air batteries are typically single use ones and can be used in hearing aids, military devices while lithium-ion batteries are rechargeable and are used in smartphones and electric vehicles. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Zinc air batteries utilise zinc as the anode and oxygen from air as the cathode to generate energy. This type of battery is known for high energy density which makes it an attractive option for various applications including hearing aids and other small electronic devices. Hence statement 1 is correct Zinc air batteries are more environment friendly and lighter due to usage of air; But these are non rechargeable unlike lithium-ion battery that can be recharged. Zinc air batteries are typically single use ones and can be used in hearing aids, military devices while lithium-ion batteries are rechargeable and are used in smartphones and electric vehicles. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
#### 20. Question
Consider the following statements:
• Zinc air batteries rely on atmospheric Oxygen for generating energy.
• Unlike lithium-ion batteries, zinc air batteries are rechargeable and can only be used in electric vehicles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
• Zinc air batteries utilise zinc as the anode and oxygen from air as the cathode to generate energy.
• This type of battery is known for high energy density which makes it an attractive option for various applications including hearing aids and other small electronic devices.
Hence statement 1 is correct
• Zinc air batteries are more environment friendly and lighter due to usage of air;
• But these are non rechargeable unlike lithium-ion battery that can be recharged.
• Zinc air batteries are typically single use ones and can be used in hearing aids, military devices while lithium-ion batteries are rechargeable and are used in smartphones and electric vehicles.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
Solution: A
• Zinc air batteries utilise zinc as the anode and oxygen from air as the cathode to generate energy.
• This type of battery is known for high energy density which makes it an attractive option for various applications including hearing aids and other small electronic devices.
Hence statement 1 is correct
• Zinc air batteries are more environment friendly and lighter due to usage of air;
• But these are non rechargeable unlike lithium-ion battery that can be recharged.
• Zinc air batteries are typically single use ones and can be used in hearing aids, military devices while lithium-ion batteries are rechargeable and are used in smartphones and electric vehicles.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Bio-RIDE Scheme: The scheme includes components related to both research & development and industrial entrepreneurship in the biotechnology sector. It aims to promote bio-innovation to address challenges in sectors like healthcare, clean energy, and agriculture. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Bio-RIDE Scheme: Objective: The scheme aims to foster innovation, promote bio-entrepreneurship, and position India as a global leader in biotechnology and biomanufacturing. It seeks to bridge the gap between academic research and industrial application, accelerating innovation and translational research. Components: Biotechnology Research and Development (R&D) Industrial and Entrepreneurship Development (I&ED) Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry (a new component added under this unified scheme) (Hence, Statement 1 is correct) Focus Areas: The scheme targets national and global challenges in healthcare, agriculture, clean energy, and environmental sustainability through bio-innovation. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct) Implementation & Funding: The scheme is not implemented by the Ministry of Environment, but by the Department of Biotechnology, under the Ministry of Science and Technology. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect) Outlay: ₹9197 crore has been allocated under the 15th Finance Commission period (2021–2026). https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2056001 Incorrect Solution: B Bio-RIDE Scheme: Objective: The scheme aims to foster innovation, promote bio-entrepreneurship, and position India as a global leader in biotechnology and biomanufacturing. It seeks to bridge the gap between academic research and industrial application, accelerating innovation and translational research. Components: Biotechnology Research and Development (R&D) Industrial and Entrepreneurship Development (I&ED) Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry (a new component added under this unified scheme) (Hence, Statement 1 is correct) Focus Areas: The scheme targets national and global challenges in healthcare, agriculture, clean energy, and environmental sustainability through bio-innovation. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct) Implementation & Funding: The scheme is not implemented by the Ministry of Environment, but by the Department of Biotechnology, under the Ministry of Science and Technology. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect) Outlay: ₹9197 crore has been allocated under the 15th Finance Commission period (2021–2026). https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2056001
#### 21. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Bio-RIDE Scheme:
• The scheme includes components related to both research & development and industrial entrepreneurship in the biotechnology sector.
• It aims to promote bio-innovation to address challenges in sectors like healthcare, clean energy, and agriculture.
• The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: B
Bio-RIDE Scheme:
• Objective: The scheme aims to foster innovation, promote bio-entrepreneurship, and position India as a global leader in biotechnology and biomanufacturing.
• It seeks to bridge the gap between academic research and industrial application, accelerating innovation and translational research.
