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DAY – 20 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

Kartavya Desk Staff

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Gaganyaan mission: Its primary objective is to send Indian astronauts to the International Space Station for collaborative research. The mission aims for a 30-day manned flight to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) with a crew of three members. The Human-rated LVM3 rocket will be used to launch the Gaganyaan spacecraft. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B The Gaganyaan mission is India’s ambitious human spaceflight program. It aims to demonstrate India’s capability to send humans to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and bring them back safely. This mission is a significant step in India’s space exploration journey, marking its entry into the realm of human spaceflight. The Gaganyaan mission’s primary objective is to demonstrate India’s indigenous capability for human spaceflight by sending astronauts to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and returning them safely. While India does participate in collaborative research with other nations, including those involved in the ISS, Gaganyaan’s immediate goal is not ISS-centric. It is an independent Indian mission to LEO. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Gaganyaan mission aims to send a crew of three astronauts to a 400 km orbit for a three-day mission and bring them back safely to Earth, landing in Indian sea waters. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3), also known as GSLV Mk III, has been human-rated and will be used to launch the Gaganyaan spacecraft. This heavy-lift launch vehicle is capable of carrying the necessary payload to LEO. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The Gaganyaan mission is India’s ambitious human spaceflight program. It aims to demonstrate India’s capability to send humans to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and bring them back safely. This mission is a significant step in India’s space exploration journey, marking its entry into the realm of human spaceflight. The Gaganyaan mission’s primary objective is to demonstrate India’s indigenous capability for human spaceflight by sending astronauts to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and returning them safely. While India does participate in collaborative research with other nations, including those involved in the ISS, Gaganyaan’s immediate goal is not ISS-centric. It is an independent Indian mission to LEO. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Gaganyaan mission aims to send a crew of three astronauts to a 400 km orbit for a three-day mission and bring them back safely to Earth, landing in Indian sea waters. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3), also known as GSLV Mk III, has been human-rated and will be used to launch the Gaganyaan spacecraft. This heavy-lift launch vehicle is capable of carrying the necessary payload to LEO. Hence statement 3 is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Gaganyaan mission:

• Its primary objective is to send Indian astronauts to the International Space Station for collaborative research.

• The mission aims for a 30-day manned flight to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) with a crew of three members.

• The Human-rated LVM3 rocket will be used to launch the Gaganyaan spacecraft.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

The Gaganyaan mission is India’s ambitious human spaceflight program. It aims to demonstrate India’s capability to send humans to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and bring them back safely. This mission is a significant step in India’s space exploration journey, marking its entry into the realm of human spaceflight.

The Gaganyaan mission’s primary objective is to demonstrate India’s indigenous capability for human spaceflight by sending astronauts to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and returning them safely. While India does participate in collaborative research with other nations, including those involved in the ISS, Gaganyaan’s immediate goal is not ISS-centric. It is an independent Indian mission to LEO.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

The Gaganyaan mission aims to send a crew of three astronauts to a 400 km orbit for a three-day mission and bring them back safely to Earth, landing in Indian sea waters.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

The Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3), also known as GSLV Mk III, has been human-rated and will be used to launch the Gaganyaan spacecraft. This heavy-lift launch vehicle is capable of carrying the necessary payload to LEO.

Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution: B

The Gaganyaan mission is India’s ambitious human spaceflight program. It aims to demonstrate India’s capability to send humans to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and bring them back safely. This mission is a significant step in India’s space exploration journey, marking its entry into the realm of human spaceflight.

The Gaganyaan mission’s primary objective is to demonstrate India’s indigenous capability for human spaceflight by sending astronauts to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and returning them safely. While India does participate in collaborative research with other nations, including those involved in the ISS, Gaganyaan’s immediate goal is not ISS-centric. It is an independent Indian mission to LEO.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

The Gaganyaan mission aims to send a crew of three astronauts to a 400 km orbit for a three-day mission and bring them back safely to Earth, landing in Indian sea waters.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

The Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3), also known as GSLV Mk III, has been human-rated and will be used to launch the Gaganyaan spacecraft. This heavy-lift launch vehicle is capable of carrying the necessary payload to LEO.

Hence statement 3 is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following: Assertion (A): Hypersonic missiles pose a significant challenge to traditional missile defence systems. Reason (R): These missiles can travel at speeds exceeding Mach 5 and possess high manoeuvrability during flight. In the context of the above statements, which of the following is correct? (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true. Correct Solution: A Hypersonic Missiles: These are missiles that travel at speeds of Mach 5 or higher (five times the speed of sound). They possess unique characteristics that make them difficult to intercept, including: High speed: This drastically reduces the time available for detection and interception. Manoeuvrability: They can perform complex manoeuvres during flight, making their trajectory unpredictable. Low altitude flight: Some hypersonic missiles can fly at lower altitudes, making them harder to detect by radar. Missile Defense Systems: These systems are designed to detect, track, and intercept incoming ballistic or cruise missiles. Traditional missile defense systems are often optimized to intercept ballistic missiles, which follow predictable, parabolic trajectories. Assertion: The combination of high speed and manoeuvrability makes hypersonic missiles exceptionally difficult to intercept with existing defense systems. Traditional systems struggle to track and predict the trajectory of these missiles, leaving limited time for effective countermeasures. Reason: It accurately describes the key characteristics of hypersonic missiles. Relationship between Assertion and Reason: The reason (R) directly explains why the assertion (A) is true. The high speed and manoeuvrability (R) are precisely the factors that make hypersonic missiles challenging to intercept (A). Incorrect Solution: A Hypersonic Missiles: These are missiles that travel at speeds of Mach 5 or higher (five times the speed of sound). They possess unique characteristics that make them difficult to intercept, including: High speed: This drastically reduces the time available for detection and interception. Manoeuvrability: They can perform complex manoeuvres during flight, making their trajectory unpredictable. Low altitude flight: Some hypersonic missiles can fly at lower altitudes, making them harder to detect by radar. Missile Defense Systems: These systems are designed to detect, track, and intercept incoming ballistic or cruise missiles. Traditional missile defense systems are often optimized to intercept ballistic missiles, which follow predictable, parabolic trajectories. Assertion: The combination of high speed and manoeuvrability makes hypersonic missiles exceptionally difficult to intercept with existing defense systems. Traditional systems struggle to track and predict the trajectory of these missiles, leaving limited time for effective countermeasures. Reason: It accurately describes the key characteristics of hypersonic missiles. Relationship between Assertion and Reason: The reason (R) directly explains why the assertion (A) is true. The high speed and manoeuvrability (R) are precisely the factors that make hypersonic missiles challenging to intercept (A).

#### 2. Question

Consider the following:

Assertion (A): Hypersonic missiles pose a significant challenge to traditional missile defence systems. Reason (R): These missiles can travel at speeds exceeding Mach 5 and possess high manoeuvrability during flight. In the context of the above statements, which of the following is correct?

• (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

• (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

• (c) A is true, but R is false.

• (d) A is false, but R is true.

Solution: A

Hypersonic Missiles: These are missiles that travel at speeds of Mach 5 or higher (five times the speed of sound). They possess unique characteristics that make them difficult to intercept, including:

• High speed: This drastically reduces the time available for detection and interception.

• Manoeuvrability: They can perform complex manoeuvres during flight, making their trajectory unpredictable.

• Low altitude flight: Some hypersonic missiles can fly at lower altitudes, making them harder to detect by radar.

Missile Defense Systems: These systems are designed to detect, track, and intercept incoming ballistic or cruise missiles. Traditional missile defense systems are often optimized to intercept ballistic missiles, which follow predictable, parabolic trajectories.

Assertion:

The combination of high speed and manoeuvrability makes hypersonic missiles exceptionally difficult to intercept with existing defense systems. Traditional systems struggle to track and predict the trajectory of these missiles, leaving limited time for effective countermeasures.

Reason: It accurately describes the key characteristics of hypersonic missiles.

Relationship between Assertion and Reason:

The reason (R) directly explains why the assertion (A) is true. The high speed and manoeuvrability (R) are precisely the factors that make hypersonic missiles challenging to intercept (A).

Solution: A

Hypersonic Missiles: These are missiles that travel at speeds of Mach 5 or higher (five times the speed of sound). They possess unique characteristics that make them difficult to intercept, including:

• High speed: This drastically reduces the time available for detection and interception.

• Manoeuvrability: They can perform complex manoeuvres during flight, making their trajectory unpredictable.

• Low altitude flight: Some hypersonic missiles can fly at lower altitudes, making them harder to detect by radar.

Missile Defense Systems: These systems are designed to detect, track, and intercept incoming ballistic or cruise missiles. Traditional missile defense systems are often optimized to intercept ballistic missiles, which follow predictable, parabolic trajectories.

Assertion:

The combination of high speed and manoeuvrability makes hypersonic missiles exceptionally difficult to intercept with existing defense systems. Traditional systems struggle to track and predict the trajectory of these missiles, leaving limited time for effective countermeasures.

Reason: It accurately describes the key characteristics of hypersonic missiles.

Relationship between Assertion and Reason:

The reason (R) directly explains why the assertion (A) is true. The high speed and manoeuvrability (R) are precisely the factors that make hypersonic missiles challenging to intercept (A).

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best describes the primary goal of ESA’s Euclid mission? (a) To search for habitable exoplanets in nearby star systems. (b) To study the formation and evolution of galaxies in the early universe. (c) To unravel the mysteries of dark energy and dark matter by mapping the large-scale structure of the universe. (d) To monitor and track near-Earth objects that pose a potential threat to our planet. Correct Solution: C The Euclid mission is a European Space Agency (ESA) space telescope designed to explore the composition and evolution of the universe. Its primary objective is to gain a deeper understanding of dark matter and dark energy, which together make up about 95% of the universe but remain largely unknown. Euclid aims to achieve this by creating a 3D map of the universe across space and time, observing billions of galaxies out to 10 billion light-years. The primary goal of the Euclid mission. Euclid is specifically designed to map the distribution of galaxies over a large portion of the observable universe, allowing scientists to measure the effects of dark matter and dark energy on the universe’s expansion. Incorrect Solution: C The Euclid mission is a European Space Agency (ESA) space telescope designed to explore the composition and evolution of the universe. Its primary objective is to gain a deeper understanding of dark matter and dark energy, which together make up about 95% of the universe but remain largely unknown. Euclid aims to achieve this by creating a 3D map of the universe across space and time, observing billions of galaxies out to 10 billion light-years. The primary goal of the Euclid mission. Euclid is specifically designed to map the distribution of galaxies over a large portion of the observable universe, allowing scientists to measure the effects of dark matter and dark energy on the universe’s expansion.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following statements best describes the primary goal of ESA’s Euclid mission?

• (a) To search for habitable exoplanets in nearby star systems.

• (b) To study the formation and evolution of galaxies in the early universe.

• (c) To unravel the mysteries of dark energy and dark matter by mapping the large-scale structure of the universe.

• (d) To monitor and track near-Earth objects that pose a potential threat to our planet.

Solution: C

The Euclid mission is a European Space Agency (ESA) space telescope designed to explore the composition and evolution of the universe.

Its primary objective is to gain a deeper understanding of dark matter and dark energy, which together make up about 95% of the universe but remain largely unknown. Euclid aims to achieve this by creating a 3D map of the universe across space and time, observing billions of galaxies out to 10 billion light-years.

The primary goal of the Euclid mission. Euclid is specifically designed to map the distribution of galaxies over a large portion of the observable universe, allowing scientists to measure the effects of dark matter and dark energy on the universe’s expansion.

Solution: C

The Euclid mission is a European Space Agency (ESA) space telescope designed to explore the composition and evolution of the universe.

Its primary objective is to gain a deeper understanding of dark matter and dark energy, which together make up about 95% of the universe but remain largely unknown. Euclid aims to achieve this by creating a 3D map of the universe across space and time, observing billions of galaxies out to 10 billion light-years.

