DAY – 22 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY, Subject-wise Test 14,15, 26, Textbook-based Test 18,19,20 and November 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Arctic Council works as a consensus-based body to deal with issues such as change in biodiversity, melting sea ice, plastic pollution and black carbon. Only the circumpolar countries of the Arctic region are members of the Arctic Council. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Arctic Councilis a high-level intergovernmental body set up in 1996 by the Ottawa declaration to promote cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States together with the indigenous communities and other Arctic inhabitants. The Arctic Council is the leading intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States, Arctic indigenous communities and other Arctic inhabitants on common Arctic issues, in particular on issues of sustainable development and environmental protection in the Arctic. The Arctic Council works as a consensus-based body to deal with issues such as the change in biodiversity, melting sea ice, plastic pollution and black carbon. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Council has the eight circumpolar countries.Ottawa Declaration declares Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and the United States of America as a member of the Arctic Council. Denmark represents Greenland and the Faroe Islands. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International bodies/institutions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Arctic Councilis a high-level intergovernmental body set up in 1996 by the Ottawa declaration to promote cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States together with the indigenous communities and other Arctic inhabitants. The Arctic Council is the leading intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States, Arctic indigenous communities and other Arctic inhabitants on common Arctic issues, in particular on issues of sustainable development and environmental protection in the Arctic. The Arctic Council works as a consensus-based body to deal with issues such as the change in biodiversity, melting sea ice, plastic pollution and black carbon. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Council has the eight circumpolar countries.Ottawa Declaration declares Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and the United States of America as a member of the Arctic Council. Denmark represents Greenland and the Faroe Islands. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International bodies/institutions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Arctic Council works as a consensus-based body to deal with issues such as change in biodiversity, melting sea ice, plastic pollution and black carbon.

• Only the circumpolar countries of the Arctic region are members of the Arctic Council.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The Arctic Councilis a high-level intergovernmental body set up in 1996 by the Ottawa declaration to promote cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States together with the indigenous communities and other Arctic inhabitants.

• The Arctic Council is the leading intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States, Arctic indigenous communities and other Arctic inhabitants on common Arctic issues, in particular on issues of sustainable development and environmental protection in the Arctic.

• The Arctic Council works as a consensus-based body to deal with issues such as the change in biodiversity, melting sea ice, plastic pollution and black carbon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Council has the eight circumpolar countries.Ottawa Declaration declares Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and the United States of America as a member of the Arctic Council. Denmark represents Greenland and the Faroe Islands. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Trend: International bodies/institutions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The Arctic Council works as a consensus-based body to deal with issues such as the change in biodiversity, melting sea ice, plastic pollution and black carbon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Trend: International bodies/institutions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Since industrialisation, many lichen species have become extinct in large areas. Statement-II Lichens are widely used as environmental indicators or bio-indicators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: b Explanation: Lichens are mutualistic associations of a fungus and an alga and occur as crusty or Continuous patches or bushy growths on trees, rocks and bare ground. Since industrialization, many lichen species have become extinct in large areas. Lichens are very sensitive to sulphur dioxide pollution in the air. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Lichens are widely used as environmental indicators or bio-indicators. If air is very badly polluted with sulphur dioxide there may be no lichens present, just green algae may be found. If the air is clean, shrubby, hairy and leafy lichens become abundant. A few lichen species can tolerate quite high levels of pollution and are commonly found on pavements, walls and tree bark in urban areas. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Statement II does not directly explain or provide a reason for Statement I. While both statements are true independently, they address different aspects of lichen. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Questions on keystone/indicator species have been recurrent in UPSC prelims Approach: There is no direct correlation between statement 1 and 2, each of them are exclusive in nature Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Lichens are mutualistic associations of a fungus and an alga and occur as crusty or Continuous patches or bushy growths on trees, rocks and bare ground. Since industrialization, many lichen species have become extinct in large areas. Lichens are very sensitive to sulphur dioxide pollution in the air. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Lichens are widely used as environmental indicators or bio-indicators. If air is very badly polluted with sulphur dioxide there may be no lichens present, just green algae may be found. If the air is clean, shrubby, hairy and leafy lichens become abundant. A few lichen species can tolerate quite high levels of pollution and are commonly found on pavements, walls and tree bark in urban areas. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Statement II does not directly explain or provide a reason for Statement I. While both statements are true independently, they address different aspects of lichen. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Questions on keystone/indicator species have been recurrent in UPSC prelims Approach: There is no direct correlation between statement 1 and 2, each of them are exclusive in nature

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Since industrialisation, many lichen species have become extinct in large areas.

Statement-II

Lichens are widely used as environmental indicators or bio-indicators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

• Lichens are mutualistic associations of a fungus and an alga and occur as crusty or Continuous patches or bushy growths on trees, rocks and bare ground. Since industrialization, many lichen species have become extinct in large areas. Lichens are very sensitive to sulphur dioxide pollution in the air. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Lichens are widely used as environmental indicators or bio-indicators. If air is very badly polluted with sulphur dioxide there may be no lichens present, just green algae may be found.

• If the air is clean, shrubby, hairy and leafy lichens become abundant. A few lichen species can tolerate quite high levels of pollution and are commonly found on pavements, walls and tree bark in urban areas. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Statement II does not directly explain or provide a reason for Statement I. While both statements are true independently, they address different aspects of lichen.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Questions on keystone/indicator species have been recurrent in UPSC prelims

Approach: There is no direct correlation between statement 1 and 2, each of them are exclusive in nature

Explanation:

• Lichens are widely used as environmental indicators or bio-indicators. If air is very badly polluted with sulphur dioxide there may be no lichens present, just green algae may be found.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Questions on keystone/indicator species have been recurrent in UPSC prelims

Approach: There is no direct correlation between statement 1 and 2, each of them are exclusive in nature

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following: Smoke and Fumes Carbon monoxide Nitrogen oxide Ozone How many of the above are primary pollutants? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source. A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted as such, but forms when other pollutants (primary pollutants) react in the atmosphere. Smoke and Fumes: emitted directly from combustion processes such as burning of fossil fuels, biomass, and other organic materials. Smoke and fumes can contain various pollutants such as carbon monoxide, volatile organic compounds (VOCs), and PM. Carbon monoxide (CO): This is a primary pollutant produced by incomplete combustion of carbon-containing fuels such as gasoline, natural gas, and wood. It is emitted primarily from vehicles and industrial processes. Nitrogen oxide (NO): Nitrogen oxides, including nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2), are primary pollutants emitted from combustion processes, particularly in vehicles and industrial sources. Ozone (O3): Ozone is not typically emitted directly into the atmosphere. Instead, it is formed through chemical reactions involving precursor pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight. Therefore, ozone is considered a secondary pollutant rather than a primary pollutant. Hence, option(c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Pollutants/GHGs Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source. A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted as such, but forms when other pollutants (primary pollutants) react in the atmosphere. Smoke and Fumes: emitted directly from combustion processes such as burning of fossil fuels, biomass, and other organic materials. Smoke and fumes can contain various pollutants such as carbon monoxide, volatile organic compounds (VOCs), and PM. Carbon monoxide (CO): This is a primary pollutant produced by incomplete combustion of carbon-containing fuels such as gasoline, natural gas, and wood. It is emitted primarily from vehicles and industrial processes. Nitrogen oxide (NO): Nitrogen oxides, including nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2), are primary pollutants emitted from combustion processes, particularly in vehicles and industrial sources. Ozone (O3): Ozone is not typically emitted directly into the atmosphere. Instead, it is formed through chemical reactions involving precursor pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight. Therefore, ozone is considered a secondary pollutant rather than a primary pollutant. Hence, option(c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Pollutants/GHGs Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 3. Question

Consider the following:

• Smoke and Fumes

• Carbon monoxide

• Nitrogen oxide

How many of the above are primary pollutants?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source. A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted as such, but forms when other pollutants (primary pollutants) react in the atmosphere.

• Smoke and Fumes: emitted directly from combustion processes such as burning of fossil fuels, biomass, and other organic materials. Smoke and fumes can contain various pollutants such as carbon monoxide, volatile organic compounds (VOCs), and PM.