• Components: Biotechnology Research and Development (R&D) Industrial and Entrepreneurship Development (I&ED) Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry (a new component added under this unified scheme) (Hence, Statement 1 is correct)
• Biotechnology Research and Development (R&D)
• Industrial and Entrepreneurship Development (I&ED)
• Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry (a new component added under this unified scheme) (Hence, Statement 1 is correct)
• Focus Areas: The scheme targets national and global challenges in healthcare, agriculture, clean energy, and environmental sustainability through bio-innovation. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct)
• Implementation & Funding: The scheme is not implemented by the Ministry of Environment, but by the Department of Biotechnology, under the Ministry of Science and Technology. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect)
• The scheme is not implemented by the Ministry of Environment, but by the Department of Biotechnology, under the Ministry of Science and Technology. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect)
• Outlay: ₹9197 crore has been allocated under the 15th Finance Commission period (2021–2026).
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2056001
Solution: B
Bio-RIDE Scheme:
• Objective: The scheme aims to foster innovation, promote bio-entrepreneurship, and position India as a global leader in biotechnology and biomanufacturing.
• It seeks to bridge the gap between academic research and industrial application, accelerating innovation and translational research.
• Components: Biotechnology Research and Development (R&D) Industrial and Entrepreneurship Development (I&ED) Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry (a new component added under this unified scheme) (Hence, Statement 1 is correct)
• Biotechnology Research and Development (R&D)
• Industrial and Entrepreneurship Development (I&ED)
• Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry (a new component added under this unified scheme) (Hence, Statement 1 is correct)
• Focus Areas: The scheme targets national and global challenges in healthcare, agriculture, clean energy, and environmental sustainability through bio-innovation. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct)
• Implementation & Funding: The scheme is not implemented by the Ministry of Environment, but by the Department of Biotechnology, under the Ministry of Science and Technology. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect)
• The scheme is not implemented by the Ministry of Environment, but by the Department of Biotechnology, under the Ministry of Science and Technology. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect)
• Outlay: ₹9197 crore has been allocated under the 15th Finance Commission period (2021–2026).
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2056001
• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes “Operation Sadbhav” recently seen in the news (a) A counter-insurgency operation in the northeastern states of India. (b) A military exercise conducted jointly by India and ASEAN nations. (c) A humanitarian relief operation launched by India to assist flood-hit ASEAN countries affected by Typhoon Yagi. (d) An initiative to rehabilitate internally displaced persons in Myanmar. Correct Solution: C Operation Sadbhav Objective: Operation Sadbhav is a humanitarian relief mission launched by the Government of India to support countries affected by Typhoon Yagi, particularly in Southeast Asia. Recipient Countries: India extended assistance to Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam, which were severely impacted by floods caused by the typhoon. Aid Allocation: Vietnam: Received $1 million in humanitarian assistance. Laos: Received $100,000 in relief aid. Implementation: Relief materials such as food, clothing, medicines, and water purification supplies were delivered. The Indian Navy and Air Force were deployed to transport and distribute the relief supplies. Strategic Context: The operation reflects India’s commitment to regional cooperation and its Act East Policy, which emphasizes building closer ties with ASEAN nations. It reinforces India’s role as a responsible regional actor in times of humanitarian crises. (Hence, the correct answer is C) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-sends-assistance-to-flood-hit-laos-myanmar-vietnam/article68646098.ece Incorrect Solution: C Operation Sadbhav Objective: Operation Sadbhav is a humanitarian relief mission launched by the Government of India to support countries affected by Typhoon Yagi, particularly in Southeast Asia. Recipient Countries: India extended assistance to Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam, which were severely impacted by floods caused by the typhoon. Aid Allocation: Vietnam: Received $1 million in humanitarian assistance. Laos: Received $100,000 in relief aid. Implementation: Relief materials such as food, clothing, medicines, and water purification supplies were delivered. The Indian Navy and Air Force were deployed to transport and distribute the relief supplies. Strategic Context: The operation reflects India’s commitment to regional cooperation and its Act East Policy, which emphasizes building closer ties with ASEAN nations. It reinforces India’s role as a responsible regional actor in times of humanitarian crises. (Hence, the correct answer is C) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-sends-assistance-to-flood-hit-laos-myanmar-vietnam/article68646098.ece
#### 22. Question
Which of the following best describes “Operation Sadbhav” recently seen in the news
• (a) A counter-insurgency operation in the northeastern states of India.
• (b) A military exercise conducted jointly by India and ASEAN nations.
• (c) A humanitarian relief operation launched by India to assist flood-hit ASEAN countries affected by Typhoon Yagi.
• (d) An initiative to rehabilitate internally displaced persons in Myanmar.
Solution: C
Operation Sadbhav
• Objective: Operation Sadbhav is a humanitarian relief mission launched by the Government of India to support countries affected by Typhoon Yagi, particularly in Southeast Asia.
• Recipient Countries: India extended assistance to Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam, which were severely impacted by floods caused by the typhoon.
• Aid Allocation: Vietnam: Received $1 million in humanitarian assistance. Laos: Received $100,000 in relief aid.