The primary goal of the Euclid mission. Euclid is specifically designed to map the distribution of galaxies over a large portion of the observable universe, allowing scientists to measure the effects of dark matter and dark energy on the universe’s expansion.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following potential applications of synthetic biology: Development of bio-based materials and sustainable alternatives to traditional chemical manufacturing. Engineering microorganisms for efficient carbon capture and transformation into valuable materials. Creating genetically modified crops with enhanced resistance to pests and diseases. How many of the above applications are commonly associated with the field of synthetic biology? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C All statements are correct. Synthetic biology is an interdisciplinary field that combines biology and engineering to design and build new biological systems or redesign existing ones for useful purposes. It involves the application of engineering principles to biology, allowing scientists to create biological systems with novel functions. Key aspects of synthetic biology include: DNA Synthesis and Assembly: Creating new genetic sequences. Metabolic Engineering: Modifying metabolic pathways in organisms. Bioengineering: Designing and building biological devices and systems. This is a common and significant application of synthetic biology. Researchers are using engineered microorganisms to produce bio-plastics, biofuels, and other sustainable materials, reducing reliance on fossil fuels and traditional chemical processes. This is also a core application of synthetic biology. Scientists are engineering bacteria and algae to capture carbon dioxide from the atmosphere or industrial emissions and convert it into fuels, chemicals, or other useful products. This addresses climate change and promotes a circular economy. This is a well-established application of genetic engineering, and it falls squarely within the scope of synthetic biology. Synthetic biology allows for precise and targeted modifications to crop genomes, improving their resilience and productivity. Incorrect Solution: C All statements are correct. Synthetic biology is an interdisciplinary field that combines biology and engineering to design and build new biological systems or redesign existing ones for useful purposes. It involves the application of engineering principles to biology, allowing scientists to create biological systems with novel functions. Key aspects of synthetic biology include: DNA Synthesis and Assembly: Creating new genetic sequences. Metabolic Engineering: Modifying metabolic pathways in organisms. Bioengineering: Designing and building biological devices and systems. This is a common and significant application of synthetic biology. Researchers are using engineered microorganisms to produce bio-plastics, biofuels, and other sustainable materials, reducing reliance on fossil fuels and traditional chemical processes. This is also a core application of synthetic biology. Scientists are engineering bacteria and algae to capture carbon dioxide from the atmosphere or industrial emissions and convert it into fuels, chemicals, or other useful products. This addresses climate change and promotes a circular economy. This is a well-established application of genetic engineering, and it falls squarely within the scope of synthetic biology. Synthetic biology allows for precise and targeted modifications to crop genomes, improving their resilience and productivity.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following potential applications of synthetic biology:

• Development of bio-based materials and sustainable alternatives to traditional chemical manufacturing.

• Engineering microorganisms for efficient carbon capture and transformation into valuable materials.

• Creating genetically modified crops with enhanced resistance to pests and diseases.

How many of the above applications are commonly associated with the field of synthetic biology?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

All statements are correct.

Synthetic biology is an interdisciplinary field that combines biology and engineering to design and build new biological systems or redesign existing ones for useful purposes. It involves the application of engineering principles to biology, allowing scientists to create biological systems with novel functions. Key aspects of synthetic biology include:

• DNA Synthesis and Assembly: Creating new genetic sequences.

• Metabolic Engineering: Modifying metabolic pathways in organisms.

• Bioengineering: Designing and building biological devices and systems.

• This is a common and significant application of synthetic biology. Researchers are using engineered microorganisms to produce bio-plastics, biofuels, and other sustainable materials, reducing reliance on fossil fuels and traditional chemical processes.

• This is also a core application of synthetic biology. Scientists are engineering bacteria and algae to capture carbon dioxide from the atmosphere or industrial emissions and convert it into fuels, chemicals, or other useful products. This addresses climate change and promotes a circular economy.

• This is a well-established application of genetic engineering, and it falls squarely within the scope of synthetic biology. Synthetic biology allows for precise and targeted modifications to crop genomes, improving their resilience and productivity.

Solution: C

All statements are correct.

Synthetic biology is an interdisciplinary field that combines biology and engineering to design and build new biological systems or redesign existing ones for useful purposes. It involves the application of engineering principles to biology, allowing scientists to create biological systems with novel functions. Key aspects of synthetic biology include:

• DNA Synthesis and Assembly: Creating new genetic sequences.

• Metabolic Engineering: Modifying metabolic pathways in organisms.

• Bioengineering: Designing and building biological devices and systems.

• This is a common and significant application of synthetic biology. Researchers are using engineered microorganisms to produce bio-plastics, biofuels, and other sustainable materials, reducing reliance on fossil fuels and traditional chemical processes.

• This is also a core application of synthetic biology. Scientists are engineering bacteria and algae to capture carbon dioxide from the atmosphere or industrial emissions and convert it into fuels, chemicals, or other useful products. This addresses climate change and promotes a circular economy.

• This is a well-established application of genetic engineering, and it falls squarely within the scope of synthetic biology. Synthetic biology allows for precise and targeted modifications to crop genomes, improving their resilience and productivity.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which of the following gene editing tools utilizes a Cas protein guided by an RNA molecule to induce precise changes in the DNA sequence? (a) Zinc Finger Nucleases (ZFNs) (b) Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nucleases (TALENs) (c) CRISPR-Cas9 (d) Meganucleases Correct Solution: C Gene editing tools are powerful technologies that allow scientists to make precise changes to DNA sequences. These tools have revolutionized fields like medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology. This system uses a Cas protein (most commonly Cas9) guided by a small RNA molecule (guide RNA) to target and cut specific DNA sequences. It is relatively simple, efficient, and versatile, making it widely used. Incorrect Solution: C Gene editing tools are powerful technologies that allow scientists to make precise changes to DNA sequences. These tools have revolutionized fields like medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology. This system uses a Cas protein (most commonly Cas9) guided by a small RNA molecule (guide RNA) to target and cut specific DNA sequences. It is relatively simple, efficient, and versatile, making it widely used.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following gene editing tools utilizes a Cas protein guided by an RNA molecule to induce precise changes in the DNA sequence?

• (a) Zinc Finger Nucleases (ZFNs)

• (b) Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nucleases (TALENs)

• (c) CRISPR-Cas9

• (d) Meganucleases

Solution: C

Gene editing tools are powerful technologies that allow scientists to make precise changes to DNA sequences. These tools have revolutionized fields like medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology.

• This system uses a Cas protein (most commonly Cas9) guided by a small RNA molecule (guide RNA) to target and cut specific DNA sequences.

• It is relatively simple, efficient, and versatile, making it widely used.

Solution: C

Gene editing tools are powerful technologies that allow scientists to make precise changes to DNA sequences. These tools have revolutionized fields like medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology.

• This system uses a Cas protein (most commonly Cas9) guided by a small RNA molecule (guide RNA) to target and cut specific DNA sequences.

• It is relatively simple, efficient, and versatile, making it widely used.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently unveiled advancements in hypersonic technology related to the Long Range – Anti Ship Missile (LR-ASHM) program. What is the defining characteristic of a hypersonic missile? (a) Its ability to travel at speeds exceeding the speed of sound. (b) Its capability to carry multiple independently targetable warheads. (c) Its ability to travel at speeds greater than Mach 5. (d) Its use of cryogenic propulsion systems for extended range. Correct Solution: C Hypersonic missiles represent a significant advancement in missile technology. They are designed to travel at extremely high speeds, offering distinct advantages in terms of reduced reaction time for defences and increased manoeuvrability. Understanding their defining feature is crucial for grasping their strategic implications. This is the defining characteristic of a hypersonic missile. “Hypersonic” specifically refers to speeds of Mach 5 or higher (five times the speed of sound). This is the key element that sets them apart. Incorrect Solution: C Hypersonic missiles represent a significant advancement in missile technology. They are designed to travel at extremely high speeds, offering distinct advantages in terms of reduced reaction time for defences and increased manoeuvrability. Understanding their defining feature is crucial for grasping their strategic implications. This is the defining characteristic of a hypersonic missile. “Hypersonic” specifically refers to speeds of Mach 5 or higher (five times the speed of sound). This is the key element that sets them apart.

#### 6. Question

India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently unveiled advancements in hypersonic technology related to the Long Range – Anti Ship Missile (LR-ASHM) program. What is the defining characteristic of a hypersonic missile?

• (a) Its ability to travel at speeds exceeding the speed of sound.

• (b) Its capability to carry multiple independently targetable warheads.

• (c) Its ability to travel at speeds greater than Mach 5.

• (d) Its use of cryogenic propulsion systems for extended range.

Solution: C

Hypersonic missiles represent a significant advancement in missile technology. They are designed to travel at extremely high speeds, offering distinct advantages in terms of reduced reaction time for defences and increased manoeuvrability. Understanding their defining feature is crucial for grasping their strategic implications.

This is the defining characteristic of a hypersonic missile. “Hypersonic” specifically refers to speeds of Mach 5 or higher (five times the speed of sound).

This is the key element that sets them apart.

Solution: C

Hypersonic missiles represent a significant advancement in missile technology. They are designed to travel at extremely high speeds, offering distinct advantages in terms of reduced reaction time for defences and increased manoeuvrability. Understanding their defining feature is crucial for grasping their strategic implications.

This is the defining characteristic of a hypersonic missile. “Hypersonic” specifically refers to speeds of Mach 5 or higher (five times the speed of sound).

This is the key element that sets them apart.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Base Editing technology in gene editing: It involves creating double-strand breaks in the DNA molecule. It allows for the precise conversion of one DNA base pair to another. It is generally considered more efficient than traditional CRISPR-Cas9 for certain types of edits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Base editing is a sophisticated gene editing technique that allows for precise changes to individual DNA base pairs without creating double-strand breaks in the DNA. This is a significant advancement over traditional CRISPR-Cas9, which often relies on double-strand breaks for gene editing. Base editing uses modified Cas enzymes that are fused to enzymes that can chemically modify DNA bases. A key advantage of base editing is that it avoids creating double-strand breaks, which can lead to unwanted mutations and cellular damage. Hence statement 1 is Incorrect Base editors are designed to change specific base pairs, such as converting a cytosine (C) to a thymine (T) or an adenine (A) to a guanine (G), with high precision. Hence statement 1 is correct For specific types of point mutations (single base changes), base editing can be more efficient and less prone to off-target effects compared to CRISPR-Cas9, which often relies on homology-directed repair (HDR) or non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) after double-strand breaks. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Base editing is a sophisticated gene editing technique that allows for precise changes to individual DNA base pairs without creating double-strand breaks in the DNA. This is a significant advancement over traditional CRISPR-Cas9, which often relies on double-strand breaks for gene editing. Base editing uses modified Cas enzymes that are fused to enzymes that can chemically modify DNA bases. A key advantage of base editing is that it avoids creating double-strand breaks, which can lead to unwanted mutations and cellular damage. Hence statement 1 is Incorrect Base editors are designed to change specific base pairs, such as converting a cytosine (C) to a thymine (T) or an adenine (A) to a guanine (G), with high precision. Hence statement 1 is correct For specific types of point mutations (single base changes), base editing can be more efficient and less prone to off-target effects compared to CRISPR-Cas9, which often relies on homology-directed repair (HDR) or non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) after double-strand breaks. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Base Editing technology in gene editing:

• It involves creating double-strand breaks in the DNA molecule.

• It allows for the precise conversion of one DNA base pair to another.

• It is generally considered more efficient than traditional CRISPR-Cas9 for certain types of edits.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Base editing is a sophisticated gene editing technique that allows for precise changes to individual DNA base pairs without creating double-strand breaks in the DNA. This is a significant advancement over traditional CRISPR-Cas9, which often relies on double-strand breaks for gene editing. Base editing uses modified Cas enzymes that are fused to enzymes that can chemically modify DNA bases.

A key advantage of base editing is that it avoids creating double-strand breaks, which can lead to unwanted mutations and cellular damage.

Hence statement 1 is Incorrect

Base editors are designed to change specific base pairs, such as converting a cytosine (C) to a thymine (T) or an adenine (A) to a guanine (G), with high precision.

Hence statement 1 is correct

For specific types of point mutations (single base changes), base editing can be more efficient and less prone to off-target effects compared to CRISPR-Cas9, which often relies on homology-directed repair (HDR) or non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) after double-strand breaks.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: C

Base editing is a sophisticated gene editing technique that allows for precise changes to individual DNA base pairs without creating double-strand breaks in the DNA. This is a significant advancement over traditional CRISPR-Cas9, which often relies on double-strand breaks for gene editing. Base editing uses modified Cas enzymes that are fused to enzymes that can chemically modify DNA bases.

A key advantage of base editing is that it avoids creating double-strand breaks, which can lead to unwanted mutations and cellular damage.

Hence statement 1 is Incorrect

Base editors are designed to change specific base pairs, such as converting a cytosine (C) to a thymine (T) or an adenine (A) to a guanine (G), with high precision.

