DAY – 20 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY, Subject-wise Test 26, Textbook-wise Test 20 and November 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the term ‘radiative forcing’? a) The impact of land use changes on climate b) The influence of natural climate drivers on Earth's energy balance c) Changes in Earth's energy balance caused by specific factors d) The rate at which greenhouse gases are emitted into the atmosphere Correct Answer: c Explanation: Radiative climate drivers are factors that influence Earth’s climate by altering the balance of incoming and outgoing radiation in the atmosphere. These drivers affect the Earth’s energy budget by either absorbing or reflecting solar radiation or by influencing the emission of infrared radiation from the Earth’s surface and atmosphere. Radiative forcing is a measure of the imbalance in the Earth’s energy budget caused by changes in factors that affect the planet’s radiation balance. It quantifies the changes to the energy balance due to factors such as changes in greenhouse gas concentrations, aerosols, solar radiation, and land use changes. Hence, option(c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Earth’s heat budget Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Radiative climate drivers are factors that influence Earth’s climate by altering the balance of incoming and outgoing radiation in the atmosphere. These drivers affect the Earth’s energy budget by either absorbing or reflecting solar radiation or by influencing the emission of infrared radiation from the Earth’s surface and atmosphere. Radiative forcing is a measure of the imbalance in the Earth’s energy budget caused by changes in factors that affect the planet’s radiation balance. It quantifies the changes to the energy balance due to factors such as changes in greenhouse gas concentrations, aerosols, solar radiation, and land use changes. Hence, option(c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Earth’s heat budget Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 1. Question

Which of the following best describes the term ‘radiative forcing’?

• a) The impact of land use changes on climate

• b) The influence of natural climate drivers on Earth's energy balance

• c) Changes in Earth's energy balance caused by specific factors

• d) The rate at which greenhouse gases are emitted into the atmosphere

Explanation:

• Radiative climate drivers are factors that influence Earth’s climate by altering the balance of incoming and outgoing radiation in the atmosphere.

• These drivers affect the Earth’s energy budget by either absorbing or reflecting solar radiation or by influencing the emission of infrared radiation from the Earth’s surface and atmosphere.

• Radiative forcing is a measure of the imbalance in the Earth’s energy budget caused by changes in factors that affect the planet’s radiation balance.

• It quantifies the changes to the energy balance due to factors such as changes in greenhouse gas concentrations, aerosols, solar radiation, and land use changes.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Trend: Earth’s heat budget

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Radiative climate drivers are factors that influence Earth’s climate by altering the balance of incoming and outgoing radiation in the atmosphere.

• These drivers affect the Earth’s energy budget by either absorbing or reflecting solar radiation or by influencing the emission of infrared radiation from the Earth’s surface and atmosphere.

• Radiative forcing is a measure of the imbalance in the Earth’s energy budget caused by changes in factors that affect the planet’s radiation balance.

• It quantifies the changes to the energy balance due to factors such as changes in greenhouse gas concentrations, aerosols, solar radiation, and land use changes.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Trend: Earth’s heat budget

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which of the following factors directly influences Earth’s energy balance by absorbing and re-emitting infrared radiation? a) Cloud cover b) Greenhouse gases c) Land surface changes d) Aerosols Correct Answer: b Explanation: Greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and water vapor (H2O), directly influence Earth’s energy balance by absorbing and re-emitting infrared radiation. These gases have the property of being transparent to incoming solar radiation but absorb infrared radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface. Once absorbed, they re-emit some of this energy back toward the Earth’s surface, trapping heat within the atmosphere. This phenomenon, known as the greenhouse effect, is essential for maintaining Earth’s temperature within a habitable range. Cloud cover affects Earth’s energy balance by reflecting incoming solar radiation back into space (albedo effect) and by trapping outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface. However, it does not directly absorb and re-emit infrared radiation like greenhouse gases do. Land surface changes can alter the amount of solar radiation absorbed or reflected by the Earth’s surface, affecting Earth’s energy balance indirectly. However, they do not directly absorb and re-emit infrared radiation like greenhouse gases. Aerosols can influence Earth’s energy balance by scattering or absorbing incoming solar radiation, which can have a cooling or warming effect on the atmosphere, respectively. While aerosols can absorb some infrared radiation, they do not re-emit it in the same way greenhouse gases do. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Earth’s heat budget Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and water vapor (H2O), directly influence Earth’s energy balance by absorbing and re-emitting infrared radiation. These gases have the property of being transparent to incoming solar radiation but absorb infrared radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface. Once absorbed, they re-emit some of this energy back toward the Earth’s surface, trapping heat within the atmosphere. This phenomenon, known as the greenhouse effect, is essential for maintaining Earth’s temperature within a habitable range. Cloud cover affects Earth’s energy balance by reflecting incoming solar radiation back into space (albedo effect) and by trapping outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface. However, it does not directly absorb and re-emit infrared radiation like greenhouse gases do. Land surface changes can alter the amount of solar radiation absorbed or reflected by the Earth’s surface, affecting Earth’s energy balance indirectly. However, they do not directly absorb and re-emit infrared radiation like greenhouse gases. Aerosols can influence Earth’s energy balance by scattering or absorbing incoming solar radiation, which can have a cooling or warming effect on the atmosphere, respectively. While aerosols can absorb some infrared radiation, they do not re-emit it in the same way greenhouse gases do. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Earth’s heat budget Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 2. Question

