DAY – 21 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points The Yaounde Declaration, adopted in 2024, primarily focuses on accelerating the efforts towards the elimination of which of the following? (a) Malaria in the South America continent through enhanced vector control and drug distribution. (b) Human African Trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) as a public health problem. (c) Tuberculosis drug resistance by implementing novel diagnostic and treatment protocols. (d) Polio virus transmission globally, following recent setbacks in eradication efforts. Correct Solution: B The Yaounde Declaration (2024) represents a renewed push against specific neglected tropical diseases. Option (a): Incorrect: While Malaria is a major issue in Africa, the Yaounde Declaration specifically targets certain Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs). The Abuja Declaration is more associated with Malaria. Option (b): Correct: The 2024 Yaounde Declaration specifically centers on reaffirming commitment and accelerating efforts towards the elimination of Human African Trypanosomiasis (HAT), commonly known as sleeping sickness, particularly focusing on the gambiense form. It builds upon previous efforts and aims for elimination as a public health problem. Option (c): Incorrect: Tuberculosis, especially drug-resistant TB, is a major global health challenge addressed by various WHO strategies and national programs, but it is not the primary focus of the 2024 Yaounde Declaration. Option (d): Incorrect: Polio eradication is governed by the Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI) and related declarations/strategies, distinct from the Yaounde Declaration’s focus. Incorrect Solution: B The Yaounde Declaration (2024) represents a renewed push against specific neglected tropical diseases. Option (a): Incorrect: While Malaria is a major issue in Africa, the Yaounde Declaration specifically targets certain Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs). The Abuja Declaration is more associated with Malaria. Option (b): Correct: The 2024 Yaounde Declaration specifically centers on reaffirming commitment and accelerating efforts towards the elimination of Human African Trypanosomiasis (HAT), commonly known as sleeping sickness, particularly focusing on the gambiense form. It builds upon previous efforts and aims for elimination as a public health problem. Option (c): Incorrect: Tuberculosis, especially drug-resistant TB, is a major global health challenge addressed by various WHO strategies and national programs, but it is not the primary focus of the 2024 Yaounde Declaration. Option (d): Incorrect: Polio eradication is governed by the Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI) and related declarations/strategies, distinct from the Yaounde Declaration’s focus.

#### 1. Question

The Yaounde Declaration, adopted in 2024, primarily focuses on accelerating the efforts towards the elimination of which of the following?

• (a) Malaria in the South America continent through enhanced vector control and drug distribution.

• (b) Human African Trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) as a public health problem.

• (c) Tuberculosis drug resistance by implementing novel diagnostic and treatment protocols.

• (d) Polio virus transmission globally, following recent setbacks in eradication efforts.

Solution: B

The Yaounde Declaration (2024) represents a renewed push against specific neglected tropical diseases.

Option (a): Incorrect: While Malaria is a major issue in Africa, the Yaounde Declaration specifically targets certain Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs). The Abuja Declaration is more associated with Malaria.

Option (b): Correct: The 2024 Yaounde Declaration specifically centers on reaffirming commitment and accelerating efforts towards the elimination of Human African Trypanosomiasis (HAT), commonly known as sleeping sickness, particularly focusing on the gambiense form. It builds upon previous efforts and aims for elimination as a public health problem.

Option (c): Incorrect: Tuberculosis, especially drug-resistant TB, is a major global health challenge addressed by various WHO strategies and national programs, but it is not the primary focus of the 2024 Yaounde Declaration.

Option (d): Incorrect: Polio eradication is governed by the Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI) and related declarations/strategies, distinct from the Yaounde Declaration’s focus.

Solution: B

The Yaounde Declaration (2024) represents a renewed push against specific neglected tropical diseases.

Option (d): Incorrect: Polio eradication is governed by the Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI) and related declarations/strategies, distinct from the Yaounde Declaration’s focus.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points With reference to India’s development of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs), consider the following statements: These reactors are primarily envisioned to utilize Thorium-based fuel cycles, aligning with India’s long-term nuclear program strategy. A key advantage projected for SMRs is their potential for deployment in remote locations lacking robust grid infrastructure. The design philosophy emphasizes passive safety systems, reducing reliance on active interventions or external power during emergencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) represent a newer generation of nuclear reactor designs, typically smaller in size (up to 300 MWe) and designed for factory fabrication and modular deployment. India is actively exploring SMR technology. While India has a long-term interest in Thorium, the initial SMR designs being actively considered or developed globally, and likely for India’s near-term deployment (“Bharat SMRs”), are predominantly based on established Pressurized Water Reactor (PWR) technology using Uranium fuel. Thorium utilization might be a future possibility but isn’t the primary basis for current SMR development focus. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. SMRs’ smaller size, modularity, and potentially lower infrastructure requirements (cooling water, grid connection strength) make them suitable candidates for powering remote industrial sites, off-grid communities, or replacing aging fossil fuel plants in areas with weaker grids, compared to large conventional reactors. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Enhanced safety is a major design goal for SMRs. Many designs incorporate passive safety features that rely on natural forces like gravity, natural convection, and pressure differentials to manage reactor shutdown and cooling during off-normal events, without needing operator action or external power sources (like diesel generators) for extended periods. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) represent a newer generation of nuclear reactor designs, typically smaller in size (up to 300 MWe) and designed for factory fabrication and modular deployment. India is actively exploring SMR technology. While India has a long-term interest in Thorium, the initial SMR designs being actively considered or developed globally, and likely for India’s near-term deployment (“Bharat SMRs”), are predominantly based on established Pressurized Water Reactor (PWR) technology using Uranium fuel. Thorium utilization might be a future possibility but isn’t the primary basis for current SMR development focus. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. SMRs’ smaller size, modularity, and potentially lower infrastructure requirements (cooling water, grid connection strength) make them suitable candidates for powering remote industrial sites, off-grid communities, or replacing aging fossil fuel plants in areas with weaker grids, compared to large conventional reactors. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Enhanced safety is a major design goal for SMRs. Many designs incorporate passive safety features that rely on natural forces like gravity, natural convection, and pressure differentials to manage reactor shutdown and cooling during off-normal events, without needing operator action or external power sources (like diesel generators) for extended periods. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 2. Question

With reference to India’s development of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs), consider the following statements:

• These reactors are primarily envisioned to utilize Thorium-based fuel cycles, aligning with India’s long-term nuclear program strategy.

• A key advantage projected for SMRs is their potential for deployment in remote locations lacking robust grid infrastructure.

• The design philosophy emphasizes passive safety systems, reducing reliance on active interventions or external power during emergencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) represent a newer generation of nuclear reactor designs, typically smaller in size (up to 300 MWe) and designed for factory fabrication and modular deployment. India is actively exploring SMR technology.

While India has a long-term interest in Thorium, the initial SMR designs being actively considered or developed globally, and likely for India’s near-term deployment (“Bharat SMRs”), are predominantly based on established Pressurized Water Reactor (PWR) technology using Uranium fuel. Thorium utilization might be a future possibility but isn’t the primary basis for current SMR development focus.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

SMRs’ smaller size, modularity, and potentially lower infrastructure requirements (cooling water, grid connection strength) make them suitable candidates for powering remote industrial sites, off-grid communities, or replacing aging fossil fuel plants in areas with weaker grids, compared to large conventional reactors.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Enhanced safety is a major design goal for SMRs. Many designs incorporate passive safety features that rely on natural forces like gravity, natural convection, and pressure differentials to manage reactor shutdown and cooling during off-normal events, without needing operator action or external power sources (like diesel generators) for extended periods.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Nonylphenol Ethoxylates (NPEs) and their degradation product, Nonylphenol (NP): NPEs are primarily used as biodegradable surfactants in household detergents and personal care products. Nonylphenol (NP) is classified as an endocrine disruptor known to mimic estrogen and exhibits high persistence in aquatic environments. India has implemented stringent regulations completely phasing out the use of NPEs in all industrial and consumer applications. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: A Nonylphenol Ethoxylates (NPEs) are non-ionic surfactants used in various applications. Their environmental breakdown leads to Nonylphenol (NP), a compound raising significant environmental and health concerns. Statement 1: Incorrect: While NPEs are surfactants used in detergents, industrial cleaners, and other applications, they are not readily biodegradable. Their degradation often results in the more persistent and toxic Nonylphenol (NP). Their use in household products is restricted or banned in many regions (like the EU) due to these concerns. Statement 2: Correct: Nonylphenol (NP) is well-documented as an endocrine-disrupting chemical (EDC). It can interfere with the hormonal system, particularly by mimicking estrogen. It is also known for its persistence in the environment, especially in aquatic ecosystems, and its tendency to bioaccumulate. Statement 3: Incorrect. While there are BIS standards (e.g., IS 11704) restricting NPEs in detergents intended for household use, and growing awareness, India has not implemented a complete phase-out across all industrial and consumer applications. NPEs are still used in various industrial sectors like textiles, paints, pesticides, etc. Regulation is less stringent compared to regions like the EU. Incorrect Solution: A Nonylphenol Ethoxylates (NPEs) are non-ionic surfactants used in various applications. Their environmental breakdown leads to Nonylphenol (NP), a compound raising significant environmental and health concerns. Statement 1: Incorrect: While NPEs are surfactants used in detergents, industrial cleaners, and other applications, they are not readily biodegradable. Their degradation often results in the more persistent and toxic Nonylphenol (NP). Their use in household products is restricted or banned in many regions (like the EU) due to these concerns. Statement 2: Correct: Nonylphenol (NP) is well-documented as an endocrine-disrupting chemical (EDC). It can interfere with the hormonal system, particularly by mimicking estrogen. It is also known for its persistence in the environment, especially in aquatic ecosystems, and its tendency to bioaccumulate. Statement 3: Incorrect. While there are BIS standards (e.g., IS 11704) restricting NPEs in detergents intended for household use, and growing awareness, India has not implemented a complete phase-out across all industrial and consumer applications. NPEs are still used in various industrial sectors like textiles, paints, pesticides, etc. Regulation is less stringent compared to regions like the EU.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Nonylphenol Ethoxylates (NPEs) and their degradation product, Nonylphenol (NP):

• NPEs are primarily used as biodegradable surfactants in household detergents and personal care products.