Hence statement 1 is correct

For specific types of point mutations (single base changes), base editing can be more efficient and less prone to off-target effects compared to CRISPR-Cas9, which often relies on homology-directed repair (HDR) or non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) after double-strand breaks.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following technologies is being actively explored by DRDO for intercepting incoming hypersonic threats? (a) Railguns (b) Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs) (c) Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP) weapons (d) Kinetic Energy Penetrators Correct Solution: B Hypersonic weapons, capable of traveling at speeds exceeding Mach 5 (five times the speed of sound), pose a significant challenge to traditional missile defense systems due to their extreme speed, unpredictable flight paths, and ability to maneuver mid-flight. These weapons can bypass existing air defense systems, making them a critical concern for nations like India, which faces regional tensions and the need for robust defense capabilities. Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs) are being actively developed by DRDO for countering hypersonic threats. These weapons use focused energy, such as lasers or microwaves, to damage or destroy targets. Development: DRDO is working on laser and microwave-based DEWs, with the capability to neutralize threats ranging from small drones to fighter aircraft. Advantages: DEWs offer high precision, low cost per shot, logistical benefits, and low detectability. They transmit lethal force at the speed of light, unaffected by gravity or atmospheric drag, and can tailor their effects by varying the type and intensity of energy delivered. Challenges: DEWs have limited range, high initial procurement costs, and can be countered by reflective materials or other countermeasures Incorrect Solution: B Hypersonic weapons, capable of traveling at speeds exceeding Mach 5 (five times the speed of sound), pose a significant challenge to traditional missile defense systems due to their extreme speed, unpredictable flight paths, and ability to maneuver mid-flight. These weapons can bypass existing air defense systems, making them a critical concern for nations like India, which faces regional tensions and the need for robust defense capabilities. Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs) are being actively developed by DRDO for countering hypersonic threats. These weapons use focused energy, such as lasers or microwaves, to damage or destroy targets. Development: DRDO is working on laser and microwave-based DEWs, with the capability to neutralize threats ranging from small drones to fighter aircraft. Advantages: DEWs offer high precision, low cost per shot, logistical benefits, and low detectability. They transmit lethal force at the speed of light, unaffected by gravity or atmospheric drag, and can tailor their effects by varying the type and intensity of energy delivered. Challenges: DEWs have limited range, high initial procurement costs, and can be countered by reflective materials or other countermeasures

#### 8. Question

Which of the following technologies is being actively explored by DRDO for intercepting incoming hypersonic threats?

• (a) Railguns

• (b) Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs)

• (c) Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP) weapons

• (d) Kinetic Energy Penetrators

Solution: B

Hypersonic weapons, capable of traveling at speeds exceeding Mach 5 (five times the speed of sound), pose a significant challenge to traditional missile defense systems due to their extreme speed, unpredictable flight paths, and ability to maneuver mid-flight. These weapons can bypass existing air defense systems, making them a critical concern for nations like India, which faces regional tensions and the need for robust defense capabilities.

Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs) are being actively developed by DRDO for countering hypersonic threats. These weapons use focused energy, such as lasers or microwaves, to damage or destroy targets.

Development: DRDO is working on laser and microwave-based DEWs, with the capability to neutralize threats ranging from small drones to fighter aircraft.

Advantages: DEWs offer high precision, low cost per shot, logistical benefits, and low detectability. They transmit lethal force at the speed of light, unaffected by gravity or atmospheric drag, and can tailor their effects by varying the type and intensity of energy delivered.

Challenges: DEWs have limited range, high initial procurement costs, and can be countered by reflective materials or other countermeasures

Solution: B

Hypersonic weapons, capable of traveling at speeds exceeding Mach 5 (five times the speed of sound), pose a significant challenge to traditional missile defense systems due to their extreme speed, unpredictable flight paths, and ability to maneuver mid-flight. These weapons can bypass existing air defense systems, making them a critical concern for nations like India, which faces regional tensions and the need for robust defense capabilities.

Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs) are being actively developed by DRDO for countering hypersonic threats. These weapons use focused energy, such as lasers or microwaves, to damage or destroy targets.

Development: DRDO is working on laser and microwave-based DEWs, with the capability to neutralize threats ranging from small drones to fighter aircraft.

Advantages: DEWs offer high precision, low cost per shot, logistical benefits, and low detectability. They transmit lethal force at the speed of light, unaffected by gravity or atmospheric drag, and can tailor their effects by varying the type and intensity of energy delivered.

Challenges: DEWs have limited range, high initial procurement costs, and can be countered by reflective materials or other countermeasures

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following is a significant challenge associated with the advancement of mRNA technologies beyond their success in COVID-19 vaccines? (a) Their limited efficacy in treating infectious diseases other than viruses. (b) The difficulty in achieving targeted in vivo delivery to specific tissues and cells. (c) Their high cost of production and complex manufacturing processes. (d) The potential for inducing strong and long-lasting adverse immune responses. Correct Solution: B mRNA technology has demonstrated its remarkable potential in the development of highly effective COVID-19 vaccines. These vaccines work by delivering mRNA encoding a viral protein into cells, triggering an immune response. However, extending mRNA applications to other areas of medicine faces several challenges. Delivering mRNA to the desired cells or tissues within the body (in vivo) is crucial for therapeutic applications beyond vaccines. Achieving precise and efficient delivery remains a hurdle. Incorrect Solution: B mRNA technology has demonstrated its remarkable potential in the development of highly effective COVID-19 vaccines. These vaccines work by delivering mRNA encoding a viral protein into cells, triggering an immune response. However, extending mRNA applications to other areas of medicine faces several challenges. Delivering mRNA to the desired cells or tissues within the body (in vivo) is crucial for therapeutic applications beyond vaccines. Achieving precise and efficient delivery remains a hurdle.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following is a significant challenge associated with the advancement of mRNA technologies beyond their success in COVID-19 vaccines?

• (a) Their limited efficacy in treating infectious diseases other than viruses.

• (b) The difficulty in achieving targeted in vivo delivery to specific tissues and cells.

• (c) Their high cost of production and complex manufacturing processes.

• (d) The potential for inducing strong and long-lasting adverse immune responses.

Solution: B

mRNA technology has demonstrated its remarkable potential in the development of highly effective COVID-19 vaccines.

These vaccines work by delivering mRNA encoding a viral protein into cells, triggering an immune response. However, extending mRNA applications to other areas of medicine faces several challenges.

Delivering mRNA to the desired cells or tissues within the body (in vivo) is crucial for therapeutic applications beyond vaccines. Achieving precise and efficient delivery remains a hurdle.

Solution: B

mRNA technology has demonstrated its remarkable potential in the development of highly effective COVID-19 vaccines.

These vaccines work by delivering mRNA encoding a viral protein into cells, triggering an immune response. However, extending mRNA applications to other areas of medicine faces several challenges.

Delivering mRNA to the desired cells or tissues within the body (in vivo) is crucial for therapeutic applications beyond vaccines. Achieving precise and efficient delivery remains a hurdle.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points The Electronic Warfare Global Market Report 2025 highlights a major trend involving the convergence of cyber and electronic warfare. What does this convergence primarily entail? (a) Using cyberattacks to disrupt enemy communication networks while simultaneously employing electronic jamming techniques. (b) Developing electronic warfare systems that are controlled and managed through cyberspace. (c) Integrating cyber capabilities into electronic warfare systems for enhanced situational awareness and threat neutralization. (d) Utilizing electronic warfare techniques to protect cyberspace from malicious attacks. Correct Solution: C Traditionally, cyber warfare and electronic warfare have been treated as distinct domains. However, modern warfare scenarios increasingly demand the integration of these capabilities. This convergence aims to create a more comprehensive and effective approach to disrupting enemy operations. It highlights the use of cyber intelligence and control to improve the effectiveness of electronic warfare systems. Incorrect Solution: C Traditionally, cyber warfare and electronic warfare have been treated as distinct domains. However, modern warfare scenarios increasingly demand the integration of these capabilities. This convergence aims to create a more comprehensive and effective approach to disrupting enemy operations. It highlights the use of cyber intelligence and control to improve the effectiveness of electronic warfare systems.

#### 10. Question

The Electronic Warfare Global Market Report 2025 highlights a major trend involving the convergence of cyber and electronic warfare. What does this convergence primarily entail?

• (a) Using cyberattacks to disrupt enemy communication networks while simultaneously employing electronic jamming techniques.

• (b) Developing electronic warfare systems that are controlled and managed through cyberspace.

• (c) Integrating cyber capabilities into electronic warfare systems for enhanced situational awareness and threat neutralization.

• (d) Utilizing electronic warfare techniques to protect cyberspace from malicious attacks.

Solution: C

Traditionally, cyber warfare and electronic warfare have been treated as distinct domains. However, modern warfare scenarios increasingly demand the integration of these capabilities. This convergence aims to create a more comprehensive and effective approach to disrupting enemy operations. It highlights the use of cyber intelligence and control to improve the effectiveness of electronic warfare systems.

Solution: C

Traditionally, cyber warfare and electronic warfare have been treated as distinct domains. However, modern warfare scenarios increasingly demand the integration of these capabilities. This convergence aims to create a more comprehensive and effective approach to disrupting enemy operations. It highlights the use of cyber intelligence and control to improve the effectiveness of electronic warfare systems.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Regarding the South Pole Aitken Basin, sometimes seen in news, which of the following statements is correct? (a) Farthest region in Antarctica which has reached deposits of minerals (b) Largest impact feature on the surface of the Moon (c) A Project to conserve microbial biodiversity on the South Pole (d) Most suitable landing site on the surface of Mars Correct Solution: B The South Pole Aitken Basin is the moon’s largest impact feature named because its spans the territory from the small Aitken crater to the Moon’s South Pole or nearly a quarter of the Moon’s surface. Its diameter is more than 2500 km making it the largest impact crater that we know of in the solar system. It is located on the far side of the Moon, so from the Earth, one can see it only as a bit of a mountain chain on the southern edge of the Moon; on average, the basin is about 10 km Deep. It is thought to have been formed approximately 4 billion years ago. The SPA impact could also be responsible for some of the most significant feature of the Moon. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B The South Pole Aitken Basin is the moon’s largest impact feature named because its spans the territory from the small Aitken crater to the Moon’s South Pole or nearly a quarter of the Moon’s surface. Its diameter is more than 2500 km making it the largest impact crater that we know of in the solar system. It is located on the far side of the Moon, so from the Earth, one can see it only as a bit of a mountain chain on the southern edge of the Moon; on average, the basin is about 10 km Deep. It is thought to have been formed approximately 4 billion years ago. The SPA impact could also be responsible for some of the most significant feature of the Moon. Hence option B is correct

#### 11. Question

Regarding the South Pole Aitken Basin, sometimes seen in news, which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) Farthest region in Antarctica which has reached deposits of minerals

• (b) Largest impact feature on the surface of the Moon

• (c) A Project to conserve microbial biodiversity on the South Pole

• (d) Most suitable landing site on the surface of Mars

Solution: B

• The South Pole Aitken Basin is the moon’s largest impact feature named because its spans the territory from the small Aitken crater to the Moon’s South Pole or nearly a quarter of the Moon’s surface.

• Its diameter is more than 2500 km making it the largest impact crater that we know of in the solar system.

• It is located on the far side of the Moon, so from the Earth, one can see it only as a bit of a mountain chain on the southern edge of the Moon; on average, the basin is about 10 km Deep.

• It is thought to have been formed approximately 4 billion years ago.

• The SPA impact could also be responsible for some of the most significant feature of the Moon.

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• The South Pole Aitken Basin is the moon’s largest impact feature named because its spans the territory from the small Aitken crater to the Moon’s South Pole or nearly a quarter of the Moon’s surface.

• Its diameter is more than 2500 km making it the largest impact crater that we know of in the solar system.

• It is located on the far side of the Moon, so from the Earth, one can see it only as a bit of a mountain chain on the southern edge of the Moon; on average, the basin is about 10 km Deep.

• It is thought to have been formed approximately 4 billion years ago.

• The SPA impact could also be responsible for some of the most significant feature of the Moon.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Analog Missions helps astronauts to prepare for future explorations to asteroids, Mars and the Moon. The Analog Mission launched by ISRO is part of the Gaganayan program. ISRO will conduct its Analog Mission in Ladakh. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Analog Missions prepare astronauts for near term and future exploration to asteroids, Mars and the moon Analogs play a significant role in problem solving for space flight research. These are field tests in locations that have physical similarities to extreme space environments The test includes new technologies, robotic equipment, vehicles, Habitat, communication, power generation, infrastructure, mobility. Behavioral effects such as isolation and confinement, team dynamics and other parameters are also observed. Hence statement 1 is correct ISRO has launched India’s first Analog mission that focuses on preparing astronauts for long duration space explorations, adaptability and emergency strategies. This mission is part of ISRO’s Gaganayan program which aims to send astronauts to Low Earth orbit for several days. By conducting an Analog space mission ISRO can train astronauts and help them prepare for emergencies. ISRO has chosen Ladakh as the site for the mission as climate, environment and geography make it an ideal site for the mission as it closely resembles conditions of a lunar or Martian environment. Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Analog Missions prepare astronauts for near term and future exploration to asteroids, Mars and the moon Analogs play a significant role in problem solving for space flight research. These are field tests in locations that have physical similarities to extreme space environments The test includes new technologies, robotic equipment, vehicles, Habitat, communication, power generation, infrastructure, mobility. Behavioral effects such as isolation and confinement, team dynamics and other parameters are also observed. Hence statement 1 is correct ISRO has launched India’s first Analog mission that focuses on preparing astronauts for long duration space explorations, adaptability and emergency strategies. This mission is part of ISRO’s Gaganayan program which aims to send astronauts to Low Earth orbit for several days. By conducting an Analog space mission ISRO can train astronauts and help them prepare for emergencies. ISRO has chosen Ladakh as the site for the mission as climate, environment and geography make it an ideal site for the mission as it closely resembles conditions of a lunar or Martian environment. Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Analog Missions helps astronauts to prepare for future explorations to asteroids, Mars and the Moon.