• Vietnam: Received $1 million in humanitarian assistance.
• Laos: Received $100,000 in relief aid.
• Implementation: Relief materials such as food, clothing, medicines, and water purification supplies were delivered. The Indian Navy and Air Force were deployed to transport and distribute the relief supplies.
• Relief materials such as food, clothing, medicines, and water purification supplies were delivered.
• The Indian Navy and Air Force were deployed to transport and distribute the relief supplies.
• Strategic Context: The operation reflects India’s commitment to regional cooperation and its Act East Policy, which emphasizes building closer ties with ASEAN nations. It reinforces India’s role as a responsible regional actor in times of humanitarian crises. (Hence, the correct answer is C)
• The operation reflects India’s commitment to regional cooperation and its Act East Policy, which emphasizes building closer ties with ASEAN nations.
• It reinforces India’s role as a responsible regional actor in times of humanitarian crises. (Hence, the correct answer is C)
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-sends-assistance-to-flood-hit-laos-myanmar-vietnam/article68646098.ece
Solution: C
Operation Sadbhav
• Objective: Operation Sadbhav is a humanitarian relief mission launched by the Government of India to support countries affected by Typhoon Yagi, particularly in Southeast Asia.
• Recipient Countries: India extended assistance to Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam, which were severely impacted by floods caused by the typhoon.
• Aid Allocation: Vietnam: Received $1 million in humanitarian assistance. Laos: Received $100,000 in relief aid.
• Vietnam: Received $1 million in humanitarian assistance.
• Laos: Received $100,000 in relief aid.
• Implementation: Relief materials such as food, clothing, medicines, and water purification supplies were delivered. The Indian Navy and Air Force were deployed to transport and distribute the relief supplies.
• Relief materials such as food, clothing, medicines, and water purification supplies were delivered.
• The Indian Navy and Air Force were deployed to transport and distribute the relief supplies.
• Strategic Context: The operation reflects India’s commitment to regional cooperation and its Act East Policy, which emphasizes building closer ties with ASEAN nations. It reinforces India’s role as a responsible regional actor in times of humanitarian crises. (Hence, the correct answer is C)
• The operation reflects India’s commitment to regional cooperation and its Act East Policy, which emphasizes building closer ties with ASEAN nations.
• It reinforces India’s role as a responsible regional actor in times of humanitarian crises. (Hence, the correct answer is C)
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-sends-assistance-to-flood-hit-laos-myanmar-vietnam/article68646098.ece
• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) indicates the total investment made in fixed assets such as infrastructure and machinery over a specified period. Statement-II: A decline in GFCF necessarily implies a reduction in a country’s GDP growth rate. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) GFCF refers to the net increase in physical assets within an economy during a specific period, typically measured as the total value of a country’s investments in fixed assets like infrastructure, machinery, tools, equipment, and buildings. It is a key component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) under the expenditure method and is used to assess how much of the new value added in the economy is being invested rather than consumed. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) GFCF is considered a measure of economic growth and development, as it reflects additions to the productive capacity of the economy. However, it is not the only determinant of GDP growth. GDP can grow even if GFCF falls, especially if other components like private consumption, government spending, or exports increase. Thus, a decline in GFCF does not necessarily imply a reduction in the GDP growth rate. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) For example, in some years, GDP growth has remained positive despite weak investment trends, supported by strong consumption demand or public spending. https://indianexpress.com/article/business/world-bank-projects-india-grow-7-per-cent-fy25-9547718/ Incorrect Solution: C Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) GFCF refers to the net increase in physical assets within an economy during a specific period, typically measured as the total value of a country’s investments in fixed assets like infrastructure, machinery, tools, equipment, and buildings. It is a key component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) under the expenditure method and is used to assess how much of the new value added in the economy is being invested rather than consumed. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) GFCF is considered a measure of economic growth and development, as it reflects additions to the productive capacity of the economy. However, it is not the only determinant of GDP growth. GDP can grow even if GFCF falls, especially if other components like private consumption, government spending, or exports increase. Thus, a decline in GFCF does not necessarily imply a reduction in the GDP growth rate. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) For example, in some years, GDP growth has remained positive despite weak investment trends, supported by strong consumption demand or public spending. https://indianexpress.com/article/business/world-bank-projects-india-grow-7-per-cent-fy25-9547718/
#### 23. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) indicates the total investment made in fixed assets such as infrastructure and machinery over a specified period.
Statement-II:
A decline in GFCF necessarily implies a reduction in a country’s GDP growth rate.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: C
Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)
• GFCF refers to the net increase in physical assets within an economy during a specific period, typically measured as the total value of a country’s investments in fixed assets like infrastructure, machinery, tools, equipment, and buildings.