Which of the following factors directly influences Earth’s energy balance by absorbing and re-emitting infrared radiation?

• a) Cloud cover

• b) Greenhouse gases

• c) Land surface changes

• d) Aerosols

Explanation:

• Greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and water vapor (H2O), directly influence Earth’s energy balance by absorbing and re-emitting infrared radiation. These gases have the property of being transparent to incoming solar radiation but absorb infrared radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface. Once absorbed, they re-emit some of this energy back toward the Earth’s surface, trapping heat within the atmosphere. This phenomenon, known as the greenhouse effect, is essential for maintaining Earth’s temperature within a habitable range.

• Cloud cover affects Earth’s energy balance by reflecting incoming solar radiation back into space (albedo effect) and by trapping outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface. However, it does not directly absorb and re-emit infrared radiation like greenhouse gases do.

• Land surface changes can alter the amount of solar radiation absorbed or reflected by the Earth’s surface, affecting Earth’s energy balance indirectly. However, they do not directly absorb and re-emit infrared radiation like greenhouse gases.

• Aerosols can influence Earth’s energy balance by scattering or absorbing incoming solar radiation, which can have a cooling or warming effect on the atmosphere, respectively. While aerosols can absorb some infrared radiation, they do not re-emit it in the same way greenhouse gases do.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Earth’s heat budget

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Earth’s heat budget

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following: Loss of Amazon Rainforest Disruption of Ocean Circulation Gradual Sea Level Rise Thawing Permafrost How many of the above are considered as climate tipping points? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Climate tipping points are critical thresholds in the Earth’s climate system, beyond which natural systems can undergo irreversible and disastrous changes. On the other hand, non-tipping points represent conditions or changes in the climate system that do not lead to abrupt or irreversible shifts. Climate Tipping Points: Melting of Polar Ice Sheets: If polar ice sheets melt beyond a certain threshold, it could result in rapid sea level rise, with widespread consequences for coastal communities. Collapse of Coral Reefs: Tipping point: Once coral reefs reach a tipping point, such as bleaching events caused by prolonged heat stress, they can undergo rapid degradation and collapse, impacting marine ecosystems. Disruption of Ocean Circulation: If the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) slows down or collapses, it could lead to abrupt changes in regional climates, including cooling in parts of Europe. Thawing Permafrost: If permafrost reaches a tipping point where thawing accelerates, it could release significant amounts of greenhouse gases, exacerbating global warming. Loss of Amazon Rainforest: Tipping point: If deforestation and climate change lead to dieback of the Amazon rainforest, it could release stored carbon and alter regional and global climate patterns. Non-Tipping Points: Gradual Sea Level Rise: Unlike the rapid sea level rise associated with the melting of polar ice sheets, gradual sea level rise due to thermal expansion of ocean waters is a non-tipping point. While it can still have significant impacts, it occurs over longer timescales and does not involve abrupt shifts. Slow Changes in Carbon Dioxide Levels: Increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels due to human activities are gradual and ongoing, rather than occurring abruptly as a tipping point. However, the cumulative effect over time can still lead to significant climate change. Seasonal Changes in Temperature: Seasonal variations in temperature are part of natural climate cycles and are not considered tipping points. These changes occur predictably and do not lead to irreversible shifts in climate patterns. Moderate Weather Events: Common weather events like rainstorms, heatwaves, and cold snaps, while impactful locally, are not considered tipping points as they do not lead to sudden and irreversible changes in global climate patterns. Hence, option(c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Climate change/global warming Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Climate tipping points are critical thresholds in the Earth’s climate system, beyond which natural systems can undergo irreversible and disastrous changes. On the other hand, non-tipping points represent conditions or changes in the climate system that do not lead to abrupt or irreversible shifts. Climate Tipping Points: Melting of Polar Ice Sheets: If polar ice sheets melt beyond a certain threshold, it could result in rapid sea level rise, with widespread consequences for coastal communities. Collapse of Coral Reefs: Tipping point: Once coral reefs reach a tipping point, such as bleaching events caused by prolonged heat stress, they can undergo rapid degradation and collapse, impacting marine ecosystems. Disruption of Ocean Circulation: If the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) slows down or collapses, it could lead to abrupt changes in regional climates, including cooling in parts of Europe. Thawing Permafrost: If permafrost reaches a tipping point where thawing accelerates, it could release significant amounts of greenhouse gases, exacerbating global warming. Loss of Amazon Rainforest: Tipping point: If deforestation and climate change lead to dieback of the Amazon rainforest, it could release stored carbon and alter regional and global climate patterns. Non-Tipping Points: Gradual Sea Level Rise: Unlike the rapid sea level rise associated with the melting of polar ice sheets, gradual sea level rise due to thermal expansion of ocean waters is a non-tipping point. While it can still have significant impacts, it occurs over longer timescales and does not involve abrupt shifts. Slow Changes in Carbon Dioxide Levels: Increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels due to human activities are gradual and ongoing, rather than occurring abruptly as a tipping point. However, the cumulative effect over time can still lead to significant climate change. Seasonal Changes in Temperature: Seasonal variations in temperature are part of natural climate cycles and are not considered tipping points. These changes occur predictably and do not lead to irreversible shifts in climate patterns. Moderate Weather Events: Common weather events like rainstorms, heatwaves, and cold snaps, while impactful locally, are not considered tipping points as they do not lead to sudden and irreversible changes in global climate patterns. Hence, option(c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Climate change/global warming Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 3. Question