• The Analog Mission launched by ISRO is part of the Gaganayan program.

• ISRO will conduct its Analog Mission in Ladakh.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Analog Missions prepare astronauts for near term and future exploration to asteroids, Mars and the moon

• Analogs play a significant role in problem solving for space flight research.

• These are field tests in locations that have physical similarities to extreme space environments

• The test includes new technologies, robotic equipment, vehicles, Habitat, communication, power generation, infrastructure, mobility.

• Behavioral effects such as isolation and confinement, team dynamics and other parameters are also observed.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• ISRO has launched India’s first Analog mission that focuses on preparing astronauts for long duration space explorations, adaptability and emergency strategies.

• This mission is part of ISRO’s Gaganayan program which aims to send astronauts to Low Earth orbit for several days.

• By conducting an Analog space mission ISRO can train astronauts and help them prepare for emergencies.

ISRO has chosen Ladakh as the site for the mission as climate, environment and geography make it an ideal site for the mission as it closely resembles conditions of a lunar or Martian environment.

Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

• Analog Missions prepare astronauts for near term and future exploration to asteroids, Mars and the moon

• Analogs play a significant role in problem solving for space flight research.

• These are field tests in locations that have physical similarities to extreme space environments

• The test includes new technologies, robotic equipment, vehicles, Habitat, communication, power generation, infrastructure, mobility.

• Behavioral effects such as isolation and confinement, team dynamics and other parameters are also observed.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• ISRO has launched India’s first Analog mission that focuses on preparing astronauts for long duration space explorations, adaptability and emergency strategies.

• This mission is part of ISRO’s Gaganayan program which aims to send astronauts to Low Earth orbit for several days.

• By conducting an Analog space mission ISRO can train astronauts and help them prepare for emergencies.

ISRO has chosen Ladakh as the site for the mission as climate, environment and geography make it an ideal site for the mission as it closely resembles conditions of a lunar or Martian environment.

Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Genome India Project (GIP) has been launched as part of the Human Genome Project. GIP has been launched by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) along with CSIR-Institute of Genetics and Integrative Biology. GIP can be used to develop personalised medicine. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C The Genome India Project, initiated in 2020 aims to map India’s genetic diversity by sequencing 10000 genoms creating a comprehensive catalogue of genetic variations and establishing a Bio Bank. The Project is inspired by the Human Genome Project but is not part of it as the Human Genome Project has already been completed in 2003. The Human Genome Project was a global scientific effort to sequence and map the Human Genome; it began in 1990 and was completed in 2003; it aimed to determine based pairs that make up the DNA. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Genome India Project has been launched by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India. Led by Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru, in collaboration with a Consortium of research institutions, it Aims map India’s genetic diversity for advancement in healthcare precision medicine and disease prevention. Hence statement 2 is incorrect GIP has been launched with an aim to develop personalised medicine approaches based on individual profile. It will also help in identify genetic predispositions to diseases and develop targated interventions. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Genome India Project, initiated in 2020 aims to map India’s genetic diversity by sequencing 10000 genoms creating a comprehensive catalogue of genetic variations and establishing a Bio Bank. The Project is inspired by the Human Genome Project but is not part of it as the Human Genome Project has already been completed in 2003. The Human Genome Project was a global scientific effort to sequence and map the Human Genome; it began in 1990 and was completed in 2003; it aimed to determine based pairs that make up the DNA. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Genome India Project has been launched by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India. Led by Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru, in collaboration with a Consortium of research institutions, it Aims map India’s genetic diversity for advancement in healthcare precision medicine and disease prevention. Hence statement 2 is incorrect GIP has been launched with an aim to develop personalised medicine approaches based on individual profile. It will also help in identify genetic predispositions to diseases and develop targated interventions. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Genome India Project (GIP) has been launched as part of the Human Genome Project.

• GIP has been launched by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) along with CSIR-Institute of Genetics and Integrative Biology.

• GIP can be used to develop personalised medicine.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• The Genome India Project, initiated in 2020 aims to map India’s genetic diversity by sequencing 10000 genoms creating a comprehensive catalogue of genetic variations and establishing a Bio Bank.

• The Project is inspired by the Human Genome Project but is not part of it as the Human Genome Project has already been completed in 2003.

• The Human Genome Project was a global scientific effort to sequence and map the Human Genome; it began in 1990 and was completed in 2003; it aimed to determine based pairs that make up the DNA.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Genome India Project has been launched by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.

• Led by Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru, in collaboration with a Consortium of research institutions, it Aims map India’s genetic diversity for advancement in healthcare precision medicine and disease prevention.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• GIP has been launched with an aim to develop personalised medicine approaches based on individual profile.

• It will also help in identify genetic predispositions to diseases and develop targated interventions.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• The Genome India Project, initiated in 2020 aims to map India’s genetic diversity by sequencing 10000 genoms creating a comprehensive catalogue of genetic variations and establishing a Bio Bank.

• The Project is inspired by the Human Genome Project but is not part of it as the Human Genome Project has already been completed in 2003.

• The Human Genome Project was a global scientific effort to sequence and map the Human Genome; it began in 1990 and was completed in 2003; it aimed to determine based pairs that make up the DNA.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Genome India Project has been launched by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India.

• Led by Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru, in collaboration with a Consortium of research institutions, it Aims map India’s genetic diversity for advancement in healthcare precision medicine and disease prevention.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• GIP has been launched with an aim to develop personalised medicine approaches based on individual profile.

• It will also help in identify genetic predispositions to diseases and develop targated interventions.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Project Dronagiri, recently in news, is related to: (a) Applications of Geospatial data in Agriculture, livelihood and transport (b) Restoration of mountain ecosystems (c) Development of vaccines for neglected tropical diseases (d) Commercial manufacture of drones Correct Solution: A The Department of Science and Technology launched Operation Dronagiri pilot project under the National Geospatial Policy 2022 to demonstrate the potential applications of Geospatial Technologies and innovations in improving the quality of life of citizens and the ease of doing business. In the first phase, Operation Dronagiri will be implemented in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Assam, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra where pilot projects will be run and use cases will be demonstrated t to showcase the potential application of integration of Geospatial data and Technology in the three sectors of Agriculture, Livelihood, Logistics and transport. The project is supported by Integrated Geospatial Data Sharing Interface that will make spatial data accessible bringing transformation similar to the process in which UPI has brought about financial inclusion. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution: A The Department of Science and Technology launched Operation Dronagiri pilot project under the National Geospatial Policy 2022 to demonstrate the potential applications of Geospatial Technologies and innovations in improving the quality of life of citizens and the ease of doing business. In the first phase, Operation Dronagiri will be implemented in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Assam, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra where pilot projects will be run and use cases will be demonstrated t to showcase the potential application of integration of Geospatial data and Technology in the three sectors of Agriculture, Livelihood, Logistics and transport. The project is supported by Integrated Geospatial Data Sharing Interface that will make spatial data accessible bringing transformation similar to the process in which UPI has brought about financial inclusion. Hence option A is correct

#### 14. Question

Project Dronagiri, recently in news, is related to:

• (a) Applications of Geospatial data in Agriculture, livelihood and transport

• (b) Restoration of mountain ecosystems

• (c) Development of vaccines for neglected tropical diseases

• (d) Commercial manufacture of drones

Solution: A

• The Department of Science and Technology launched Operation Dronagiri pilot project under the National Geospatial Policy 2022 to demonstrate the potential applications of Geospatial Technologies and innovations in improving the quality of life of citizens and the ease of doing business.

• In the first phase, Operation Dronagiri will be implemented in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Assam, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra where pilot projects will be run and use cases will be demonstrated t to showcase the potential application of integration of Geospatial data and Technology in the three sectors of Agriculture, Livelihood, Logistics and transport.

• The project is supported by Integrated Geospatial Data Sharing Interface that will make spatial data accessible bringing transformation similar to the process in which UPI has brought about financial inclusion.

Hence option A is correct

Solution: A

• The Department of Science and Technology launched Operation Dronagiri pilot project under the National Geospatial Policy 2022 to demonstrate the potential applications of Geospatial Technologies and innovations in improving the quality of life of citizens and the ease of doing business.

• In the first phase, Operation Dronagiri will be implemented in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Assam, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra where pilot projects will be run and use cases will be demonstrated t to showcase the potential application of integration of Geospatial data and Technology in the three sectors of Agriculture, Livelihood, Logistics and transport.

• The project is supported by Integrated Geospatial Data Sharing Interface that will make spatial data accessible bringing transformation similar to the process in which UPI has brought about financial inclusion.

Hence option A is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Matsya 6000, sometimes seen in news, is: (a) An Anti- ship missile developed by DRDO (b) A project for sustainable development of fish production (c) Naval exercise by Indian Navy to enhance disaster preparedness (d) A human occupied submersible for underwater research Correct Solution: D Matsya 6000 a human occupied submersible designed and developed by India’s National Institute of Ocean Technology It is a part of India’s ambitious Damudrayan mission aimed at deep sea exploration and research It is designed to operate at depth of upto 6000 m and can accommodate 3 crew members. It can stay submerged for upto 12 hours with additional 96 hours of emergency endurance. The pressure hull is made from titanium to withstand extreme pressure of deep-sea environments. It is equipped with advanced scientific instruments for underwater research including high-definition cameras, sonar system and robotic arms for sampling and interaction with the seabed. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D Matsya 6000 a human occupied submersible designed and developed by India’s National Institute of Ocean Technology It is a part of India’s ambitious Damudrayan mission aimed at deep sea exploration and research It is designed to operate at depth of upto 6000 m and can accommodate 3 crew members. It can stay submerged for upto 12 hours with additional 96 hours of emergency endurance. The pressure hull is made from titanium to withstand extreme pressure of deep-sea environments. It is equipped with advanced scientific instruments for underwater research including high-definition cameras, sonar system and robotic arms for sampling and interaction with the seabed. Hence option D is correct

#### 15. Question

Matsya 6000, sometimes seen in news, is:

• (a) An Anti- ship missile developed by DRDO

• (b) A project for sustainable development of fish production

• (c) Naval exercise by Indian Navy to enhance disaster preparedness

• (d) A human occupied submersible for underwater research

Solution: D

Matsya 6000 a human occupied submersible designed and developed by India’s National Institute of Ocean Technology

• It is a part of India’s ambitious Damudrayan mission aimed at deep sea exploration and research

• It is designed to operate at depth of upto 6000 m and can accommodate 3 crew members.

• It can stay submerged for upto 12 hours with additional 96 hours of emergency endurance.

• The pressure hull is made from titanium to withstand extreme pressure of deep-sea environments.

• It is equipped with advanced scientific instruments for underwater research including high-definition cameras, sonar system and robotic arms for sampling and interaction with the seabed.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

Matsya 6000 a human occupied submersible designed and developed by India’s National Institute of Ocean Technology

• It is a part of India’s ambitious Damudrayan mission aimed at deep sea exploration and research

• It is designed to operate at depth of upto 6000 m and can accommodate 3 crew members.

• It can stay submerged for upto 12 hours with additional 96 hours of emergency endurance.

• The pressure hull is made from titanium to withstand extreme pressure of deep-sea environments.

• It is equipped with advanced scientific instruments for underwater research including high-definition cameras, sonar system and robotic arms for sampling and interaction with the seabed.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding bilateral exercises of India: Bilateral Exercise : Participating country Garuda Shakti : Nepal Varuna : France Desert Cyclone : Mongolia Tiger Triumph : Indonesia How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Garuda Shakti is an Army exercise between India and Indonesia. the aim of the exercise is to acquaint both sides with each others operating procedures, enhance mutual understanding, cooperation and interoperability between the special forces of both Armies. It also involves jointly practicing special forces operations in jungle terrain, strikes in terrorist camps. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Exercise Varuna is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France. It is conducted either in the Indian Ocean or the Mediterranean Sea Advanced level operations including tactical Maneuvers, anti submarine warfare exercises, flight exercises, air defence exercises, live weapon firings are included in it. Hence pair 2 is correct Desert Cyclone is a joint military exercise held between India and UAE The exercise seeks to enhance interoperability by learning and sharing best practices in urban operations It also contributes to the brodar goal of fostering regional peace and security. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Tiger Triumph is a bilateral tri-service exercise between India and the US Tiger Triumph-24 concluded in March 2024 the exercise aimed to enhance interoperability for conducting humanitarian assistance and disaster relief operations and refining standard operating procedures between the two forces. Hence option 4 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Garuda Shakti is an Army exercise between India and Indonesia. the aim of the exercise is to acquaint both sides with each others operating procedures, enhance mutual understanding, cooperation and interoperability between the special forces of both Armies. It also involves jointly practicing special forces operations in jungle terrain, strikes in terrorist camps. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Exercise Varuna is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France. It is conducted either in the Indian Ocean or the Mediterranean Sea Advanced level operations including tactical Maneuvers, anti submarine warfare exercises, flight exercises, air defence exercises, live weapon firings are included in it. Hence pair 2 is correct Desert Cyclone is a joint military exercise held between India and UAE The exercise seeks to enhance interoperability by learning and sharing best practices in urban operations It also contributes to the brodar goal of fostering regional peace and security. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Tiger Triumph is a bilateral tri-service exercise between India and the US Tiger Triumph-24 concluded in March 2024 the exercise aimed to enhance interoperability for conducting humanitarian assistance and disaster relief operations and refining standard operating procedures between the two forces. Hence option 4 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding bilateral exercises of India:

Bilateral Exercise : Participating country

• Garuda Shakti : Nepal

• Varuna : France

• Desert Cyclone : Mongolia

• Tiger Triumph : Indonesia

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

Garuda Shakti is an Army exercise between India and Indonesia.