• It is a key component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) under the expenditure method and is used to assess how much of the new value added in the economy is being invested rather than consumed. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)
• GFCF is considered a measure of economic growth and development, as it reflects additions to the productive capacity of the economy. However, it is not the only determinant of GDP growth.
• GDP can grow even if GFCF falls, especially if other components like private consumption, government spending, or exports increase. Thus, a decline in GFCF does not necessarily imply a reduction in the GDP growth rate. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)
• For example, in some years, GDP growth has remained positive despite weak investment trends, supported by strong consumption demand or public spending.
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/world-bank-projects-india-grow-7-per-cent-fy25-9547718/
Solution: C
Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)
• GFCF refers to the net increase in physical assets within an economy during a specific period, typically measured as the total value of a country’s investments in fixed assets like infrastructure, machinery, tools, equipment, and buildings.
• It is a key component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) under the expenditure method and is used to assess how much of the new value added in the economy is being invested rather than consumed. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)
• GFCF is considered a measure of economic growth and development, as it reflects additions to the productive capacity of the economy. However, it is not the only determinant of GDP growth.
• GDP can grow even if GFCF falls, especially if other components like private consumption, government spending, or exports increase. Thus, a decline in GFCF does not necessarily imply a reduction in the GDP growth rate. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)
• For example, in some years, GDP growth has remained positive despite weak investment trends, supported by strong consumption demand or public spending.
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/world-bank-projects-india-grow-7-per-cent-fy25-9547718/
• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the BepiColombo Mission: It is a joint mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA). One of its objectives is to study Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with solar wind. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C BepiColombo Mission: Joint Collaboration: The BepiColombo mission is a collaborative effort between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), launched in October 2018 to study the planet Mercury. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Mission Objectives: The mission aims to explore: Mercury’s surface features, geological structure, and composition Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with the solar wind, which is crucial for understanding the planet’s internal structure and space environment (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Components of the Spacecraft: Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) – developed by ESA for surface and internal studies Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO) or Mio – developed by JAXA to study the magnetic field and exosphere Scientific Significance: BepiColombo will also test aspects of Einstein’s general theory of relativity Named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and physicist who contributed to Mercury’s orbital mechanics Launch and Arrival: Launched in 2018, the spacecraft is expected to reach Mercury’s orbit in 2025, after a complex series of gravity-assist maneuvers (Earth, Venus, Mercury). https://www.nytimes.com/2024/09/07/science/mercury-images-bepicolombo.html#:~:text=A%20joint%20mission%20between%20the,problems%20with%20the%20spacecraft's%20thrusters Incorrect Solution: C BepiColombo Mission: Joint Collaboration: The BepiColombo mission is a collaborative effort between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), launched in October 2018 to study the planet Mercury. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Mission Objectives: The mission aims to explore: Mercury’s surface features, geological structure, and composition Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with the solar wind, which is crucial for understanding the planet’s internal structure and space environment (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Components of the Spacecraft: Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) – developed by ESA for surface and internal studies Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO) or Mio – developed by JAXA to study the magnetic field and exosphere Scientific Significance: BepiColombo will also test aspects of Einstein’s general theory of relativity Named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and physicist who contributed to Mercury’s orbital mechanics Launch and Arrival: Launched in 2018, the spacecraft is expected to reach Mercury’s orbit in 2025, after a complex series of gravity-assist maneuvers (Earth, Venus, Mercury). https://www.nytimes.com/2024/09/07/science/mercury-images-bepicolombo.html#:~:text=A%20joint%20mission%20between%20the,problems%20with%20the%20spacecraft's%20thrusters
#### 24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the BepiColombo Mission:
• It is a joint mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
• One of its objectives is to study Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with solar wind.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
BepiColombo Mission:
• Joint Collaboration: The BepiColombo mission is a collaborative effort between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), launched in October 2018 to study the planet Mercury. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)
• Mission Objectives: The mission aims to explore: Mercury’s surface features, geological structure, and composition Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with the solar wind, which is crucial for understanding the planet’s internal structure and space environment (Hence, statement 2 is correct)
• Mercury’s surface features, geological structure, and composition
• Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with the solar wind, which is crucial for understanding the planet’s internal structure and space environment (Hence, statement 2 is correct)
• Components of the Spacecraft: Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) – developed by ESA for surface and internal studies Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO) or Mio – developed by JAXA to study the magnetic field and exosphere
• Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) – developed by ESA for surface and internal studies
• Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO) or Mio – developed by JAXA to study the magnetic field and exosphere
• Scientific Significance: BepiColombo will also test aspects of Einstein’s general theory of relativity Named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and physicist who contributed to Mercury’s orbital mechanics
• BepiColombo will also test aspects of Einstein’s general theory of relativity
• Named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and physicist who contributed to Mercury’s orbital mechanics
• Launch and Arrival: Launched in 2018, the spacecraft is expected to reach Mercury’s orbit in 2025, after a complex series of gravity-assist maneuvers (Earth, Venus, Mercury).