Consider the following:

• Loss of Amazon Rainforest

• Disruption of Ocean Circulation

• Gradual Sea Level Rise

• Thawing Permafrost

How many of the above are considered as climate tipping points?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Climate tipping points are critical thresholds in the Earth’s climate system, beyond which natural systems can undergo irreversible and disastrous changes. On the other hand, non-tipping points represent conditions or changes in the climate system that do not lead to abrupt or irreversible shifts.

Climate Tipping Points:

• Melting of Polar Ice Sheets: If polar ice sheets melt beyond a certain threshold, it could result in rapid sea level rise, with widespread consequences for coastal communities.

• Collapse of Coral Reefs: Tipping point: Once coral reefs reach a tipping point, such as bleaching events caused by prolonged heat stress, they can undergo rapid degradation and collapse, impacting marine ecosystems.

• Disruption of Ocean Circulation: If the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) slows down or collapses, it could lead to abrupt changes in regional climates, including cooling in parts of Europe.

• Thawing Permafrost: If permafrost reaches a tipping point where thawing accelerates, it could release significant amounts of greenhouse gases, exacerbating global warming.

• Loss of Amazon Rainforest: Tipping point: If deforestation and climate change lead to dieback of the Amazon rainforest, it could release stored carbon and alter regional and global climate patterns.

• Non-Tipping Points:

• Gradual Sea Level Rise: Unlike the rapid sea level rise associated with the melting of polar ice sheets, gradual sea level rise due to thermal expansion of ocean waters is a non-tipping point. While it can still have significant impacts, it occurs over longer timescales and does not involve abrupt shifts.

• Slow Changes in Carbon Dioxide Levels: Increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels due to human activities are gradual and ongoing, rather than occurring abruptly as a tipping point. However, the cumulative effect over time can still lead to significant climate change.

• Seasonal Changes in Temperature: Seasonal variations in temperature are part of natural climate cycles and are not considered tipping points. These changes occur predictably and do not lead to irreversible shifts in climate patterns.

• Moderate Weather Events: Common weather events like rainstorms, heatwaves, and cold snaps, while impactful locally, are not considered tipping points as they do not lead to sudden and irreversible changes in global climate patterns.

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Trend: Climate change/global warming

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

Climate Tipping Points:

• Melting of Polar Ice Sheets: If polar ice sheets melt beyond a certain threshold, it could result in rapid sea level rise, with widespread consequences for coastal communities.