• Nonylphenol (NP) is classified as an endocrine disruptor known to mimic estrogen and exhibits high persistence in aquatic environments.

• India has implemented stringent regulations completely phasing out the use of NPEs in all industrial and consumer applications.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: A

Nonylphenol Ethoxylates (NPEs) are non-ionic surfactants used in various applications. Their environmental breakdown leads to Nonylphenol (NP), a compound raising significant environmental and health concerns.

• Statement 1: Incorrect: While NPEs are surfactants used in detergents, industrial cleaners, and other applications, they are not readily biodegradable. Their degradation often results in the more persistent and toxic Nonylphenol (NP). Their use in household products is restricted or banned in many regions (like the EU) due to these concerns.

• Statement 2: Correct: Nonylphenol (NP) is well-documented as an endocrine-disrupting chemical (EDC). It can interfere with the hormonal system, particularly by mimicking estrogen. It is also known for its persistence in the environment, especially in aquatic ecosystems, and its tendency to bioaccumulate.

Statement 3: Incorrect. While there are BIS standards (e.g., IS 11704) restricting NPEs in detergents intended for household use, and growing awareness, India has not implemented a complete phase-out across all industrial and consumer applications. NPEs are still used in various industrial sectors like textiles, paints, pesticides, etc. Regulation is less stringent compared to regions like the EU.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Nafithromycin represents an advancement in antibiotic development primarily because: (a) It is the first synthetic antibiotic capable of targeting viral infections alongside bacterial ones. (b) It belongs to a novel class of antibiotics derived from marine microorganisms, effective against extensively drug-resistant (XDR) bacteria. (c) As a lactone-ketolide, it demonstrates potent activity against common respiratory pathogens, including strains resistant to older macrolides, with potentially fewer doses required. (d) It functions by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication, a mechanism distinct from existing major antibiotic classes, thus overcoming cross-resistance. Correct Solution: C Nafithromycin is a semi-synthetic antibiotic developed to combat bacterial respiratory tract infections, particularly in the face of rising antibiotic resistance. Option (a): Incorrect: Antibiotics, including Nafithromycin, target bacteria. Antiviral drugs are used for viral infections. No single drug effectively serves both purposes in this manner. Option (b): Incorrect: While marine microorganisms are a source of novel compounds, Nafithromycin is derived from erythromycin A (a macrolide) and belongs to the ketolide class (specifically, a lactone-fused ketolide), not a completely new class from marine sources in this context. Its activity spectrum focuses mainly on respiratory pathogens, not necessarily broad XDR bacteria. Option (c): Correct: Nafithromycin is a next-generation antibiotic structurally related to macrolides and ketolides. It has shown high potency against key causative agents of Community-Acquired Bacterial Pneumonia (CABP), such as *Streptococcus pneumoniae*, *Haemophilus influenzae*, and atypical pathogens. Crucially, it retains activity against many strains that have developed resistance to older macrolides (like erythromycin, azithromycin). Its pharmacokinetic profile suggests potential for shorter treatment courses or less frequent dosing compared to some older antibiotics. Option (d): Incorrect: Nafithromycin, like other macrolides and ketolides, functions by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit. It does not primarily inhibit DNA replication (which is the mechanism of quinolones). Incorrect Solution: C Nafithromycin is a semi-synthetic antibiotic developed to combat bacterial respiratory tract infections, particularly in the face of rising antibiotic resistance. Option (a): Incorrect: Antibiotics, including Nafithromycin, target bacteria. Antiviral drugs are used for viral infections. No single drug effectively serves both purposes in this manner. Option (b): Incorrect: While marine microorganisms are a source of novel compounds, Nafithromycin is derived from erythromycin A (a macrolide) and belongs to the ketolide class (specifically, a lactone-fused ketolide), not a completely new class from marine sources in this context. Its activity spectrum focuses mainly on respiratory pathogens, not necessarily broad XDR bacteria. Option (c): Correct: Nafithromycin is a next-generation antibiotic structurally related to macrolides and ketolides. It has shown high potency against key causative agents of Community-Acquired Bacterial Pneumonia (CABP), such as *Streptococcus pneumoniae*, *Haemophilus influenzae*, and atypical pathogens. Crucially, it retains activity against many strains that have developed resistance to older macrolides (like erythromycin, azithromycin). Its pharmacokinetic profile suggests potential for shorter treatment courses or less frequent dosing compared to some older antibiotics. Option (d): Incorrect: Nafithromycin, like other macrolides and ketolides, functions by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit. It does not primarily inhibit DNA replication (which is the mechanism of quinolones).

#### 4. Question

Nafithromycin represents an advancement in antibiotic development primarily because:

• (a) It is the first synthetic antibiotic capable of targeting viral infections alongside bacterial ones.

• (b) It belongs to a novel class of antibiotics derived from marine microorganisms, effective against extensively drug-resistant (XDR) bacteria.

• (c) As a lactone-ketolide, it demonstrates potent activity against common respiratory pathogens, including strains resistant to older macrolides, with potentially fewer doses required.

• (d) It functions by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication, a mechanism distinct from existing major antibiotic classes, thus overcoming cross-resistance.

Solution: C

Nafithromycin is a semi-synthetic antibiotic developed to combat bacterial respiratory tract infections, particularly in the face of rising antibiotic resistance.

• Option (a): Incorrect: Antibiotics, including Nafithromycin, target bacteria. Antiviral drugs are used for viral infections. No single drug effectively serves both purposes in this manner.

• Option (b): Incorrect: While marine microorganisms are a source of novel compounds, Nafithromycin is derived from erythromycin A (a macrolide) and belongs to the ketolide class (specifically, a lactone-fused ketolide), not a completely new class from marine sources in this context. Its activity spectrum focuses mainly on respiratory pathogens, not necessarily broad XDR bacteria.

• Option (c): Correct: Nafithromycin is a next-generation antibiotic structurally related to macrolides and ketolides. It has shown high potency against key causative agents of Community-Acquired Bacterial Pneumonia (CABP), such as *Streptococcus pneumoniae*, *Haemophilus influenzae*, and atypical pathogens. Crucially, it retains activity against many strains that have developed resistance to older macrolides (like erythromycin, azithromycin). Its pharmacokinetic profile suggests potential for shorter treatment courses or less frequent dosing compared to some older antibiotics.

Option (d): Incorrect: Nafithromycin, like other macrolides and ketolides, functions by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit. It does not primarily inhibit DNA replication (which is the mechanism of quinolones).

Solution: C

Nafithromycin is a semi-synthetic antibiotic developed to combat bacterial respiratory tract infections, particularly in the face of rising antibiotic resistance.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Widal test used for diagnosing typhoid fever: It directly detects the presence of Salmonella Typhi or Salmonella Paratyphi bacteria in the patient’s bloodstream. A single positive Widal test, especially in endemic areas, is sufficient for confirming an active typhoid infection. The test relies on the principle of bacterial agglutination upon interaction with specific antibodies present in the patient’s serum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only Correct Solution: A The Widal test is a serological assay historically used for the diagnosis of typhoid (enteric) fever, caused by specific Salmonella serotypes. Its utility and interpretation have limitations. Statement 1: Incorrect: The Widal test detects antibodies (agglutinins like anti-O and anti-H) produced by the patient’s immune system against specific antigens of Salmonella Typhi and Paratyphi. It does not directly detect the bacteria themselves. Blood culture is used for direct detection. Statement 2: Incorrect: A single positive test is often inconclusive. Antibody titres can remain elevated from past infections or vaccinations. Also, in endemic areas, baseline titres may be present in healthy individuals. A rising titre in paired sera (samples taken days apart) is more indicative, but even that has limitations (false positives/negatives). Clinical correlation is crucial. Statement 3: Correct: This describes the principle of the test. Patient serum (containing potential antibodies) is mixed with preparations of killed Salmonella bacteria containing specific O (somatic) and H (flagellar) antigens. If specific antibodies are present, they bind to the antigens, causing the bacterial cells to clump or agglutinate, which is visible. Incorrect Solution: A The Widal test is a serological assay historically used for the diagnosis of typhoid (enteric) fever, caused by specific Salmonella serotypes. Its utility and interpretation have limitations. Statement 1: Incorrect: The Widal test detects antibodies (agglutinins like anti-O and anti-H) produced by the patient’s immune system against specific antigens of Salmonella Typhi and Paratyphi. It does not directly detect the bacteria themselves. Blood culture is used for direct detection. Statement 2: Incorrect: A single positive test is often inconclusive. Antibody titres can remain elevated from past infections or vaccinations. Also, in endemic areas, baseline titres may be present in healthy individuals. A rising titre in paired sera (samples taken days apart) is more indicative, but even that has limitations (false positives/negatives). Clinical correlation is crucial. Statement 3: Correct: This describes the principle of the test. Patient serum (containing potential antibodies) is mixed with preparations of killed Salmonella bacteria containing specific O (somatic) and H (flagellar) antigens. If specific antibodies are present, they bind to the antigens, causing the bacterial cells to clump or agglutinate, which is visible.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Widal test used for diagnosing typhoid fever:

• It directly detects the presence of Salmonella Typhi or Salmonella Paratyphi bacteria in the patient’s bloodstream.