• Carbon monoxide (CO): This is a primary pollutant produced by incomplete combustion of carbon-containing fuels such as gasoline, natural gas, and wood. It is emitted primarily from vehicles and industrial processes.

• Nitrogen oxide (NO): Nitrogen oxides, including nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2), are primary pollutants emitted from combustion processes, particularly in vehicles and industrial sources.

• Ozone (O3): Ozone is not typically emitted directly into the atmosphere. Instead, it is formed through chemical reactions involving precursor pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight. Therefore, ozone is considered a secondary pollutant rather than a primary pollutant.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Trend: Pollutants/GHGs

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Trend: Pollutants/GHGs

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Air Quality Index (AQI) is used to convey the quality of air by the government to the general public. Which of the following range of air quality indicates ‘moderate level’ of air pollution? a) Below fifty b) Above fifty below hundred c) Above hundred below two hundred d) Above two hundred below three hundred Correct Answer: c Explanation: Air Quality Index (AQI) is a number used to convey the quality of air by the government to the general public. Air quality deteriorates with an increase in the concentration of pollutants. The Air Quality Index represents the severity of pollution for ordinary people. The AQI is an assessment of the air quality taking into account eight pollutants — PM 2.5 (particulate matter less than 2.5 microns), PM 10 (particulate matter less than 10 microns), nitrogen oxides (NOx), sulphur dioxide (SO2), ozone (O3), carbon monoxide (CO), ammonia (NH3) and lead (Pb). Air quality index transforms the weighed values of individual air pollution related parameters into a single number or set of numbers. In 2014, the National Air Quality Index was established to assess air quality in six categories. This Air Quality Index was created in collaboration with IIT-Kanpur and air quality professionals and experts by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Pollutants/GHGs Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Air Quality Index (AQI) is a number used to convey the quality of air by the government to the general public. Air quality deteriorates with an increase in the concentration of pollutants. The Air Quality Index represents the severity of pollution for ordinary people. The AQI is an assessment of the air quality taking into account eight pollutants — PM 2.5 (particulate matter less than 2.5 microns), PM 10 (particulate matter less than 10 microns), nitrogen oxides (NOx), sulphur dioxide (SO2), ozone (O3), carbon monoxide (CO), ammonia (NH3) and lead (Pb). Air quality index transforms the weighed values of individual air pollution related parameters into a single number or set of numbers. In 2014, the National Air Quality Index was established to assess air quality in six categories. This Air Quality Index was created in collaboration with IIT-Kanpur and air quality professionals and experts by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Pollutants/GHGs Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 4. Question

Air Quality Index (AQI) is used to convey the quality of air by the government to the general public. Which of the following range of air quality indicates ‘moderate level’ of air pollution?

• a) Below fifty

• b) Above fifty below hundred

• c) Above hundred below two hundred

• d) Above two hundred below three hundred

Explanation:

• Air Quality Index (AQI) is a number used to convey the quality of air by the government to the general public. Air quality deteriorates with an increase in the concentration of pollutants. The Air Quality Index represents the severity of pollution for ordinary people.

• The AQI is an assessment of the air quality taking into account eight pollutants — PM 2.5 (particulate matter less than 2.5 microns), PM 10 (particulate matter less than 10 microns), nitrogen oxides (NOx), sulphur dioxide (SO2), ozone (O3), carbon monoxide (CO), ammonia (NH3) and lead (Pb).

• Air quality index transforms the weighed values of individual air pollution related parameters into a single number or set of numbers.

• In 2014, the National Air Quality Index was established to assess air quality in six categories. This Air Quality Index was created in collaboration with IIT-Kanpur and air quality professionals and experts by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Pollutants/GHGs

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Air quality index transforms the weighed values of individual air pollution related parameters into a single number or set of numbers.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Pollutants/GHGs

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The EIACP (Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme) has been recently renamed as Environmental Information System (ENVIS). It is a one-stop platform for the dissemination of environmental related information for informed policy formulation. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Environmental Information System (ENVIS) is renamed as EIACP (Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme) in June, 2023. ENVIS came into existence as a planned programme in 1983. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. EIACP serves as a one-stop platform for the dissemination of environmental information, informed policy formulation on various facets of the environment and facilitation of alternate livelihoods through green skilling. It is one of the Central Sector sub-scheme being implemented in alignment with Mission LiFE. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Initiatives on climate change/global warming Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Environmental Information System (ENVIS) is renamed as EIACP (Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme) in June, 2023. ENVIS came into existence as a planned programme in 1983. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. EIACP serves as a one-stop platform for the dissemination of environmental information, informed policy formulation on various facets of the environment and facilitation of alternate livelihoods through green skilling. It is one of the Central Sector sub-scheme being implemented in alignment with Mission LiFE. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Initiatives on climate change/global warming Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The EIACP (Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme) has been recently renamed as Environmental Information System (ENVIS).

• It is a one-stop platform for the dissemination of environmental related information for informed policy formulation.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The Environmental Information System (ENVIS) is renamed as EIACP (Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme) in June, 2023. ENVIS came into existence as a planned programme in 1983. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• EIACP serves as a one-stop platform for the dissemination of environmental information, informed policy formulation on various facets of the environment and facilitation of alternate livelihoods through green skilling.

• It is one of the Central Sector sub-scheme being implemented in alignment with Mission LiFE. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Initiatives on climate change/global warming

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

Explanation:

• It is one of the Central Sector sub-scheme being implemented in alignment with Mission LiFE. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Initiatives on climate change/global warming

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), has launched the Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) during G-20 summit in New Delhi. The GRCA is an international coalition of cities and countries dedicated to the conservation and protection of river systems worldwide. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: b Explanation: The RCA is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Jal Shakti (MoJS) & the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), with a vision to connect river cities and focus on sustainable river centric development. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), has launched the Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) at COP28 in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The GRCA is an international coalition of cities and countries dedicated to the conservation, sustainable management, and protection of river systems worldwide. The alliance encompasses a diverse array of countries and river cities, fostering partnerships among key nations like India, Egypt, Netherlands, Denmark, Ghana, Australia, Bhutan, Cambodia, Japan, and others. GRCA’s membership extends to cover 275+ river-cities across 11 countries, demonstrating a substantial global reach and influence. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Initiatives on climate change/global warming Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The RCA is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Jal Shakti (MoJS) & the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), with a vision to connect river cities and focus on sustainable river centric development. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), has launched the Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) at COP28 in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The GRCA is an international coalition of cities and countries dedicated to the conservation, sustainable management, and protection of river systems worldwide. The alliance encompasses a diverse array of countries and river cities, fostering partnerships among key nations like India, Egypt, Netherlands, Denmark, Ghana, Australia, Bhutan, Cambodia, Japan, and others. GRCA’s membership extends to cover 275+ river-cities across 11 countries, demonstrating a substantial global reach and influence. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Initiatives on climate change/global warming Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), has launched the Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) during G-20 summit in New Delhi.

• The GRCA is an international coalition of cities and countries dedicated to the conservation and protection of river systems worldwide.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The RCA is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Jal Shakti (MoJS) & the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), with a vision to connect river cities and focus on sustainable river centric development. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), has launched the Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) at COP28 in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The GRCA is an international coalition of cities and countries dedicated to the conservation, sustainable management, and protection of river systems worldwide.

• The alliance encompasses a diverse array of countries and river cities, fostering partnerships among key nations like India, Egypt, Netherlands, Denmark, Ghana, Australia, Bhutan, Cambodia, Japan, and others.

• GRCA’s membership extends to cover 275+ river-cities across 11 countries, demonstrating a substantial global reach and influence. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Initiatives on climate change/global warming

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The GRCA is an international coalition of cities and countries dedicated to the conservation, sustainable management, and protection of river systems worldwide.

• GRCA’s membership extends to cover 275+ river-cities across 11 countries, demonstrating a substantial global reach and influence. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Initiatives on climate change/global warming

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following legislations established the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) in India? a) Central Ground Water Authority Act, 1986 b) Ground Water Management Act, 1986 c) Water Resources Regulation Act, 1986 d) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 Correct Answer: d Explanation: Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important legislations Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important legislations Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

#### 7. Question

Which of the following legislations established the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) in India?