• Thawing Permafrost: If permafrost reaches a tipping point where thawing accelerates, it could release significant amounts of greenhouse gases, exacerbating global warming.

• Non-Tipping Points:

• Hence, option(c) is correct.

Trend: Climate change/global warming

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points In the context of climate change, consider the following statements: Unchecked global warming would cut global output by 47% in the coming years. Climate change may cause additional deaths every year due to malnutrition, waterborne and foodborne diseases and allergies. Temperature extremes can cause the loss of labour hours and reduction in labour productivity each year. How many of the above given statements are *not correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: It is vital to assess the influence of climate change on global economy as well as the global financial system’s long-term stability. According to an estimate from the International Monetary Fund (IMF), unchecked global warming would cut global output by 7% by 2100. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Increase in pollution, vector bore diseases, decrease in availability of safe drinking water etc., has dangerous health impacts. Increasing warmth and precipitation will add to the risk of waterborne and foodborne diseases and allergies, and spur the proliferation of insects that spread diseases like Zika, West Nile, dengue and Lyme disease into new territories. The World Health Organization estimates that between 2030 and 2050, climate change may cause approximately 250,000 additional deaths per year due to malnutrition, malaria, diarrhoea and extreme heat and 7 million deaths due to air pollution by 2030. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Crop production is projected to decrease in many areas during the 21st century because of climatic changes. Higher temperatures tend to reduce crop yields and favor weed and pest proliferation. Climate change can have negative effects on irrigated crop yields across agro ecological regions both due to temperature rise and changes in water availability. Lost farming income, decreased outdoor labor productivity, rising food prices, increased sickness, and economic losses due to extreme weather will push up to 132 million additional people into extreme poverty by 2030, according to a World Bank report. Temperature extremes are also projected to cause the loss of two billion labour hours each year by 2090, resulting in $160 billion of lost wages. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Climate change/global warming Approach: Statement 1 is vague as it says ‘in the coming years’, considering it, it is not possible to quantify an exact 47%. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: It is vital to assess the influence of climate change on global economy as well as the global financial system’s long-term stability. According to an estimate from the International Monetary Fund (IMF), unchecked global warming would cut global output by 7% by 2100. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Increase in pollution, vector bore diseases, decrease in availability of safe drinking water etc., has dangerous health impacts. Increasing warmth and precipitation will add to the risk of waterborne and foodborne diseases and allergies, and spur the proliferation of insects that spread diseases like Zika, West Nile, dengue and Lyme disease into new territories. The World Health Organization estimates that between 2030 and 2050, climate change may cause approximately 250,000 additional deaths per year due to malnutrition, malaria, diarrhoea and extreme heat and 7 million deaths due to air pollution by 2030. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Crop production is projected to decrease in many areas during the 21st century because of climatic changes. Higher temperatures tend to reduce crop yields and favor weed and pest proliferation. Climate change can have negative effects on irrigated crop yields across agro ecological regions both due to temperature rise and changes in water availability. Lost farming income, decreased outdoor labor productivity, rising food prices, increased sickness, and economic losses due to extreme weather will push up to 132 million additional people into extreme poverty by 2030, according to a World Bank report. Temperature extremes are also projected to cause the loss of two billion labour hours each year by 2090, resulting in $160 billion of lost wages. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct. * Source: Science and technology Trend: Climate change/global warming Approach: Statement 1 is vague as it says ‘in the coming years’, considering it, it is not possible to quantify an exact 47%.

#### 4. Question

In the context of climate change, consider the following statements:

• Unchecked global warming would cut global output by 47% in the coming years.

• Climate change may cause additional deaths every year due to malnutrition, waterborne and foodborne diseases and allergies.

• Temperature extremes can cause the loss of labour hours and reduction in labour productivity each year.

How many of the above given statements are *not *correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• It is vital to assess the influence of climate change on global economy as well as the global financial system’s long-term stability.

• According to an estimate from the International Monetary Fund (IMF), unchecked global warming would cut global output by 7% by 2100. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Increase in pollution, vector bore diseases, decrease in availability of safe drinking water etc., has dangerous health impacts.

• Increasing warmth and precipitation will add to the risk of waterborne and foodborne diseases and allergies, and spur the proliferation of insects that spread diseases like Zika, West Nile, dengue and Lyme disease into new territories.