• A single positive Widal test, especially in endemic areas, is sufficient for confirming an active typhoid infection.

• The test relies on the principle of bacterial agglutination upon interaction with specific antibodies present in the patient’s serum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 only

Solution: A

The Widal test is a serological assay historically used for the diagnosis of typhoid (enteric) fever, caused by specific Salmonella serotypes. Its utility and interpretation have limitations.

• Statement 1: Incorrect: The Widal test detects antibodies (agglutinins like anti-O and anti-H) produced by the patient’s immune system against specific antigens of Salmonella Typhi and Paratyphi. It does not directly detect the bacteria themselves. Blood culture is used for direct detection.

• Statement 2: Incorrect: A single positive test is often inconclusive. Antibody titres can remain elevated from past infections or vaccinations. Also, in endemic areas, baseline titres may be present in healthy individuals. A rising titre in paired sera (samples taken days apart) is more indicative, but even that has limitations (false positives/negatives). Clinical correlation is crucial.

Statement 3: Correct: This describes the principle of the test. Patient serum (containing potential antibodies) is mixed with preparations of killed Salmonella bacteria containing specific O (somatic) and H (flagellar) antigens. If specific antibodies are present, they bind to the antigens, causing the bacterial cells to clump or agglutinate, which is visible.

Solution: A

The Widal test is a serological assay historically used for the diagnosis of typhoid (enteric) fever, caused by specific Salmonella serotypes. Its utility and interpretation have limitations.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points In the context of modern computing architectures, Fog Computing is best conceptualized as: (a) A replacement for Cloud Computing, offering superior data storage capacity and processing power through decentralized micro-data centers. (b) A model where computation and data storage are performed exclusively on the end-user devices (like sensors or smartphones) to maximize privacy. (c) An intermediate layer of computing infrastructure between the Cloud and edge devices, designed to reduce latency and network load for time-sensitive applications like IoT. (d) A specialized type of Cloud Computing optimized for handling large-scale, batch-processing tasks that are not latency-sensitive. Correct Solution: C Fog Computing, often used interchangeably with Edge Computing or as a specific layer within it, is an architectural paradigm addressing the limitations of traditional cloud computing for certain applications, especially those involving the Internet of Things (IoT). Option (a): Incorrect: Fog Computing is complementary to, not a replacement for, Cloud Computing. The Cloud still offers large-scale storage and complex processing capabilities. Fog handles intermediate tasks. Option (b): Incorrect: While Fog computing involves processing closer to the edge, it’s not exclusively on the end-user devices. It implies an intermediary infrastructure (fog nodes) which could be routers, gateways, or local servers, sitting between the edge devices and the central cloud. Processing solely on end devices is closer to pure ‘edge’ processing. Option (c): Correct: This accurately describes Fog Computing’s role. It extends cloud capabilities closer to the data sources (edge devices/sensors). By performing initial data processing, analysis, and storage locally or regionally (in the ‘fog’), it reduces the amount of data sent to the central cloud, thereby lowering latency (crucial for real-time control systems, autonomous vehicles, etc.) and conserving network bandwidth. Option (d): Incorrect: Fog Computing is specifically designed to address latency sensitivity, making it suitable for real-time interactions and IoT applications, contrasting with batch processing where latency is less critical. Incorrect Solution: C Fog Computing, often used interchangeably with Edge Computing or as a specific layer within it, is an architectural paradigm addressing the limitations of traditional cloud computing for certain applications, especially those involving the Internet of Things (IoT). Option (a): Incorrect: Fog Computing is complementary to, not a replacement for, Cloud Computing. The Cloud still offers large-scale storage and complex processing capabilities. Fog handles intermediate tasks. Option (b): Incorrect: While Fog computing involves processing closer to the edge, it’s not exclusively on the end-user devices. It implies an intermediary infrastructure (fog nodes) which could be routers, gateways, or local servers, sitting between the edge devices and the central cloud. Processing solely on end devices is closer to pure ‘edge’ processing. Option (c): Correct: This accurately describes Fog Computing’s role. It extends cloud capabilities closer to the data sources (edge devices/sensors). By performing initial data processing, analysis, and storage locally or regionally (in the ‘fog’), it reduces the amount of data sent to the central cloud, thereby lowering latency (crucial for real-time control systems, autonomous vehicles, etc.) and conserving network bandwidth. Option (d): Incorrect: Fog Computing is specifically designed to address latency sensitivity, making it suitable for real-time interactions and IoT applications, contrasting with batch processing where latency is less critical.

#### 6. Question

In the context of modern computing architectures, Fog Computing is best conceptualized as:

• (a) A replacement for Cloud Computing, offering superior data storage capacity and processing power through decentralized micro-data centers.

• (b) A model where computation and data storage are performed exclusively on the end-user devices (like sensors or smartphones) to maximize privacy.

• (c) An intermediate layer of computing infrastructure between the Cloud and edge devices, designed to reduce latency and network load for time-sensitive applications like IoT.

• (d) A specialized type of Cloud Computing optimized for handling large-scale, batch-processing tasks that are not latency-sensitive.

Solution: C

Fog Computing, often used interchangeably with Edge Computing or as a specific layer within it, is an architectural paradigm addressing the limitations of traditional cloud computing for certain applications, especially those involving the Internet of Things (IoT).

• Option (a): Incorrect: Fog Computing is complementary to, not a replacement for, Cloud Computing. The Cloud still offers large-scale storage and complex processing capabilities. Fog handles intermediate tasks.

• Option (b): Incorrect: While Fog computing involves processing closer to the edge, it’s not exclusively on the end-user devices. It implies an intermediary infrastructure (fog nodes) which could be routers, gateways, or local servers, sitting between the edge devices and the central cloud. Processing solely on end devices is closer to pure ‘edge’ processing.

• Option (c): Correct: This accurately describes Fog Computing’s role. It extends cloud capabilities closer to the data sources (edge devices/sensors). By performing initial data processing, analysis, and storage locally or regionally (in the ‘fog’), it reduces the amount of data sent to the central cloud, thereby lowering latency (crucial for real-time control systems, autonomous vehicles, etc.) and conserving network bandwidth.

• Option (d): Incorrect: Fog Computing is specifically designed to address latency sensitivity, making it suitable for real-time interactions and IoT applications, contrasting with batch processing where latency is less critical.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points The TRISHNA (Thermal infraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural resource Assessment) mission, a collaboration between ISRO and CNES, is primarily designed to provide high-resolution mapping of: (a) Atmospheric aerosol concentrations and their impact on air quality. (b) Sea surface salinity and ocean current dynamics. (c) Earth's surface temperature and emissivity for water resource and agricultural monitoring. (d) Sub-surface geological structures for mineral exploration. Correct Solution: C TRISHNA is an upcoming Earth observation satellite mission jointly developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the French Space Agency (CNES). It focuses on observing Earth’s surface in the thermal infrared spectrum. Option (a): Incorrect: While aerosols can affect thermal measurements, the primary goal is not aerosol mapping. Missions like INSAT-3DR/3DS or dedicated air quality satellites focus on aerosols. Option (b): Incorrect: Sea surface salinity is measured using microwave radiometers (like on SMOS or SMAP missions), and ocean currents are often tracked using altimetry and other methods. TRISHNA’s focus is thermal infrared. Option (c): Correct: TRISHNA’s core objective is to acquire high spatial and temporal resolution imagery of Earth’s surface temperature and emissivity. This data is crucial for monitoring evapotranspiration rates, water stress in crops, soil moisture estimation, urban heat island effects, detecting subsurface fires, and managing water resources more effectively – key aspects of natural resource assessment, agriculture, and climate monitoring. Option (d): Incorrect: While thermal anomalies can sometimes indicate geological activity, TRISHNA’s instrumentation and orbit are optimized for surface temperature monitoring related to water and vegetation dynamics, not deep geological exploration which often uses different remote sensing techniques (like radar or hyperspectral imaging) or ground-based methods. Incorrect Solution: C TRISHNA is an upcoming Earth observation satellite mission jointly developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the French Space Agency (CNES). It focuses on observing Earth’s surface in the thermal infrared spectrum. Option (a): Incorrect: While aerosols can affect thermal measurements, the primary goal is not aerosol mapping. Missions like INSAT-3DR/3DS or dedicated air quality satellites focus on aerosols. Option (b): Incorrect: Sea surface salinity is measured using microwave radiometers (like on SMOS or SMAP missions), and ocean currents are often tracked using altimetry and other methods. TRISHNA’s focus is thermal infrared. Option (c): Correct: TRISHNA’s core objective is to acquire high spatial and temporal resolution imagery of Earth’s surface temperature and emissivity. This data is crucial for monitoring evapotranspiration rates, water stress in crops, soil moisture estimation, urban heat island effects, detecting subsurface fires, and managing water resources more effectively – key aspects of natural resource assessment, agriculture, and climate monitoring. Option (d): Incorrect: While thermal anomalies can sometimes indicate geological activity, TRISHNA’s instrumentation and orbit are optimized for surface temperature monitoring related to water and vegetation dynamics, not deep geological exploration which often uses different remote sensing techniques (like radar or hyperspectral imaging) or ground-based methods.