• a) Central Ground Water Authority Act, 1986

• b) Ground Water Management Act, 1986

• c) Water Resources Regulation Act, 1986

• d) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Explanation:

• Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: India is the second largest user of ground water globally next to China. More than 50% of the ground water resources of India are categorized as ‘over exploited’. The Central Ground Water Authority has the power to punish violations of provisions related to ground water extraction. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: India is the largest user of groundwater in the world, extracting groundwater to the tune of 241.1 billion cubic meter (bcm) per year. It is about 25% of the global groundwater extraction. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. As of 2023, Stage of ground water extraction stood at 59.23%. Out of total 6553 assessment units, 1006 have been categorized as ‘Over-exploited’, 260 as ‘Critical’, 885 as ‘Semi-critical’, and 4793 units as ‘Safe’. There are 158 assessment units, which are completely saline. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Authority has been conferred with the following powers: To regulate and control, management and development of ground water in the country and to issue necessary regulatory directions for the purpose. To resort to penal provisions contained in sections 15 to 21 of the said Act. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Resource utilization/ Important legislations Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: India is the largest user of groundwater in the world, extracting groundwater to the tune of 241.1 billion cubic meter (bcm) per year. It is about 25% of the global groundwater extraction. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. As of 2023, Stage of ground water extraction stood at 59.23%. Out of total 6553 assessment units, 1006 have been categorized as ‘Over-exploited’, 260 as ‘Critical’, 885 as ‘Semi-critical’, and 4793 units as ‘Safe’. There are 158 assessment units, which are completely saline. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Authority has been conferred with the following powers: To regulate and control, management and development of ground water in the country and to issue necessary regulatory directions for the purpose. To resort to penal provisions contained in sections 15 to 21 of the said Act. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Resource utilization/ Important legislations Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements:

• India is the second largest user of ground water globally next to China.

• More than 50% of the ground water resources of India are categorized as ‘over exploited’.

• The Central Ground Water Authority has the power to punish violations of provisions related to ground water extraction.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• India is the largest user of groundwater in the world, extracting groundwater to the tune of 241.1 billion cubic meter (bcm) per year. It is about 25% of the global groundwater extraction. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• As of 2023, Stage of ground water extraction stood at 59.23%.

• Out of total 6553 assessment units, 1006 have been categorized as ‘Over-exploited’, 260 as ‘Critical’, 885 as ‘Semi-critical’, and 4793 units as ‘Safe’. There are 158 assessment units, which are completely saline. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

• The Authority has been conferred with the following powers:

• To regulate and control, management and development of ground water in the country and to issue necessary regulatory directions for the purpose.

• To resort to penal provisions contained in sections 15 to 21 of the said Act. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Resource utilization/ Important legislations

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

Explanation:

• As of 2023, Stage of ground water extraction stood at 59.23%.

• Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

• The Authority has been conferred with the following powers:

• To regulate and control, management and development of ground water in the country and to issue necessary regulatory directions for the purpose.

• To resort to penal provisions contained in sections 15 to 21 of the said Act. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Resource utilization/ Important legislations

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Who publishes the ‘Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report’? a) NITI Aayog b) Central Pollution Control Board c) Environment Protection Authority d) Central Ground Water Board Correct Answer: d Explanation: The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) publishes the Dynamic Ground Water Resources Assessment of India report jointly with States/UTs. As per, Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report 2023,the total annual ground water recharge for the entire country is 449.08 billion cubic meters (BCM), marking an increase of 11.48 BCM compared to the previous year (2022) and annual ground water extraction for the entire country is 241.34 BCM. Agriculture is the predominant consumer of groundwater resources, accounting for about 87% of the total annual groundwater extraction. The Central Ground Water Board is a national apex organization with responsibility to carry out scientific surveys, exploration, monitoring of country’s vast groundwater resources. Central Ground Water Board is a multi-disciplinary scientific organization consisting of Hydrogeologists, Geophysicists, Chemists, Hydrologists, Hydro meteorologists and Engineers and has its headquarters, Faridabad, Haryana. It is a subordinate office of the Ministry of Water Resources. It is not a statutory body. Central Ground Water Board was established in 1970 by renaming the Exploratory Tube wells Organization under the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India. It was merged with the Ground Water Wing of the Geological Survey of India during 1972. While the Central Ground water Authority manages, regulates and develops ground water resources of the country, the Central Ground Water Board undertakes scientific studies. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important legislations Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) publishes the Dynamic Ground Water Resources Assessment of India report jointly with States/UTs. As per, Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report 2023,the total annual ground water recharge for the entire country is 449.08 billion cubic meters (BCM), marking an increase of 11.48 BCM compared to the previous year (2022) and annual ground water extraction for the entire country is 241.34 BCM. Agriculture is the predominant consumer of groundwater resources, accounting for about 87% of the total annual groundwater extraction. The Central Ground Water Board is a national apex organization with responsibility to carry out scientific surveys, exploration, monitoring of country’s vast groundwater resources. Central Ground Water Board is a multi-disciplinary scientific organization consisting of Hydrogeologists, Geophysicists, Chemists, Hydrologists, Hydro meteorologists and Engineers and has its headquarters, Faridabad, Haryana. It is a subordinate office of the Ministry of Water Resources. It is not a statutory body. Central Ground Water Board was established in 1970 by renaming the Exploratory Tube wells Organization under the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India. It was merged with the Ground Water Wing of the Geological Survey of India during 1972. While the Central Ground water Authority manages, regulates and develops ground water resources of the country, the Central Ground Water Board undertakes scientific studies. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important legislations Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

#### 9. Question

Who publishes the ‘Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report’?

• a) NITI Aayog

• b) Central Pollution Control Board

• c) Environment Protection Authority

• d) Central Ground Water Board

Explanation:

• The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) publishes the Dynamic Ground Water Resources Assessment of India report jointly with States/UTs.

• As per, Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report 2023,the total annual ground water recharge for the entire country is 449.08 billion cubic meters (BCM), marking an increase of 11.48 BCM compared to the previous year (2022) and annual ground water extraction for the entire country is 241.34 BCM.

• Agriculture is the predominant consumer of groundwater resources, accounting for about 87% of the total annual groundwater extraction.

• The Central Ground Water Board is a national apex organization with responsibility to carry out scientific surveys, exploration, monitoring of country’s vast groundwater resources.

• Central Ground Water Board is a multi-disciplinary scientific organization consisting of Hydrogeologists, Geophysicists, Chemists, Hydrologists, Hydro meteorologists and Engineers and has its headquarters, Faridabad, Haryana.

• It is a subordinate office of the Ministry of Water Resources. It is not a statutory body.

• Central Ground Water Board was established in 1970 by renaming the Exploratory Tube wells Organization under the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India. It was merged with the Ground Water Wing of the Geological Survey of India during 1972.

• While the Central Ground water Authority manages, regulates and develops ground water resources of the country, the Central Ground Water Board undertakes scientific studies.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) publishes the Dynamic Ground Water Resources Assessment of India report jointly with States/UTs.

• Agriculture is the predominant consumer of groundwater resources, accounting for about 87% of the total annual groundwater extraction.

• The Central Ground Water Board is a national apex organization with responsibility to carry out scientific surveys, exploration, monitoring of country’s vast groundwater resources.

• It is a subordinate office of the Ministry of Water Resources. It is not a statutory body.

• While the Central Ground water Authority manages, regulates and develops ground water resources of the country, the Central Ground Water Board undertakes scientific studies.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points In which of the following regions of India ground water extraction is very high? a) South India b) North-East India c) Central India d) North-West India Correct Answer: d Explanation: The stage of groundwater extraction is very high in states like Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, and Daman & Diu, where it is more than 100%. In Delhi, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, and UTs of Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, and Puducherry, the stage of groundwater extraction is between 60-100%. In other states, the stage of ground water extraction is below 60%. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Resource utilization Approach: North-West India has dense population, industries, agricultural land use (plain region of North India) Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The stage of groundwater extraction is very high in states like Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, and Daman & Diu, where it is more than 100%. In Delhi, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, and UTs of Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, and Puducherry, the stage of groundwater extraction is between 60-100%. In other states, the stage of ground water extraction is below 60%. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Resource utilization Approach: North-West India has dense population, industries, agricultural land use (plain region of North India)

#### 10. Question

In which of the following regions of India ground water extraction is very high?