https://www.nytimes.com/2024/09/07/science/mercury-images-bepicolombo.html#:~:text=A%20joint%20mission%20between%20the,problems%20with%20the%20spacecraft's%20thrusters
Solution: C
BepiColombo Mission:
• Joint Collaboration: The BepiColombo mission is a collaborative effort between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), launched in October 2018 to study the planet Mercury. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)
• Mission Objectives: The mission aims to explore: Mercury’s surface features, geological structure, and composition Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with the solar wind, which is crucial for understanding the planet’s internal structure and space environment (Hence, statement 2 is correct)
• Mercury’s surface features, geological structure, and composition
• Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with the solar wind, which is crucial for understanding the planet’s internal structure and space environment (Hence, statement 2 is correct)
• Components of the Spacecraft: Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) – developed by ESA for surface and internal studies Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO) or Mio – developed by JAXA to study the magnetic field and exosphere
• Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) – developed by ESA for surface and internal studies
• Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO) or Mio – developed by JAXA to study the magnetic field and exosphere
• Scientific Significance: BepiColombo will also test aspects of Einstein’s general theory of relativity Named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and physicist who contributed to Mercury’s orbital mechanics
• BepiColombo will also test aspects of Einstein’s general theory of relativity
• Named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and physicist who contributed to Mercury’s orbital mechanics
• Launch and Arrival: Launched in 2018, the spacecraft is expected to reach Mercury’s orbit in 2025, after a complex series of gravity-assist maneuvers (Earth, Venus, Mercury).
https://www.nytimes.com/2024/09/07/science/mercury-images-bepicolombo.html#:~:text=A%20joint%20mission%20between%20the,problems%20with%20the%20spacecraft's%20thrusters
• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Eklavya Platform has been launched to facilitate continuous professional military education for Indian Army officers. Statement-II: It is hosted by the Ministry of Education and aims to integrate military education with civilian university platforms. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Eklavya Platform: Purpose and Launch: The Eklavya Platform is a digital military education initiative launched in 2024 by the Chief of the Army Staff. It is aimed at facilitating continuous professional military education for officers in the Indian Army. The platform seeks to decongest physical training courses and encourage domain specialization, in line with evolving modern warfare needs. (Hence, Statement-I is correct) Development and Hosting: The platform is developed by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG-N), with support from the Directorate General of Information Systems. It is hosted on the Army Data Network, not by the Ministry of Education. It is not intended to integrate with civilian university platforms; instead, it provides a secure military-oriented learning ecosystem for Army personnel. (Hence, Statement-II is incorrect) Key Features: Includes a “Knowledge Highway” with access to journals, research papers, and military articles. Designed with scalable architecture to support long-term learning throughout an officer’s career. Registration is de-linked from physical course nominations, promoting a self-driven learning approach. Incorrect Solution: C Eklavya Platform: Purpose and Launch: The Eklavya Platform is a digital military education initiative launched in 2024 by the Chief of the Army Staff. It is aimed at facilitating continuous professional military education for officers in the Indian Army. The platform seeks to decongest physical training courses and encourage domain specialization, in line with evolving modern warfare needs. (Hence, Statement-I is correct) Development and Hosting: The platform is developed by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG-N), with support from the Directorate General of Information Systems. It is hosted on the Army Data Network, not by the Ministry of Education. It is not intended to integrate with civilian university platforms; instead, it provides a secure military-oriented learning ecosystem for Army personnel. (Hence, Statement-II is incorrect) Key Features: Includes a “Knowledge Highway” with access to journals, research papers, and military articles. Designed with scalable architecture to support long-term learning throughout an officer’s career. Registration is de-linked from physical course nominations, promoting a self-driven learning approach.
#### 25. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Eklavya Platform has been launched to facilitate continuous professional military education for Indian Army officers.
Statement-II: It is hosted by the Ministry of Education and aims to integrate military education with civilian university platforms.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: C
Eklavya Platform:
• Purpose and Launch: The Eklavya Platform is a digital military education initiative launched in 2024 by the Chief of the Army Staff. It is aimed at facilitating continuous professional military education for officers in the Indian Army. The platform seeks to decongest physical training courses and encourage domain specialization, in line with evolving modern warfare needs. (Hence, Statement-I is correct)
• The Eklavya Platform is a digital military education initiative launched in 2024 by the Chief of the Army Staff.
• It is aimed at facilitating continuous professional military education for officers in the Indian Army.