#### 7. Question

The TRISHNA (Thermal infraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural resource Assessment) mission, a collaboration between ISRO and CNES, is primarily designed to provide high-resolution mapping of:

• (a) Atmospheric aerosol concentrations and their impact on air quality.

• (b) Sea surface salinity and ocean current dynamics.

• (c) Earth's surface temperature and emissivity for water resource and agricultural monitoring.

• (d) Sub-surface geological structures for mineral exploration.

Solution: C

TRISHNA is an upcoming Earth observation satellite mission jointly developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the French Space Agency (CNES). It focuses on observing Earth’s surface in the thermal infrared spectrum.

• Option (a): Incorrect: While aerosols can affect thermal measurements, the primary goal is not aerosol mapping. Missions like INSAT-3DR/3DS or dedicated air quality satellites focus on aerosols.

• Option (b): Incorrect: Sea surface salinity is measured using microwave radiometers (like on SMOS or SMAP missions), and ocean currents are often tracked using altimetry and other methods. TRISHNA’s focus is thermal infrared.

• Option (c): Correct: TRISHNA’s core objective is to acquire high spatial and temporal resolution imagery of Earth’s surface temperature and emissivity. This data is crucial for monitoring evapotranspiration rates, water stress in crops, soil moisture estimation, urban heat island effects, detecting subsurface fires, and managing water resources more effectively – key aspects of natural resource assessment, agriculture, and climate monitoring.

Option (d): Incorrect: While thermal anomalies can sometimes indicate geological activity, TRISHNA’s instrumentation and orbit are optimized for surface temperature monitoring related to water and vegetation dynamics, not deep geological exploration which often uses different remote sensing techniques (like radar or hyperspectral imaging) or ground-based methods.

Solution: C

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The NIDHI i-TBI, supported by the Department of Science & Technology (DST), primarily aims to: (a) Provide direct seed funding to individual student innovators for developing prototypes. (b) Establish and support incubation centres specifically targeting technologies for underserved populations and remote areas. (c) Fund advanced research projects in academic institutions focusing on fundamental scientific breakthroughs. (d) Create large-scale manufacturing hubs for technologies developed within national labs. Correct Solution: B The NIDHI (National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations) scheme is an umbrella program by India’s Department of Science & Technology (DST) to foster innovation and startups. NIDHI i-TBI is a specific component under this umbrella. Option (a): Incorrect: While NIDHI has components for prototyping (like PRAYAS), the i-TBI program focuses on supporting the incubators themselves, not directly funding individual students’ prototypes as its primary goal. Incubators then support startups. Option (b): Correct: The ‘i’ in i-TBI stands for ‘inclusive’. This component specifically aims to establish and strengthen Technology Business Incubators (TBIs) that cater to innovators and startups working on solutions relevant to social needs, underserved communities, or specific challenges in tier-II/tier-III cities and remote regions, promoting inclusive innovation. Option (c): Incorrect: Funding fundamental research in academic institutions is typically handled by other DST schemes or bodies like the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), not the NIDHI i-TBI program which focuses on incubation and entrepreneurship. Option (d): Incorrect: NIDHI i-TBI focuses on the incubation stage (early-stage support for startups). Creating large-scale manufacturing hubs involves different government initiatives and infrastructure development programs. Incorrect Solution: B The NIDHI (National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations) scheme is an umbrella program by India’s Department of Science & Technology (DST) to foster innovation and startups. NIDHI i-TBI is a specific component under this umbrella. Option (a): Incorrect: While NIDHI has components for prototyping (like PRAYAS), the i-TBI program focuses on supporting the incubators themselves, not directly funding individual students’ prototypes as its primary goal. Incubators then support startups. Option (b): Correct: The ‘i’ in i-TBI stands for ‘inclusive’. This component specifically aims to establish and strengthen Technology Business Incubators (TBIs) that cater to innovators and startups working on solutions relevant to social needs, underserved communities, or specific challenges in tier-II/tier-III cities and remote regions, promoting inclusive innovation. Option (c): Incorrect: Funding fundamental research in academic institutions is typically handled by other DST schemes or bodies like the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), not the NIDHI i-TBI program which focuses on incubation and entrepreneurship. Option (d): Incorrect: NIDHI i-TBI focuses on the incubation stage (early-stage support for startups). Creating large-scale manufacturing hubs involves different government initiatives and infrastructure development programs.

#### 8. Question

The NIDHI i-TBI, supported by the Department of Science & Technology (DST), primarily aims to:

• (a) Provide direct seed funding to individual student innovators for developing prototypes.

• (b) Establish and support incubation centres specifically targeting technologies for underserved populations and remote areas.

• (c) Fund advanced research projects in academic institutions focusing on fundamental scientific breakthroughs.

• (d) Create large-scale manufacturing hubs for technologies developed within national labs.

Solution: B

The NIDHI (National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations) scheme is an umbrella program by India’s Department of Science & Technology (DST) to foster innovation and startups. NIDHI i-TBI is a specific component under this umbrella.

• Option (a): Incorrect: While NIDHI has components for prototyping (like PRAYAS), the i-TBI program focuses on supporting the incubators themselves, not directly funding individual students’ prototypes as its primary goal. Incubators then support startups.

• Option (b): Correct: The ‘i’ in i-TBI stands for ‘inclusive’. This component specifically aims to establish and strengthen Technology Business Incubators (TBIs) that cater to innovators and startups working on solutions relevant to social needs, underserved communities, or specific challenges in tier-II/tier-III cities and remote regions, promoting inclusive innovation.

• Option (c): Incorrect: Funding fundamental research in academic institutions is typically handled by other DST schemes or bodies like the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), not the NIDHI i-TBI program which focuses on incubation and entrepreneurship.

• Option (d): Incorrect: NIDHI i-TBI focuses on the incubation stage (early-stage support for startups). Creating large-scale manufacturing hubs involves different government initiatives and infrastructure development programs.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points The phenomenon occasionally referred to as “Purple Rain,” reported in certain localized areas, is most plausibly explained by: (a) The scattering of sunlight by unusually high concentrations of atmospheric ice crystals, similar to halo phenomena. (b) Biological material, such as pollen or algae spores from specific blooms, being carried aloft and mixing with rainwater. (c) The presence of dissolved manganese compounds, often originating from industrial emissions or specific geological dust, oxidizing and colouring the precipitation. (d) A rare photochemical reaction involving ozone and nitrogen oxides under specific meteorological conditions, tinting the raindrops. Correct Solution: C While coloured rain (red, yellow, black) often has natural explanations (dust, pollen), reports of distinctly “purple” rain are rare and often linked to specific localized pollutants. Option (a): Incorrect: Light scattering by ice crystals produces phenomena like halos, sundogs, or sometimes iridescent clouds, but does not typically result in uniformly purple-coloured raindrops falling over an area. Option (b): Incorrect. While pollen or algae can cause yellow, green, or reddish rain (“blood rain”), a distinct purple colour is not typically associated with common biological materials in precipitation. Option (c): Correct. Several documented instances of purple rain, for example, in areas with ferromanganese industries or specific types of mining/smelting, have been chemically linked to the presence of manganese (specifically potassium permanganate or related oxidized manganese species) in the rainwater. These compounds can impart a distinct purple colour. Atmospheric scrubbing of industrial plumes containing manganese particulate matter is a likely mechanism. Option (d): Incorrect. While atmospheric chemistry involving ozone and NOx is complex and contributes to smog and acid rain, it’s not known to produce purple-coloured precipitation directly. The colours associated with NOx are typically brownish (NO2). Incorrect Solution: C While coloured rain (red, yellow, black) often has natural explanations (dust, pollen), reports of distinctly “purple” rain are rare and often linked to specific localized pollutants. Option (a): Incorrect: Light scattering by ice crystals produces phenomena like halos, sundogs, or sometimes iridescent clouds, but does not typically result in uniformly purple-coloured raindrops falling over an area. Option (b): Incorrect. While pollen or algae can cause yellow, green, or reddish rain (“blood rain”), a distinct purple colour is not typically associated with common biological materials in precipitation. Option (c): Correct. Several documented instances of purple rain, for example, in areas with ferromanganese industries or specific types of mining/smelting, have been chemically linked to the presence of manganese (specifically potassium permanganate or related oxidized manganese species) in the rainwater. These compounds can impart a distinct purple colour. Atmospheric scrubbing of industrial plumes containing manganese particulate matter is a likely mechanism. Option (d): Incorrect. While atmospheric chemistry involving ozone and NOx is complex and contributes to smog and acid rain, it’s not known to produce purple-coloured precipitation directly. The colours associated with NOx are typically brownish (NO2).

#### 9. Question

The phenomenon occasionally referred to as “Purple Rain,” reported in certain localized areas, is most plausibly explained by:

• (a) The scattering of sunlight by unusually high concentrations of atmospheric ice crystals, similar to halo phenomena.