• a) South India

• b) North-East India

• c) Central India

• d) North-West India

Explanation:

• The stage of groundwater extraction is very high in states like Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, and Daman & Diu, where it is more than 100%.

• In Delhi, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, and UTs of Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, and Puducherry, the stage of groundwater extraction is between 60-100%.

• In other states, the stage of ground water extraction is below 60%.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Resource utilization

Approach: North-West India has dense population, industries, agricultural land use (plain region of North India)

Explanation:

• The stage of groundwater extraction is very high in states like Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, and Daman & Diu, where it is more than 100%.

• In Delhi, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, and UTs of Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, and Puducherry, the stage of groundwater extraction is between 60-100%.

• In other states, the stage of ground water extraction is below 60%.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Resource utilization

Approach: North-West India has dense population, industries, agricultural land use (plain region of North India)

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Direct listing refers to a method where shares of a company are first bought by an intermediary before being sold to retail investors by the intermediary. Direct listing is considered riskier than an initial Public Offering since demand for the company’s stock determines the total amount of funds the company attracts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Direct public offering refers to a method used by companies to attract investment capital directly from the common public. Statement 1 is correct: A direct listing is different from an initial public offering (IPO) where shares of a company are first bought by an intermediary such as an investment bank or a brokerage before those shares are offered for sale to retail investors by the intermediary. Statement 2 is correct: Direct listing is considered riskier than an IPO since demand for the company’s stock among retail investors will determine the total amount of funds the company attracts. In the case of an IPO, the risk is offloaded onto the intermediary who purchases the company’s shares. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Direct public offering refers to a method used by companies to attract investment capital directly from the common public. Statement 1 is correct: A direct listing is different from an initial public offering (IPO) where shares of a company are first bought by an intermediary such as an investment bank or a brokerage before those shares are offered for sale to retail investors by the intermediary. Statement 2 is correct: Direct listing is considered riskier than an IPO since demand for the company’s stock among retail investors will determine the total amount of funds the company attracts. In the case of an IPO, the risk is offloaded onto the intermediary who purchases the company’s shares. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Direct listing refers to a method where shares of a company are first bought by an intermediary before being sold to retail investors by the intermediary.

• Direct listing is considered riskier than an initial Public Offering since demand for the company’s stock determines the total amount of funds the company attracts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Direct public offering refers to a method used by companies to attract investment capital directly from the common public.

Statement 1 is correct: A direct listing is different from an initial public offering (IPO) where shares of a company are first bought by an intermediary such as an investment bank or a brokerage before those shares are offered for sale to retail investors by the intermediary.

Statement 2 is correct: Direct listing is considered riskier than an IPO since demand for the company’s stock among retail investors will determine the total amount of funds the company attracts. In the case of an IPO, the risk is offloaded onto the intermediary who purchases the company’s shares.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

Answer: C

Explanation:

Direct public offering refers to a method used by companies to attract investment capital directly from the common public.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points With reference to Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation, consider the following statements: It is world’s largest social security organisation in terms of the volume of financial transactions. It is under joint administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment and the Ministry of Finance. It has launched the Project SMART to provide easy compliance to the, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation/EPFO is one of the World’s largest (not largest) Social Security Organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken. At present it maintains 27.74 crore accounts (Annual Report 2021-22) pertaining to its members. The Employees’ Provident Fund came into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance on the 15th November, 1951. It was replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, 1952. Statement 2 is not correct: The EPFO is under the administrative control of Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. Statement 3 is not correct: Project-SMART envisages to develop surrounding areas of Mumbai – Ahmedabad High Speed Railway (MAHSR) Stations to enhance accessibility and convenience of commuters & other stakeholders and to promote economic activities in the vicinity of station areas. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation/EPFO is one of the World’s largest (not largest) Social Security Organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken. At present it maintains 27.74 crore accounts (Annual Report 2021-22) pertaining to its members. The Employees’ Provident Fund came into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance on the 15th November, 1951. It was replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, 1952. Statement 2 is not correct: The EPFO is under the administrative control of Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. Statement 3 is not correct: Project-SMART envisages to develop surrounding areas of Mumbai – Ahmedabad High Speed Railway (MAHSR) Stations to enhance accessibility and convenience of commuters & other stakeholders and to promote economic activities in the vicinity of station areas. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

#### 12. Question

With reference to Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation, consider the following statements:

• It is world’s largest social security organisation in terms of the volume of financial transactions.

• It is under joint administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment and the Ministry of Finance.

• It has launched the Project SMART to provide easy compliance to the, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation/EPFO is one of the World’s largest (not largest) Social Security Organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken.

At present it maintains 27.74 crore accounts (Annual Report 2021-22) pertaining to its members.

The Employees’ Provident Fund came into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance on the 15th November, 1951. It was replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, 1952.

Statement 2 is not correct: The EPFO is under the administrative control of Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India.

Statement 3 is not correct: Project-SMART envisages to develop surrounding areas of Mumbai – Ahmedabad High Speed Railway (MAHSR) Stations to enhance accessibility and convenience of commuters & other stakeholders and to promote economic activities in the vicinity of station areas.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

Answer: D

Explanation:

At present it maintains 27.74 crore accounts (Annual Report 2021-22) pertaining to its members.

Statement 2 is not correct: The EPFO is under the administrative control of Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points With reference to Bolivia, consider the following statements: It is located in west-central South America. It is partially located in the Western hemisphere of the Earth. It shares the maritime border with Argentina and Brazil. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The nation of Bolivia is located in west-central South America. Statement 2 is correct: It is positioned in the Western and Southern hemispheres of the Earth. Statement 3 is not correct: Bolivia is a landlocked country and is bordered by 5 countries: by Brazil to the north and east; by Paraguay to the southeast; by Argentina to the south; by Chile to the southwest and by Peru to the northwest. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Places in news Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The nation of Bolivia is located in west-central South America. Statement 2 is correct: It is positioned in the Western and Southern hemispheres of the Earth. Statement 3 is not correct: Bolivia is a landlocked country and is bordered by 5 countries: by Brazil to the north and east; by Paraguay to the southeast; by Argentina to the south; by Chile to the southwest and by Peru to the northwest. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Places in news Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

#### 13. Question

With reference to Bolivia, consider the following statements:

• It is located in west-central South America.

• It is partially located in the Western hemisphere of the Earth.

• It shares the maritime border with Argentina and Brazil.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The nation of Bolivia is located in west-central South America.

Statement 2 is correct: It is positioned in the Western and Southern hemispheres of the Earth.

Statement 3 is not correct: Bolivia is a landlocked country and is bordered by 5 countries: by Brazil to the north and east; by Paraguay to the southeast; by Argentina to the south; by Chile to the southwest and by Peru to the northwest.

Trend: Places in news

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The nation of Bolivia is located in west-central South America.

Statement 2 is correct: It is positioned in the Western and Southern hemispheres of the Earth.

Trend: Places in news

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements best describes the objectives of SHRESHTA Scheme? (a) It has been formulated to provide quality education for the Scheduled Caste students as per the Constitutional mandate. (b) It creates universal social security system for all Indians especially the workers in the unorganised sector. (c) It is launched to protect elderly persons aged 60 years against a future fall in their interest income due to uncertain market conditions. (d) It aims to incentivize the efforts of the textile industry in creating jobs and covering the entire value chain of textiles. Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Scheme for Residential Education for Students in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) has been formulated to provide quality education and opportunities for even the poorest Scheduled Caste students, as per the Constitutional mandate. The students from the Scheduled Caste communities, for long been subjects to inequality, were kept out of quality education and a situation that perpetuates the disadvantages carried forward for generations of lack of adequate education. The Governmental efforts to spread educational facilities without discrimination have worked well in achieving near universal access. However, the objective of providing access to quality education that provides a level playing field is still far from reality. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in news Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Scheme for Residential Education for Students in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) has been formulated to provide quality education and opportunities for even the poorest Scheduled Caste students, as per the Constitutional mandate. The students from the Scheduled Caste communities, for long been subjects to inequality, were kept out of quality education and a situation that perpetuates the disadvantages carried forward for generations of lack of adequate education. The Governmental efforts to spread educational facilities without discrimination have worked well in achieving near universal access. However, the objective of providing access to quality education that provides a level playing field is still far from reality. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in news Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

#### 14. Question

Which one of the following statements best describes the objectives of SHRESHTA Scheme?

