DAY – 21 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY, Subject-wise Test 14,15, 26, Textbook-wise Test 15,16, 17 and November 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA) 1972, consider the following statements: Animals protected under schedules I and II of the act can be hunted or killed only by government officers. Animals in the wild are considered as the property of the government as per the provisions of WPA. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: b Explanation: India’s Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 is a comprehensive piece of legislation that regulates sanctuaries, national parks, and zoos among other protected locations. Its primary aim is to curb the illegal trade in wildlife and the derivative parts. It prohibits the hunting of any wild animal specified in Schedules I, II, III and IV of the act. Exception: A wild animal listed under these schedules can be hunted/ killed only after getting permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of the state if: It becomes dangerous to human life or to property (including standing crops on any land). It is disabled or suffering from a disease that is beyond recovery. Any one after getting permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of the state can hunt such an animal. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Animals in the wild, hunted wild animals (other than vermin), animal articles or meat of a wild animal and ivory imported into India and an article made from such ivory shall be considered as the property of the Government. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Statement 1 is vague, as “any/every” government officer can be empowered to kill/hunt the specified animals Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: India’s Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 is a comprehensive piece of legislation that regulates sanctuaries, national parks, and zoos among other protected locations. Its primary aim is to curb the illegal trade in wildlife and the derivative parts. It prohibits the hunting of any wild animal specified in Schedules I, II, III and IV of the act. Exception: A wild animal listed under these schedules can be hunted/ killed only after getting permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of the state if: It becomes dangerous to human life or to property (including standing crops on any land). It is disabled or suffering from a disease that is beyond recovery. Any one after getting permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of the state can hunt such an animal. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Animals in the wild, hunted wild animals (other than vermin), animal articles or meat of a wild animal and ivory imported into India and an article made from such ivory shall be considered as the property of the Government. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Statement 1 is vague, as “any/every” government officer can be empowered to kill/hunt the specified animals

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA) 1972, consider the following statements:

• Animals protected under schedules I and II of the act can be hunted or killed only by government officers.

• Animals in the wild are considered as the property of the government as per the provisions of WPA.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• India’s Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 is a comprehensive piece of legislation that regulates sanctuaries, national parks, and zoos among other protected locations. Its primary aim is to curb the illegal trade in wildlife and the derivative parts.

• It prohibits the hunting of any wild animal specified in Schedules I, II, III and IV of the act.

• Exception: A wild animal listed under these schedules can be hunted/ killed only after getting permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of the state if:

• It becomes dangerous to human life or to property (including standing crops on any land).

• It is disabled or suffering from a disease that is beyond recovery.

• Any one after getting permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of the state can hunt such an animal. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Animals in the wild, hunted wild animals (other than vermin), animal articles or meat of a wild animal and ivory imported into India and an article made from such ivory shall be considered as the property of the Government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Statement 1 is vague, as “any/every” government officer can be empowered to kill/hunt the specified animals

Explanation:

• It prohibits the hunting of any wild animal specified in Schedules I, II, III and IV of the act.

• Exception: A wild animal listed under these schedules can be hunted/ killed only after getting permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of the state if:

• It becomes dangerous to human life or to property (including standing crops on any land).

• It is disabled or suffering from a disease that is beyond recovery.

• Any one after getting permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of the state can hunt such an animal. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Statement 1 is vague, as “any/every” government officer can be empowered to kill/hunt the specified animals

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points In case of an offence committed by a company under the Environment Protection Act of 1986, who would be held responsible besides the company itself? a) Shareholders b) CEO only c) Every person directly in charge at the time of the offence d) Employees directly involved in the offence Correct Answer: c Explanation: Environment Protection Act, 1986 is an Act of the Parliament of India. In the wake of the Bhopal Tragedy, the Government of India enacted the Environment Protection Act of 1986 under Article 253 of the Constitution. Any offences under the EPA are punishable with the imprisonment of up to five years or a fine up to one lakh rupees or both. Offences by Companies: If an offence under this Act is committed by a company, every person directly in charge of the company, at the time of the commitment of offence, is deemed to be guilty unless proven otherwise. This broader interpretation ensures that not only the top executives such as the CEO but also other key personnel within the company hierarchy can be deemed guilty if they are found to be directly responsible or negligent in the commission of environmental violations. However, it’s important to note that the culpability of individuals would need to be established through legal proceedings and based on evidence demonstrating their involvement or negligence in the offence. Simply being associated with the company may not be sufficient grounds for holding individuals responsible unless their direct involvement or failure to fulfill their duties can be proven. Offences by Government Departments: If an offence under this Act has been committed by any Department of Government, the Head of the Department (HoD) shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence unless proven otherwise. Hence, option(c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Only option (c) ensures strict liability Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Environment Protection Act, 1986 is an Act of the Parliament of India. In the wake of the Bhopal Tragedy, the Government of India enacted the Environment Protection Act of 1986 under Article 253 of the Constitution. Any offences under the EPA are punishable with the imprisonment of up to five years or a fine up to one lakh rupees or both. Offences by Companies: If an offence under this Act is committed by a company, every person directly in charge of the company, at the time of the commitment of offence, is deemed to be guilty unless proven otherwise. This broader interpretation ensures that not only the top executives such as the CEO but also other key personnel within the company hierarchy can be deemed guilty if they are found to be directly responsible or negligent in the commission of environmental violations. However, it’s important to note that the culpability of individuals would need to be established through legal proceedings and based on evidence demonstrating their involvement or negligence in the offence. Simply being associated with the company may not be sufficient grounds for holding individuals responsible unless their direct involvement or failure to fulfill their duties can be proven. Offences by Government Departments: If an offence under this Act has been committed by any Department of Government, the Head of the Department (HoD) shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence unless proven otherwise. Hence, option(c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Only option (c) ensures strict liability

#### 2. Question

In case of an offence committed by a company under the Environment Protection Act of 1986, who would be held responsible besides the company itself?

• a) Shareholders

• b) CEO only

• c) Every person directly in charge at the time of the offence

• d) Employees directly involved in the offence

Explanation:

• Environment Protection Act, 1986 is an Act of the Parliament of India. In the wake of the Bhopal Tragedy, the Government of India enacted the Environment Protection Act of 1986 under Article 253 of the Constitution.

• Any offences under the EPA are punishable with the imprisonment of up to five years or a fine up to one lakh rupees or both.

• Offences by Companies: If an offence under this Act is committed by a company, every person directly in charge of the company, at the time of the commitment of offence, is deemed to be guilty unless proven otherwise.

• This broader interpretation ensures that not only the top executives such as the CEO but also other key personnel within the company hierarchy can be deemed guilty if they are found to be directly responsible or negligent in the commission of environmental violations.

• However, it’s important to note that the culpability of individuals would need to be established through legal proceedings and based on evidence demonstrating their involvement or negligence in the offence. Simply being associated with the company may not be sufficient grounds for holding individuals responsible unless their direct involvement or failure to fulfill their duties can be proven.

• Offences by Government Departments: If an offence under this Act has been committed by any Department of Government, the Head of the Department (HoD) shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence unless proven otherwise.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Only option (c) ensures strict liability

Explanation:

• Any offences under the EPA are punishable with the imprisonment of up to five years or a fine up to one lakh rupees or both.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Only option (c) ensures strict liability

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points What does the term “biological resources” encompass according to the Biological Diversity Act, 2002? a) Only plants and animals b) Only microorganisms c) Plants, animals, microorganisms with potential use or value d) Any living organism found in India irrespective of their potential use or value. Correct Answer: c Explanation: BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY ACT, 2002 It was born out of India’s attempt to realize the objectives enshrined in the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) 1992. CBD recognizes the sovereign rights of states to use their own Biological Resources. The Act provide for conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components and fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources. Biological Resources includes Plants, animals, micro-organisms, their parts, genetic material and by-products, having actual or potential use or value. The Act prohibits the following activities; Obtaining any biological resource occurring in India for its research or commercial utilisation without the prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority. The transfer of the results of any research relating to any biological resources occurring in, or obtained from, India without the prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority. The claim of any intellectual property rights on any invention based on the research made on the biological resources obtained from India without the prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Only option (c) establishes properties of “resources” (Potential/value) Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY ACT, 2002 It was born out of India’s attempt to realize the objectives enshrined in the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) 1992. CBD recognizes the sovereign rights of states to use their own Biological Resources. The Act provide for conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components and fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources. Biological Resources includes Plants, animals, micro-organisms, their parts, genetic material and by-products, having actual or potential use or value. The Act prohibits the following activities; Obtaining any biological resource occurring in India for its research or commercial utilisation without the prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority. The transfer of the results of any research relating to any biological resources occurring in, or obtained from, India without the prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority. The claim of any intellectual property rights on any invention based on the research made on the biological resources obtained from India without the prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Only option (c) establishes properties of “resources” (Potential/value)

#### 3. Question

What does the term “biological resources” encompass according to the Biological Diversity Act, 2002?

• a) Only plants and animals

• b) Only microorganisms

• c) Plants, animals, microorganisms with potential use or value

• d) Any living organism found in India irrespective of their potential use or value.

Explanation:

• BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY ACT, 2002

• It was born out of India’s attempt to realize the objectives enshrined in the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) 1992.

• CBD recognizes the sovereign rights of states to use their own Biological Resources.

• The Act provide for conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components and fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.

• Biological Resources includes Plants, animals, micro-organisms, their parts, genetic material and by-products, having actual or potential use or value.