• The World Health Organization estimates that between 2030 and 2050, climate change may cause approximately 250,000 additional deaths per year due to malnutrition, malaria, diarrhoea and extreme heat and 7 million deaths due to air pollution by 2030. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Crop production is projected to decrease in many areas during the 21st century because of climatic changes.

• Higher temperatures tend to reduce crop yields and favor weed and pest proliferation.

• Climate change can have negative effects on irrigated crop yields across agro ecological regions both due to temperature rise and changes in water availability.

• Lost farming income, decreased outdoor labor productivity, rising food prices, increased sickness, and economic losses due to extreme weather will push up to 132 million additional people into extreme poverty by 2030, according to a World Bank report.

• Temperature extremes are also projected to cause the loss of two billion labour hours each year by 2090, resulting in $160 billion of lost wages. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Climate change/global warming

Approach: Statement 1 is vague as it says ‘in the coming years’, considering it, it is not possible to quantify an exact 47%.

Explanation:

• It is vital to assess the influence of climate change on global economy as well as the global financial system’s long-term stability.

• According to an estimate from the International Monetary Fund (IMF), unchecked global warming would cut global output by 7% by 2100. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Increase in pollution, vector bore diseases, decrease in availability of safe drinking water etc., has dangerous health impacts.

• Crop production is projected to decrease in many areas during the 21st century because of climatic changes.

• Higher temperatures tend to reduce crop yields and favor weed and pest proliferation.

• Climate change can have negative effects on irrigated crop yields across agro ecological regions both due to temperature rise and changes in water availability.

• Temperature extremes are also projected to cause the loss of two billion labour hours each year by 2090, resulting in $160 billion of lost wages. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Climate change/global warming

Approach: Statement 1 is vague as it says ‘in the coming years’, considering it, it is not possible to quantify an exact 47%.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points What is the target for reducing emissions intensity of India’s GDP by 2030 according to the Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC)? a) 20 to 25 percent from the 2005 level b) 30 to 35 percent from the 2010 level c) 33 to 35 percent from the 2005 level d) 40 to 45 percent from the 2015 level Correct Answer: c Explanation: India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) emphasizes promoting traditional and sustainable ways of living based on conservation and moderation principles. As per India’s INDC, the country aims to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from the 2005 level. India’s INDC sets a target of achieving about 40 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030. According to India’s INDC, the country aims to create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through the expansion of forest and tree cover by 2030. India’s INDC highlights the importance of enhancing investments in sectors vulnerable to climate change, such as agriculture, water resources, Himalayan region, coastal regions, health, and disaster management, to better adapt to climate impacts. India’s INDC emphasizes the mobilization of domestic and new and additional funds from developed countries to implement mitigation and adaptation actions due to resource requirements and gaps. India’s INDC underscores the need to build capacities and create a domestic framework for the quick diffusion of cutting-edge climate technology and for collaborative research and development of future technologies. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Climate change/global warming initiatives Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) emphasizes promoting traditional and sustainable ways of living based on conservation and moderation principles. As per India’s INDC, the country aims to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from the 2005 level. India’s INDC sets a target of achieving about 40 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030. According to India’s INDC, the country aims to create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through the expansion of forest and tree cover by 2030. India’s INDC highlights the importance of enhancing investments in sectors vulnerable to climate change, such as agriculture, water resources, Himalayan region, coastal regions, health, and disaster management, to better adapt to climate impacts. India’s INDC emphasizes the mobilization of domestic and new and additional funds from developed countries to implement mitigation and adaptation actions due to resource requirements and gaps. India’s INDC underscores the need to build capacities and create a domestic framework for the quick diffusion of cutting-edge climate technology and for collaborative research and development of future technologies. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Climate change/global warming initiatives Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

#### 5. Question

What is the target for reducing emissions intensity of India’s GDP by 2030 according to the Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC)?

• a) 20 to 25 percent from the 2005 level

• b) 30 to 35 percent from the 2010 level

• c) 33 to 35 percent from the 2005 level

• d) 40 to 45 percent from the 2015 level

Explanation:

• India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) emphasizes promoting traditional and sustainable ways of living based on conservation and moderation principles.

• As per India’s INDC, the country aims to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from the 2005 level.

• India’s INDC sets a target of achieving about 40 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030.

• According to India’s INDC, the country aims to create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through the expansion of forest and tree cover by 2030.

• India’s INDC highlights the importance of enhancing investments in sectors vulnerable to climate change, such as agriculture, water resources, Himalayan region, coastal regions, health, and disaster management, to better adapt to climate impacts.