• (a) It has been formulated to provide quality education for the Scheduled Caste students as per the Constitutional mandate.

• (b) It creates universal social security system for all Indians especially the workers in the unorganised sector.

• (c) It is launched to protect elderly persons aged 60 years against a future fall in their interest income due to uncertain market conditions.

• (d) It aims to incentivize the efforts of the textile industry in creating jobs and covering the entire value chain of textiles.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The Scheme for Residential Education for Students in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) has been formulated to provide quality education and opportunities for even the poorest Scheduled Caste students, as per the Constitutional mandate.

The students from the Scheduled Caste communities, for long been subjects to inequality, were kept out of quality education and a situation that perpetuates the disadvantages carried forward for generations of lack of adequate education.

The Governmental efforts to spread educational facilities without discrimination have worked well in achieving near universal access.

However, the objective of providing access to quality education that provides a level playing field is still far from reality.

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Governmental efforts to spread educational facilities without discrimination have worked well in achieving near universal access.

However, the objective of providing access to quality education that provides a level playing field is still far from reality.

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Macrophages: They are membrane-enclosed organelles containing a set of hydrolases capable of breaking down the diverse classes of macromolecules. They provide the first line of defence as they follow chemotactic signals to migrate to the inflammatory site where they ingest pathogens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Lysosomes (not macrophages) are membrane-enclosed organelles containing a set of hydrolases capable of breaking down the diverse classes of macromolecules. This degradation not only contributes to pathogen removal and clearance of an inflammatory site, for example, but also facilitates the presentation of resulting peptides to cells of the specific immune system, like T or B lymphocytes Statement 2 is correct: Macrophages are an important part of the first line of defense. During infection, inflammation, or tissue injury, they can follow chemotactic signals to migrate to the damaged tissue/inflammatory site, where they ingest pathogens and cell debris through a process called phagocytosis and digest them in phagolysosomes, which results from the fusion of phagosomes with lysosomes. Source: Science and technology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Lysosomes (not macrophages) are membrane-enclosed organelles containing a set of hydrolases capable of breaking down the diverse classes of macromolecules. This degradation not only contributes to pathogen removal and clearance of an inflammatory site, for example, but also facilitates the presentation of resulting peptides to cells of the specific immune system, like T or B lymphocytes Statement 2 is correct: Macrophages are an important part of the first line of defense. During infection, inflammation, or tissue injury, they can follow chemotactic signals to migrate to the damaged tissue/inflammatory site, where they ingest pathogens and cell debris through a process called phagocytosis and digest them in phagolysosomes, which results from the fusion of phagosomes with lysosomes. Source: Science and technology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Macrophages:

• They are membrane-enclosed organelles containing a set of hydrolases capable of breaking down the diverse classes of macromolecules.

• They provide the first line of defence as they follow chemotactic signals to migrate to the inflammatory site where they ingest pathogens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Lysosomes (not macrophages) are membrane-enclosed organelles containing a set of hydrolases capable of breaking down the diverse classes of macromolecules. This degradation not only contributes to pathogen removal and clearance of an inflammatory site, for example, but also facilitates the presentation of resulting peptides to cells of the specific immune system, like T or B lymphocytes

Statement 2 is correct: Macrophages are an important part of the first line of defense. During infection, inflammation, or tissue injury, they can follow chemotactic signals to migrate to the damaged tissue/inflammatory site, where they ingest pathogens and cell debris through a process called phagocytosis and digest them in phagolysosomes, which results from the fusion of phagosomes with lysosomes.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Under the Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980, what is the legal requirement for the diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes? a) An environmental impact assessment must be conducted. b) Such land diversion requires approval from the Central Government. c) The state government can directly permit the diversion. d) No objection certificate from the local wildlife board is sufficient. Correct Solution: B Forest (Conservation) Act,1980 An Act to provide for conservation of forests Enacted with an aim to check indiscriminate deforestations and diversion of forest land Provision for: Prior approval of Central Government necessary for de-reservation of reserved forests and use of forest land for non-forest purpose Forest (Conservation) Rules 2022: Provides for procedure for obtaining approval and compensation for loss of forest. Source: https://www.dghindia.gov.in/assets/downloads/6321979a069f3FCActPPT130922.pdf Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B Forest (Conservation) Act,1980 An Act to provide for conservation of forests Enacted with an aim to check indiscriminate deforestations and diversion of forest land Provision for: Prior approval of Central Government necessary for de-reservation of reserved forests and use of forest land for non-forest purpose Forest (Conservation) Rules 2022: Provides for procedure for obtaining approval and compensation for loss of forest. Source: https://www.dghindia.gov.in/assets/downloads/6321979a069f3FCActPPT130922.pdf Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 16. Question

Under the Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980, what is the legal requirement for the diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes?

• a) An environmental impact assessment must be conducted.

• b) Such land diversion requires approval from the Central Government.

• c) The state government can directly permit the diversion.

• d) No objection certificate from the local wildlife board is sufficient.

Solution: B

Forest (Conservation) Act,1980

• An Act to provide for conservation of forests

• Enacted with an aim to check indiscriminate deforestations and diversion of forest land

• Provision for: Prior approval of Central Government necessary for de-reservation of reserved forests and use of forest land for non-forest purpose

• Forest (Conservation) Rules 2022: Provides for procedure for obtaining approval and compensation for loss of forest.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

Forest (Conservation) Act,1980

• An Act to provide for conservation of forests

• Enacted with an aim to check indiscriminate deforestations and diversion of forest land

• Provision for: Prior approval of Central Government necessary for de-reservation of reserved forests and use of forest land for non-forest purpose

• Forest (Conservation) Rules 2022: Provides for procedure for obtaining approval and compensation for loss of forest.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points If a species of fauna is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what does it imply? a) The species is considered least concerned and does not need immediate protection. b) The species can be hunted with special permissions for research purposes. c) The species has the highest degree of protection, with severe penalties for offenses. d) The species is critically endangered but can be traded under regulated conditions. Correct Solution: C Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 : This Schedule covers endangered species. These species need rigorous protection and therefore, the harshest penalties for violation of the law are under this Schedule. Species under this Schedule are prohibited to be hunted throughout India, except under threat to human life. Source: *https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1781078/ Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 : This Schedule covers endangered species. These species need rigorous protection and therefore, the harshest penalties for violation of the law are under this Schedule. Species under this Schedule are prohibited to be hunted throughout India, except under threat to human life. Source: *https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1781078/** Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 17. Question

If a species of fauna is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what does it imply?

• a) The species is considered least concerned and does not need immediate protection.

• b) The species can be hunted with special permissions for research purposes.

• c) The species has the highest degree of protection, with severe penalties for offenses.

• d) The species is critically endangered but can be traded under regulated conditions.

Solution: C

Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 :

This Schedule covers endangered species. These species need rigorous protection and therefore, the harshest penalties for violation of the law are under this Schedule. Species under this Schedule are prohibited to be hunted throughout India, except under threat to human life.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 :

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best describes the primary focus of the Deep Carbon Observatory (DCO)? a) It is a global research program designed to understand the atmospheric implications of deep-sea carbon cycles. b) The initiative aims to study the quantum of carbon stored in Earth's core and the potential of its utilization. c) It focuses on understanding the nature, quantity, and movements of carbon inside Earth, including the lower crust, mantle, and core. d) The program's main goal is to analyse the carbon footprint of deep-sea mining activities and their impact on marine ecosystems. Correct Solution: C The Deep Carbon Observatory (DCO) is a global community of more than 1000 scientists who, in the last ten years, were on a quest to understand the quantities, movements, forms, and origins of carbon in Earth. The Deep Carbon Observatory is a global research program that aims to understand the quantities, movements, forms, and origins of carbon located deep within Earth, rather than focusing on atmospheric or oceanic carbon cycles or the carbon impact of specific human activities such as deep-sea mining. Source: https://deepcarbon.science/ Trend: Initiatives in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C The Deep Carbon Observatory (DCO) is a global community of more than 1000 scientists who, in the last ten years, were on a quest to understand the quantities, movements, forms, and origins of carbon in Earth. The Deep Carbon Observatory is a global research program that aims to understand the quantities, movements, forms, and origins of carbon located deep within Earth, rather than focusing on atmospheric or oceanic carbon cycles or the carbon impact of specific human activities such as deep-sea mining. Source: https://deepcarbon.science/ Trend: Initiatives in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 18. Question

Which of the following statements best describes the primary focus of the Deep Carbon Observatory (DCO)?