• (b) Biological material, such as pollen or algae spores from specific blooms, being carried aloft and mixing with rainwater.

• (c) The presence of dissolved manganese compounds, often originating from industrial emissions or specific geological dust, oxidizing and colouring the precipitation.

• (d) A rare photochemical reaction involving ozone and nitrogen oxides under specific meteorological conditions, tinting the raindrops.

Solution: C

While coloured rain (red, yellow, black) often has natural explanations (dust, pollen), reports of distinctly “purple” rain are rare and often linked to specific localized pollutants.

• Option (a): Incorrect: Light scattering by ice crystals produces phenomena like halos, sundogs, or sometimes iridescent clouds, but does not typically result in uniformly purple-coloured raindrops falling over an area.

• Option (b): Incorrect. While pollen or algae can cause yellow, green, or reddish rain (“blood rain”), a distinct purple colour is not typically associated with common biological materials in precipitation.

• Option (c): Correct. Several documented instances of purple rain, for example, in areas with ferromanganese industries or specific types of mining/smelting, have been chemically linked to the presence of manganese (specifically potassium permanganate or related oxidized manganese species) in the rainwater. These compounds can impart a distinct purple colour. Atmospheric scrubbing of industrial plumes containing manganese particulate matter is a likely mechanism.

• Option (d): Incorrect. While atmospheric chemistry involving ozone and NOx is complex and contributes to smog and acid rain, it’s not known to produce purple-coloured precipitation directly. The colours associated with NOx are typically brownish (NO2).

Solution: C

While coloured rain (red, yellow, black) often has natural explanations (dust, pollen), reports of distinctly “purple” rain are rare and often linked to specific localized pollutants.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points The use of Wolbachia bacterium in public health interventions primarily aims to control the spread of Dengue fever by: (a) Rendering the male Aedes mosquitoes sterile upon mating with wild females. (b) Acting as a potent larvicide, killing Aedes mosquito larvae in breeding sites. (c) Infecting Aedes mosquitoes and directly competing with or inhibiting the replication of the Dengue virus within the mosquito. (d) Producing a repellent substance within the mosquito that prevents it from biting humans. Correct Solution: C Wolbachia are naturally occurring intracellular bacteria that infect many insect species. Introducing specific strains of Wolbachia into Aedes aegypti mosquito populations (the primary vector for Dengue, Zika, Chikungunya) is an innovative vector control strategy. Option (a): Incorrect: While some Wolbachia strains can induce cytoplasmic incompatibility (CI), where infected males mating with uninfected females produce non-viable eggs (used in sterile insect techniques for some species), the primary mechanism used in Dengue control programs like the World Mosquito Program relies on Wolbachia establishing itself in the population and blocking virus transmission. Releasing both infected males and females is often done to establish the infection. Option (b): Incorrect: Wolbachia lives inside the mosquito’s cells and does not function as an external larvicide applied to breeding sites. Larvicides are typically chemical or biological agents applied to water. Option (c): Correct: This is the key mechanism. When Aedes mosquitoes carry certain strains of Wolbachia, the bacteria compete for resources within the mosquito’s cells or trigger immune responses that make it significantly harder for the Dengue virus (and other viruses like Zika, Chikungunya) to replicate inside the mosquito. This reduces the mosquito’s ability to become infectious and transmit the virus to humans when it bites. Option (d): Incorrect: Wolbachia infection does not make the mosquito produce a repellent or stop it from biting humans. It works by reducing the mosquito’s vectorial capacity (its ability to transmit the pathogen). Incorrect Solution: C Wolbachia are naturally occurring intracellular bacteria that infect many insect species. Introducing specific strains of Wolbachia into Aedes aegypti mosquito populations (the primary vector for Dengue, Zika, Chikungunya) is an innovative vector control strategy. Option (a): Incorrect: While some Wolbachia strains can induce cytoplasmic incompatibility (CI), where infected males mating with uninfected females produce non-viable eggs (used in sterile insect techniques for some species), the primary mechanism used in Dengue control programs like the World Mosquito Program relies on Wolbachia establishing itself in the population and blocking virus transmission. Releasing both infected males and females is often done to establish the infection. Option (b): Incorrect: Wolbachia lives inside the mosquito’s cells and does not function as an external larvicide applied to breeding sites. Larvicides are typically chemical or biological agents applied to water. Option (c): Correct: This is the key mechanism. When Aedes mosquitoes carry certain strains of Wolbachia, the bacteria compete for resources within the mosquito’s cells or trigger immune responses that make it significantly harder for the Dengue virus (and other viruses like Zika, Chikungunya) to replicate inside the mosquito. This reduces the mosquito’s ability to become infectious and transmit the virus to humans when it bites. Option (d): Incorrect: Wolbachia infection does not make the mosquito produce a repellent or stop it from biting humans. It works by reducing the mosquito’s vectorial capacity (its ability to transmit the pathogen).

#### 10. Question

The use of Wolbachia bacterium in public health interventions primarily aims to control the spread of Dengue fever by:

• (a) Rendering the male Aedes mosquitoes sterile upon mating with wild females.

• (b) Acting as a potent larvicide, killing Aedes mosquito larvae in breeding sites.

• (c) Infecting Aedes mosquitoes and directly competing with or inhibiting the replication of the Dengue virus within the mosquito.

• (d) Producing a repellent substance within the mosquito that prevents it from biting humans.

Solution: C

Wolbachia are naturally occurring intracellular bacteria that infect many insect species. Introducing specific strains of Wolbachia into Aedes aegypti mosquito populations (the primary vector for Dengue, Zika, Chikungunya) is an innovative vector control strategy.

• Option (a): Incorrect: While some Wolbachia strains can induce cytoplasmic incompatibility (CI), where infected males mating with uninfected females produce non-viable eggs (used in sterile insect techniques for some species), the primary mechanism used in Dengue control programs like the World Mosquito Program relies on Wolbachia establishing itself in the population and blocking virus transmission. Releasing both infected males and females is often done to establish the infection.

• Option (b): Incorrect: Wolbachia lives inside the mosquito’s cells and does not function as an external larvicide applied to breeding sites. Larvicides are typically chemical or biological agents applied to water.

• Option (c): Correct: This is the key mechanism. When Aedes mosquitoes carry certain strains of Wolbachia, the bacteria compete for resources within the mosquito’s cells or trigger immune responses that make it significantly harder for the Dengue virus (and other viruses like Zika, Chikungunya) to replicate inside the mosquito. This reduces the mosquito’s ability to become infectious and transmit the virus to humans when it bites.

• Option (d): Incorrect: Wolbachia infection does not make the mosquito produce a repellent or stop it from biting humans. It works by reducing the mosquito’s vectorial capacity (its ability to transmit the pathogen).

Solution: C

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Recently ‘PPP plus PPP’ model was in news; it is in relation to : (a) An initiative to mitigate nasocomial infections in rural areas (b) Early diagnosis and treatment of Neglected Tropical Diseases (c) Addressing protein and essential mineral deficiencies in mothers and children (d) Addressing the diabetes epidemic in India through Public -Private collaborative efforts Correct Solution: D PPP plus PPP has been introduced by the Union Minister for Science and Technology on World Diabetes Day It is aimed at addressing India’s diabetes epidemic through collaborative efforts between domestic and international stakeholders It is a dual layered collaboration model combining Public-private partnership within India and international PPP collaboration It seeks to enhance healthcare infrastructure, promote Innovation and make diabetes care accessible and affordable. It aims to strengthen India’s health care system by United public and private sectors to develop cost effective and scalable solutions It also aims to develop affordable non-invasive devices, increase awareness, ensure treatment and close healthcare-accessibility gaps. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D PPP plus PPP has been introduced by the Union Minister for Science and Technology on World Diabetes Day It is aimed at addressing India’s diabetes epidemic through collaborative efforts between domestic and international stakeholders It is a dual layered collaboration model combining Public-private partnership within India and international PPP collaboration It seeks to enhance healthcare infrastructure, promote Innovation and make diabetes care accessible and affordable. It aims to strengthen India’s health care system by United public and private sectors to develop cost effective and scalable solutions It also aims to develop affordable non-invasive devices, increase awareness, ensure treatment and close healthcare-accessibility gaps. Hence option D is correct

#### 11. Question

Recently ‘PPP plus PPP’ model was in news; it is in relation to :

• (a) An initiative to mitigate nasocomial infections in rural areas

• (b) Early diagnosis and treatment of Neglected Tropical Diseases

• (c) Addressing protein and essential mineral deficiencies in mothers and children

• (d) Addressing the diabetes epidemic in India through Public -Private collaborative efforts

Solution: D

• PPP plus PPP has been introduced by the Union Minister for Science and Technology on World Diabetes Day

• It is aimed at addressing India’s diabetes epidemic through collaborative efforts between domestic and international stakeholders

• It is a dual layered collaboration model combining Public-private partnership within India and international PPP collaboration

• It seeks to enhance healthcare infrastructure, promote Innovation and make diabetes care accessible and affordable.