• the aim of the exercise is to acquaint both sides with each others operating procedures, enhance mutual understanding, cooperation and interoperability between the special forces of both Armies.

• It also involves jointly practicing special forces operations in jungle terrain, strikes in terrorist camps.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Exercise Varuna is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France.

• It is conducted either in the Indian Ocean or the Mediterranean Sea

• Advanced level operations including tactical Maneuvers, anti submarine warfare exercises, flight exercises, air defence exercises, live weapon firings are included in it.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Desert Cyclone is a joint military exercise held between India and UAE

• The exercise seeks to enhance interoperability by learning and sharing best practices in urban operations

• It also contributes to the brodar goal of fostering regional peace and security.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Tiger Triumph is a bilateral tri-service exercise between India and the US

• Tiger Triumph-24 concluded in March 2024

• the exercise aimed to enhance interoperability for conducting humanitarian assistance and disaster relief operations and refining standard operating procedures between the two forces.

Hence option 4 is incorrect

Solution: A

Garuda Shakti is an Army exercise between India and Indonesia.

• the aim of the exercise is to acquaint both sides with each others operating procedures, enhance mutual understanding, cooperation and interoperability between the special forces of both Armies.

• It also involves jointly practicing special forces operations in jungle terrain, strikes in terrorist camps.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Exercise Varuna is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France.

• It is conducted either in the Indian Ocean or the Mediterranean Sea

• Advanced level operations including tactical Maneuvers, anti submarine warfare exercises, flight exercises, air defence exercises, live weapon firings are included in it.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Desert Cyclone is a joint military exercise held between India and UAE

• The exercise seeks to enhance interoperability by learning and sharing best practices in urban operations

• It also contributes to the brodar goal of fostering regional peace and security.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Tiger Triumph is a bilateral tri-service exercise between India and the US

• Tiger Triumph-24 concluded in March 2024

• the exercise aimed to enhance interoperability for conducting humanitarian assistance and disaster relief operations and refining standard operating procedures between the two forces.

Hence option 4 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Mission SCOT: It is a satellite designed to enhance monitoring of Resident Space Objects. It operates in a sun synchronous orbit. It is backed by Small Industries Development Bank of India. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Mission SCOT is one of the world’s first commercial satellites for Space Situational Awareness designed to enhance tracking and monitoring of Resident Space Objects. It has been developed by Digantara, an Indian space startup supported by Aditya Birla ventures and Small Industries Development Bank of India. The mission is aimed to monitor smaller Resident Space Objects in space and provides superior surveillance thus filling critical gap in existing space monitoring system. It will also enhance national security and facilitate safer space operations. It has been deployed about SpaceX’s Transporter 12 mission. It operates in a sun synchronous orbit, ensuring efficient tracking of objects in the low Earth orbit. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: D Mission SCOT is one of the world’s first commercial satellites for Space Situational Awareness designed to enhance tracking and monitoring of Resident Space Objects. It has been developed by Digantara, an Indian space startup supported by Aditya Birla ventures and Small Industries Development Bank of India. The mission is aimed to monitor smaller Resident Space Objects in space and provides superior surveillance thus filling critical gap in existing space monitoring system. It will also enhance national security and facilitate safer space operations. It has been deployed about SpaceX’s Transporter 12 mission. It operates in a sun synchronous orbit, ensuring efficient tracking of objects in the low Earth orbit. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Mission SCOT:

• It is a satellite designed to enhance monitoring of Resident Space Objects.

• It operates in a sun synchronous orbit.

• It is backed by Small Industries Development Bank of India.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Mission SCOT is one of the world’s first commercial satellites for Space Situational Awareness designed to enhance tracking and monitoring of Resident Space Objects.

• It has been developed by Digantara, an Indian space startup supported by Aditya Birla ventures and Small Industries Development Bank of India.

• The mission is aimed to monitor smaller Resident Space Objects in space and provides superior surveillance thus filling critical gap in existing space monitoring system.

• It will also enhance national security and facilitate safer space operations.

• It has been deployed about SpaceX’s Transporter 12 mission.

• It operates in a sun synchronous orbit, ensuring efficient tracking of objects in the low Earth orbit.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: D

• Mission SCOT is one of the world’s first commercial satellites for Space Situational Awareness designed to enhance tracking and monitoring of Resident Space Objects.

• It has been developed by Digantara, an Indian space startup supported by Aditya Birla ventures and Small Industries Development Bank of India.

• The mission is aimed to monitor smaller Resident Space Objects in space and provides superior surveillance thus filling critical gap in existing space monitoring system.

• It will also enhance national security and facilitate safer space operations.

• It has been deployed about SpaceX’s Transporter 12 mission.

• It operates in a sun synchronous orbit, ensuring efficient tracking of objects in the low Earth orbit.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Regarding ‘One day One Genome’ initiative, which of the following statements are correct? (a) It is a project to map genes of critically endangered species. (b) It is an initiative to promote the importance of microorganisms in our life (c) An initiative to tackle Anti -microbial resistance (d) A project for creation of a Gene Bank to conserve biodiversity Correct Solution: B ‘One Day One Genome’ initiative has been introduced by the Department of Biotechnology and Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council It is an initiative to showcase the enormous microbial potential of India The initiative will highlight the unique bacterial species found in our country and emphasize their critical roles in Environment, agriculture and the human health. Microorganisms are crucial for our environment; they play important roles in all biogeochemical cycles, soil formation, mineral purification, degradation of organic waste and toxic pollutants along with methane production they are enormously useful for agriculture. Genome Sequencing will allow visualisation of hidden potential of microbial world to the community at large The initiative coordinated by Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council- National Institute of Biomedical Genomics, an Institute of the Department of Biotechnology. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B ‘One Day One Genome’ initiative has been introduced by the Department of Biotechnology and Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council It is an initiative to showcase the enormous microbial potential of India The initiative will highlight the unique bacterial species found in our country and emphasize their critical roles in Environment, agriculture and the human health. Microorganisms are crucial for our environment; they play important roles in all biogeochemical cycles, soil formation, mineral purification, degradation of organic waste and toxic pollutants along with methane production they are enormously useful for agriculture. Genome Sequencing will allow visualisation of hidden potential of microbial world to the community at large The initiative coordinated by Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council- National Institute of Biomedical Genomics, an Institute of the Department of Biotechnology. Hence option B is correct

#### 18. Question

Regarding ‘One day One Genome’ initiative, which of the following statements are correct?

• (a) It is a project to map genes of critically endangered species.

• (b) It is an initiative to promote the importance of microorganisms in our life

• (c) An initiative to tackle Anti -microbial resistance

• (d) A project for creation of a Gene Bank to conserve biodiversity

Solution: B

• ‘One Day One Genome’ initiative has been introduced by the Department of Biotechnology and Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council

• It is an initiative to showcase the enormous microbial potential of India

The initiative will highlight the unique bacterial species found in our country and emphasize their critical roles in Environment, agriculture and the human health.

• Microorganisms are crucial for our environment; they play important roles in all biogeochemical cycles, soil formation, mineral purification, degradation of organic waste and toxic pollutants along with methane production they are enormously useful for agriculture.

• Genome Sequencing will allow visualisation of hidden potential of microbial world to the community at large

• The initiative coordinated by Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council- National Institute of Biomedical Genomics, an Institute of the Department of Biotechnology.

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• ‘One Day One Genome’ initiative has been introduced by the Department of Biotechnology and Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council

• It is an initiative to showcase the enormous microbial potential of India

The initiative will highlight the unique bacterial species found in our country and emphasize their critical roles in Environment, agriculture and the human health.

• Microorganisms are crucial for our environment; they play important roles in all biogeochemical cycles, soil formation, mineral purification, degradation of organic waste and toxic pollutants along with methane production they are enormously useful for agriculture.

• Genome Sequencing will allow visualisation of hidden potential of microbial world to the community at large

• The initiative coordinated by Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council- National Institute of Biomedical Genomics, an Institute of the Department of Biotechnology.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the term ‘Space Docking’? (a) Maneuvering two fast moving spacecrafts into the same orbit and joining them to form a single unit. (b) Launching of a satellite at an orbit other than the one fixed for it due to gravitational influences. (c) A spacecraft designed for collection of space debris. (d) An experiment to detect landing point for a spacecraft on any celestial body by calculating gravitational forces and other parameters. Correct Solution: A Space talking is the intricate process of maneuvering two first moving spacecraft into the same orbit bringing them closer and joining them to form a single unit This is important for assembling large structures or transferring equipment, crew or supplies in space. The ISRO achieved a significant milestone with the launch of space docking experiment or SpaDex. It is a technology demonstrator mission developed by ISRO to showcase in space docking Technology. The primary goal is to develop talking Technology for two small spacecrafts SDX01 and SDX02 in low Earth orbit. These two will dock autonomously using advanced sensors and propulsion systems; the mission has been designed for two years. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution: A Space talking is the intricate process of maneuvering two first moving spacecraft into the same orbit bringing them closer and joining them to form a single unit This is important for assembling large structures or transferring equipment, crew or supplies in space. The ISRO achieved a significant milestone with the launch of space docking experiment or SpaDex. It is a technology demonstrator mission developed by ISRO to showcase in space docking Technology. The primary goal is to develop talking Technology for two small spacecrafts SDX01 and SDX02 in low Earth orbit. These two will dock autonomously using advanced sensors and propulsion systems; the mission has been designed for two years. Hence option A is correct

#### 19. Question

Which of the following best describes the term ‘Space Docking’?

• (a) Maneuvering two fast moving spacecrafts into the same orbit and joining them to form a single unit.

• (b) Launching of a satellite at an orbit other than the one fixed for it due to gravitational influences.

• (c) A spacecraft designed for collection of space debris.

• (d) An experiment to detect landing point for a spacecraft on any celestial body by calculating gravitational forces and other parameters.

Solution: A

• Space talking is the intricate process of maneuvering two first moving spacecraft into the same orbit bringing them closer and joining them to form a single unit

• This is important for assembling large structures or transferring equipment, crew or supplies in space.

• The ISRO achieved a significant milestone with the launch of space docking experiment or SpaDex.

• It is a technology demonstrator mission developed by ISRO to showcase in space docking Technology.

• The primary goal is to develop talking Technology for two small spacecrafts SDX01 and SDX02 in low Earth orbit.

• These two will dock autonomously using advanced sensors and propulsion systems; the mission has been designed for two years.

Hence option A is correct

Solution: A

• Space talking is the intricate process of maneuvering two first moving spacecraft into the same orbit bringing them closer and joining them to form a single unit

• This is important for assembling large structures or transferring equipment, crew or supplies in space.

• The ISRO achieved a significant milestone with the launch of space docking experiment or SpaDex.

• It is a technology demonstrator mission developed by ISRO to showcase in space docking Technology.

• The primary goal is to develop talking Technology for two small spacecrafts SDX01 and SDX02 in low Earth orbit.

• These two will dock autonomously using advanced sensors and propulsion systems; the mission has been designed for two years.

Hence option A is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Heritable Human Genome Editing (HHGE) involves editing of disease-causing DNA within the somatic cells of an individual. HHGE can be used for prevention of hereditary Sickle cell anaemia and Cystic fibrosis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B HHGE introduces changes in germline cells like embryo, enabling these alterations to be inherited by offspring. It can be achieved to tools like Zinc finger Nucleases, Transcription Activator Like Effector Nucleases (TALENS), CRISPR/Cas9 and Meganucleases. It is different from somatic cell editing which involves editing of disease-causing DNA within an individual’s non reproductive cells known as somatic cells. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Heritable genome editing has certain potential applications including prevention of diseases like cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s disease. It can also improve In-vitro fertilization Technology. Although it has certain advantages, there are certain ethical issues associated with it; for example, it is against dignity of humans and respect for their variety, challenging fundamental moral beliefs. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B HHGE introduces changes in germline cells like embryo, enabling these alterations to be inherited by offspring. It can be achieved to tools like Zinc finger Nucleases, Transcription Activator Like Effector Nucleases (TALENS), CRISPR/Cas9 and Meganucleases. It is different from somatic cell editing which involves editing of disease-causing DNA within an individual’s non reproductive cells known as somatic cells. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Heritable genome editing has certain potential applications including prevention of diseases like cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s disease. It can also improve In-vitro fertilization Technology. Although it has certain advantages, there are certain ethical issues associated with it; for example, it is against dignity of humans and respect for their variety, challenging fundamental moral beliefs. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Heritable Human Genome Editing (HHGE) involves editing of disease-causing DNA within the somatic cells of an individual.