• a) It is a global research program designed to understand the atmospheric implications of deep-sea carbon cycles.

• b) The initiative aims to study the quantum of carbon stored in Earth's core and the potential of its utilization.

• c) It focuses on understanding the nature, quantity, and movements of carbon inside Earth, including the lower crust, mantle, and core.

• d) The program's main goal is to analyse the carbon footprint of deep-sea mining activities and their impact on marine ecosystems.

Solution: C

The Deep Carbon Observatory (DCO) is a global community of more than 1000 scientists who, in the last ten years, were on a quest to understand the quantities, movements, forms, and origins of carbon in Earth.

The Deep Carbon Observatory is a global research program that aims to understand the quantities, movements, forms, and origins of carbon located deep within Earth, rather than focusing on atmospheric or oceanic carbon cycles or the carbon impact of specific human activities such as deep-sea mining.

Trend: Initiatives in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

Trend: Initiatives in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements as per the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974: Any industry planning to discharge sewage or trade effluent into a stream or well is required to obtain prior consent from the State Pollution Control Board. The Central Government is authorized to establish or specify a laboratory as the Central Water Laboratory for carrying out the functions of analyzing samples of water, sewage, or trade effluent under the Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements are correct. Section 25 of the Act, which mandates prior consent from the State Pollution Control Board for establishments intending to discharge effluents. Section 51, where the Central Government may establish a Central Water Laboratory or specify any laboratory for the analysis of water samples for the prevention and control of water pollution. https://indiankanoon.org/doc/867156/ Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C Both statements are correct. Section 25 of the Act, which mandates prior consent from the State Pollution Control Board for establishments intending to discharge effluents. Section 51, where the Central Government may establish a Central Water Laboratory or specify any laboratory for the analysis of water samples for the prevention and control of water pollution. https://indiankanoon.org/doc/867156/ Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements as per the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974:

• Any industry planning to discharge sewage or trade effluent into a stream or well is required to obtain prior consent from the State Pollution Control Board.

• The Central Government is authorized to establish or specify a laboratory as the Central Water Laboratory for carrying out the functions of analyzing samples of water, sewage, or trade effluent under the Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

Section 25 of the Act, which mandates prior consent from the State Pollution Control Board for establishments intending to discharge effluents.

Section 51, where the Central Government may establish a Central Water Laboratory or specify any laboratory for the analysis of water samples for the prevention and control of water pollution.

https://indiankanoon.org/doc/867156/

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

Section 25 of the Act, which mandates prior consent from the State Pollution Control Board for establishments intending to discharge effluents.

Section 51, where the Central Government may establish a Central Water Laboratory or specify any laboratory for the analysis of water samples for the prevention and control of water pollution.

https://indiankanoon.org/doc/867156/

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points In which of the following national parks can you primarily find the Asiatic lion? a) Jim Corbett National Park b) Gir National Park c) Kanha National Park d) Bandipur National Park Correct Solution: B Gir Forest National Park is a wildlife sanctuary in Gujarat, western India. It was established to protect Asiatic lions, who frequent the fenced-off Devalia Safari Park, along with leopards and antelopes. Gir Jungle Trail, outside the fenced area, traverses deciduous forest and is home to wildlife including vultures and pythons. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: National Parks/Biosphere reserves/important species Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B Gir Forest National Park is a wildlife sanctuary in Gujarat, western India. It was established to protect Asiatic lions, who frequent the fenced-off Devalia Safari Park, along with leopards and antelopes. Gir Jungle Trail, outside the fenced area, traverses deciduous forest and is home to wildlife including vultures and pythons. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: National Parks/Biosphere reserves/important species Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 20. Question

In which of the following national parks can you primarily find the Asiatic lion?

• a) Jim Corbett National Park

• b) Gir National Park

• c) Kanha National Park

• d) Bandipur National Park

Solution: B

Gir Forest National Park is a wildlife sanctuary in Gujarat, western India. It was established to protect Asiatic lions, who frequent the fenced-off Devalia Safari Park, along with leopards and antelopes. Gir Jungle Trail, outside the fenced area, traverses deciduous forest and is home to wildlife including vultures and pythons.

Trend: National Parks/Biosphere reserves/important species

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

Trend: National Parks/Biosphere reserves/important species

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Which of these countries provide some level of public funding to political entities in democratic elections? Canada Germany Norway How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Learning: Norway has a robust state funding system, with approximately 74% of total election expenses covered by the government. Parties receive funds based on their performance in previous elections. Germany provides public funding to political parties based on their performance in elections. Additionally, citizens can voluntarily contribute a percentage of their income tax to a political party of their choice. Other countries where such a practice is prevalent are Canada, France, and Brazil Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Current Affairs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: c) Learning: Norway has a robust state funding system, with approximately 74% of total election expenses covered by the government. Parties receive funds based on their performance in previous elections. Germany provides public funding to political parties based on their performance in elections. Additionally, citizens can voluntarily contribute a percentage of their income tax to a political party of their choice. Other countries where such a practice is prevalent are Canada, France, and Brazil Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Current Affairs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 21. Question

Which of these countries provide some level of public funding to political entities in democratic elections?

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Learning: Norway has a robust state funding system, with approximately 74% of total election expenses covered by the government. Parties receive funds based on their performance in previous elections.

Germany provides public funding to political parties based on their performance in elections. Additionally, citizens can voluntarily contribute a percentage of their income tax to a political party of their choice.

Other countries where such a practice is prevalent are Canada, France, and Brazil

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Current Affairs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: c)

Other countries where such a practice is prevalent are Canada, France, and Brazil

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Current Affairs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Special Category Status for states in India was introduced on the recommendations of a Union Finance Commission. The first states to receive this status were Manipur and Arunachal Pradesh. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: It was introduced in 1969 on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission. Status was first accorded to Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Nagaland in 1969. Criteria for SCS (considered before granting): Hilly and difficult terrain Low population density or a sizeable share of tribal population Strategic location along international borders Economic and infrastructural backwardness Non-viable nature of state finances Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Current Affairs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: It was introduced in 1969 on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission. Status was first accorded to Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Nagaland in 1969. Criteria for SCS (considered before granting): Hilly and difficult terrain Low population density or a sizeable share of tribal population Strategic location along international borders Economic and infrastructural backwardness Non-viable nature of state finances Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Current Affairs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Special Category Status for states in India was introduced on the recommendations of a Union Finance Commission.

• The first states to receive this status were Manipur and Arunachal Pradesh.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Justification: It was introduced in 1969 on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission. Status was first accorded to Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Nagaland in 1969.

Criteria for SCS (considered before granting):

• Hilly and difficult terrain

• Low population density or a sizeable share of tribal population

• Strategic location along international borders

• Economic and infrastructural backwardness

• Non-viable nature of state finances

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Current Affairs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: a)

Justification: It was introduced in 1969 on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission. Status was first accorded to Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Nagaland in 1969.

Criteria for SCS (considered before granting):

• Hilly and difficult terrain

• Low population density or a sizeable share of tribal population

• Strategic location along international borders

• Economic and infrastructural backwardness

• Non-viable nature of state finances

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Current Affairs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Among all the High Courts in India, none currently has a female Chief Justice. As per the India Justice Report 2022, less than 10% of all High Court judges and Subordinate Court judges are women. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: d) Justification: Status of women in the Judiciary: Representation in the Supreme Court: Only 10 women have been appointed to the Supreme Court since 1989. Currently, out of 33 Supreme Court judges, only three are women. Representation in High Courts: Among the total 25 High Courts in India, none currently has a female Chief Justice, except for Gujarat High Court. The Department of Justice reports that out of 782 working high court judges, only 107, or 13%, are women. Representation in Lower Judiciary: A 2018 study revealed that while women’s representation is relatively higher at 27% in the lower judiciary, it decreases significantly in higher appointments. The India Justice Report 2022 found that only 13% of High Court judges and 35% of Subordinate Court judges are women Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Current Affairs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Status of women in the Judiciary: Representation in the Supreme Court: Only 10 women have been appointed to the Supreme Court since 1989. Currently, out of 33 Supreme Court judges, only three are women. Representation in High Courts: Among the total 25 High Courts in India, none currently has a female Chief Justice, except for Gujarat High Court. The Department of Justice reports that out of 782 working high court judges, only 107, or 13%, are women. Representation in Lower Judiciary: A 2018 study revealed that while women’s representation is relatively higher at 27% in the lower judiciary, it decreases significantly in higher appointments. The India Justice Report 2022 found that only 13% of High Court judges and 35% of Subordinate Court judges are women Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Current Affairs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Among all the High Courts in India, none currently has a female Chief Justice.