• It aims to strengthen India’s health care system by United public and private sectors to develop cost effective and scalable solutions

• It also aims to develop affordable non-invasive devices, increase awareness, ensure treatment and close healthcare-accessibility gaps.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• PPP plus PPP has been introduced by the Union Minister for Science and Technology on World Diabetes Day

• It is aimed at addressing India’s diabetes epidemic through collaborative efforts between domestic and international stakeholders

• It is a dual layered collaboration model combining Public-private partnership within India and international PPP collaboration

• It seeks to enhance healthcare infrastructure, promote Innovation and make diabetes care accessible and affordable.

• It aims to strengthen India’s health care system by United public and private sectors to develop cost effective and scalable solutions

• It also aims to develop affordable non-invasive devices, increase awareness, ensure treatment and close healthcare-accessibility gaps.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Recently ‘First in the World Challenge’ initiative was in news; it has been launched by: (a) Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (b) Indian Council of Medical Research (c) National Medical Commission (d) National Health Authority Correct Solution: B The First in the World Challenge has been launched by Indian Council of Medical Research. The initiative aims to encourage bold unique research that brings first of its kind innovations in the Global Health sector It focuses on ‘out of the box’ ideas leading to breakthrough Technologies such as novel vaccines, drugs, diagnostics and interventions. The funding criteria includes proposals that should be ground breaking, excluding incremental advancements or process improvements; high risk high reward proposals with Global impact potential are prioritised. The selection process will be done by a committee of top experts, innovators and policy makers who will evaluate and select proposals based on originality and potential for impact. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B The First in the World Challenge has been launched by Indian Council of Medical Research. The initiative aims to encourage bold unique research that brings first of its kind innovations in the Global Health sector It focuses on ‘out of the box’ ideas leading to breakthrough Technologies such as novel vaccines, drugs, diagnostics and interventions. The funding criteria includes proposals that should be ground breaking, excluding incremental advancements or process improvements; high risk high reward proposals with Global impact potential are prioritised. The selection process will be done by a committee of top experts, innovators and policy makers who will evaluate and select proposals based on originality and potential for impact. Hence option B is correct

#### 12. Question

Recently ‘First in the World Challenge’ initiative was in news; it has been launched by:

• (a) Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation

• (b) Indian Council of Medical Research

• (c) National Medical Commission

• (d) National Health Authority

Solution: B

• The First in the World Challenge has been launched by Indian Council of Medical Research.

• The initiative aims to encourage bold unique research that brings first of its kind innovations in the Global Health sector

• It focuses on ‘out of the box’ ideas leading to breakthrough Technologies such as novel vaccines, drugs, diagnostics and interventions.

• The funding criteria includes proposals that should be ground breaking, excluding incremental advancements or process improvements; high risk high reward proposals with Global impact potential are prioritised.

• The selection process will be done by a committee of top experts, innovators and policy makers who will evaluate and select proposals based on originality and potential for impact.

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• The First in the World Challenge has been launched by Indian Council of Medical Research.

• The initiative aims to encourage bold unique research that brings first of its kind innovations in the Global Health sector

• It focuses on ‘out of the box’ ideas leading to breakthrough Technologies such as novel vaccines, drugs, diagnostics and interventions.

• The selection process will be done by a committee of top experts, innovators and policy makers who will evaluate and select proposals based on originality and potential for impact.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following: Growth of fishes Waste water treatment Targeted drug delivery In how many of the above can Nanobubbles be used? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Nanobubbles are ultra tiny bubbles, less than 200 manometers in diameter. They are neutrally buoyant and remains suspended in water for months, enabling efficient gas transfer and surface reactions. These can be used in: Treatment of water – these bubbles remove contaminants, pollutants and pathogens from water and provide for chemical free water purification. Oxygen Nanobubbles can enhance health and growth of fish and other aquatic organisms These tiny bubbles can penetrate and clean hard to reach areas and are extremely used for industrial cleaning applications They can be used in targeted drug delivery and medical imaging; These can be used in agriculture – by infusing water with oxygen rich Nanobubbles that significantly help in plant growth Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Nanobubbles are ultra tiny bubbles, less than 200 manometers in diameter. They are neutrally buoyant and remains suspended in water for months, enabling efficient gas transfer and surface reactions. These can be used in: Treatment of water – these bubbles remove contaminants, pollutants and pathogens from water and provide for chemical free water purification. Oxygen Nanobubbles can enhance health and growth of fish and other aquatic organisms These tiny bubbles can penetrate and clean hard to reach areas and are extremely used for industrial cleaning applications They can be used in targeted drug delivery and medical imaging; These can be used in agriculture – by infusing water with oxygen rich Nanobubbles that significantly help in plant growth Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following:

• Growth of fishes

• Waste water treatment

• Targeted drug delivery

In how many of the above can Nanobubbles be used?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Nanobubbles are ultra tiny bubbles, less than 200 manometers in diameter. They are neutrally buoyant and remains suspended in water for months, enabling efficient gas transfer and surface reactions.

These can be used in:

• Treatment of water – these bubbles remove contaminants, pollutants and pathogens from water and provide for chemical free water purification.

• Oxygen Nanobubbles can enhance health and growth of fish and other aquatic organisms

• These tiny bubbles can penetrate and clean hard to reach areas and are extremely used for industrial cleaning applications

• They can be used in targeted drug delivery and medical imaging;

• These can be used in agriculture – by infusing water with oxygen rich Nanobubbles that significantly help in plant growth

Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

Nanobubbles are ultra tiny bubbles, less than 200 manometers in diameter. They are neutrally buoyant and remains suspended in water for months, enabling efficient gas transfer and surface reactions.

These can be used in:

• Treatment of water – these bubbles remove contaminants, pollutants and pathogens from water and provide for chemical free water purification.

• Oxygen Nanobubbles can enhance health and growth of fish and other aquatic organisms

• These tiny bubbles can penetrate and clean hard to reach areas and are extremely used for industrial cleaning applications

• They can be used in targeted drug delivery and medical imaging;

• These can be used in agriculture – by infusing water with oxygen rich Nanobubbles that significantly help in plant growth

Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Jeddah Commitments: These were adopted at the World Health Assembly 2024 convened by the World Health Organisation. The commitments urged the World Health Organisation and the UNEP to act for achieving 2030 Anti-Microbial Resistance goals of the United Nations General Assembly. The Commitments recognise the standards of Codex Alimentarius Commission related to responsible use of drugs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B The Jeddah Commitments were issued at the 4th Global High Level Ministerial Conference on Anti Microbial Resistance hosted by Saudi Arabia at the Red Sea port City of Jeddah in November 2024. The World Health Assembly is the Supreme decision-making body of the World Health Organisation where delegations from all WHO member states gather annually to determine policies. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Jeddah commitments are the collective declaration to open a new chapter in global efforts to address AMR building the coalition of the willing into a powerful force for impact to turn the tide of AMR. The Commitments reiterated priority actions from the 79th United Nations General Assembly high level meeting political declaration on AMR including requesting the Quadripartite to include actions to achieve the 2030 AMR goals of the UNGA political declaration for AMR in the next Global Action Plan. The Quadripartite includes the Food and Agriculture Organisation, UNEP, WHO and World Organisation for Animal Health. Hence statement 2 is correct The Jeddah commitments recognised the standards of the Codex Alimentarius Commission and their implementation related to proper use of anti-microbials; Global Anti-Microbial Resistance and Use Surveillance System (GLASS) of World Health Organisation and other critical programs driving Global AMR progress. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Jeddah Commitments were issued at the 4th Global High Level Ministerial Conference on Anti Microbial Resistance hosted by Saudi Arabia at the Red Sea port City of Jeddah in November 2024. The World Health Assembly is the Supreme decision-making body of the World Health Organisation where delegations from all WHO member states gather annually to determine policies. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Jeddah commitments are the collective declaration to open a new chapter in global efforts to address AMR building the coalition of the willing into a powerful force for impact to turn the tide of AMR. The Commitments reiterated priority actions from the 79th United Nations General Assembly high level meeting political declaration on AMR including requesting the Quadripartite to include actions to achieve the 2030 AMR goals of the UNGA political declaration for AMR in the next Global Action Plan. The Quadripartite includes the Food and Agriculture Organisation, UNEP, WHO and World Organisation for Animal Health. Hence statement 2 is correct The Jeddah commitments recognised the standards of the Codex Alimentarius Commission and their implementation related to proper use of anti-microbials; Global Anti-Microbial Resistance and Use Surveillance System (GLASS) of World Health Organisation and other critical programs driving Global AMR progress. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Jeddah Commitments:

• These were adopted at the World Health Assembly 2024 convened by the World Health Organisation.

• The commitments urged the World Health Organisation and the UNEP to act for achieving 2030 Anti-Microbial Resistance goals of the United Nations General Assembly.

• The Commitments recognise the standards of Codex Alimentarius Commission related to responsible use of drugs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• The Jeddah Commitments were issued at the 4th Global High Level Ministerial Conference on Anti Microbial Resistance hosted by Saudi Arabia at the Red Sea port City of Jeddah in November 2024.

• The World Health Assembly is the Supreme decision-making body of the World Health Organisation where delegations from all WHO member states gather annually to determine policies.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Jeddah commitments are the collective declaration to open a new chapter in global efforts to address AMR building the coalition of the willing into a powerful force for impact to turn the tide of AMR.

• The Commitments reiterated priority actions from the 79th United Nations General Assembly high level meeting political declaration on AMR including requesting the Quadripartite to include actions to achieve the 2030 AMR goals of the UNGA political declaration for AMR in the next Global Action Plan.