• HHGE can be used for prevention of hereditary Sickle cell anaemia and Cystic fibrosis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• HHGE introduces changes in germline cells like embryo, enabling these alterations to be inherited by offspring.

• It can be achieved to tools like Zinc finger Nucleases, Transcription Activator Like Effector Nucleases (TALENS), CRISPR/Cas9 and Meganucleases.

• It is different from somatic cell editing which involves editing of disease-causing DNA within an individual’s non reproductive cells known as somatic cells.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Heritable genome editing has certain potential applications including prevention of diseases like cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s disease.

• It can also improve In-vitro fertilization Technology.

• Although it has certain advantages, there are certain ethical issues associated with it; for example, it is against dignity of humans and respect for their variety, challenging fundamental moral beliefs.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• HHGE introduces changes in germline cells like embryo, enabling these alterations to be inherited by offspring.

• It can be achieved to tools like Zinc finger Nucleases, Transcription Activator Like Effector Nucleases (TALENS), CRISPR/Cas9 and Meganucleases.

• It is different from somatic cell editing which involves editing of disease-causing DNA within an individual’s non reproductive cells known as somatic cells.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Heritable genome editing has certain potential applications including prevention of diseases like cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s disease.

• It can also improve In-vitro fertilization Technology.

• Although it has certain advantages, there are certain ethical issues associated with it; for example, it is against dignity of humans and respect for their variety, challenging fundamental moral beliefs.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Periyar E.V. Ramasamy He resigned from the Indian National Congress due to disagreements over caste-related issues and the role of Brahmin leadership. His involvement in the Vaikom Satyagraha marked a significant contribution to temple-entry reforms in Travancore. As leader of the Justice Party, he rejected universal adult franchise, arguing it would reinforce caste hierarchies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Periyar E.V. Ramasamy: Break with the Indian National Congress: Periyar joined the Indian National Congress in 1919, drawn by its anti-colonial agenda. However, he grew disillusioned due to the Congress leadership’s reluctance to address caste inequalities, particularly the dominance of Brahmins in both ideology and organization. He resigned in 1925 after failed efforts to implement caste-based reservations and reforms within the party. This marked a shift toward independent, caste-based social reform. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Role in the Vaikom Satyagraha (1924–25): The movement in Travancore protested restrictions on oppressed castes from accessing roads surrounding temples. Periyar’s involvement—though not as originator—brought national attention and lent cross-regional support to the agitation. He was arrested for his participation, and later hailed in Tamil Nadu as the “Vaikom Veerar” (Hero of Vaikom). The success of the movement laid the groundwork for later temple-entry reforms across South India. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Justice Party Leadership and Electoral Participation: In 1938, Periyar took over leadership of the Justice Party, transforming it into a radical social justice platform. Contrary to the statement, Periyar supported democratic representation, universal suffrage, and reservations to uplift the backward castes. His vision was rooted in anti-caste egalitarianism, not in rejecting the right to vote. He viewed franchise as a tool to counter Brahminical hegemony, not reinforce it. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/periyar-9572605/ Incorrect Solution: A Periyar E.V. Ramasamy: Break with the Indian National Congress: Periyar joined the Indian National Congress in 1919, drawn by its anti-colonial agenda. However, he grew disillusioned due to the Congress leadership’s reluctance to address caste inequalities, particularly the dominance of Brahmins in both ideology and organization. He resigned in 1925 after failed efforts to implement caste-based reservations and reforms within the party. This marked a shift toward independent, caste-based social reform. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Role in the Vaikom Satyagraha (1924–25): The movement in Travancore protested restrictions on oppressed castes from accessing roads surrounding temples. Periyar’s involvement—though not as originator—brought national attention and lent cross-regional support to the agitation. He was arrested for his participation, and later hailed in Tamil Nadu as the “Vaikom Veerar” (Hero of Vaikom). The success of the movement laid the groundwork for later temple-entry reforms across South India. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Justice Party Leadership and Electoral Participation: In 1938, Periyar took over leadership of the Justice Party, transforming it into a radical social justice platform. Contrary to the statement, Periyar supported democratic representation, universal suffrage, and reservations to uplift the backward castes. His vision was rooted in anti-caste egalitarianism, not in rejecting the right to vote. He viewed franchise as a tool to counter Brahminical hegemony, not reinforce it. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/periyar-9572605/

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Periyar E.V. Ramasamy

• He resigned from the Indian National Congress due to disagreements over caste-related issues and the role of Brahmin leadership.

• His involvement in the Vaikom Satyagraha marked a significant contribution to temple-entry reforms in Travancore.

• As leader of the Justice Party, he rejected universal adult franchise, arguing it would reinforce caste hierarchies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Periyar E.V. Ramasamy:

Break with the Indian National Congress: Periyar joined the Indian National Congress in 1919, drawn by its anti-colonial agenda. However, he grew disillusioned due to the Congress leadership’s reluctance to address caste inequalities, particularly the dominance of Brahmins in both ideology and organization. He resigned in 1925 after failed efforts to implement caste-based reservations and reforms within the party. This marked a shift toward independent, caste-based social reform. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Periyar joined the Indian National Congress in 1919, drawn by its anti-colonial agenda.

• However, he grew disillusioned due to the Congress leadership’s reluctance to address caste inequalities, particularly the dominance of Brahmins in both ideology and organization.

• He resigned in 1925 after failed efforts to implement caste-based reservations and reforms within the party.

• This marked a shift toward independent, caste-based social reform. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

Role in the Vaikom Satyagraha (1924–25): The movement in Travancore protested restrictions on oppressed castes from accessing roads surrounding temples. Periyar’s involvement—though not as originator—brought national attention and lent cross-regional support to the agitation. He was arrested for his participation, and later hailed in Tamil Nadu as the “Vaikom Veerar” (Hero of Vaikom). The success of the movement laid the groundwork for later temple-entry reforms across South India. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The movement in Travancore protested restrictions on oppressed castes from accessing roads surrounding temples.

• Periyar’s involvement—though not as originator—brought national attention and lent cross-regional support to the agitation.

• He was arrested for his participation, and later hailed in Tamil Nadu as the “Vaikom Veerar” (Hero of Vaikom).

• The success of the movement laid the groundwork for later temple-entry reforms across South India. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

Justice Party Leadership and Electoral Participation: In 1938, Periyar took over leadership of the Justice Party, transforming it into a radical social justice platform. Contrary to the statement, Periyar supported democratic representation, universal suffrage, and reservations to uplift the backward castes. His vision was rooted in anti-caste egalitarianism, not in rejecting the right to vote. He viewed franchise as a tool to counter Brahminical hegemony, not reinforce it. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• In 1938, Periyar took over leadership of the Justice Party, transforming it into a radical social justice platform.

• Contrary to the statement, Periyar supported democratic representation, universal suffrage, and reservations to uplift the backward castes.

• His vision was rooted in anti-caste egalitarianism, not in rejecting the right to vote.

• He viewed franchise as a tool to counter Brahminical hegemony, not reinforce it. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/periyar-9572605/

Solution: A

Periyar E.V. Ramasamy:

Break with the Indian National Congress: Periyar joined the Indian National Congress in 1919, drawn by its anti-colonial agenda. However, he grew disillusioned due to the Congress leadership’s reluctance to address caste inequalities, particularly the dominance of Brahmins in both ideology and organization. He resigned in 1925 after failed efforts to implement caste-based reservations and reforms within the party. This marked a shift toward independent, caste-based social reform. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Periyar joined the Indian National Congress in 1919, drawn by its anti-colonial agenda.

• However, he grew disillusioned due to the Congress leadership’s reluctance to address caste inequalities, particularly the dominance of Brahmins in both ideology and organization.

• He resigned in 1925 after failed efforts to implement caste-based reservations and reforms within the party.

• This marked a shift toward independent, caste-based social reform. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

Role in the Vaikom Satyagraha (1924–25): The movement in Travancore protested restrictions on oppressed castes from accessing roads surrounding temples. Periyar’s involvement—though not as originator—brought national attention and lent cross-regional support to the agitation. He was arrested for his participation, and later hailed in Tamil Nadu as the “Vaikom Veerar” (Hero of Vaikom). The success of the movement laid the groundwork for later temple-entry reforms across South India. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The movement in Travancore protested restrictions on oppressed castes from accessing roads surrounding temples.

• Periyar’s involvement—though not as originator—brought national attention and lent cross-regional support to the agitation.

• He was arrested for his participation, and later hailed in Tamil Nadu as the “Vaikom Veerar” (Hero of Vaikom).

• The success of the movement laid the groundwork for later temple-entry reforms across South India. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

Justice Party Leadership and Electoral Participation: In 1938, Periyar took over leadership of the Justice Party, transforming it into a radical social justice platform. Contrary to the statement, Periyar supported democratic representation, universal suffrage, and reservations to uplift the backward castes. His vision was rooted in anti-caste egalitarianism, not in rejecting the right to vote. He viewed franchise as a tool to counter Brahminical hegemony, not reinforce it. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• In 1938, Periyar took over leadership of the Justice Party, transforming it into a radical social justice platform.

• Contrary to the statement, Periyar supported democratic representation, universal suffrage, and reservations to uplift the backward castes.

• His vision was rooted in anti-caste egalitarianism, not in rejecting the right to vote.

• He viewed franchise as a tool to counter Brahminical hegemony, not reinforce it. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/periyar-9572605/

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Ramon Magsaysay Award is regarded as Asia’s highest civilian honour and recognizes exceptional service to the people of Asia. Statement-II: It was jointly established by the United Nations and the Government of the Philippines to honour contributions in peacekeeping and diplomacy. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Ramon Magsaysay Award: The Ramon Magsaysay Award was established in 1957 and is widely regarded as Asia’s highest civilian honour, often referred to as the “Nobel Prize of Asia”. It recognizes individuals and organizations in Asia who have demonstrated exceptional integrity, courage, and commitment in public service, irrespective of nationality, caste, or religion. (Hence, statement I is correct) The award was not established by the United Nations or for the purpose of recognizing peacekeeping or diplomatic work specifically. It was created by the Rockefeller Brothers Fund in collaboration with the Philippine government, in memory of Ramon Magsaysay, the third President of the Philippines, who was known for his integrity and service-oriented leadership. The award is administered by the Ramon Magsaysay Award Foundation, not by any UN agency. (Hence, statement II is incorrect) The award is presented annually on August 31, Magsaysay’s birth anniversary, and includes a certificate, a medallion bearing his image, and a cash prize. Hayao Miyazaki, a renowned Japanese filmmaker and co-founder of Studio Ghibli, has won the 2024 Ramon Magsaysay Award, recognized for his contributions to animated films that resonate across ages. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/hayao-miyazaki-magsaysay-award-ghibli-9546235/#:~:text=His%20heroines%20have%20a%20strong,seen%20in%20portrayals%20of%20children Incorrect Solution: C Ramon Magsaysay Award: The Ramon Magsaysay Award was established in 1957 and is widely regarded as Asia’s highest civilian honour, often referred to as the “Nobel Prize of Asia”. It recognizes individuals and organizations in Asia who have demonstrated exceptional integrity, courage, and commitment in public service, irrespective of nationality, caste, or religion. (Hence, statement I is correct) The award was not established by the United Nations or for the purpose of recognizing peacekeeping or diplomatic work specifically. It was created by the Rockefeller Brothers Fund in collaboration with the Philippine government, in memory of Ramon Magsaysay, the third President of the Philippines, who was known for his integrity and service-oriented leadership. The award is administered by the Ramon Magsaysay Award Foundation, not by any UN agency. (Hence, statement II is incorrect) The award is presented annually on August 31, Magsaysay’s birth anniversary, and includes a certificate, a medallion bearing his image, and a cash prize. Hayao Miyazaki, a renowned Japanese filmmaker and co-founder of Studio Ghibli, has won the 2024 Ramon Magsaysay Award, recognized for his contributions to animated films that resonate across ages. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/hayao-miyazaki-magsaysay-award-ghibli-9546235/#:~:text=His%20heroines%20have%20a%20strong,seen%20in%20portrayals%20of%20children

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements

Statement-I:

The Ramon Magsaysay Award is regarded as Asia’s highest civilian honour and recognizes exceptional service to the people of Asia.