• As per the India Justice Report 2022, less than 10% of all High Court judges and Subordinate Court judges are women.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

Justification: Status of women in the Judiciary:

• Representation in the Supreme Court: Only 10 women have been appointed to the Supreme Court since 1989. Currently, out of 33 Supreme Court judges, only three are women.

• Representation in High Courts: Among the total 25 High Courts in India, none currently has a female Chief Justice, except for Gujarat High Court.

The Department of Justice reports that out of 782 working high court judges, only 107, or 13%, are women.

• Representation in Lower Judiciary: A 2018 study revealed that while women’s representation is relatively higher at 27% in the lower judiciary, it decreases significantly in higher appointments.

• The India Justice Report 2022 found that only 13% of High Court judges and 35% of Subordinate Court judges are women

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Current Affairs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: d)

Justification: Status of women in the Judiciary:

• Representation in the Supreme Court: Only 10 women have been appointed to the Supreme Court since 1989. Currently, out of 33 Supreme Court judges, only three are women.

• Representation in High Courts: Among the total 25 High Courts in India, none currently has a female Chief Justice, except for Gujarat High Court.

The Department of Justice reports that out of 782 working high court judges, only 107, or 13%, are women.

• Representation in Lower Judiciary: A 2018 study revealed that while women’s representation is relatively higher at 27% in the lower judiciary, it decreases significantly in higher appointments.

• The India Justice Report 2022 found that only 13% of High Court judges and 35% of Subordinate Court judges are women

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Current Affairs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Which of the following island countries south of the equator is strategically located at vital sea lanes, facilitating maritime trade between the Gulf of Aden, the Gulf of Hormuz, and the Strait of Malacca? a) Nauru b) Maldives c) Kiribati d) Pitcairn Islands Correct Solution: b) Justification: Maldives is strategically located at vital sea lanes, facilitating maritime trade between the Gulf of Aden, the Gulf of Hormuz, and the Strait of Malacca. The physical geography includes coral reefs, atolls, and a large Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). It is separated from India’s Minicoy by the Eight Degree Channel. Rising sea levels pose a threat to this low-lying archipelago. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Places in news Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Maldives is strategically located at vital sea lanes, facilitating maritime trade between the Gulf of Aden, the Gulf of Hormuz, and the Strait of Malacca. The physical geography includes coral reefs, atolls, and a large Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). It is separated from India’s Minicoy by the Eight Degree Channel. Rising sea levels pose a threat to this low-lying archipelago. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Places in news Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 24. Question

Which of the following island countries south of the equator is strategically located at vital sea lanes, facilitating maritime trade between the Gulf of Aden, the Gulf of Hormuz, and the Strait of Malacca?

• b) Maldives

• c) Kiribati

• d) Pitcairn Islands

Solution: b)

Justification: Maldives is strategically located at vital sea lanes, facilitating maritime trade between the Gulf of Aden, the Gulf of Hormuz, and the Strait of Malacca. The physical geography includes coral reefs, atolls, and a large Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).

It is separated from India’s Minicoy by the Eight Degree Channel.

Rising sea levels pose a threat to this low-lying archipelago.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Places in news

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: b)

It is separated from India’s Minicoy by the Eight Degree Channel.

Rising sea levels pose a threat to this low-lying archipelago.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Places in news

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The International Road Assessment Programme (iRAP) is a charity dedicated to saving lives through safer roads. The Motor Vehicles Amendment Act, 2019 proposes the creation of a National Road Safety Board. Drive Safe India campaign is an initiative of the Department of Road Transport to improve road safety. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Motor Vehicles Amendment Act, 2019: Increases penalties for traffic violations, addresses defective vehicles, and juvenile driving, and establishes a Mo- tor Vehicle Accident Fund. It also proposes the creation of a National Road Safety Board. 2. Carriage by Road Act, 2007: Regulates common carriers, limiting their liability and determining liability for loss or damage to goods. Maruti Suzuki’s Drive Safe India campaign and Mahindra & Mahindra’s Drive Safe, Drive Smart campaign are both private sector initiatives, so S3 is incorrect. Global Initiatives: Brasilia Declaration on Road Safety (2015): Signed at the second Global High-Level Conference on Road Safety, it aims to achieve Sustainable Development Goal 3.6, halving global deaths and injuries from road traffic accidents by 2030. Decade of Action for Road Safety 2021-2030: A UN initiative adopting a resolution to prevent at least 50% of road traffic deaths and injuries by 2030, aligned with the holistic approach outlined in the Stockholm Declaration. International Road Assessment Programme (iRAP): A charity dedicated to saving lives through safer roads. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Current Affairs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Motor Vehicles Amendment Act, 2019: Increases penalties for traffic violations, addresses defective vehicles, and juvenile driving, and establishes a Mo- tor Vehicle Accident Fund. It also proposes the creation of a National Road Safety Board. 2. Carriage by Road Act, 2007: Regulates common carriers, limiting their liability and determining liability for loss or damage to goods. Maruti Suzuki’s Drive Safe India campaign and Mahindra & Mahindra’s Drive Safe, Drive Smart campaign are both private sector initiatives, so S3 is incorrect. Global Initiatives: Brasilia Declaration on Road Safety (2015): Signed at the second Global High-Level Conference on Road Safety, it aims to achieve Sustainable Development Goal 3.6, halving global deaths and injuries from road traffic accidents by 2030. Decade of Action for Road Safety 2021-2030: A UN initiative adopting a resolution to prevent at least 50% of road traffic deaths and injuries by 2030, aligned with the holistic approach outlined in the Stockholm Declaration. International Road Assessment Programme (iRAP): A charity dedicated to saving lives through safer roads. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Current Affairs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The International Road Assessment Programme (iRAP) is a charity dedicated to saving lives through safer roads.

• The Motor Vehicles Amendment Act, 2019 proposes the creation of a National Road Safety Board.

• Drive Safe India campaign is an initiative of the Department of Road Transport to improve road safety.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

Solution: b)

Justification: Motor Vehicles Amendment Act, 2019: Increases penalties for traffic violations, addresses defective vehicles, and juvenile driving, and establishes a Mo- tor Vehicle Accident Fund. It also proposes the creation of a National Road Safety Board. 2. Carriage by Road Act, 2007: Regulates common carriers, limiting their liability and determining liability for loss or damage to goods.

Maruti Suzuki’s Drive Safe India campaign and Mahindra & Mahindra’s Drive Safe, Drive Smart campaign are both private sector initiatives, so S3 is incorrect.

Global Initiatives:

• Brasilia Declaration on Road Safety (2015): Signed at the second Global High-Level Conference on Road Safety, it aims to achieve Sustainable Development Goal 3.6, halving global deaths and injuries from road traffic accidents by 2030.

• Decade of Action for Road Safety 2021-2030: A UN initiative adopting a resolution to prevent at least 50% of road traffic deaths and injuries by 2030, aligned with the holistic approach outlined in the Stockholm Declaration.

• International Road Assessment Programme (iRAP): A charity dedicated to saving lives through safer roads.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Current Affairs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: b)

Maruti Suzuki’s Drive Safe India campaign and Mahindra & Mahindra’s Drive Safe, Drive Smart campaign are both private sector initiatives, so S3 is incorrect.