• The Act prohibits the following activities;

• Obtaining any biological resource occurring in India for its research or commercial utilisation without the prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority.

• The transfer of the results of any research relating to any biological resources occurring in, or obtained from, India without the prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority.

• The claim of any intellectual property rights on any invention based on the research made on the biological resources obtained from India without the prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Only option (c) establishes properties of “resources” (Potential/value)

Explanation:

• BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY ACT, 2002

• It was born out of India’s attempt to realize the objectives enshrined in the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) 1992.

• CBD recognizes the sovereign rights of states to use their own Biological Resources.

• The Act provide for conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components and fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.

• Biological Resources includes Plants, animals, micro-organisms, their parts, genetic material and by-products, having actual or potential use or value.

• The Act prohibits the following activities;

• Obtaining any biological resource occurring in India for its research or commercial utilisation without the prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority.

• The transfer of the results of any research relating to any biological resources occurring in, or obtained from, India without the prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Only option (c) establishes properties of “resources” (Potential/value)

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. It was established under the provisions of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 It has powers to punish individuals for cruelty against animals How many of the above statements about Animal Welfare Board of India are correct? a) Only one b) One two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. It is only an advisory body to the Government on any matter connected with animal welfare or the Prevention of infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals. It does not have penal powers. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (A) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. It is only an advisory body to the Government on any matter connected with animal welfare or the Prevention of infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals. It does not have penal powers. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (A) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country.

• It was established under the provisions of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

• It has powers to punish individuals for cruelty against animals

How many of the above statements about Animal Welfare Board of India are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) One two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• It is only an advisory body to the Government on any matter connected with animal welfare or the Prevention of infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals. It does not have penal powers. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (A) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (A) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is established under the provisions of the Environment Protection Act (1986). NBA performs functions for the Government of India on issues of conservation, sustainable use of biological resources and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources. NBA opposes the grant of intellectual property rights in any foreign country on any biological resource obtained from India. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer: c Explanation: The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Biological Diversity Act (2002). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Functions of the NBA Creating an enabling environment to promote conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity. NBA performs facilitative and advisory functions for the Government of India on issues of conservation, sustainable use of biological resources and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Taking necessary measures to oppose the grant of intellectual property rights in any country outside India on any biological resource obtained from India or knowledge associated with such biological resources derived from India illegally. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Advising the State Governments in the selection of areas of biodiversity importance to be notified as heritage sites and suggest measures for their management. The National Biodiversity Authority exercises the powers and performs the functions of a State Biodiversity Board for the UTs. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Biological Diversity Act (2002). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Functions of the NBA Creating an enabling environment to promote conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity. NBA performs facilitative and advisory functions for the Government of India on issues of conservation, sustainable use of biological resources and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Taking necessary measures to oppose the grant of intellectual property rights in any country outside India on any biological resource obtained from India or knowledge associated with such biological resources derived from India illegally. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Advising the State Governments in the selection of areas of biodiversity importance to be notified as heritage sites and suggest measures for their management. The National Biodiversity Authority exercises the powers and performs the functions of a State Biodiversity Board for the UTs. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is established under the provisions of the Environment Protection Act (1986).

• NBA performs functions for the Government of India on issues of conservation, sustainable use of biological resources and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.

• NBA opposes the grant of intellectual property rights in any foreign country on any biological resource obtained from India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• b) 1 and 2 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

• The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Biological Diversity Act (2002). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Functions of the NBA

• Creating an enabling environment to promote conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity.

• NBA performs facilitative and advisory functions for the Government of India on issues of conservation, sustainable use of biological resources and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Taking necessary measures to oppose the grant of intellectual property rights in any country outside India on any biological resource obtained from India or knowledge associated with such biological resources derived from India illegally. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Advising the State Governments in the selection of areas of biodiversity importance to be notified as heritage sites and suggest measures for their management.

• The National Biodiversity Authority exercises the powers and performs the functions of a State Biodiversity Board for the UTs.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Biological Diversity Act (2002). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Functions of the NBA

• Creating an enabling environment to promote conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity.

• Advising the State Governments in the selection of areas of biodiversity importance to be notified as heritage sites and suggest measures for their management.

• The National Biodiversity Authority exercises the powers and performs the functions of a State Biodiversity Board for the UTs.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following: To collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime. To establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank. To assist foreign authorities and international organizations concerned with wildlife crime control To assist State Governments to ensure success in prosecutions related to wildlife crimes. How many of the above are functions of Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB)? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) is a statutory multi-disciplinary body, established by the Government of India under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, to combat organized wildlife crime in the country. The Bureau has its headquarters in New Delhi. Under Section 38 (Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, it is mandated to: Collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities and to disseminate the same to the State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to apprehend the criminals. Establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank. Assist foreign authorities and international organization concerned to facilitate coordination and universal action for wildlife crime control. Build capacity of the wildlife crime enforcement agencies for scientific and professional investigation into wildlife crimes. Assist State Governments to ensure success in prosecutions related to wildlife crimes. Advise the Government of India on issues relating to wildlife crimes having national and international ramifications, relevant policy and laws. Al the given statements are correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) is a statutory multi-disciplinary body, established by the Government of India under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, to combat organized wildlife crime in the country. The Bureau has its headquarters in New Delhi. Under Section 38 (Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, it is mandated to: Collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities and to disseminate the same to the State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to apprehend the criminals. Establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank. Assist foreign authorities and international organization concerned to facilitate coordination and universal action for wildlife crime control. Build capacity of the wildlife crime enforcement agencies for scientific and professional investigation into wildlife crimes. Assist State Governments to ensure success in prosecutions related to wildlife crimes. Advise the Government of India on issues relating to wildlife crimes having national and international ramifications, relevant policy and laws. Al the given statements are correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 6. Question

Consider the following:

• To collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime.

• To establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank.

• To assist foreign authorities and international organizations concerned with wildlife crime control

• To assist State Governments to ensure success in prosecutions related to wildlife crimes.

How many of the above are functions of Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB)?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) is a statutory multi-disciplinary body, established by the Government of India under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.

• The Bureau has its headquarters in New Delhi.

• Under Section 38 (Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, it is mandated to:

• Collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities and to disseminate the same to the State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to apprehend the criminals.

• Establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank.

• Assist foreign authorities and international organization concerned to facilitate coordination and universal action for wildlife crime control.

• Build capacity of the wildlife crime enforcement agencies for scientific and professional investigation into wildlife crimes.

• Assist State Governments to ensure success in prosecutions related to wildlife crimes.

• Advise the Government of India on issues relating to wildlife crimes having national and international ramifications, relevant policy and laws.

• Al the given statements are correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The Bureau has its headquarters in New Delhi.

• Under Section 38 (Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, it is mandated to:

• Establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank.

• Assist foreign authorities and international organization concerned to facilitate coordination and universal action for wildlife crime control.

• Build capacity of the wildlife crime enforcement agencies for scientific and professional investigation into wildlife crimes.

• Assist State Governments to ensure success in prosecutions related to wildlife crimes.

• Advise the Government of India on issues relating to wildlife crimes having national and international ramifications, relevant policy and laws.

• Al the given statements are correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points With reference to the Loss and Damage (L&D) fund, consider the following statements: The L & D fund was set up in COP 28 held in United Arab Emirates (UAE). The contributions made to the fund are voluntary without any binding commitments on member countries. Multilateral financial agency Global Environment Facility (GEF) that provides funding to poor countries for environmental activities will oversee the Loss and Damage fund. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer: b Explanation: A decision to set up a Loss and Damage Fund had been taken in COP27 but it had not been created, and no money had been promised. COP28 operationalised this fund on the opening day of the conference, and several countries, including hosts UAE, made funding commitments. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. By the end of the conference, commitments worth about US$ 800 million had been made. The money is meant to provide financial help to countries trying to recover from climate-induced disasters. All developing countries are eligible, and contributions are voluntary, with a specific percentage earmarked for Least Developed Countries and Small Island Developing States. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The World Bank will oversee the loss and damage fund in the beginning. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International initiatives- Climate change/global warming Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: A decision to set up a Loss and Damage Fund had been taken in COP27 but it had not been created, and no money had been promised. COP28 operationalised this fund on the opening day of the conference, and several countries, including hosts UAE, made funding commitments. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. By the end of the conference, commitments worth about US$ 800 million had been made. The money is meant to provide financial help to countries trying to recover from climate-induced disasters. All developing countries are eligible, and contributions are voluntary, with a specific percentage earmarked for Least Developed Countries and Small Island Developing States. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The World Bank will oversee the loss and damage fund in the beginning. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International initiatives- Climate change/global warming Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 7. Question

With reference to the Loss and Damage (L&D) fund, consider the following statements:

• The L & D fund was set up in COP 28 held in United Arab Emirates (UAE).

• The contributions made to the fund are voluntary without any binding commitments on member countries.

• Multilateral financial agency Global Environment Facility (GEF) that provides funding to poor countries for environmental activities will oversee the Loss and Damage fund.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

• A decision to set up a Loss and Damage Fund had been taken in COP27 but it had not been created, and no money had been promised.

• COP28 operationalised this fund on the opening day of the conference, and several countries, including hosts UAE, made funding commitments. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• By the end of the conference, commitments worth about US$ 800 million had been made.

• The money is meant to provide financial help to countries trying to recover from climate-induced disasters.