Statement-II:

It was jointly established by the United Nations and the Government of the Philippines to honour contributions in peacekeeping and diplomacy.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Ramon Magsaysay Award:

• The Ramon Magsaysay Award was established in 1957 and is widely regarded as Asia’s highest civilian honour, often referred to as the “Nobel Prize of Asia”.

• It recognizes individuals and organizations in Asia who have demonstrated exceptional integrity, courage, and commitment in public service, irrespective of nationality, caste, or religion. (Hence, statement I is correct)

• The award was not established by the United Nations or for the purpose of recognizing peacekeeping or diplomatic work specifically.

• It was created by the Rockefeller Brothers Fund in collaboration with the Philippine government, in memory of Ramon Magsaysay, the third President of the Philippines, who was known for his integrity and service-oriented leadership.

• The award is administered by the Ramon Magsaysay Award Foundation, not by any UN agency. (Hence, statement II is incorrect)

• The award is presented annually on August 31, Magsaysay’s birth anniversary, and includes a certificate, a medallion bearing his image, and a cash prize.

Hayao Miyazaki, a renowned Japanese filmmaker and co-founder of Studio Ghibli, has won the 2024 Ramon Magsaysay Award, recognized for his contributions to animated films that resonate across ages.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/hayao-miyazaki-magsaysay-award-ghibli-9546235/#:~:text=His%20heroines%20have%20a%20strong,seen%20in%20portrayals%20of%20children

Solution: C

Ramon Magsaysay Award:

• The Ramon Magsaysay Award was established in 1957 and is widely regarded as Asia’s highest civilian honour, often referred to as the “Nobel Prize of Asia”.

• It recognizes individuals and organizations in Asia who have demonstrated exceptional integrity, courage, and commitment in public service, irrespective of nationality, caste, or religion. (Hence, statement I is correct)

• The award was not established by the United Nations or for the purpose of recognizing peacekeeping or diplomatic work specifically.

• It was created by the Rockefeller Brothers Fund in collaboration with the Philippine government, in memory of Ramon Magsaysay, the third President of the Philippines, who was known for his integrity and service-oriented leadership.

• The award is administered by the Ramon Magsaysay Award Foundation, not by any UN agency. (Hence, statement II is incorrect)

• The award is presented annually on August 31, Magsaysay’s birth anniversary, and includes a certificate, a medallion bearing his image, and a cash prize.

Hayao Miyazaki, a renowned Japanese filmmaker and co-founder of Studio Ghibli, has won the 2024 Ramon Magsaysay Award, recognized for his contributions to animated films that resonate across ages.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/hayao-miyazaki-magsaysay-award-ghibli-9546235/#:~:text=His%20heroines%20have%20a%20strong,seen%20in%20portrayals%20of%20children

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The National Florence Nightingale Awards are presented by the President of India to recognize exceptional service by nursing professionals. Statement-II: The awards were instituted in the 1950s by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to commemorate the birth centenary of Florence Nightingale. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C National Florence Nightingale Awards: The National Florence Nightingale Awards are among India’s highest honours for nursing professionals. The awards are presented by the President of India and are conferred to individuals for exceptional contribution to healthcare and nursing services. The 2024 awards were conferred to 15 nurses in a ceremony held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. (Hence, statement I is correct) The awards were instituted in 1973, not in the 1950s. They were established by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, not the Ministry of Women and Child Development. While the name honours Florence Nightingale, there is no official link to her birth centenary. (Hence, statement II is incorrect) Each award carries a Certificate of Merit, a medal, and a cash prize of ₹1,00,000. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2053693#:~:text=Droupadi%20Murmu%20presented%20the%20National,and%20service%20to%20the%20community. Incorrect Solution: C National Florence Nightingale Awards: The National Florence Nightingale Awards are among India’s highest honours for nursing professionals. The awards are presented by the President of India and are conferred to individuals for exceptional contribution to healthcare and nursing services. The 2024 awards were conferred to 15 nurses in a ceremony held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. (Hence, statement I is correct) The awards were instituted in 1973, not in the 1950s. They were established by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, not the Ministry of Women and Child Development. While the name honours Florence Nightingale, there is no official link to her birth centenary. (Hence, statement II is incorrect) Each award carries a Certificate of Merit, a medal, and a cash prize of ₹1,00,000. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2053693#:~:text=Droupadi%20Murmu%20presented%20the%20National,and%20service%20to%20the%20community.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

The National Florence Nightingale Awards are presented by the President of India to recognize exceptional service by nursing professionals.

Statement-II:

The awards were instituted in the 1950s by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to commemorate the birth centenary of Florence Nightingale.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

National Florence Nightingale Awards:

• The National Florence Nightingale Awards are among India’s highest honours for nursing professionals.

• The awards are presented by the President of India and are conferred to individuals for exceptional contribution to healthcare and nursing services.

• The 2024 awards were conferred to 15 nurses in a ceremony held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. (Hence, statement I is correct)

• The awards were instituted in 1973, not in the 1950s.

• They were established by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, not the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

• While the name honours Florence Nightingale, there is no official link to her birth centenary. (Hence, statement II is incorrect)

• Each award carries a Certificate of Merit, a medal, and a cash prize of ₹1,00,000.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2053693#:~:text=Droupadi%20Murmu%20presented%20the%20National,and%20service%20to%20the%20community.

Solution: C

National Florence Nightingale Awards:

• The National Florence Nightingale Awards are among India’s highest honours for nursing professionals.

• The awards are presented by the President of India and are conferred to individuals for exceptional contribution to healthcare and nursing services.

• The 2024 awards were conferred to 15 nurses in a ceremony held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. (Hence, statement I is correct)

• The awards were instituted in 1973, not in the 1950s.

• They were established by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, not the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

• While the name honours Florence Nightingale, there is no official link to her birth centenary. (Hence, statement II is incorrect)

• Each award carries a Certificate of Merit, a medal, and a cash prize of ₹1,00,000.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2053693#:~:text=Droupadi%20Murmu%20presented%20the%20National,and%20service%20to%20the%20community.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Great Stupa at Sanchi: The elaborately carved toranas were added during the Satavahana period and are aligned with the four cardinal directions. The stupa’s sculptural panels depict anthropomorphic images of the Buddha along with scenes from the Jataka tales. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Great Stupa at Sanchi: The Great Stupa at Sanchi was originally commissioned by Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE, making it one of the oldest stone structures in India. The four toranas (gateways) were added later during the Satavahana period in the 1st century BCE. These toranas are placed at the four cardinal directions (north, south, east, west) and are celebrated for their elaborate carvings, intricate narrative reliefs, and symbolic Buddhist motifs. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The sculptural panels on the toranas and railings depict stories from the Jataka tales, scenes from the Buddha’s life, and various Buddhist symbols such as the Bodhi tree, Dharma Chakra (wheel), footprints, and empty throne. During this early period of Buddhist art (pre-Gandhara and Mathura), the Buddha was not depicted in human (anthropomorphic) form. Instead, his presence was represented symbolically. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) The art at Sanchi reflects the aniconic phase of Buddhist art and is a significant example of early narrative relief sculpture in India. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/from-ashokan-times-to-now-sanchi-to-europe-story-of-the-great-stupa-9564786/ Incorrect Solution: A Great Stupa at Sanchi: The Great Stupa at Sanchi was originally commissioned by Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE, making it one of the oldest stone structures in India. The four toranas (gateways) were added later during the Satavahana period in the 1st century BCE. These toranas are placed at the four cardinal directions (north, south, east, west) and are celebrated for their elaborate carvings, intricate narrative reliefs, and symbolic Buddhist motifs. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The sculptural panels on the toranas and railings depict stories from the Jataka tales, scenes from the Buddha’s life, and various Buddhist symbols such as the Bodhi tree, Dharma Chakra (wheel), footprints, and empty throne. During this early period of Buddhist art (pre-Gandhara and Mathura), the Buddha was not depicted in human (anthropomorphic) form. Instead, his presence was represented symbolically. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) The art at Sanchi reflects the aniconic phase of Buddhist art and is a significant example of early narrative relief sculpture in India. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/from-ashokan-times-to-now-sanchi-to-europe-story-of-the-great-stupa-9564786/

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Great Stupa at Sanchi:

• The elaborately carved toranas were added during the Satavahana period and are aligned with the four cardinal directions.

• The stupa’s sculptural panels depict anthropomorphic images of the Buddha along with scenes from the Jataka tales.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Great Stupa at Sanchi:

• The Great Stupa at Sanchi was originally commissioned by Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE, making it one of the oldest stone structures in India.

• The four toranas (gateways) were added later during the Satavahana period in the 1st century BCE.

• These toranas are placed at the four cardinal directions (north, south, east, west) and are celebrated for their elaborate carvings, intricate narrative reliefs, and symbolic Buddhist motifs. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The sculptural panels on the toranas and railings depict stories from the Jataka tales, scenes from the Buddha’s life, and various Buddhist symbols such as the Bodhi tree, Dharma Chakra (wheel), footprints, and empty throne.

• During this early period of Buddhist art (pre-Gandhara and Mathura), the Buddha was not depicted in human (anthropomorphic) form. Instead, his presence was represented symbolically. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• The art at Sanchi reflects the aniconic phase of Buddhist art and is a significant example of early narrative relief sculpture in India.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/from-ashokan-times-to-now-sanchi-to-europe-story-of-the-great-stupa-9564786/

Solution: A

Great Stupa at Sanchi:

• The Great Stupa at Sanchi was originally commissioned by Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE, making it one of the oldest stone structures in India.

• The four toranas (gateways) were added later during the Satavahana period in the 1st century BCE.

• These toranas are placed at the four cardinal directions (north, south, east, west) and are celebrated for their elaborate carvings, intricate narrative reliefs, and symbolic Buddhist motifs. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The sculptural panels on the toranas and railings depict stories from the Jataka tales, scenes from the Buddha’s life, and various Buddhist symbols such as the Bodhi tree, Dharma Chakra (wheel), footprints, and empty throne.

• During this early period of Buddhist art (pre-Gandhara and Mathura), the Buddha was not depicted in human (anthropomorphic) form. Instead, his presence was represented symbolically. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• The art at Sanchi reflects the aniconic phase of Buddhist art and is a significant example of early narrative relief sculpture in India.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/from-ashokan-times-to-now-sanchi-to-europe-story-of-the-great-stupa-9564786/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes “Coelacanths”, recently seen in news? (a) A group of marine reptiles from the Mesozoic Era known for their limb-like fins and connection to modern amphibians (b) An ancient lineage of deep-sea fish thought extinct until 20th century, offering insights into vertebrate evolution and tectonic influences (c) Early amphibians discovered in the Gondwana strata of India, marking the transition to land-based vertebrates (d) A genus of fossilized arthropods from the Cambrian explosion known for their unique jointed limbs Correct Solution: B Coelacanths: Coelacanths are a primitive group of lobe-finned deep-sea fish belonging to the subclass Actinistia. They were believed to be extinct for millions of years until a living specimen was rediscovered off the coast of South Africa in 1938. These fish are closely related to tetrapods, making them critical for understanding the evolutionary transition from aquatic to terrestrial vertebrates. They have limb-like fins, a notochord, and unique skeletal features like an intracranial joint, placing them near the base of the tetrapod lineage. Coelacanths are often called “living fossils“, but recent research shows genetic and anatomical changes over time, challenging this term. A new fossil discovery from Australia’s Gogo Formation revealed that tectonic plate activity, not just ocean conditions, influenced species diversification — offering a revised perspective on geological influence in evolution. (Hence, option (b) is correct) https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/exceptional-new-fish-fossil-sparks-rethink-of-how-earths-geology-drives-evolution/article68651008.ece Incorrect Solution: B Coelacanths: Coelacanths are a primitive group of lobe-finned deep-sea fish belonging to the subclass Actinistia. They were believed to be extinct for millions of years until a living specimen was rediscovered off the coast of South Africa in 1938. These fish are closely related to tetrapods, making them critical for understanding the evolutionary transition from aquatic to terrestrial vertebrates. They have limb-like fins, a notochord, and unique skeletal features like an intracranial joint, placing them near the base of the tetrapod lineage. Coelacanths are often called “living fossils“, but recent research shows genetic and anatomical changes over time, challenging this term. A new fossil discovery from Australia’s Gogo Formation revealed that tectonic plate activity, not just ocean conditions, influenced species diversification — offering a revised perspective on geological influence in evolution. (Hence, option (b) is correct) https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/exceptional-new-fish-fossil-sparks-rethink-of-how-earths-geology-drives-evolution/article68651008.ece

#### 25. Question

Which of the following best describes “Coelacanths”, recently seen in news?