Global Initiatives:

• International Road Assessment Programme (iRAP): A charity dedicated to saving lives through safer roads.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Current Affairs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Passage 1 There is no denying that empathy is a powerful force and a crucial skill. It increases our life satisfaction, helps to build our social networks, and is frequently the motivation for taking action to help others in need. Amid the high praises for empathy, however, there is a camp that sings quite a different tune. Empathy doesn’t make for the best or most effective moral response. In fact, empathy can often distort our judgment, so much so that acts of kindness, motivated by empathy, often have bad effects. When we empathize with someone, we put ourselves into their shoes, which is precisely where this camp has an issue. It’s difficult to empathize with multiple people at the same time. With reference to the above passage which of the following is the most important and scientific inference? a) We need to debate with all stakeholders rather than making conclusions based on internal intuition b) The values of different cultures differ and makes empathizing unwise c) Empathy risks reason in judging our action d) The plight of one cannot be above that of many Correct Answer: D Passage tells, Empathy can lock us to one person We will spend all our resources in saving that one or few Since multiple people cant be empathized at once, we will not prevent social issues. So plight of many becomes less important than that of one. Incorrect Answer: D Passage tells, Empathy can lock us to one person We will spend all our resources in saving that one or few Since multiple people cant be empathized at once, we will not prevent social issues. So plight of many becomes less important than that of one.

#### 26. Question

Passage 1

There is no denying that empathy is a powerful force and a crucial skill. It increases our life satisfaction, helps to build our social networks, and is frequently the motivation for taking action to help others in need.

Amid the high praises for empathy, however, there is a camp that sings quite a different tune. Empathy doesn’t make for the best or most effective moral response. In fact, empathy can often distort our judgment, so much so that acts of kindness, motivated by empathy, often have bad effects. When we empathize with someone, we put ourselves into their shoes, which is precisely where this camp has an issue. It’s difficult to empathize with multiple people at the same time.

With reference to the above passage which of the following is the most important and scientific inference?

• a) We need to debate with all stakeholders rather than making conclusions based on internal intuition

• b) The values of different cultures differ and makes empathizing unwise

• c) Empathy risks reason in judging our action

• d) The plight of one cannot be above that of many

Passage tells,

• Empathy can lock us to one person

• We will spend all our resources in saving that one or few

• Since multiple people cant be empathized at once, we will not prevent social issues.

So plight of many becomes less important than that of one.

Passage tells,

• Empathy can lock us to one person

• We will spend all our resources in saving that one or few

• Since multiple people cant be empathized at once, we will not prevent social issues.

So plight of many becomes less important than that of one.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Passage There is no denying that empathy is a powerful force and a crucial skill. It increases our life satisfaction, helps to build our social networks, and is frequently the motivation for taking action to help others in need. Amid the high praises for empathy, however, there is a camp that sings quite a different tune. Empathy doesn’t make for the best or most effective moral response. In fact, empathy can often distort our judgment, so much so that acts of kindness, motivated by empathy, often have bad effects. When we empathize with someone, we put ourselves into their shoes, which is precisely where this camp has an issue. It’s difficult to empathize with multiple people at the same time. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Empathy causes us to have a narrow focus Our empathy for one deprives our resources useful for many. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 & 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C As said earlier empathy locks us to one and narrows our horizon. So 1 is correct. It was already clarified how we concentrate resources on few. So 2 is correct. Thus C is answer. Incorrect Answer: C As said earlier empathy locks us to one and narrows our horizon. So 1 is correct. It was already clarified how we concentrate resources on few. So 2 is correct. Thus C is answer.

#### 27. Question

Passage

On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:

• Empathy causes us to have a narrow focus

• Our empathy for one deprives our resources useful for many.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• c) Both 1 & 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

As said earlier empathy locks us to one and narrows our horizon. So 1 is correct.

It was already clarified how we concentrate resources on few. So 2 is correct.

Thus C is answer.

As said earlier empathy locks us to one and narrows our horizon. So 1 is correct.

It was already clarified how we concentrate resources on few. So 2 is correct.

Thus C is answer.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Passage There is no denying that empathy is a powerful force and a crucial skill. It increases our life satisfaction, helps to build our social networks, and is frequently the motivation for taking action to help others in need. Amid the high praises for empathy, however, there is a camp that sings quite a different tune. Empathy doesn’t make for the best or most effective moral response. In fact, empathy can often distort our judgment, so much so that acts of kindness, motivated by empathy, often have bad effects. When we empathize with someone, we put ourselves into their shoes, which is precisely where this camp has an issue. It’s difficult to empathize with multiple people at the same time. Which of the following is true in light of the above passage? Empathy is net benefit of empathizing is zero Empathy is not a social capital Code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 & 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: D The author in opening lines is clear that empathy is beneficial He agrees of its role in social networking So both are wrong. Answer is D. Incorrect Answer: D The author in opening lines is clear that empathy is beneficial He agrees of its role in social networking So both are wrong. Answer is D.

#### 28. Question

Passage

Which of the following is true in light of the above passage?

• Empathy is net benefit of empathizing is zero

• Empathy is not a social capital

• c) Both 1 & 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

• The author in opening lines is clear that empathy is beneficial

• He agrees of its role in social networking

So both are wrong. Answer is D.

• The author in opening lines is clear that empathy is beneficial

• He agrees of its role in social networking

So both are wrong. Answer is D.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points You have to study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to answer the question. How many marks did Tarun secure in English? I. The average marks obtained by Tarun in four subjects including English is 60. II. The total marks obtained by him in English and Mathematics together is 170. III. The total marks obtained by him in Mathematics and Science together is 180. a) I and II only b) II and III only c) I, II and III d) None of these Correct Answer: Option D) none of these Explanation: I gives, total marks in 4 subjects = (60 x 4) = 240. II gives, E + M = 170 III gives, M + S = 180. Thus, none of (A), (B), (C), (D) is true. Correct answer is (D). Incorrect Answer: Option D) none of these Explanation: I gives, total marks in 4 subjects = (60 x 4) = 240. II gives, E + M = 170 III gives, M + S = 180. Thus, none of (A), (B), (C), (D) is true. Correct answer is (D).

#### 29. Question

You have to study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to answer the question. How many marks did Tarun secure in English?

I. The average marks obtained by Tarun in four subjects including English is 60. II. The total marks obtained by him in English and Mathematics together is 170. III. The total marks obtained by him in Mathematics and Science together is 180.

• a) I and II only

• b) II and III only

• c) I, II and III

• d) None of these

Answer: Option D) none of these

Explanation:

I gives, total marks in 4 subjects = (60 x 4) = 240.

II gives, E + M = 170

III gives, M + S = 180.

Thus, none of (A), (B), (C), (D) is true.

Correct answer is (D).

Answer: Option D) none of these

Explanation:

I gives, total marks in 4 subjects = (60 x 4) = 240.

II gives, E + M = 170

III gives, M + S = 180.

Thus, none of (A), (B), (C), (D) is true.

Correct answer is (D).

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points The average salary of 30 officers in a firm is Rs.120 and the average salary of labourers is Rs. 40. Find the total number of labourers if the average salary of the firm is Rs. 50. a) Rs. 180 b) Rs. 420 c) Rs. 240 d) Rs. 210 Correct Answer D) Rs. 210 Explanation The sum of salary of officers will be = 30×120 = 3600 Let the number of labourers = X. ATQ, 3600 + 40X = 50(30+X) 2100 = 10X X= 210 Incorrect Answer D) Rs. 210 Explanation The sum of salary of officers will be = 30×120 = 3600 Let the number of labourers = X. ATQ, 3600 + 40X = 50(30+X) 2100 = 10X X= 210

#### 30. Question

The average salary of 30 officers in a firm is Rs.120 and the average salary of labourers is Rs. 40. Find the total number of labourers if the average salary of the firm is Rs. 50.

• a) Rs. 180

• b) Rs. 420

• c) Rs. 240

• d) Rs. 210

Answer D) Rs. 210

Explanation

The sum of salary of officers will be = 30×120 = 3600

Let the number of labourers = X.

ATQ, 3600 + 40X = 50(30+X)

2100 = 10X

Answer D) Rs. 210

Explanation

The sum of salary of officers will be = 30×120 = 3600

Let the number of labourers = X.

ATQ, 3600 + 40X = 50(30+X)

2100 = 10X

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