• All developing countries are eligible, and contributions are voluntary, with a specific percentage earmarked for Least Developed Countries and Small Island Developing States. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The World Bank will oversee the loss and damage fund in the beginning. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: International initiatives- Climate change/global warming

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• A decision to set up a Loss and Damage Fund had been taken in COP27 but it had not been created, and no money had been promised.

• COP28 operationalised this fund on the opening day of the conference, and several countries, including hosts UAE, made funding commitments. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• By the end of the conference, commitments worth about US$ 800 million had been made.

• The money is meant to provide financial help to countries trying to recover from climate-induced disasters.

• The World Bank will oversee the loss and damage fund in the beginning. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: International initiatives- Climate change/global warming

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following highlights the unique vulnerabilities of Small Island Developing States (SIDS)? a) Kyoto Protocol b) Rio+20 Declaration c) Barbados Programme of Action d) Fiji Agreement Correct Answer: c Explanation: Small Island Developing States (SIDS) are a distinct group of countries recognized by the United Nations due to their unique social, economic, and environmental vulnerabilities. As of the most recent information available, there are 38 UN Member States classified as Small Island Developing States. These countries are located in regions such as the Caribbean, the Pacific, and the AIS (Atlantic, Indian Ocean, and South China Sea). They face particular challenges related to climate change, including sea-level rise, storm surges, and coastal erosion. These vulnerabilities necessitate specialized attention and support from the international community to ensure their sustainable development and resilience. The Barbados Programme of Action is a key document that highlighted the unique vulnerabilities of Small Island Developing States (SIDS). Adopted in 1994, this program was specifically designed to address the sustainable development challenges faced by SIDS. It recognized the special circumstances and vulnerabilities of SIDS. Infrastructure for Resilient Island States initiative has been launched by India in 2021 for developing the infrastructure of small island nations vulnerable to climate change. This initiative is the result of cooperation between India, the U.K. and Australia. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International initiatives- Climate change/global warming Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Small Island Developing States (SIDS) are a distinct group of countries recognized by the United Nations due to their unique social, economic, and environmental vulnerabilities. As of the most recent information available, there are 38 UN Member States classified as Small Island Developing States. These countries are located in regions such as the Caribbean, the Pacific, and the AIS (Atlantic, Indian Ocean, and South China Sea). They face particular challenges related to climate change, including sea-level rise, storm surges, and coastal erosion. These vulnerabilities necessitate specialized attention and support from the international community to ensure their sustainable development and resilience. The Barbados Programme of Action is a key document that highlighted the unique vulnerabilities of Small Island Developing States (SIDS). Adopted in 1994, this program was specifically designed to address the sustainable development challenges faced by SIDS. It recognized the special circumstances and vulnerabilities of SIDS. Infrastructure for Resilient Island States initiative has been launched by India in 2021 for developing the infrastructure of small island nations vulnerable to climate change. This initiative is the result of cooperation between India, the U.K. and Australia. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International initiatives- Climate change/global warming Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 8. Question

Which of the following highlights the unique vulnerabilities of Small Island Developing States (SIDS)?

• a) Kyoto Protocol

• b) Rio+20 Declaration

• c) Barbados Programme of Action

• d) Fiji Agreement

Explanation:

• Small Island Developing States (SIDS) are a distinct group of countries recognized by the United Nations due to their unique social, economic, and environmental vulnerabilities.

• As of the most recent information available, there are 38 UN Member States classified as Small Island Developing States. These countries are located in regions such as the Caribbean, the Pacific, and the AIS (Atlantic, Indian Ocean, and South China Sea).

• They face particular challenges related to climate change, including sea-level rise, storm surges, and coastal erosion. These vulnerabilities necessitate specialized attention and support from the international community to ensure their sustainable development and resilience.

• The Barbados Programme of Action is a key document that highlighted the unique vulnerabilities of Small Island Developing States (SIDS). Adopted in 1994, this program was specifically designed to address the sustainable development challenges faced by SIDS. It recognized the special circumstances and vulnerabilities of SIDS.

• Infrastructure for Resilient Island States initiative has been launched by India in 2021 for developing the infrastructure of small island nations vulnerable to climate change.

• This initiative is the result of cooperation between India, the U.K. and Australia.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: International initiatives- Climate change/global warming

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Small Island Developing States (SIDS) are a distinct group of countries recognized by the United Nations due to their unique social, economic, and environmental vulnerabilities.

• Infrastructure for Resilient Island States initiative has been launched by India in 2021 for developing the infrastructure of small island nations vulnerable to climate change.

• This initiative is the result of cooperation between India, the U.K. and Australia.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: International initiatives- Climate change/global warming

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following: Acid Rain Desertification Persistant organic pollutants Ozone layer depletion How many of the above are amongst the six focal areas of Global Environment Facility (GEF) ? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: GEF was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit, is a catalyst for action on the environment — and much more. Through its strategic investments, the GEF works with partners to tackle the planet’s biggest environmental issues. Their funding also helps reduce poverty, strengthen governance and achieve greater equality between women and men. It is the largest public funder of projects to improve the global environment. The GEF also serves as financial mechanism for the following conventions – Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) Minamata Convention on Mercury The GEF has six focal areas – Biological diversity Climate change International waters Land degradation, primarily desertification and deforestation Ozone layer depletion Persistent organic pollutants Acid rain alone is not a focal point of GEF. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: International Bodies/institutions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: GEF was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit, is a catalyst for action on the environment — and much more. Through its strategic investments, the GEF works with partners to tackle the planet’s biggest environmental issues. Their funding also helps reduce poverty, strengthen governance and achieve greater equality between women and men. It is the largest public funder of projects to improve the global environment. The GEF also serves as financial mechanism for the following conventions – Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) Minamata Convention on Mercury The GEF has six focal areas – Biological diversity Climate change International waters Land degradation, primarily desertification and deforestation Ozone layer depletion Persistent organic pollutants Acid rain alone is not a focal point of GEF. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: International Bodies/institutions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 9. Question

Consider the following:

• Desertification

• Persistant organic pollutants

• Ozone layer depletion

How many of the above are amongst the six focal areas of Global Environment Facility (GEF) ?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• GEF was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit, is a catalyst for action on the environment — and much more.

• Through its strategic investments, the GEF works with partners to tackle the planet’s biggest environmental issues.

• Their funding also helps reduce poverty, strengthen governance and achieve greater equality between women and men.

• It is the largest public funder of projects to improve the global environment.

• The GEF also serves as financial mechanism for the following conventions –

• Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

• United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

• UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)

• Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)

• Minamata Convention on Mercury

• The GEF has six focal areas –

• Biological diversity

• Climate change

• International waters

• Land degradation, primarily desertification and deforestation

• Ozone layer depletion

• Persistent organic pollutants

• Acid rain alone is not a focal point of GEF.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: International Bodies/institutions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• GEF was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit, is a catalyst for action on the environment — and much more.

• Through its strategic investments, the GEF works with partners to tackle the planet’s biggest environmental issues.

• Their funding also helps reduce poverty, strengthen governance and achieve greater equality between women and men.

• It is the largest public funder of projects to improve the global environment.

• The GEF also serves as financial mechanism for the following conventions –

• Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

• United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

• UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)

• Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)

• Minamata Convention on Mercury

• The GEF has six focal areas –

• Biological diversity

• Climate change

• International waters

• Land degradation, primarily desertification and deforestation

• Ozone layer depletion

• Persistent organic pollutants

• Acid rain alone is not a focal point of GEF.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: International Bodies/institutions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are the objectives of climate smart agriculture? Increasing agricultural productivity and income of the farmers Reducing the exposure of farmers to environmental risks. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions from agriculture sector. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer: d Explanation: FAO’s definition of Climate smart agriculture – “agriculture that sustainably increases productivity, enhances resilience (adaptation), reduces/removes GHGs (mitigation) where possible, and enhances achievement of national food security and development goals”. Increasing agricultural productivity and income of the farmers: This objective aligns with the productivity pillar of climate-smart agriculture (CSA), which aims to sustainably increase agricultural productivity and incomes from crops, livestock, and fish without having a negative impact on the environment. Reducing the exposure of farmers to environmental risks: This objective corresponds to the adaptation pillar of CSA, which aims to reduce the exposure of farmers to short-term risks while strengthening their resilience to adapt and prosper in the face of shocks and longer-term stresses. Reduce and/or remove greenhouse gas emissions from the agriculture sector: This objective represents the mitigation pillar of CSA, which aims to reduce and/or remove greenhouse gas emissions wherever and whenever possible, including emissions from agricultural activities. Hence, option(d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Farm technology/ Conservation Agriculture Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: FAO’s definition of Climate smart agriculture – “agriculture that sustainably increases productivity, enhances resilience (adaptation), reduces/removes GHGs (mitigation) where possible, and enhances achievement of national food security and development goals”. Increasing agricultural productivity and income of the farmers: This objective aligns with the productivity pillar of climate-smart agriculture (CSA), which aims to sustainably increase agricultural productivity and incomes from crops, livestock, and fish without having a negative impact on the environment. Reducing the exposure of farmers to environmental risks: This objective corresponds to the adaptation pillar of CSA, which aims to reduce the exposure of farmers to short-term risks while strengthening their resilience to adapt and prosper in the face of shocks and longer-term stresses. Reduce and/or remove greenhouse gas emissions from the agriculture sector: This objective represents the mitigation pillar of CSA, which aims to reduce and/or remove greenhouse gas emissions wherever and whenever possible, including emissions from agricultural activities. Hence, option(d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Farm technology/ Conservation Agriculture Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 10. Question

Which of the following is/are the objectives of climate smart agriculture?