• India’s INDC emphasizes the mobilization of domestic and new and additional funds from developed countries to implement mitigation and adaptation actions due to resource requirements and gaps.

• India’s INDC underscores the need to build capacities and create a domestic framework for the quick diffusion of cutting-edge climate technology and for collaborative research and development of future technologies.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Climate change/global warming initiatives

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

Explanation:

• India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) emphasizes promoting traditional and sustainable ways of living based on conservation and moderation principles.

• As per India’s INDC, the country aims to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from the 2005 level.

• India’s INDC sets a target of achieving about 40 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030.

• According to India’s INDC, the country aims to create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through the expansion of forest and tree cover by 2030.

• India’s INDC emphasizes the mobilization of domestic and new and additional funds from developed countries to implement mitigation and adaptation actions due to resource requirements and gaps.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Climate change/global warming initiatives

Approach: Factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following: Agriculture Transportation Power generation Industries Arrange the above in an ascending order of greenhouse gas emission per sector: a) 1-4-2-3 b) 3-4-2-1 c) 1-2-4-3 d) 2-3-4-1 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Climate change/global warming Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Climate change/global warming Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 6. Question

Consider the following:

• Agriculture

• Transportation

• Power generation

• Industries

Arrange the above in an ascending order of greenhouse gas emission per sector:

• a) 1-4-2-3

• b) 3-4-2-1

• c) 1-2-4-3

• d) 2-3-4-1

Explanation:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Climate change/global warming

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Climate change/global warming

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following influences Earth’s climate change? Quantity of greenhouse gasses in the atmosphere Carbon dioxide content of the oceans Strength of the Sun Changes in the Earth’s Orbit Vegetation coverage on the land Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1,2 and 5 only b) 1,2,3 and 5 only c) 1,2,4 and 5 only d) 1,2,3,4 and 5 Correct Answer: d Explanation: The Earth’s climate has changed throughout history. Just in the last 650,000 years there have been seven cycles of glacial advance and retreat, with the abrupt end of the last ice age about 7,000 years ago marking the beginning of the modern climate era — and of human civilization. Climate change happens naturally but it has been hastened exponentially due to human activities. Strength of Sun: Almost all of the energy that affects the climate on the Earth originates from the Sun. The energy emitted by the sun passes through space until it hits the Earth’s atmosphere. Only about 40 per cent of the solar energy intercepted at the top of the atmosphere passes through to the Earth’s surface. The rest is reflected or absorbed by the atmosphere. The energy output of the sun is not constant, it varies over time and it has an impact on our climate. Changes in the Earth’s Orbit: The Earth’s orbit around the Sun is an ellipse, not a circle but the ellipse changes shape. Sometimes it is almost circular and the Earth stays approximately the same distance from the Sun as it progresses around its orbit. At other times the ellipse is more pronounced so that the Earth moves closer and further away from the sun as it orbits. When the Earth is closer to the sun our climate is warmer. Vegetation coverage on the land: On a global scale, patterns of vegetation and climate are closely correlated. Vegetation absorbs carbon dioxide and this can buffer some of the effects of global warming. Quantity of Greenhouse gases in atmosphere: These include carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour. Of these three, water vapour makes the greatest contribution to the greenhouse effect because there is more of it. These gases trap solar radiation (electromagnetic radiation emitted by the Sun) in the Earth’s atmosphere, making the climate warmer. Carbon dioxide content of the oceans: The oceans contain more carbon dioxide (CO2) than the atmosphere and they can also absorb CO2 from the atmosphere. When the CO2 is in the oceans it does not trap heat as it does when it is in the atmosphere. If CO2 leaves the oceans and moves back into the atmosphere this can contribute towards a warmer climate. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Climate change/global warming Approach: All the given factors contribute to climate change Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The Earth’s climate has changed throughout history. Just in the last 650,000 years there have been seven cycles of glacial advance and retreat, with the abrupt end of the last ice age about 7,000 years ago marking the beginning of the modern climate era — and of human civilization. Climate change happens naturally but it has been hastened exponentially due to human activities. Strength of Sun: Almost all of the energy that affects the climate on the Earth originates from the Sun. The energy emitted by the sun passes through space until it hits the Earth’s atmosphere. Only about 40 per cent of the solar energy intercepted at the top of the atmosphere passes through to the Earth’s surface. The rest is reflected or absorbed by the atmosphere. The energy output of the sun is not constant, it varies over time and it has an impact on our climate. Changes in the Earth’s Orbit: The Earth’s orbit around the Sun is an ellipse, not a circle but the ellipse changes shape. Sometimes it is almost circular and the Earth stays approximately the same distance from the Sun as it progresses around its orbit. At other times the ellipse is more pronounced so that the Earth moves closer and further away from the sun as it orbits. When the Earth is closer to the sun our climate is warmer. Vegetation coverage on the land: On a global scale, patterns of vegetation and climate are closely correlated. Vegetation absorbs carbon dioxide and this can buffer some of the effects of global warming. Quantity of Greenhouse gases in atmosphere: These include carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour. Of these three, water vapour makes the greatest contribution to the greenhouse effect because there is more of it. These gases trap solar radiation (electromagnetic radiation emitted by the Sun) in the Earth’s atmosphere, making the climate warmer. Carbon dioxide content of the oceans: The oceans contain more carbon dioxide (CO2) than the atmosphere and they can also absorb CO2 from the atmosphere. When the CO2 is in the oceans it does not trap heat as it does when it is in the atmosphere. If CO2 leaves the oceans and moves back into the atmosphere this can contribute towards a warmer climate. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Climate change/global warming Approach: All the given factors contribute to climate change