• The platform seeks to decongest physical training courses and encourage domain specialization, in line with evolving modern warfare needs. (Hence, Statement-I is correct)
• Development and Hosting: The platform is developed by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG-N), with support from the Directorate General of Information Systems. It is hosted on the Army Data Network, not by the Ministry of Education. It is not intended to integrate with civilian university platforms; instead, it provides a secure military-oriented learning ecosystem for Army personnel. (Hence, Statement-II is incorrect)
• The platform is developed by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG-N), with support from the Directorate General of Information Systems.
• It is hosted on the Army Data Network, not by the Ministry of Education.
• It is not intended to integrate with civilian university platforms; instead, it provides a secure military-oriented learning ecosystem for Army personnel. (Hence, Statement-II is incorrect)
• Key Features: Includes a “Knowledge Highway” with access to journals, research papers, and military articles. Designed with scalable architecture to support long-term learning throughout an officer’s career. Registration is de-linked from physical course nominations, promoting a self-driven learning approach.
• Includes a “Knowledge Highway” with access to journals, research papers, and military articles.
• Designed with scalable architecture to support long-term learning throughout an officer’s career.
• Registration is de-linked from physical course nominations, promoting a self-driven learning approach.
Solution: C
Eklavya Platform:
• Purpose and Launch: The Eklavya Platform is a digital military education initiative launched in 2024 by the Chief of the Army Staff. It is aimed at facilitating continuous professional military education for officers in the Indian Army. The platform seeks to decongest physical training courses and encourage domain specialization, in line with evolving modern warfare needs. (Hence, Statement-I is correct)
• The Eklavya Platform is a digital military education initiative launched in 2024 by the Chief of the Army Staff.
• It is aimed at facilitating continuous professional military education for officers in the Indian Army.
• The platform seeks to decongest physical training courses and encourage domain specialization, in line with evolving modern warfare needs. (Hence, Statement-I is correct)
• Development and Hosting: The platform is developed by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG-N), with support from the Directorate General of Information Systems. It is hosted on the Army Data Network, not by the Ministry of Education. It is not intended to integrate with civilian university platforms; instead, it provides a secure military-oriented learning ecosystem for Army personnel. (Hence, Statement-II is incorrect)
• The platform is developed by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG-N), with support from the Directorate General of Information Systems.
• It is hosted on the Army Data Network, not by the Ministry of Education.
• It is not intended to integrate with civilian university platforms; instead, it provides a secure military-oriented learning ecosystem for Army personnel. (Hence, Statement-II is incorrect)
• Key Features: Includes a “Knowledge Highway” with access to journals, research papers, and military articles. Designed with scalable architecture to support long-term learning throughout an officer’s career. Registration is de-linked from physical course nominations, promoting a self-driven learning approach.
• Includes a “Knowledge Highway” with access to journals, research papers, and military articles.
• Designed with scalable architecture to support long-term learning throughout an officer’s career.
• Registration is de-linked from physical course nominations, promoting a self-driven learning approach.
• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points For a manifesto to succeed, it must speak to our hearts like a poem while infecting the mind with images and ideas that are dazzlingly new. It needs to open our eyes to the true causes of the bewildering, disturbing, exciting changes occurring around us, exposing the possibilities with which our current reality is pregnant. No manifesto has better succeeded in doing all this than the one published in February 1848 at 46 Liverpool Street, London. Commissioned by English revolutionaries, The Communist Manifesto (or the Manifesto of the Communist Party, as it was first published) was authored by two young Germans – Karl Marx, a 29-year-old philosopher with a taste for epicurean hedonism and Hegelian rationality, and Friedrich Engels, a 28-year-old heir to a Manchester mill. As a work of political literature, the manifesto remains unsurpassed. Its most infamous lines, including the opening one (“A spectre is haunting Europe – the spectre of communism”), have a Shakespearean quality. Like Hamlet confronted by the ghost of his slain father, the reader is compelled to wonder: “Should I conform to the prevailing order, suffering the slings and arrows of the outrageous fortune bestowed upon me by history’s irresistible forces? Or should I join these forces, taking up arms against the status quo and, by opposing it, usher in a brave new world?” For Marx and Engels’ immediate readership, this was not an academic dilemma, debated in the salons of Europe. Their manifesto was a call to action, and heeding this spectre’s invocation often meant persecution, or, in some cases, lengthy imprisonment. Today, a similar dilemma faces young people: conform to an established order that is crumbling and incapable of reproducing itself, or oppose it, at considerable personal cost, in search of new ways of working, playing and living together? Even though communist parties have disappeared almost entirely from the political scene, the spirit of communism driving the manifesto is proving hard to silence. According to the author, what makes a manifesto successful? It should make us feel inadequate for not having recognised the truths ourselves, and it must lift the curtain on the unsettling realisations. It should contain a call of action for a purpose so great that it consumes us. It should speak to our hearts and minds. a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) 3 only Correct Correct Option: A Justification: The first paragraph talks about what makes a manifesto successful. It explains that for a manifesto to be successful it should open our eyes to the realities that confront us and should speak to our hearts and minds. Hence both I and iii are correct. Thus, A is the correct option. Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: The first paragraph talks about what makes a manifesto successful. It explains that for a manifesto to be successful it should open our eyes to the realities that confront us and should speak to our hearts and minds. Hence both I and iii are correct. Thus, A is the correct option.