• Increasing agricultural productivity and income of the farmers

• Reducing the exposure of farmers to environmental risks.

• Reducing greenhouse gas emissions from agriculture sector.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 3 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

• FAO’s definition of Climate smart agriculture – “agriculture that sustainably increases productivity, enhances resilience (adaptation), reduces/removes GHGs (mitigation) where possible, and enhances achievement of national food security and development goals”.

• Increasing agricultural productivity and income of the farmers: This objective aligns with the productivity pillar of climate-smart agriculture (CSA), which aims to sustainably increase agricultural productivity and incomes from crops, livestock, and fish without having a negative impact on the environment.

• Reducing the exposure of farmers to environmental risks: This objective corresponds to the adaptation pillar of CSA, which aims to reduce the exposure of farmers to short-term risks while strengthening their resilience to adapt and prosper in the face of shocks and longer-term stresses.

• Reduce and/or remove greenhouse gas emissions from the agriculture sector: This objective represents the mitigation pillar of CSA, which aims to reduce and/or remove greenhouse gas emissions wherever and whenever possible, including emissions from agricultural activities.

• Hence, option(d) is correct.

Trend: Farm technology/ Conservation Agriculture

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Hence, option(d) is correct.

Trend: Farm technology/ Conservation Agriculture

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points With reference to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), consider the following statements: It was established by the G7 countries and the United Nations Security Council. It was established to examine measures to combat money laundering and terrorist financing. It essentially works on an open-ended mandate after originally operating under fixed-terms. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) was established in 1989 by the G7 to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering. Statement 2 is correct: In 2001, the FATF expanded its mandate to also combat terrorist financing. It originally included the G7 countries, the European Commission and eight other countries. Click here to see the Economic Declaration from the G7 Summit in July 1989. The FATF was given responsibility to examine money laundering techniques and trends, review the action already taken at a national or international level, and to set out measures needed to combat money laundering. Statement 3 is correct: Since 2019, the FATF has had an open-ended mandate, after originally operating under fixed-terms. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International institutions/bodies Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) was established in 1989 by the G7 to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering. Statement 2 is correct: In 2001, the FATF expanded its mandate to also combat terrorist financing. It originally included the G7 countries, the European Commission and eight other countries. Click here to see the Economic Declaration from the G7 Summit in July 1989. The FATF was given responsibility to examine money laundering techniques and trends, review the action already taken at a national or international level, and to set out measures needed to combat money laundering. Statement 3 is correct: Since 2019, the FATF has had an open-ended mandate, after originally operating under fixed-terms. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International institutions/bodies Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 11. Question

With reference to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), consider the following statements:

• It was established by the G7 countries and the United Nations Security Council.

• It was established to examine measures to combat money laundering and terrorist financing.

• It essentially works on an open-ended mandate after originally operating under fixed-terms.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) was established in 1989 by the G7 to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering.

Statement 2 is correct: In 2001, the FATF expanded its mandate to also combat terrorist financing. It originally included the G7 countries, the European Commission and eight other countries. Click here to see the Economic Declaration from the G7 Summit in July 1989.

The FATF was given responsibility to examine money laundering techniques and trends, review the action already taken at a national or international level, and to set out measures needed to combat money laundering.

Statement 3 is correct: Since 2019, the FATF has had an open-ended mandate, after originally operating under fixed-terms.

Trend: International institutions/bodies

Approach: Applied knowledge

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) was established in 1989 by the G7 to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering.

Statement 3 is correct: Since 2019, the FATF has had an open-ended mandate, after originally operating under fixed-terms.

Trend: International institutions/bodies

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points With reference to Pressmud, consider the following statements: It is a residual by-product in the sugar industry known as filter cake. It eliminates pre-treatment costs as it lacks the organic polymer lignin. It does not require long-term storage units hence reduces production costs. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Pressmud, a residual byproduct in the sugar industry often known as filter cake or press cake, has been acknowledged as a valuable resource for green energy production. The byproduct can help Indian sugar mills generate extra revenue by utilising it as a feedstock for biogas production through anaerobic digestion and subsequent purification to create compressed biogas (CBG). The use of pressmud as a feedstock for CBG offers several advantages. Firstly, it eliminates the complexities associated with the feedstock supply chain, as found in the case of agricultural residue. Statement 2 is correct: It eliminates pre-treatment costs as it lacks the organic polymer lignin, unlike agri residue. In terms of conversion efficiency, approximately 25 tonnes of pressmud are needed to produce a tonne of CBG. In comparison, cattle dung requires 50 tonnes for the same gas output. Statement 3 is not correct: Storing pressmud proves challenging as it undergoes gradual decomposition, resulting in the breakdown of organic compounds. This complicates long-term storage and raises production costs. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Green energy Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Pressmud, a residual byproduct in the sugar industry often known as filter cake or press cake, has been acknowledged as a valuable resource for green energy production. The byproduct can help Indian sugar mills generate extra revenue by utilising it as a feedstock for biogas production through anaerobic digestion and subsequent purification to create compressed biogas (CBG). The use of pressmud as a feedstock for CBG offers several advantages. Firstly, it eliminates the complexities associated with the feedstock supply chain, as found in the case of agricultural residue. Statement 2 is correct: It eliminates pre-treatment costs as it lacks the organic polymer lignin, unlike agri residue. In terms of conversion efficiency, approximately 25 tonnes of pressmud are needed to produce a tonne of CBG. In comparison, cattle dung requires 50 tonnes for the same gas output. Statement 3 is not correct: Storing pressmud proves challenging as it undergoes gradual decomposition, resulting in the breakdown of organic compounds. This complicates long-term storage and raises production costs. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Green energy Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 12. Question

With reference to Pressmud, consider the following statements:

• It is a residual by-product in the sugar industry known as filter cake.

• It eliminates pre-treatment costs as it lacks the organic polymer lignin.

• It does not require long-term storage units hence reduces production costs.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Pressmud, a residual byproduct in the sugar industry often known as filter cake or press cake, has been acknowledged as a valuable resource for green energy production.

The byproduct can help Indian sugar mills generate extra revenue by utilising it as a feedstock for biogas production through anaerobic digestion and subsequent purification to create compressed biogas (CBG).

The use of pressmud as a feedstock for CBG offers several advantages. Firstly, it eliminates the complexities associated with the feedstock supply chain, as found in the case of agricultural residue.

Statement 2 is correct: It eliminates pre-treatment costs as it lacks the organic polymer lignin, unlike agri residue. In terms of conversion efficiency, approximately 25 tonnes of pressmud are needed to produce a tonne of CBG. In comparison, cattle dung requires 50 tonnes for the same gas output.

Statement 3 is not correct: Storing pressmud proves challenging as it undergoes gradual decomposition, resulting in the breakdown of organic compounds. This complicates long-term storage and raises production costs.

Trend: Green energy

Approach: Applied knowledge

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Pressmud, a residual byproduct in the sugar industry often known as filter cake or press cake, has been acknowledged as a valuable resource for green energy production.

The use of pressmud as a feedstock for CBG offers several advantages. Firstly, it eliminates the complexities associated with the feedstock supply chain, as found in the case of agricultural residue.

Trend: Green energy

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points With reference to Tropicalisation, consider the following statements: It is a marine phenomenon characterized by the retraction of temperate species. It can be detected in the temperate transition zones and temperate regions. It can induce shifts in the genotypic composition of the expanding species. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Tropicalisation is a marine phenomenon arising from contemporary climate change, and is characterised by the range expansion of tropical/subtropical species and the retraction of temperate species. Statement 2 is correct: Tropicalisation occurs globally and can be detected in both tropical/temperate transition zones and temperate regions. Statement 3 is correct: The ecological consequences of tropicalisation range from single-species impacts (e.g., altered behaviour) to whole ecosystem changes (e.g., phase shifts in intertidal and subtidal habitats). Tropicalisation can induce phenotypic change as well as shifts in the genotypic composition of both expanding and retracting species. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Climate change affecting Biodiversity Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Tropicalisation is a marine phenomenon arising from contemporary climate change, and is characterised by the range expansion of tropical/subtropical species and the retraction of temperate species. Statement 2 is correct: Tropicalisation occurs globally and can be detected in both tropical/temperate transition zones and temperate regions. Statement 3 is correct: The ecological consequences of tropicalisation range from single-species impacts (e.g., altered behaviour) to whole ecosystem changes (e.g., phase shifts in intertidal and subtidal habitats). Tropicalisation can induce phenotypic change as well as shifts in the genotypic composition of both expanding and retracting species. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Climate change affecting Biodiversity Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 13. Question

With reference to Tropicalisation, consider the following statements:

• It is a marine phenomenon characterized by the retraction of temperate species.

• It can be detected in the temperate transition zones and temperate regions.

• It can induce shifts in the genotypic composition of the expanding species.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Tropicalisation is a marine phenomenon arising from contemporary climate change, and is characterised by the range expansion of tropical/subtropical species and the retraction of temperate species.

Statement 2 is correct: Tropicalisation occurs globally and can be detected in both tropical/temperate transition zones and temperate regions.

Statement 3 is correct: The ecological consequences of tropicalisation range from single-species impacts (e.g., altered behaviour) to whole ecosystem changes (e.g., phase shifts in intertidal and subtidal habitats).

Tropicalisation can induce phenotypic change as well as shifts in the genotypic composition of both expanding and retracting species.