• The Quadripartite includes the Food and Agriculture Organisation, UNEP, WHO and World Organisation for Animal Health.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Jeddah commitments recognised the standards of the Codex Alimentarius Commission and their implementation related to proper use of anti-microbials; Global Anti-Microbial Resistance and Use Surveillance System (GLASS) of World Health Organisation and other critical programs driving Global AMR progress.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The Jeddah Commitments were issued at the 4th Global High Level Ministerial Conference on Anti Microbial Resistance hosted by Saudi Arabia at the Red Sea port City of Jeddah in November 2024.

• The World Health Assembly is the Supreme decision-making body of the World Health Organisation where delegations from all WHO member states gather annually to determine policies.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Quadripartite includes the Food and Agriculture Organisation, UNEP, WHO and World Organisation for Animal Health.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: Neuromorphic computing relies on Spiking neurons to store and process data similar to biological neurons. Statement – II: Neuromorphic computing is modelled on the human brain and nervous system. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: A Neuromorphic computing is a technology that is inspired from functions of the human brain and is heavily dependent on biology and neuroscience. Neurons are the fundamental units of brain and nervous system When a neuron becomes active or spikes, it triggers release of chemical and electrical signals that travel via a network of connection points called Synapses, allowing neurons to connect with each other These mechanisms are modelled in neuromorphic computing system through Spiking Neural Network A Spiking Neural network is a type of artificial neural network that is composed of Spiking neurons and Synapses. Spiking neurons store and process data similar to biological neurones with each neuron having its own charge, delay and threshold values. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution: A Neuromorphic computing is a technology that is inspired from functions of the human brain and is heavily dependent on biology and neuroscience. Neurons are the fundamental units of brain and nervous system When a neuron becomes active or spikes, it triggers release of chemical and electrical signals that travel via a network of connection points called Synapses, allowing neurons to connect with each other These mechanisms are modelled in neuromorphic computing system through Spiking Neural Network A Spiking Neural network is a type of artificial neural network that is composed of Spiking neurons and Synapses. Spiking neurons store and process data similar to biological neurones with each neuron having its own charge, delay and threshold values. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I:

Neuromorphic computing relies on Spiking neurons to store and process data similar to biological neurons.

Statement – II:

Neuromorphic computing is modelled on the human brain and nervous system.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: A

• Neuromorphic computing is a technology that is inspired from functions of the human brain and is heavily dependent on biology and neuroscience.

• Neurons are the fundamental units of brain and nervous system

• When a neuron becomes active or spikes, it triggers release of chemical and electrical signals that travel via a network of connection points called Synapses, allowing neurons to connect with each other

• These mechanisms are modelled in neuromorphic computing system through Spiking Neural Network

• A Spiking Neural network is a type of artificial neural network that is composed of Spiking neurons and Synapses.

• Spiking neurons store and process data similar to biological neurones with each neuron having its own charge, delay and threshold values.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

Solution: A

• Neuromorphic computing is a technology that is inspired from functions of the human brain and is heavily dependent on biology and neuroscience.

• Neurons are the fundamental units of brain and nervous system

• These mechanisms are modelled in neuromorphic computing system through Spiking Neural Network

• A Spiking Neural network is a type of artificial neural network that is composed of Spiking neurons and Synapses.

• Spiking neurons store and process data similar to biological neurones with each neuron having its own charge, delay and threshold values.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Global Health Emergency Corps initiative has been launched by the World Health Organisation to handle health emergencies. The Global Antibiotic Research and Development Partnership has been under the Global Health Emergency Corps Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Global Health Emergency Corps was founded by the WHO in 2023 to address shortcomings and issues uncovered during the Covid 19 response. It signifies a unified worldwide initiative to optimise emergency assistance and guarantee prompt actions during health emergencies. Hence statement 1 is correct The Global Antibiotic Research and Development Partnership is a Swiss non profit pharmaceutical research and development organisation that aims to assess antibiotic drug development to counter the threat of antibiotic resistance. It was founded by the WHO and the Drugs for Neglected Diseases initiative in 2016 to deliver on the Global Action plan on AMR and became a Swiss foundation in 2018. GARDP along with the World Health Organisation recently released a report titled ‘Policy and Regulatory Interventions to Address Antibiotic Shortages in Low- and Middle-Income Countries’; the report analyses Global, National and regional measures to address shortages of antibiotic with a focus on low- and middle-income countries. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Global Health Emergency Corps was founded by the WHO in 2023 to address shortcomings and issues uncovered during the Covid 19 response. It signifies a unified worldwide initiative to optimise emergency assistance and guarantee prompt actions during health emergencies. Hence statement 1 is correct The Global Antibiotic Research and Development Partnership is a Swiss non profit pharmaceutical research and development organisation that aims to assess antibiotic drug development to counter the threat of antibiotic resistance. It was founded by the WHO and the Drugs for Neglected Diseases initiative in 2016 to deliver on the Global Action plan on AMR and became a Swiss foundation in 2018. GARDP along with the World Health Organisation recently released a report titled ‘Policy and Regulatory Interventions to Address Antibiotic Shortages in Low- and Middle-Income Countries’; the report analyses Global, National and regional measures to address shortages of antibiotic with a focus on low- and middle-income countries. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Global Health Emergency Corps initiative has been launched by the World Health Organisation to handle health emergencies.

• The Global Antibiotic Research and Development Partnership has been under the Global Health Emergency Corps Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Global Health Emergency Corps was founded by the WHO in 2023 to address shortcomings and issues uncovered during the Covid 19 response.

• It signifies a unified worldwide initiative to optimise emergency assistance and guarantee prompt actions during health emergencies.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Global Antibiotic Research and Development Partnership is a Swiss non profit pharmaceutical research and development organisation that aims to assess antibiotic drug development to counter the threat of antibiotic resistance.

• It was founded by the WHO and the Drugs for Neglected Diseases initiative in 2016 to deliver on the Global Action plan on AMR and became a Swiss foundation in 2018.

• GARDP along with the World Health Organisation recently released a report titled ‘Policy and Regulatory Interventions to Address Antibiotic Shortages in Low- and Middle-Income Countries’; the report analyses Global, National and regional measures to address shortages of antibiotic with a focus on low- and middle-income countries.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Global Health Emergency Corps was founded by the WHO in 2023 to address shortcomings and issues uncovered during the Covid 19 response.

• It signifies a unified worldwide initiative to optimise emergency assistance and guarantee prompt actions during health emergencies.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• It was founded by the WHO and the Drugs for Neglected Diseases initiative in 2016 to deliver on the Global Action plan on AMR and became a Swiss foundation in 2018.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Regarding the ‘Bharat Tech Triumph Program’, which of the following statements is correct? (a) It has been launched to promote digital and online gaming industry of India (b) It is a project for promotion of centralised digital currency in India (c) It aims to encourage indigenous Technologies useful for defence purposes (d) It aims to fund indigenous research and development of supercomputers in India Correct Solution: A India’s gaming industry has seen remarkable growth particularly in digital and online gaming which has become one of the fastest growing sectors in India’s media and entertainment landscape. The Bharat Tech Triumph Program has been launched as part of the Create India Challenge season 1 organised by the Interactive Entertainment and Innovation Council in partnership with the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. The program aims to identify and showcase gaming talents of India on the international stage The initiative will culminate at the World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit (WAVES) and the India Pavilion at the Game Developer Conference in 2025, providing a global platform for Indian innovators to shine. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution: A India’s gaming industry has seen remarkable growth particularly in digital and online gaming which has become one of the fastest growing sectors in India’s media and entertainment landscape. The Bharat Tech Triumph Program has been launched as part of the Create India Challenge season 1 organised by the Interactive Entertainment and Innovation Council in partnership with the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. The program aims to identify and showcase gaming talents of India on the international stage The initiative will culminate at the World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit (WAVES) and the India Pavilion at the Game Developer Conference in 2025, providing a global platform for Indian innovators to shine. Hence option A is correct

#### 17. Question

Regarding the ‘Bharat Tech Triumph Program’, which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) It has been launched to promote digital and online gaming industry of India

• (b) It is a project for promotion of centralised digital currency in India

• (c) It aims to encourage indigenous Technologies useful for defence purposes

• (d) It aims to fund indigenous research and development of supercomputers in India

Solution: A

• India’s gaming industry has seen remarkable growth particularly in digital and online gaming which has become one of the fastest growing sectors in India’s media and entertainment landscape.

• The Bharat Tech Triumph Program has been launched as part of the Create India Challenge season 1 organised by the Interactive Entertainment and Innovation Council in partnership with the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

• The program aims to identify and showcase gaming talents of India on the international stage

• The initiative will culminate at the World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit (WAVES) and the India Pavilion at the Game Developer Conference in 2025, providing a global platform for Indian innovators to shine.

Hence option A is correct

Solution: A

• India’s gaming industry has seen remarkable growth particularly in digital and online gaming which has become one of the fastest growing sectors in India’s media and entertainment landscape.