• (a) A group of marine reptiles from the Mesozoic Era known for their limb-like fins and connection to modern amphibians

• (b) An ancient lineage of deep-sea fish thought extinct until 20th century, offering insights into vertebrate evolution and tectonic influences

• (c) Early amphibians discovered in the Gondwana strata of India, marking the transition to land-based vertebrates

• (d) A genus of fossilized arthropods from the Cambrian explosion known for their unique jointed limbs

Solution: B

Coelacanths:

Coelacanths are a primitive group of lobe-finned deep-sea fish belonging to the subclass Actinistia.

• They were believed to be extinct for millions of years until a living specimen was rediscovered off the coast of South Africa in 1938.

• These fish are closely related to tetrapods, making them critical for understanding the evolutionary transition from aquatic to terrestrial vertebrates.

• They have limb-like fins, a notochord, and unique skeletal features like an intracranial joint, placing them near the base of the tetrapod lineage.

• Coelacanths are often called “living fossils“, but recent research shows genetic and anatomical changes over time, challenging this term.

• A new fossil discovery from Australia’s Gogo Formation revealed that tectonic plate activity, not just ocean conditions, influenced species diversification — offering a revised perspective on geological influence in evolution. (Hence, option (b) is correct)

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/exceptional-new-fish-fossil-sparks-rethink-of-how-earths-geology-drives-evolution/article68651008.ece

Solution: B

Coelacanths:

Coelacanths are a primitive group of lobe-finned deep-sea fish belonging to the subclass Actinistia.

• They were believed to be extinct for millions of years until a living specimen was rediscovered off the coast of South Africa in 1938.

• These fish are closely related to tetrapods, making them critical for understanding the evolutionary transition from aquatic to terrestrial vertebrates.

• They have limb-like fins, a notochord, and unique skeletal features like an intracranial joint, placing them near the base of the tetrapod lineage.

• Coelacanths are often called “living fossils“, but recent research shows genetic and anatomical changes over time, challenging this term.

• A new fossil discovery from Australia’s Gogo Formation revealed that tectonic plate activity, not just ocean conditions, influenced species diversification — offering a revised perspective on geological influence in evolution. (Hence, option (b) is correct)

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/exceptional-new-fish-fossil-sparks-rethink-of-how-earths-geology-drives-evolution/article68651008.ece

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points The government is discussing the future of several money-losing public sector undertakings (PSUs) under the ministry of heavy industries, with options including the closure of these units being considered. The other options include restructuring and disinvestment of these companies. The discussions follow recent unsuccessful efforts to sell some of these loss-making entities. Among the 29 companies under the administrative control of the department of heavy industries, six are profitable, while 11 are running losses. Among the remaining 12, five were non-operational, and seven were shut down. Fourteen of the 29 companies are under liquidation. The push for the future roadmap of the loss-making PSUs comes when the government has brought in the new public sector enterprise policy under which the strategic transfer of ownership of Air India has been completed after substantial efforts and delay. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? a) Loss-making PSUs are not able to help the country in its economic growth b) Government has found it difficult to turn around loss-making PSUs. c) Encouraging Privatization of PSUs will help revive the Industrial sector in India d) Previous public sector enterprise policy had failed to revive PSUs. Correct Correct Option: B Justifications Statement A: It is a generalization and although some strategic PSUs are loss-making, they still contribute to economic growth. Hence it is wrong option. Statement B: This is the most logical inference as the government is not able to turn around PSUs and therefore trying to sell or liquidate them. Statement C: This is not always true and the government is adopting various means such as disinvestment, liquidation, including privatization. Hence, it is wrong option. Statement D: Although the government introduced a new PSE policy, but that doesn’t mean the old policy was a failure. Hence it is also wrong option. Incorrect Correct Option: B Justifications Statement A: It is a generalization and although some strategic PSUs are loss-making, they still contribute to economic growth. Hence it is wrong option. Statement B: This is the most logical inference as the government is not able to turn around PSUs and therefore trying to sell or liquidate them. Statement C: This is not always true and the government is adopting various means such as disinvestment, liquidation, including privatization. Hence, it is wrong option. Statement D: Although the government introduced a new PSE policy, but that doesn’t mean the old policy was a failure. Hence it is also wrong option.

#### 26. Question

The government is discussing the future of several money-losing public sector undertakings (PSUs) under the ministry of heavy industries, with options including the closure of these units being considered. The other options include restructuring and disinvestment of these companies. The discussions follow recent unsuccessful efforts to sell some of these loss-making entities. Among the 29 companies under the administrative control of the department of heavy industries, six are profitable, while 11 are running losses. Among the remaining 12, five were non-operational, and seven were shut down. Fourteen of the 29 companies are under liquidation. The push for the future roadmap of the loss-making PSUs comes when the government has brought in the new public sector enterprise policy under which the strategic transfer of ownership of Air India has been completed after substantial efforts and delay.

Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

• a) Loss-making PSUs are not able to help the country in its economic growth

• b) Government has found it difficult to turn around loss-making PSUs.

• c) Encouraging Privatization of PSUs will help revive the Industrial sector in India

• d) Previous public sector enterprise policy had failed to revive PSUs.

Correct Option: B

Justifications

Statement A: It is a generalization and although some strategic PSUs are loss-making, they still contribute to economic growth. Hence it is wrong option.

Statement B: This is the most logical inference as the government is not able to turn around PSUs and therefore trying to sell or liquidate them.

Statement C: This is not always true and the government is adopting various means such as disinvestment, liquidation, including privatization. Hence, it is wrong option.

Statement D: Although the government introduced a new PSE policy, but that doesn’t mean the old policy was a failure. Hence it is also wrong option.

Correct Option: B

Justifications

Statement A: It is a generalization and although some strategic PSUs are loss-making, they still contribute to economic growth. Hence it is wrong option.

Statement B: This is the most logical inference as the government is not able to turn around PSUs and therefore trying to sell or liquidate them.

Statement C: This is not always true and the government is adopting various means such as disinvestment, liquidation, including privatization. Hence, it is wrong option.

Statement D: Although the government introduced a new PSE policy, but that doesn’t mean the old policy was a failure. Hence it is also wrong option.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points A trader uses a weight of 920g instead of 1kg and sells the article at the marked price which is 15% above the cost price. Find the profit percentage. a) 20% b) 23% c) 25% d) can’t be determined Correct Correct Option: C Justification: Let us assume the cost price of 1 kg of sugar as Rs.100. The selling price or marked price = Rs.115 The trader is selling 920 g of sugar for which has costs him Rs.92. Here, CP=Rs.92 and SP=Rs.115 Therefore, Profit Percentage= (115-92)/92 × 100 = 25% Question Level: Moderate Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: Let us assume the cost price of 1 kg of sugar as Rs.100. The selling price or marked price = Rs.115 The trader is selling 920 g of sugar for which has costs him Rs.92. Here, CP=Rs.92 and SP=Rs.115 Therefore, Profit Percentage= (115-92)/92 × 100 = 25% Question Level: Moderate

#### 27. Question

A trader uses a weight of 920g instead of 1kg and sells the article at the marked price which is 15% above the cost price. Find the profit percentage.

• d) can’t be determined

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Let us assume the cost price of 1 kg of sugar as Rs.100.

The selling price or marked price = Rs.115

The trader is selling 920 g of sugar for which has costs him Rs.92.

Here, CP=Rs.92 and SP=Rs.115

Therefore, Profit Percentage= (115-92)/92 × 100

Question Level: Moderate

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Let us assume the cost price of 1 kg of sugar as Rs.100.

The selling price or marked price = Rs.115

The trader is selling 920 g of sugar for which has costs him Rs.92.

Here, CP=Rs.92 and SP=Rs.115

Therefore, Profit Percentage= (115-92)/92 × 100

Question Level: Moderate

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points There are eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W who invested in some business in the ratio 1:2:3:4:5:6:7:8 and the duration for which they invested the money is in the ratio 8:7:6:5:4:3:2:1 respectively. Who will get the maximum profit at the end of the year? a) S only b) T only c) Both S and T d) Neither S nor T Correct Correct Option: C Justification: The share in the profit will be proportional to the product of investment and the time duration. Therefore, the ratio of shares in the profit of P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W = 1×8 : 2×7 : 3×6 : 4×5 : 5×4 : 6×3 : 7×2 : 8×1 = 8 : 14 : 18 : 20 : 20 : 18 : 14 : 8 So, both S and T will get the maximum share. Question Level: Moderate Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: The share in the profit will be proportional to the product of investment and the time duration. Therefore, the ratio of shares in the profit of P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W = 1×8 : 2×7 : 3×6 : 4×5 : 5×4 : 6×3 : 7×2 : 8×1 = 8 : 14 : 18 : 20 : 20 : 18 : 14 : 8 So, both S and T will get the maximum share. Question Level: Moderate

#### 28. Question

There are eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W who invested in some business in the ratio 1:2:3:4:5:6:7:8 and the duration for which they invested the money is in the ratio 8:7:6:5:4:3:2:1 respectively. Who will get the maximum profit at the end of the year?

• c) Both S and T

• d) Neither S nor T

Correct Option: C

Justification:

The share in the profit will be proportional to the product of investment and the time duration.

Therefore, the ratio of shares in the profit of P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W

= 1×8 : 2×7 : 3×6 : 4×5 : 5×4 : 6×3 : 7×2 : 8×1

= 8 : 14 : 18 : 20 : 20 : 18 : 14 : 8

So, both S and T will get the maximum share.

Question Level: Moderate

Correct Option: C

Justification:

The share in the profit will be proportional to the product of investment and the time duration.

Therefore, the ratio of shares in the profit of P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W

= 1×8 : 2×7 : 3×6 : 4×5 : 5×4 : 6×3 : 7×2 : 8×1

= 8 : 14 : 18 : 20 : 20 : 18 : 14 : 8

So, both S and T will get the maximum share.

Question Level: Moderate

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points A dealer sold a TV at a loss of 2.5%. Had he sold it for Rs. 100 more, he would have gained 7.5%. To gain 12.5% he should sell it for: a) Rs 2200 b) Rs 1000 c) Rs 1100 d) Rs 1125 Correct Correct Option: D Justification: Explanation – Let C.P be Rs.x then,(107.5 % of x) – (97.5 % of x) = 100 => 10% of x = 100 => x =1000 ∴ desired S.P = 112.5 % of Rs. 100 = Rs.(225/2 x 1/100 x 1000) =Rs. 1125 Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification: Explanation – Let C.P be Rs.x then,(107.5 % of x) – (97.5 % of x) = 100 => 10% of x = 100 => x =1000 ∴ desired S.P = 112.5 % of Rs. 100 = Rs.(225/2 x 1/100 x 1000) =Rs. 1125

#### 29. Question

A dealer sold a TV at a loss of 2.5%. Had he sold it for Rs. 100 more, he would have gained 7.5%. To gain 12.5% he should sell it for:

• a) Rs 2200

• b) Rs 1000

• c) Rs 1100

• d) Rs 1125

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Explanation –

Let C.P be Rs.x then,(107.5 % of x) – (97.5 % of x) = 100 => 10% of x = 100 => x =1000 ∴ desired S.P = 112.5 % of Rs. 100 = Rs.(225/2 x 1/100 x 1000) =Rs. 1125

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Explanation –

Let C.P be Rs.x then,(107.5 % of x) – (97.5 % of x) = 100 => 10% of x = 100 => x =1000 ∴ desired S.P = 112.5 % of Rs. 100 = Rs.(225/2 x 1/100 x 1000) =Rs. 1125

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points A man purchased wheat worth Rs. 400. He sold 3/4 at a loss of 10% and the reminder at a gain of 10%. On the whole he gets: a) loss of 5% b) gain of 5% c) loss of 19% d) loss of 6% Correct Correct Option: A Justification: Explanation – C.P of 3/4th = Rs. (3/4 x 400) = Rs. 300, C.P of 1/4th = Rs. 100 ∴ Total S.P = (90% of Rs. 300 + 110% of Rs. 100) = Rs. 380 Loss = (20/400 x 100)% = 5% Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: Explanation – C.P of 3/4th = Rs. (3/4 x 400) = Rs. 300, C.P of 1/4th = Rs. 100 ∴ Total S.P = (90% of Rs. 300 + 110% of Rs. 100) = Rs. 380 Loss = (20/400 x 100)% = 5%

#### 30. Question

A man purchased wheat worth Rs. 400. He sold 3/4 at a loss of 10% and the reminder at a gain of 10%. On the whole he gets:

• a) loss of 5%

• b) gain of 5%

• c) loss of 19%

• d) loss of 6%

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Explanation – C.P of 3/4th = Rs. (3/4 x 400) = Rs. 300, C.P of 1/4th = Rs. 100 ∴ Total S.P = (90% of Rs. 300 + 110% of Rs. 100) = Rs. 380 Loss = (20/400 x 100)% = 5%

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Explanation – C.P of 3/4th = Rs. (3/4 x 400) = Rs. 300, C.P of 1/4th = Rs. 100 ∴ Total S.P = (90% of Rs. 300 + 110% of Rs. 100) = Rs. 380 Loss = (20/400 x 100)% = 5%

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