Trend: Climate change affecting Biodiversity

Approach: Applied knowledge

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: Tropicalisation occurs globally and can be detected in both tropical/temperate transition zones and temperate regions.

Tropicalisation can induce phenotypic change as well as shifts in the genotypic composition of both expanding and retracting species.

Trend: Climate change affecting Biodiversity

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points With reference to e-Cigarettes, consider the following statements: These are battery-operated devices and hence do not produce aerosols on heating. Flavours such as diacetyl used in e-cigarettes are linked to lung diseases. These do not contain volatile organic compounds or any heavy metals. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Electronic nicotine delivery systems (ENDS) or non-combustible tobacco products are known by many names — vapes, e-hookahs, electronic cigarettes and e-pipes. E-cigarettes may be manufactured to look like traditional cigarettes and are marketed as tobacco-free nicotine delivery devices. Statement 1 is not correct: Instead of burning tobacco leaves like in traditional cigarettes, an e-cigarette, which is a battery-operated device, produces aerosol by heating a solution containing nicotine among other things. The device contains nicotine and flavours in the form of liquid which is primarily composed of solvents such as glycerol and/or propylene glycol. Statement 2 is correct: Flavours such as diacetyl used in e-cigarettes are linked to serious lung disease. Statement 3 is not correct: E-cigarettes also contain volatile organic compounds, heavy metals, such as nickel, tin and lead. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Healthcare and diseases Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Electronic nicotine delivery systems (ENDS) or non-combustible tobacco products are known by many names — vapes, e-hookahs, electronic cigarettes and e-pipes. E-cigarettes may be manufactured to look like traditional cigarettes and are marketed as tobacco-free nicotine delivery devices. Statement 1 is not correct: Instead of burning tobacco leaves like in traditional cigarettes, an e-cigarette, which is a battery-operated device, produces aerosol by heating a solution containing nicotine among other things. The device contains nicotine and flavours in the form of liquid which is primarily composed of solvents such as glycerol and/or propylene glycol. Statement 2 is correct: Flavours such as diacetyl used in e-cigarettes are linked to serious lung disease. Statement 3 is not correct: E-cigarettes also contain volatile organic compounds, heavy metals, such as nickel, tin and lead. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Healthcare and diseases Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 14. Question

With reference to e-Cigarettes, consider the following statements:

• These are battery-operated devices and hence do not produce aerosols on heating.

• Flavours such as diacetyl used in e-cigarettes are linked to lung diseases.

• These do not contain volatile organic compounds or any heavy metals.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Electronic nicotine delivery systems (ENDS) or non-combustible tobacco products are known by many names — vapes, e-hookahs, electronic cigarettes and e-pipes.

E-cigarettes may be manufactured to look like traditional cigarettes and are marketed as tobacco-free nicotine delivery devices.

Statement 1 is not correct: Instead of burning tobacco leaves like in traditional cigarettes, an e-cigarette, which is a battery-operated device, produces aerosol by heating a solution containing nicotine among other things.

The device contains nicotine and flavours in the form of liquid which is primarily composed of solvents such as glycerol and/or propylene glycol.

Statement 2 is correct: Flavours such as diacetyl used in e-cigarettes are linked to serious lung disease.

Statement 3 is not correct: E-cigarettes also contain volatile organic compounds, heavy metals, such as nickel, tin and lead.

Trend: Healthcare and diseases

Approach: Applied knowledge

Answer: A

Explanation:

Electronic nicotine delivery systems (ENDS) or non-combustible tobacco products are known by many names — vapes, e-hookahs, electronic cigarettes and e-pipes.

E-cigarettes may be manufactured to look like traditional cigarettes and are marketed as tobacco-free nicotine delivery devices.

The device contains nicotine and flavours in the form of liquid which is primarily composed of solvents such as glycerol and/or propylene glycol.

Statement 2 is correct: Flavours such as diacetyl used in e-cigarettes are linked to serious lung disease.

Statement 3 is not correct: E-cigarettes also contain volatile organic compounds, heavy metals, such as nickel, tin and lead.

Trend: Healthcare and diseases

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements is correct about the ‘PM JANMAN’ Initiative? (a) It aims to make India a manufacturing hub and promote the growth of the manufacturing sector. (b) It provides broadband connectivity to all the citizens of rural households and promotes digital literacy. (c) It was introduced through the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana to provide crop insurance to farmers. (d) It aims to improve the socio-economic conditions of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: According to the 2011 census, India has a Scheduled Tribe (ST) population of 10.45 crore, with 75 communities across 18 states and the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands identified as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). These PVTGs continue to grapple with vulnerabilities in social, economic, and educational domains. In the Budget Speech for 2023-24, it was announced that a Pradhan Mantri PVTGs Development Mission and PM JANMAN will be launched to enhance the socio-economic conditions of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups. This initiative aims to provide essential amenities such as secure housing, clean drinking water, sanitation, improved access to education, health, and nutrition, as well as enhanced road and telecom connectivity, and sustainable livelihood opportunities to PVTGs households and habitats. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: According to the 2011 census, India has a Scheduled Tribe (ST) population of 10.45 crore, with 75 communities across 18 states and the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands identified as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). These PVTGs continue to grapple with vulnerabilities in social, economic, and educational domains. In the Budget Speech for 2023-24, it was announced that a Pradhan Mantri PVTGs Development Mission and PM JANMAN will be launched to enhance the socio-economic conditions of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups. This initiative aims to provide essential amenities such as secure housing, clean drinking water, sanitation, improved access to education, health, and nutrition, as well as enhanced road and telecom connectivity, and sustainable livelihood opportunities to PVTGs households and habitats. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 15. Question

Which one of the following statements is correct about the ‘PM JANMAN’ Initiative?

• (a) It aims to make India a manufacturing hub and promote the growth of the manufacturing sector.

• (b) It provides broadband connectivity to all the citizens of rural households and promotes digital literacy.

• (c) It was introduced through the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana to provide crop insurance to farmers.

• (d) It aims to improve the socio-economic conditions of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: According to the 2011 census, India has a Scheduled Tribe (ST) population of 10.45 crore, with 75 communities across 18 states and the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands identified as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).

• These PVTGs continue to grapple with vulnerabilities in social, economic, and educational domains.

• In the Budget Speech for 2023-24, it was announced that a Pradhan Mantri PVTGs Development Mission and PM JANMAN will be launched to enhance the socio-economic conditions of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.

• This initiative aims to provide essential amenities such as secure housing, clean drinking water, sanitation, improved access to education, health, and nutrition, as well as enhanced road and telecom connectivity, and sustainable livelihood opportunities to PVTGs households and habitats.

Trend: Schemes in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: D

Explanation:

• These PVTGs continue to grapple with vulnerabilities in social, economic, and educational domains.

Trend: Schemes in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points The ‘Earth Hour’, an annual event that encourages individuals, communities, and businesses to turn off non-essential electric lights for one hour as a symbol of commitment to the planet, was started by which organization? (a) Greenpeace International (b) The World Wide Fund for Nature (c) The Climate Group (d) The International Energy Agency Correct Solution: B Earth Hour, organized by WWF, is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on environmental issues and protect the planet. Engaging a massive mainstream community, Earth Hour was famously started as a lights out event in Sydney, Australia in 2007. Since then, it has grown to engage millions of supporters in more than 185 countries and territories, inspiring individuals and organizations worldwide to take action for the environment, and driving major legislative changes by harnessing the power of the crowd. As the movement grows, the one-hour lights out event continues to be the symbol of a broader commitment toward nature and our planet. https://www.earthhour.org/faqs Trend: Terms in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B Earth Hour, organized by WWF, is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on environmental issues and protect the planet. Engaging a massive mainstream community, Earth Hour was famously started as a lights out event in Sydney, Australia in 2007. Since then, it has grown to engage millions of supporters in more than 185 countries and territories, inspiring individuals and organizations worldwide to take action for the environment, and driving major legislative changes by harnessing the power of the crowd. As the movement grows, the one-hour lights out event continues to be the symbol of a broader commitment toward nature and our planet. https://www.earthhour.org/faqs Trend: Terms in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 16. Question

The ‘Earth Hour’, an annual event that encourages individuals, communities, and businesses to turn off non-essential electric lights for one hour as a symbol of commitment to the planet, was started by which organization?

• (a) Greenpeace International

• (b) The World Wide Fund for Nature

• (c) The Climate Group

• (d) The International Energy Agency

Solution: B

Earth Hour, organized by WWF, is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on environmental issues and protect the planet. Engaging a massive mainstream community, Earth Hour was famously started as a lights out event in Sydney, Australia in 2007. Since then, it has grown to engage millions of supporters in more than 185 countries and territories, inspiring individuals and organizations worldwide to take action for the environment, and driving major legislative changes by harnessing the power of the crowd. As the movement grows, the one-hour lights out event continues to be the symbol of a broader commitment toward nature and our planet.

https://www.earthhour.org/faqs

Trend: Terms in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

https://www.earthhour.org/faqs

Trend: Terms in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points The ‘Aichi Biodiversity Targets’ are part of which international agreement? (a) Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (b) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) (c) CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) (d) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Correct Solution: B The Aichi biodiversity targets were established by the UN Convention of Biological Diversity and consist of 20 specific targets to address and mitigate biodiversity loss across the globe. https://earth.org/what-are-the-aichi-biodiversity-targets/ Trend: International treaties/conventions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B The Aichi biodiversity targets were established by the UN Convention of Biological Diversity and consist of 20 specific targets to address and mitigate biodiversity loss across the globe. https://earth.org/what-are-the-aichi-biodiversity-targets/ Trend: International treaties/conventions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 17. Question

The ‘Aichi Biodiversity Targets’ are part of which international agreement?