#### 7. Question

Which of the following influences Earth’s climate change?

• Quantity of greenhouse gasses in the atmosphere

• Carbon dioxide content of the oceans

• Strength of the Sun

• Changes in the Earth’s Orbit

• Vegetation coverage on the land

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1,2 and 5 only

• b) 1,2,3 and 5 only

• c) 1,2,4 and 5 only

• d) 1,2,3,4 and 5

Explanation:

• The Earth’s climate has changed throughout history. Just in the last 650,000 years there have been seven cycles of glacial advance and retreat, with the abrupt end of the last ice age about 7,000 years ago marking the beginning of the modern climate era — and of human civilization. Climate change happens naturally but it has been hastened exponentially due to human activities.

• Strength of Sun: Almost all of the energy that affects the climate on the Earth originates from the Sun. The energy emitted by the sun passes through space until it hits the Earth’s atmosphere. Only about 40 per cent of the solar energy intercepted at the top of the atmosphere passes through to the Earth’s surface. The rest is reflected or absorbed by the atmosphere. The energy output of the sun is not constant, it varies over time and it has an impact on our climate.

• Changes in the Earth’s Orbit: The Earth’s orbit around the Sun is an ellipse, not a circle but the ellipse changes shape. Sometimes it is almost circular and the Earth stays approximately the same distance from the Sun as it progresses around its orbit. At other times the ellipse is more pronounced so that the Earth moves closer and further away from the sun as it orbits. When the Earth is closer to the sun our climate is warmer.

• Vegetation coverage on the land: On a global scale, patterns of vegetation and climate are closely correlated. Vegetation absorbs carbon dioxide and this can buffer some of the effects of global warming.

• Quantity of Greenhouse gases in atmosphere: These include carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour. Of these three, water vapour makes the greatest contribution to the greenhouse effect because there is more of it. These gases trap solar radiation (electromagnetic radiation emitted by the Sun) in the Earth’s atmosphere, making the climate warmer.

• Carbon dioxide content of the oceans: The oceans contain more carbon dioxide (CO2) than the atmosphere and they can also absorb CO2 from the atmosphere. When the CO2 is in the oceans it does not trap heat as it does when it is in the atmosphere. If CO2 leaves the oceans and moves back into the atmosphere this can contribute towards a warmer climate.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Climate change/global warming

Approach: All the given factors contribute to climate change

Explanation:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Climate change/global warming