• The program aims to identify and showcase gaming talents of India on the international stage

Hence option A is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Fluorescent Nanodiamonds (FND) are non toxic carbon nanoparticles created under high temperature and high-pressure conditions. FNDs can be used to track biological cells. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Fluorescent Nano diamonds are nanometer sized diamonds composed of carbon nanoparticle They are stable under light, are non toxic and capable of maintaining fluorescence for long periods They do not exhibit blinking effect unlike many other Nano scale fluorescent materials These are created under high temperature and high pressure conditions They are used in biological imaging to track cells over time due to their stability. Their ability to detect acceleration and electric fields make them valuable in strategic industries FNDs doped with nitrogen vacuum centres can help in exploring Quantum superposition and other quantum mechanical properties. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Fluorescent Nano diamonds are nanometer sized diamonds composed of carbon nanoparticle They are stable under light, are non toxic and capable of maintaining fluorescence for long periods They do not exhibit blinking effect unlike many other Nano scale fluorescent materials These are created under high temperature and high pressure conditions They are used in biological imaging to track cells over time due to their stability. Their ability to detect acceleration and electric fields make them valuable in strategic industries FNDs doped with nitrogen vacuum centres can help in exploring Quantum superposition and other quantum mechanical properties. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Fluorescent Nanodiamonds (FND) are non toxic carbon nanoparticles created under high temperature and high-pressure conditions.

• FNDs can be used to track biological cells.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Fluorescent Nano diamonds are nanometer sized diamonds composed of carbon nanoparticle

• They are stable under light, are non toxic and capable of maintaining fluorescence for long periods

• They do not exhibit blinking effect unlike many other Nano scale fluorescent materials

• These are created under high temperature and high pressure conditions

• They are used in biological imaging to track cells over time due to their stability.

• Their ability to detect acceleration and electric fields make them valuable in strategic industries

• FNDs doped with nitrogen vacuum centres can help in exploring Quantum superposition and other quantum mechanical properties.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• Fluorescent Nano diamonds are nanometer sized diamonds composed of carbon nanoparticle

• They are stable under light, are non toxic and capable of maintaining fluorescence for long periods

• They do not exhibit blinking effect unlike many other Nano scale fluorescent materials

• These are created under high temperature and high pressure conditions

• They are used in biological imaging to track cells over time due to their stability.

• Their ability to detect acceleration and electric fields make them valuable in strategic industries

• FNDs doped with nitrogen vacuum centres can help in exploring Quantum superposition and other quantum mechanical properties.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Project Strawberry, recently seen in the news, is related to: (a) Forecasting of natural disasters (b) Digital currency (c) Artificial intelligence model (d) Detection of malwares Correct Solution: C Project Strawberry is the code name of an advanced artificial intelligence model released by OpenAI. It is aimed at creating artificial General intelligence that is artificial intelligence with cognitive abilities similar to the human brain. The model has shown capability in solving complex puzzles and performing advanced cognitive tasks. It is expected to have the capability to perform autonomous research online. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C Project Strawberry is the code name of an advanced artificial intelligence model released by OpenAI. It is aimed at creating artificial General intelligence that is artificial intelligence with cognitive abilities similar to the human brain. The model has shown capability in solving complex puzzles and performing advanced cognitive tasks. It is expected to have the capability to perform autonomous research online. Hence option C is correct

#### 19. Question

Project Strawberry, recently seen in the news, is related to:

• (a) Forecasting of natural disasters

• (b) Digital currency

• (c) Artificial intelligence model

• (d) Detection of malwares

Solution: C

• Project Strawberry is the code name of an advanced artificial intelligence model released by OpenAI.

• It is aimed at creating artificial General intelligence that is artificial intelligence with cognitive abilities similar to the human brain.

• The model has shown capability in solving complex puzzles and performing advanced cognitive tasks.

• It is expected to have the capability to perform autonomous research online.

Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

• Project Strawberry is the code name of an advanced artificial intelligence model released by OpenAI.

• It is aimed at creating artificial General intelligence that is artificial intelligence with cognitive abilities similar to the human brain.

• The model has shown capability in solving complex puzzles and performing advanced cognitive tasks.

• It is expected to have the capability to perform autonomous research online.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following diseases: Ebola Influenza Dengue Yellow fever How many of the above our classified as Notifiable diseases in India? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D Notifiable diseases are ones that are legally required to be reported to the government authorities for effective monitoring and response The state government is responsible for declaring notifiable disease under public health legislation The centre can also recommend diseases for notification. Common diseases include Cholera, Tuberculosis, Dengue, AIDS, Chikungunya, Malaria, Dysentery, Diphtheria, Hepatitis, HIV, Influenza, Measles, Rabies, Ebola, Yellow fever, Tetanus, Mumps, Plague. Such declaration results in improved surveillance tracking and diagnosis of the disease, prevention of large-scale epidemics, better allocation of healthcare resources and other benefits. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D Notifiable diseases are ones that are legally required to be reported to the government authorities for effective monitoring and response The state government is responsible for declaring notifiable disease under public health legislation The centre can also recommend diseases for notification. Common diseases include Cholera, Tuberculosis, Dengue, AIDS, Chikungunya, Malaria, Dysentery, Diphtheria, Hepatitis, HIV, Influenza, Measles, Rabies, Ebola, Yellow fever, Tetanus, Mumps, Plague. Such declaration results in improved surveillance tracking and diagnosis of the disease, prevention of large-scale epidemics, better allocation of healthcare resources and other benefits. Hence option D is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following diseases:

• Yellow fever

How many of the above our classified as Notifiable diseases in India?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

• Notifiable diseases are ones that are legally required to be reported to the government authorities for effective monitoring and response

• The state government is responsible for declaring notifiable disease under public health legislation

• The centre can also recommend diseases for notification.

• Common diseases include Cholera, Tuberculosis, Dengue, AIDS, Chikungunya, Malaria, Dysentery, Diphtheria, Hepatitis, HIV, Influenza, Measles, Rabies, Ebola, Yellow fever, Tetanus, Mumps, Plague.

• Such declaration results in improved surveillance tracking and diagnosis of the disease, prevention of large-scale epidemics, better allocation of healthcare resources and other benefits.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• Notifiable diseases are ones that are legally required to be reported to the government authorities for effective monitoring and response

• The state government is responsible for declaring notifiable disease under public health legislation

• The centre can also recommend diseases for notification.

• Such declaration results in improved surveillance tracking and diagnosis of the disease, prevention of large-scale epidemics, better allocation of healthcare resources and other benefits.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the institution of Lokayukta in India The idea of Lokayukta was first recommended by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, made it mandatory for every state to establish a Lokayukta. Maharashtra was the first state to establish a Lokayukta. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Lokayukta: The concept of Lokayukta is derived from the Scandinavian Ombudsman system, designed to investigate complaints against public functionaries. The idea was first recommended by the First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966–1970), not the Second ARC. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, passed by Parliament, made it mandatory for every state to establish a Lokayukta within one year from the commencement of the Act (as per Section 63). However, it left the framework and structure of the Lokayukta to be decided by the individual states. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Maharashtra was the first state to establish a Lokayukta in 1971, well before the enactment of the 2013 legislation. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) The Lokayukta is usually a retired High Court or Supreme Court judge, appointed by the Governor in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court and the Leader of Opposition in the State Assembly. The Lokayukta can investigate allegations of corruption and maladministration against public functionaries, including ministers and government officials. It has suo motu powers, though its recommendations are not legally binding. https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bengaluru/karnataka-special-court-orders-lokayukta-probe-against-cm-siddaramaiah-wife-in-land-case/articleshow/113678255.cms Incorrect Solution: B Lokayukta: The concept of Lokayukta is derived from the Scandinavian Ombudsman system, designed to investigate complaints against public functionaries. The idea was first recommended by the First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966–1970), not the Second ARC. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, passed by Parliament, made it mandatory for every state to establish a Lokayukta within one year from the commencement of the Act (as per Section 63). However, it left the framework and structure of the Lokayukta to be decided by the individual states. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Maharashtra was the first state to establish a Lokayukta in 1971, well before the enactment of the 2013 legislation. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) The Lokayukta is usually a retired High Court or Supreme Court judge, appointed by the Governor in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court and the Leader of Opposition in the State Assembly. The Lokayukta can investigate allegations of corruption and maladministration against public functionaries, including ministers and government officials. It has suo motu powers, though its recommendations are not legally binding. https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bengaluru/karnataka-special-court-orders-lokayukta-probe-against-cm-siddaramaiah-wife-in-land-case/articleshow/113678255.cms

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the institution of Lokayukta in India

• The idea of Lokayukta was first recommended by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission.

• The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, made it mandatory for every state to establish a Lokayukta.

• Maharashtra was the first state to establish a Lokayukta.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Lokayukta:

• The concept of Lokayukta is derived from the Scandinavian Ombudsman system, designed to investigate complaints against public functionaries.

• The idea was first recommended by the First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966–1970), not the Second ARC. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, passed by Parliament, made it mandatory for every state to establish a Lokayukta within one year from the commencement of the Act (as per Section 63).

• However, it left the framework and structure of the Lokayukta to be decided by the individual states. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Maharashtra was the first state to establish a Lokayukta in 1971, well before the enactment of the 2013 legislation. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• The Lokayukta is usually a retired High Court or Supreme Court judge, appointed by the Governor in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court and the Leader of Opposition in the State Assembly.

• The Lokayukta can investigate allegations of corruption and maladministration against public functionaries, including ministers and government officials.

• It has suo motu powers, though its recommendations are not legally binding.

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bengaluru/karnataka-special-court-orders-lokayukta-probe-against-cm-siddaramaiah-wife-in-land-case/articleshow/113678255.cms