• (a) Ramsar Convention on Wetlands

• (b) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

• (c) CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora)

• (d) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

Solution: B

The Aichi biodiversity targets were established by the UN Convention of Biological Diversity and consist of 20 specific targets to address and mitigate biodiversity loss across the globe.

https://earth.org/what-are-the-aichi-biodiversity-targets/

Trend: International treaties/conventions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

The Aichi biodiversity targets were established by the UN Convention of Biological Diversity and consist of 20 specific targets to address and mitigate biodiversity loss across the globe.

https://earth.org/what-are-the-aichi-biodiversity-targets/

Trend: International treaties/conventions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA): IRENA is an intergovernmental organization that supports countries in their transition to a sustainable energy future. IRENA is officially affiliated with the United Nations and acts as its principal agency on renewable energy matters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) is a lead global intergovernmental agency for energy transformation that serves as the principal platform for international cooperation, supports countries in their energy transitions, and provides state of the art data and analyses on technology, innovation, policy, finance and investment. IRENA drives the widespread adoption and sustainable use of all forms of renewable energy, including bioenergy, geothermal, hydropower, ocean, solar and wind energy in the pursuit of sustainable development, energy access, and energy security, for economic and social resilience and prosperity and a climate-proof future. IRENA’s membership comprises 168 countries and the EU. Together, they decide on the Agency’s strategic direction and programmatic activities, in line with the global energy discourse and priorities to accelerate the deployment of renewables-based energy transitions worldwide. Hence, statement 1 is correct. While IRENA does collaborate closely with various United Nations bodies and operates in alignment with UN goals, it is not officially an agency of the United Nations. Instead, it is an independent intergovernmental organization. IRENA and the UN have signed Memoranda of Understanding (MoUs) to advance specific goals, such as increasing the use of renewable energy in peacekeeping missions. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International treaties/conventions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: A The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) is a lead global intergovernmental agency for energy transformation that serves as the principal platform for international cooperation, supports countries in their energy transitions, and provides state of the art data and analyses on technology, innovation, policy, finance and investment. IRENA drives the widespread adoption and sustainable use of all forms of renewable energy, including bioenergy, geothermal, hydropower, ocean, solar and wind energy in the pursuit of sustainable development, energy access, and energy security, for economic and social resilience and prosperity and a climate-proof future. IRENA’s membership comprises 168 countries and the EU. Together, they decide on the Agency’s strategic direction and programmatic activities, in line with the global energy discourse and priorities to accelerate the deployment of renewables-based energy transitions worldwide. Hence, statement 1 is correct. While IRENA does collaborate closely with various United Nations bodies and operates in alignment with UN goals, it is not officially an agency of the United Nations. Instead, it is an independent intergovernmental organization. IRENA and the UN have signed Memoranda of Understanding (MoUs) to advance specific goals, such as increasing the use of renewable energy in peacekeeping missions. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International treaties/conventions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA):

• IRENA is an intergovernmental organization that supports countries in their transition to a sustainable energy future.

• IRENA is officially affiliated with the United Nations and acts as its principal agency on renewable energy matters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) is a lead global intergovernmental agency for energy transformation that serves as the principal platform for international cooperation, supports countries in their energy transitions, and provides state of the art data and analyses on technology, innovation, policy, finance and investment. IRENA drives the widespread adoption and sustainable use of all forms of renewable energy, including bioenergy, geothermal, hydropower, ocean, solar and wind energy in the pursuit of sustainable development, energy access, and energy

security, for economic and social resilience and prosperity and a climate-proof future.

IRENA’s membership comprises 168 countries and the EU. Together, they decide on the Agency’s strategic direction and programmatic activities, in line with the global energy discourse and priorities to accelerate the deployment of renewables-based energy transitions worldwide.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

While IRENA does collaborate closely with various United Nations bodies and operates in alignment with UN goals, it is not officially an agency of the United Nations. Instead, it is an independent intergovernmental organization. IRENA and the UN have signed Memoranda of Understanding (MoUs) to advance specific goals, such as increasing the use of renewable energy in peacekeeping missions.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Trend: International treaties/conventions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: A

security, for economic and social resilience and prosperity and a climate-proof future.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Trend: International treaties/conventions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points The ‘ Climate and Clean Air Coalition’, has been developed for: (a) Reducing black carbon, methane and other short-lived climate pollutants globally. (b) Enforcing global regulations on trans-boundary air pollution. (c) Monitoring air quality and greenhouse gas emissions in major cities. (d) Facilitating technology transfer for renewable energy to reduce air pollution. Correct Solution: A The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) is a voluntary partnership of over 160 governments, intergovernmental organizations, and non-governmental organizations founded in 2012, and convened within UNEP. Collectively and individually, partners who join the Climate and Clean Air Coalition are working to reduce powerful but short-lived climate pollutants (SLCPs) – methane, black carbon, hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), and tropospheric ozone – that drive both climate change and air pollution. https://www.ccacoalition.org/content/climate-and-clean-air-coalition Trend: International treaties/conventions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: A The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) is a voluntary partnership of over 160 governments, intergovernmental organizations, and non-governmental organizations founded in 2012, and convened within UNEP. Collectively and individually, partners who join the Climate and Clean Air Coalition are working to reduce powerful but short-lived climate pollutants (SLCPs) – methane, black carbon, hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), and tropospheric ozone – that drive both climate change and air pollution. https://www.ccacoalition.org/content/climate-and-clean-air-coalition Trend: International treaties/conventions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 19. Question

The ‘ Climate and Clean Air Coalition’, has been developed for:

• (a) Reducing black carbon, methane and other short-lived climate pollutants globally.

• (b) Enforcing global regulations on trans-boundary air pollution.

• (c) Monitoring air quality and greenhouse gas emissions in major cities.

• (d) Facilitating technology transfer for renewable energy to reduce air pollution.

Solution: A

The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) is a voluntary partnership of over 160 governments, intergovernmental organizations, and non-governmental organizations founded in 2012, and convened within UNEP.

Collectively and individually, partners who join the Climate and Clean Air Coalition are working to reduce powerful but short-lived climate pollutants (SLCPs) – methane, black carbon, hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), and tropospheric ozone – that drive both climate change and air pollution.

https://www.ccacoalition.org/content/climate-and-clean-air-coalition

Trend: International treaties/conventions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: A

https://www.ccacoalition.org/content/climate-and-clean-air-coalition

Trend: International treaties/conventions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): SDG 14, “Life Below Water,” aims to conserve at least 50% of coastal and marine areas by 2030. The SDGs were adopted as a part of the Rio+20 Conference in 2012. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D None of the statements are correct. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015, provides a shared blueprint for peace and prosperity for people and the planet, now and into the future. At its heart are the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which are an urgent call for action by all countries – developed and developing – in a global partnership. They recognize that ending poverty and other deprivations must go hand-in-hand with strategies that improve health and education, reduce inequality, and spur economic growth – all while tackling climate change and working to preserve our oceans and forests. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International treaties/conventions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: D None of the statements are correct. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015, provides a shared blueprint for peace and prosperity for people and the planet, now and into the future. At its heart are the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which are an urgent call for action by all countries – developed and developing – in a global partnership. They recognize that ending poverty and other deprivations must go hand-in-hand with strategies that improve health and education, reduce inequality, and spur economic growth – all while tackling climate change and working to preserve our oceans and forests. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International treaties/conventions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):

• SDG 14, “Life Below Water,” aims to conserve at least 50% of coastal and marine areas by 2030.

• The SDGs were adopted as a part of the Rio+20 Conference in 2012.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

None of the statements are correct.

The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015, provides a shared blueprint for peace and prosperity for people and the planet, now and into the future. At its heart are the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which are an urgent call for action by all countries – developed and developing – in a global partnership. They recognize that ending poverty and other deprivations must go hand-in-hand with strategies that improve health and education, reduce inequality, and spur economic growth – all while tackling climate change and working to preserve our oceans and forests.

Trend: International treaties/conventions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: D

None of the statements are correct.

Trend: International treaties/conventions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points According to the Lokayata school of Indian philosophy only matter exists, and therefore thoughts and consciousness have no real existence both perception and inference are valid means of knowledge Which of the above given statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Learning: Materialism is a philosophical concept asserting that the fundamental substance of reality is “matter.” It posits that everything that exists, including thoughts and consciousness, can be explained in terms of physical entities. In essence, it contends that the origin of all that exists is rooted in tangible, physical substances rather than abstract or spiritual elements. Materialism in ancient India: the Lokāyata school, also known as Carvaka, was one of the earliest materialist traditions, asserting that reality is composed solely of physical elements and rejecting metaphysical or supernatural entities. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B Learning: Materialism is a philosophical concept asserting that the fundamental substance of reality is “matter.” It posits that everything that exists, including thoughts and consciousness, can be explained in terms of physical entities. In essence, it contends that the origin of all that exists is rooted in tangible, physical substances rather than abstract or spiritual elements. Materialism in ancient India: the Lokāyata school, also known as Carvaka, was one of the earliest materialist traditions, asserting that reality is composed solely of physical elements and rejecting metaphysical or supernatural entities. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 21. Question

According to the Lokayata school of Indian philosophy

• only matter exists, and therefore thoughts and consciousness have no real existence

• both perception and inference are valid means of knowledge

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Learning: Materialism is a philosophical concept asserting that the fundamental substance of reality is “matter.” It posits that everything that exists, including thoughts and consciousness, can be explained in terms of physical entities.