#### 26. Question
For a manifesto to succeed, it must speak to our hearts like a poem while infecting the mind with images and ideas that are dazzlingly new. It needs to open our eyes to the true causes of the bewildering, disturbing, exciting changes occurring around us, exposing the possibilities with which our current reality is pregnant.
No manifesto has better succeeded in doing all this than the one published in February 1848 at 46 Liverpool Street, London. Commissioned by English revolutionaries, The Communist Manifesto (or the Manifesto of the Communist Party, as it was first published) was authored by two young Germans – Karl Marx, a 29-year-old philosopher with a taste for epicurean hedonism and Hegelian rationality, and Friedrich Engels, a 28-year-old heir to a Manchester mill.
As a work of political literature, the manifesto remains unsurpassed. Its most infamous lines, including the opening one (“A spectre is haunting Europe – the spectre of communism”), have a Shakespearean quality. Like Hamlet confronted by the ghost of his slain father, the reader is compelled to wonder: “Should I conform to the prevailing order, suffering the slings and arrows of the outrageous fortune bestowed upon me by history’s irresistible forces? Or should I join these forces, taking up arms against the status quo and, by opposing it, usher in a brave new world?”
For Marx and Engels’ immediate readership, this was not an academic dilemma, debated in the salons of Europe. Their manifesto was a call to action, and heeding this spectre’s invocation often meant persecution, or, in some cases, lengthy imprisonment. Today, a similar dilemma faces young people: conform to an established order that is crumbling and incapable of reproducing itself, or oppose it, at considerable personal cost, in search of new ways of working, playing and living together? Even though communist parties have disappeared almost entirely from the political scene, the spirit of communism driving the manifesto is proving hard to silence.
According to the author, what makes a manifesto successful?
• It should make us feel inadequate for not having recognised the truths ourselves, and it must lift the curtain on the unsettling realisations. It should contain a call of action for a purpose so great that it consumes us. It should speak to our hearts and minds.
• It should make us feel inadequate for not having recognised the truths ourselves, and it must lift the curtain on the unsettling realisations.
• It should contain a call of action for a purpose so great that it consumes us.
• It should speak to our hearts and minds.
• a) 1 and 3 only
• b) 2 and 3 only
Correct Option: A
Justification:
The first paragraph talks about what makes a manifesto successful. It explains that for a manifesto to be successful it should open our eyes to the realities that confront us and should speak to our hearts and minds. Hence both I and iii are correct. Thus, A is the correct option.
Correct Option: A
Justification:
The first paragraph talks about what makes a manifesto successful. It explains that for a manifesto to be successful it should open our eyes to the realities that confront us and should speak to our hearts and minds. Hence both I and iii are correct. Thus, A is the correct option.
• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points The pie-chart given below shows total number of children who opted different courses in summer camp in Shimla. Find the average number of children who opted for Swimming, Yoga and Music a) 54 b) 60 c) 58 d) 55 Correct Correct Option: D Justification: Explanation Reqd. average = [(13 + 18 + 24) × 300]/ 100 × 3 = 55 Hence, option D is correct. Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification: Explanation Reqd. average = [(13 + 18 + 24) × 300]/ 100 × 3 = 55 Hence, option D is correct.
#### 27. Question
The pie-chart given below shows total number of children who opted different courses in summer camp in Shimla.
Find the average number of children who opted for Swimming, Yoga and Music
Correct Option: D
Justification:
Explanation
Reqd. average = [(13 + 18 + 24) × 300]/ 100 × 3
Hence, option D is correct.
Correct Option: D
Justification:
Explanation
Reqd. average = [(13 + 18 + 24) × 300]/ 100 × 3
Hence, option D is correct.
• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Present average age of A, B, C and D is 25 years. Sum of age of A and B is 150% of sum of age of C and D. Ratio of age of B to age of C is 3: 5. Calculate 10 years later age of A, if B and D are of same age. a) 45 years b) 40 years c) 35 years d) 55 years Correct Correct Option: D Justification: If average age of A, B, C and D is 25 years, then total age of A, B, C and D is 100 years. Also, if C + D = 2x Then A + B = 3x [A + B is 150% of C + D] 5x = 100 x = 20 A + B = 60 …(i) C + D = 40 …(ii) Now, in question ratio of B: C is given as 3: 5. This is also ratio of D: C, as B and D are of same age. From (ii) We can calculate C = 25 years D = 15 years Hence, B = 15 years A = 45 years 10 years later age of A is 45 + 10 = 55 years. Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification: If average age of A, B, C and D is 25 years, then total age of A, B, C and D is 100 years. Also, if C + D = 2x Then A + B = 3x [A + B is 150% of C + D] 5x = 100 x = 20 A + B = 60 …(i) C + D = 40 …(ii) Now, in question ratio of B: C is given as 3: 5. This is also ratio of D: C, as B and D are of same age. From (ii) We can calculate C = 25 years D = 15 years Hence, B = 15 years A = 45 years 10 years later age of A is 45 + 10 = 55 years.
#### 28. Question
Present average age of A, B, C and D is 25 years. Sum of age of A and B is 150% of sum of age of C and D. Ratio of age of B to age of C is 3: 5. Calculate 10 years later age of A, if B and D are of same age.
• a) 45 years
• b) 40 years
• c) 35 years
• d) 55 years
Correct Option: D
Justification:
If average age of A, B, C and D is 25 years, then total age of A, B, C and D is 100 years.
Also, if C + D = 2x
Then A + B = 3x [A + B is 150% of C + D]
A + B = 60 …(i)
C + D = 40 …(ii)
Now, in question ratio of B: C is given as 3: 5.
This is also ratio of D: C, as B and D are of same age. From (ii)
We can calculate
C = 25 years
D = 15 years
B = 15 years
A = 45 years
10 years later age of A is 45 + 10 = 55 years.
Correct Option: D
Justification:
If average age of A, B, C and D is 25 years, then total age of A, B, C and D is 100 years.
Also, if C + D = 2x
Then A + B = 3x [A + B is 150% of C + D]
A + B = 60 …(i)
C + D = 40 …(ii)
Now, in question ratio of B: C is given as 3: 5.
This is also ratio of D: C, as B and D are of same age. From (ii)
We can calculate
C = 25 years
D = 15 years
B = 15 years
A = 45 years
10 years later age of A is 45 + 10 = 55 years.
• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points The average temperature in Delhi for the first four days of the month was reported as 58 degrees. It reported as 60 degrees for 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th days. The ratio of the temperatures of 1st and 5th day was 7:8. Find the temperature on the first day. a) 42 deg. b) 56 deg. c) 63 deg. d) 68 deg. Correct Correct Option: B Justification: A+B+C+D = 584 B+C+D+E = 604 Subtract both, E – A = 8 So 8x – 7x = 8, x = 8 So temperature of A (1st day) = 7x = 78=56 deg. Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: A+B+C+D = 584 B+C+D+E = 604 Subtract both, E – A = 8 So 8x – 7x = 8, x = 8 So temperature of A (1st day) = 7x = 78=56 deg.
#### 29. Question
The average temperature in Delhi for the first four days of the month was reported as 58 degrees. It reported as 60 degrees for 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th days. The ratio of the temperatures of 1st and 5th day was 7:8. Find the temperature on the first day.
• a) 42 deg.
• b) 56 deg.
• c) 63 deg.
• d) 68 deg.
Correct Option: B
Justification:
A+B+C+D = 584 B+C+D+E = 604 Subtract both, E – A = 8 So 8x – 7x = 8, x = 8 So temperature of A (1st day) = 7x = 7*8=56 deg.
Correct Option: B
Justification:
A+B+C+D = 584 B+C+D+E = 604 Subtract both, E – A = 8 So 8x – 7x = 8, x = 8 So temperature of A (1st day) = 7x = 7*8=56 deg.
• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Out of three numbers, the first is twice the second and is half of the third. If the average of the three numbers is 56, what will be the difference between the highest no. and the lowest one? a) 70 b) 72 c) 80 d) 75 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: Let second no. = x First no. = 2x Third no. = 4x ∴ x + 2x + 4x = 56 × 3 x = 24 Difference = 3x = 72 Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: Let second no. = x First no. = 2x Third no. = 4x ∴ x + 2x + 4x = 56 × 3 x = 24 Difference = 3x = 72
#### 30. Question
Out of three numbers, the first is twice the second and is half of the third. If the average of the three numbers is 56, what will be the difference between the highest no. and the lowest one?
Correct Option: B
Justification:
Let second no. = x First no. = 2x Third no. = 4x ∴ x + 2x + 4x = 56 × 3 x = 24 Difference = 3x = 72
Correct Option: B
Justification:
Let second no. = x First no. = 2x Third no. = 4x ∴ x + 2x + 4x = 56 × 3 x = 24 Difference = 3x = 72
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