In essence, it contends that the origin of all that exists is rooted in tangible, physical substances rather than abstract or spiritual elements.

Materialism in ancient India: the Lokāyata school, also known as Carvaka, was one of the earliest materialist traditions, asserting that reality is composed solely of physical elements and rejecting metaphysical or supernatural entities.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

In essence, it contends that the origin of all that exists is rooted in tangible, physical substances rather than abstract or spiritual elements.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Ethics Committee is a parliamentary body responsible for examining cases of ethical misconduct among Members of Parliament (MPs). The members of the Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha are appointed by the Speaker for a five-year term. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: The Ethics Committee is a parliamentary body responsible for examining cases of ethical misconduct among Members of Parliament (MPs). The members of the Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha are appointed by the Speaker for a one-year term. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: The Ethics Committee is a parliamentary body responsible for examining cases of ethical misconduct among Members of Parliament (MPs). The members of the Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha are appointed by the Speaker for a one-year term. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Ethics Committee is a parliamentary body responsible for examining cases of ethical misconduct among Members of Parliament (MPs).

• The members of the Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha are appointed by the Speaker for a five-year term.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Justification: The Ethics Committee is a parliamentary body responsible for examining cases of ethical misconduct among Members of Parliament (MPs).

The members of the Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha are appointed by the Speaker for a one-year term.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: a)

Justification: The Ethics Committee is a parliamentary body responsible for examining cases of ethical misconduct among Members of Parliament (MPs).

The members of the Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha are appointed by the Speaker for a one-year term.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following about national and international efforts towards securing the cyberspace. Budapest Convention on cybercrime is the first international treaty to address cybercrime, to which India is a signatory. Data Security Council of India (DSCI), is a not-for-profit industry body on data protection setup by NASSCOM. Internet Governance Forum is a United Nations forum for multi-stakeholder policy dialogue on Internet governance issues. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Budapest Convention on cybercrime is the first international treaty to address cybercrime. India is not a signatory. Data Security Council of India (DSCI) is a not-for-profit, industry body on data protection setup by NASSCOM in 2008. It is committed to making cyberspace safe, secure and trusted by establishing best practices, standards and initiatives in cyber security and privacy. S3 is correct. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: International treaties and conventions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Budapest Convention on cybercrime is the first international treaty to address cybercrime. India is not a signatory. Data Security Council of India (DSCI) is a not-for-profit, industry body on data protection setup by NASSCOM in 2008. It is committed to making cyberspace safe, secure and trusted by establishing best practices, standards and initiatives in cyber security and privacy. S3 is correct. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: International treaties and conventions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 23. Question

Consider the following about national and international efforts towards securing the cyberspace.

• Budapest Convention on cybercrime is the first international treaty to address cybercrime, to which India is a signatory.

• Data Security Council of India (DSCI), is a not-for-profit industry body on data protection setup by NASSCOM.

• Internet Governance Forum is a United Nations forum for multi-stakeholder policy dialogue on Internet governance issues.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: Budapest Convention on cybercrime is the first international treaty to address cybercrime. India is not a signatory.

Data Security Council of India (DSCI) is a not-for-profit, industry body on data protection setup by NASSCOM in 2008. It is committed to making cyberspace safe, secure and trusted by establishing best practices, standards and initiatives in cyber security and privacy.

S3 is correct.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: International treaties and conventions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: b)

Justification: Budapest Convention on cybercrime is the first international treaty to address cybercrime. India is not a signatory.

S3 is correct.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: International treaties and conventions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points The Prisoner’s Dilemma concept is often applied to international relations to understand situations where countries a) are facing a joint crisis b) face choices with conflicting interests c) have a refugee crisis d) have high rates of incarceration in transnational crimes Correct Solution: b) Justification: Prisoner’s Dilemma is a classic concept in game theory that illustrates a situation where individuals can make rational choices that lead to a suboptimal outcome for both. It involves two suspects (prisoners) who can either cooperate by remaining silent or betray each other by confessing to a crime. The possible outcomes are: If both remain silent (cooperate), they both get a minimal sentence for a lesser offence. If both confess (betray), they both receive a moderate sentence. If one remains silent while the other confesses, the one who confesses goes free, and the silent one receives a heavy sentence. Its application in International Relations: The Prisoner’s Dilemma concept is often applied to inter- national relations to understand situations where countries face choices with conflicting interests. It helps explain why nations may not always cooperate for the best collective outcome. For example, in arms races, two countries may each choose to arm themselves (confess) to gain a competitive advantage, even though disarmament (remaining silent) would be collectively better by reducing the risk of war and saving resources. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf https://taxation-customs.ec.europa.eu/carbon-border-adjustment-mechanism_en Trend: Terms in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Prisoner’s Dilemma is a classic concept in game theory that illustrates a situation where individuals can make rational choices that lead to a suboptimal outcome for both. It involves two suspects (prisoners) who can either cooperate by remaining silent or betray each other by confessing to a crime. The possible outcomes are: If both remain silent (cooperate), they both get a minimal sentence for a lesser offence. If both confess (betray), they both receive a moderate sentence. If one remains silent while the other confesses, the one who confesses goes free, and the silent one receives a heavy sentence. Its application in International Relations: The Prisoner’s Dilemma concept is often applied to inter- national relations to understand situations where countries face choices with conflicting interests. It helps explain why nations may not always cooperate for the best collective outcome. For example, in arms races, two countries may each choose to arm themselves (confess) to gain a competitive advantage, even though disarmament (remaining silent) would be collectively better by reducing the risk of war and saving resources. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf https://taxation-customs.ec.europa.eu/carbon-border-adjustment-mechanism_en Trend: Terms in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 24. Question

The Prisoner’s Dilemma concept is often applied to international relations to understand situations where countries

• a) are facing a joint crisis

• b) face choices with conflicting interests

• c) have a refugee crisis

• d) have high rates of incarceration in transnational crimes

Solution: b)

Justification: Prisoner’s Dilemma is a classic concept in game theory that illustrates a situation where individuals can make rational choices that lead to a suboptimal outcome for both. It involves two suspects (prisoners) who can either cooperate by remaining silent or betray each other by confessing to a crime.

The possible outcomes are:

• If both remain silent (cooperate), they both get a minimal sentence for a lesser offence.

• If both confess (betray), they both receive a moderate sentence.

If one remains silent while the other confesses, the one who confesses goes free, and the silent one receives a heavy sentence. Its application in International Relations: The Prisoner’s Dilemma concept is often applied to inter- national relations to understand situations where countries face choices with conflicting interests. It helps explain why nations may not always cooperate for the best collective outcome. For example, in arms races, two countries may each choose to arm themselves (confess) to gain a competitive advantage, even though disarmament (remaining silent) would be collectively better by reducing the risk of war and saving resources.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

https://taxation-customs.ec.europa.eu/carbon-border-adjustment-mechanism_en

Trend: Terms in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: b)

The possible outcomes are:

• If both remain silent (cooperate), they both get a minimal sentence for a lesser offence.

• If both confess (betray), they both receive a moderate sentence.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

https://taxation-customs.ec.europa.eu/carbon-border-adjustment-mechanism_en

Trend: Terms in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Who among the following Indian-origin persons have received the prestigious Pulitzer Prize? Arundhati Roy Aravind Adiga Vijay Seshadri Danish Siddiqui How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: b) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Awards Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Awards Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 25. Question

Who among the following Indian-origin persons have received the prestigious Pulitzer Prize?

• Arundhati Roy

• Aravind Adiga

• Vijay Seshadri

• Danish Siddiqui

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: b)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Awards

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: b)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Awards

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points The average price of 3 cars is 5 lakhs, where the average price of two costliest cars is double the price of the cheapest car. What is the price of the costliest car? a) 9 lakhs b) 7 lakhs c) 8 lakhs d) Can’t be determined Correct Solution: d) Can’t be determined Explanation: Let the prices of the 3 cars A, B and C be ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ respectively. Let A be the cheapest. Therefore, a+b+c = 3 × 5 lakhs = 15 lakhs …………(1) Also, (b+c)/2 = 2a b+c = 4a …………..(2) Substituting (2) in (1), a + 4a = 15 lakhs 5a = 15 lakhs a = 3 lakhs. Since b + c = 12 lakhs, we can’t find which car is the costliest. NOTE: Since there are 3 variables and only 2 equations can be constructed, we can’t get the complete solution. There have to be 3 equations for 3 variables for complete solution. Incorrect Solution: d) Can’t be determined Explanation: Let the prices of the 3 cars A, B and C be ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ respectively. Let A be the cheapest. Therefore, a+b+c = 3 × 5 lakhs = 15 lakhs …………(1) Also, (b+c)/2 = 2a b+c = 4a …………..(2) Substituting (2) in (1), a + 4a = 15 lakhs 5a = 15 lakhs a = 3 lakhs. Since b + c = 12 lakhs, we can’t find which car is the costliest. NOTE: Since there are 3 variables and only 2 equations can be constructed, we can’t get the complete solution. There have to be 3 equations for 3 variables for complete solution.

#### 26. Question

The average price of 3 cars is 5 lakhs, where the average price of two costliest cars is double the price of the cheapest car. What is the price of the costliest car?

• a) 9 lakhs

• b) 7 lakhs

• c) 8 lakhs

• d) Can’t be determined

Solution: d) Can’t be determined

Explanation:

Let the prices of the 3 cars A, B and C be ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ respectively.

Let A be the cheapest.

Therefore, a+b+c = 3 × 5 lakhs = 15 lakhs …………(1)

(b+c)/2 = 2a

b+c = 4a …………..(2)

Substituting (2) in (1),

a + 4a = 15 lakhs

5a = 15 lakhs

a = 3 lakhs.

Since b + c = 12 lakhs, we can’t find which car is the costliest.

NOTE: Since there are 3 variables and only 2 equations can be constructed, we can’t get the complete solution. There have to be 3 equations for 3 variables for complete solution.

Solution: d) Can’t be determined

Explanation:

Let the prices of the 3 cars A, B and C be ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ respectively.

Let A be the cheapest.

Therefore, a+b+c = 3 × 5 lakhs = 15 lakhs …………(1)

(b+c)/2 = 2a

b+c = 4a …………..(2)

Substituting (2) in (1),

a + 4a = 15 lakhs

5a = 15 lakhs

a = 3 lakhs.

Since b + c = 12 lakhs, we can’t find which car is the costliest.

NOTE: Since there are 3 variables and only 2 equations can be constructed, we can’t get the complete solution. There have to be 3 equations for 3 variables for complete solution.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points In a cricket team, the average age of eleven players in 28 years. What is the age of the captain? The captain is eleven years older than the youngest player. The average age of 10 players, other than the captain is 27.3 years. III. Leaving aside the captain and the youngest player, the average ages of three groups of three players each are 25 years, 28 years and 30 years respectively. A) Any two of the three B) All I, II and III C) II only or I and III only D) II and III only Correct Answer: Option C) II only or I and III only Explanation: Total age of 11 players = (28 x 11) years = 308 years. C = Y + 11 C – Y = 11 …. (i) Total age of 10 players (excluding captain) = (27.3 x 10) years = 273 years. Age of captain = (308 – 273) years = 35 years. Thus, C = 35. …. (ii) From (i) and (ii), we get Y = 24 III. Total age of 9 players = [ (25 x 3) + (28 x 3) + (30 x 3)] years = 249 years. C + Y = (308 – 249) = 59 …. (iii) From (i) and (iii), we get C = 35. Thus, II alone gives the answer. Also, I and III together give the answer. Correct answer is (C). Incorrect Answer: Option C) II only or I and III only Explanation: Total age of 11 players = (28 x 11) years = 308 years. C = Y + 11 C – Y = 11 …. (i) Total age of 10 players (excluding captain) = (27.3 x 10) years = 273 years. Age of captain = (308 – 273) years = 35 years. Thus, C = 35. …. (ii) From (i) and (ii), we get Y = 24 III. Total age of 9 players = [ (25 x 3) + (28 x 3) + (30 x 3)] years = 249 years. C + Y = (308 – 249) = 59 …. (iii) From (i) and (iii), we get C = 35. Thus, II alone gives the answer. Also, I and III together give the answer. Correct answer is (C).

#### 27. Question

In a cricket team, the average age of eleven players in 28 years. What is the age of the captain?

• The captain is eleven years older than the youngest player.

• The average age of 10 players, other than the captain is 27.3 years.

III. Leaving aside the captain and the youngest player, the average ages of three groups of three players each are 25 years, 28 years and 30 years respectively.

• A) Any two of the three

• B) All I, II and III

• C) II only or I and III only

• D) II and III only

Answer: Option C) II only or I and III only

Explanation:

Total age of 11 players = (28 x 11) years = 308 years.

• C = Y + 11 C – Y = 11 …. (i)

• Total age of 10 players (excluding captain) = (27.3 x 10) years = 273 years.

Age of captain = (308 – 273) years = 35 years.

Thus, C = 35. …. (ii)

From (i) and (ii), we get Y = 24

III. Total age of 9 players = [ (25 x 3) + (28 x 3) + (30 x 3)] years = 249 years.

C + Y = (308 – 249) = 59 …. (iii)

From (i) and (iii), we get C = 35.

Thus, II alone gives the answer.

Also, I and III together give the answer.

Correct answer is (C).

Answer: Option C) II only or I and III only

Explanation:

Total age of 11 players = (28 x 11) years = 308 years.

• C = Y + 11 C – Y = 11 …. (i)

• Total age of 10 players (excluding captain) = (27.3 x 10) years = 273 years.

Age of captain = (308 – 273) years = 35 years.

Thus, C = 35. …. (ii)

From (i) and (ii), we get Y = 24

III. Total age of 9 players = [ (25 x 3) + (28 x 3) + (30 x 3)] years = 249 years.

C + Y = (308 – 249) = 59 …. (iii)

From (i) and (iii), we get C = 35.

Thus, II alone gives the answer.

Also, I and III together give the answer.

Correct answer is (C).

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Dev and Om are among 22 students who write an examination. Dev scores 82.5. The average score of the 21 students other than Om is 62. The average score of all the 22 students is one more than the average score of the 21 students other than Dev. The score of Om is. a) 50 b) 51 c) 52 d) 53 Correct Answer: B) 51 Let the score of Om =x Total marks of all the students = 2162 +x As per the question, The average score of all the 22 students is one more than the average score of the 21 students other than Dev, Or (2162 +x)/22 -1 = (2162 +x – 82.5)/21 (2162 + x -22)/22 = (2162 +x – 82.5)/21. Therefore, x =51 Incorrect Answer: B) 51 Let the score of Om =x Total marks of all the students = 2162 +x As per the question, The average score of all the 22 students is one more than the average score of the 21 students other than Dev, Or (2162 +x)/22 -1 = (2162 +x – 82.5)/21 (2162 + x -22)/22 = (2162 +x – 82.5)/21. Therefore, x =51

#### 28. Question

Dev and Om are among 22 students who write an examination. Dev scores 82.5. The average score of the 21 students other than Om is 62. The average score of all the 22 students is one more than the average score of the 21 students other than Dev. The score of Om is.

Answer: B) 51

Let the score of Om =x

Total marks of all the students = 21*62 +x

As per the question, The average score of all the 22 students is one more than the average score of the 21 students other than Dev,

Or (2162 +x)/22 -1 = (2162 +x – 82.5)/21

(2162 + x -22)/22 = (2162 +x – 82.5)/21.

Therefore, x =51

Answer: B) 51

Let the score of Om =x

Total marks of all the students = 21*62 +x

As per the question, The average score of all the 22 students is one more than the average score of the 21 students other than Dev,

Or (2162 +x)/22 -1 = (2162 +x – 82.5)/21

(2162 + x -22)/22 = (2162 +x – 82.5)/21.

Therefore, x =51

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Thanks to the cleaner air that would come with a drastic reduction in fossil fuel combustion, another 1.6 million people could expect to breathe freely for another year. And the shift from private cars to public transport and foot or bicycle journeys would mean another 2.1 million of us could expect to go on benefiting from the additional exercise for another year, every year. The damage that these threaten alone delivers a long-term economic case for concerted global action. The critical message of the author is best implied by, A. Population reduction holds the key for climate change control B. Lifestyle changes for lean culture is promising in climate fight C. Action to keep climate promises could prevent millions of deaths each year D. The potential for nations to reduce carbon footprint indicates a fairly sustainable future Correct Answer: C Nowhere population as a cause is argued by author so A is wrong. Author does not conclude nation have potential nor his focus is narrowly on lifestyle change. The most important point he makes is about probable benefit of diminishing warming i.e. saving many through good air. So C is the answer. Incorrect Answer: C Nowhere population as a cause is argued by author so A is wrong. Author does not conclude nation have potential nor his focus is narrowly on lifestyle change. The most important point he makes is about probable benefit of diminishing warming i.e. saving many through good air. So C is the answer.

#### 29. Question

Thanks to the cleaner air that would come with a drastic reduction in fossil fuel combustion, another 1.6 million people could expect to breathe freely for another year. And the shift from private cars to public transport and foot or bicycle journeys would mean another 2.1 million of us could expect to go on benefiting from the additional exercise for another year, every year. The damage that these threaten alone delivers a long-term economic case for concerted global action.

The critical message of the author is best implied by,

• A. Population reduction holds the key for climate change control

• B. Lifestyle changes for lean culture is promising in climate fight

• C. Action to keep climate promises could prevent millions of deaths each year

• D. The potential for nations to reduce carbon footprint indicates a fairly sustainable future

Nowhere population as a cause is argued by author so A is wrong.

Author does not conclude nation have potential nor his focus is narrowly on lifestyle change. The most important point he makes is about probable benefit of diminishing warming i.e. saving many through good air.

So C is the answer.

Nowhere population as a cause is argued by author so A is wrong.

So C is the answer.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Nations should work more harder to keep warming under control Need to save natural resources and shift to renewables are imminent Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Since author believes warming is true and calls for more drastic action. So 1 is correct. Concerted action is needed and anything that saves climate is relevant . So 2 is also correct. So C is the answer. Incorrect Answer: C Since author believes warming is true and calls for more drastic action. So 1 is correct. Concerted action is needed and anything that saves climate is relevant . So 2 is also correct. So C is the answer.

#### 30. Question

On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:

• Nations should work more harder to keep warming under control

• Need to save natural resources and shift to renewables are imminent

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

Since author believes warming is true and calls for more drastic action. So 1 is correct.

Concerted action is needed and anything that saves climate is relevant . So 2 is also correct.

So C is the answer.

Since author believes warming is true and calls for more drastic action. So 1 is correct.

Concerted action is needed and anything that saves climate is relevant . So 2 is also correct.