Approach: All the given factors contribute to climate change

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Global Warming Potential (GWP) allows for the comparison of the warming effects of various gases based on their ability to absorb and retain heat in the atmosphere. Statement-II: Gases such as methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O), have higher GWP than that of carbon dioxide (CO2). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Global Warming Potential (GWP) is a measure that allows for the comparison of the warming effects of different greenhouse gases over a specified time period, usually 100 years. It quantifies how much heat a greenhouse gas traps in the atmosphere relative to carbon dioxide (CO2), which is assigned a GWP of 1. The global warming potential of each gas describes its impact on global warming. In terms of climate impact, the two most important characteristics of a GHG are: How well the gas absorbs energy (preventing it from immediately escaping to space); How long the gas remains in the atmosphere. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a gas is a measure of how much energy a gas absorbs over a specific time period (usually 100 years) when compared to carbon dioxide. Gases with a higher GWP absorb more energy per pound than gases with a lower GWP, contributing more to global warming. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Carbon dioxide is the reference gas with a GWP of 1.Gases such as methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O) indeed have higher Global Warming Potentials (GWPs) than carbon dioxide (CO2). For example, methane has a GWP around 28-36 times that of CO2 over a 100-year period, while nitrous oxide has a GWP around 265-298 times that of CO2 over the same period. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. It does not explain how the Global Warming Potential (GWP) allows for the comparison of the warming effects of various gases based on their ability to absorb and retain heat in the atmosphere. Hence, Option (b) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Climate change/global warming Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Global Warming Potential (GWP) is a measure that allows for the comparison of the warming effects of different greenhouse gases over a specified time period, usually 100 years. It quantifies how much heat a greenhouse gas traps in the atmosphere relative to carbon dioxide (CO2), which is assigned a GWP of 1. The global warming potential of each gas describes its impact on global warming. In terms of climate impact, the two most important characteristics of a GHG are: How well the gas absorbs energy (preventing it from immediately escaping to space); How long the gas remains in the atmosphere. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a gas is a measure of how much energy a gas absorbs over a specific time period (usually 100 years) when compared to carbon dioxide. Gases with a higher GWP absorb more energy per pound than gases with a lower GWP, contributing more to global warming. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Carbon dioxide is the reference gas with a GWP of 1.Gases such as methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O) indeed have higher Global Warming Potentials (GWPs) than carbon dioxide (CO2). For example, methane has a GWP around 28-36 times that of CO2 over a 100-year period, while nitrous oxide has a GWP around 265-298 times that of CO2 over the same period. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. It does not explain how the Global Warming Potential (GWP) allows for the comparison of the warming effects of various gases based on their ability to absorb and retain heat in the atmosphere. Hence, Option (b) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Climate change/global warming Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

The Global Warming Potential (GWP) allows for the comparison of the warming effects of various gases based on their ability to absorb and retain heat in the atmosphere.

Statement-II:

Gases such as methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O), have higher GWP than that of carbon dioxide (CO2).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

• The Global Warming Potential (GWP) is a measure that allows for the comparison of the warming effects of different greenhouse gases over a specified time period, usually 100 years. It quantifies how much heat a greenhouse gas traps in the atmosphere relative to carbon dioxide (CO2), which is assigned a GWP of 1.

• The global warming potential of each gas describes its impact on global warming. In terms of climate impact, the two most important characteristics of a GHG are:

• How well the gas absorbs energy (preventing it from immediately escaping to space);

• How long the gas remains in the atmosphere.

• The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a gas is a measure of how much energy a gas absorbs over a specific time period (usually 100 years) when compared to carbon dioxide. Gases with a higher GWP absorb more energy per pound than gases with a lower GWP, contributing more to global warming. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Carbon dioxide is the reference gas with a GWP of 1.Gases such as methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O) indeed have higher Global Warming Potentials (GWPs) than carbon dioxide (CO2). For example, methane has a GWP around 28-36 times that of CO2 over a 100-year period, while nitrous oxide has a GWP around 265-298 times that of CO2 over the same period. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. It does not explain how the Global Warming Potential (GWP) allows for the comparison of the warming effects of various gases based on their ability to absorb and retain heat in the atmosphere.

• Hence, Option (b) is correct.

Trend: Climate change/global warming

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• The global warming potential of each gas describes its impact on global warming. In terms of climate impact, the two most important characteristics of a GHG are:

• How well the gas absorbs energy (preventing it from immediately escaping to space);

• How long the gas remains in the atmosphere.

• Hence, Option (b) is correct.

Trend: Climate change/global warming

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points The release of heavy metals such as mercury and lead into the environment is associated with which type of mining? a) Surface mining b) Subsurface mining c) Placer mining d) Hydraulic mining Correct Answer: b Explanation: Subsurface mining involves extracting minerals and ores that are located deep within the Earth’s surface, often at considerable depths underground. This type of mining is associated with the release of heavy metals such as mercury and lead into the environment due to various reasons like inherent presence, accidental release, water contamination air pollution. While other types of mining, such as surface mining, placer mining, and hydraulic mining, can also have environmental impacts, subsurface mining is particularly associated with the release of heavy metals due to the depth at which mining operations take place and the nature of the ores extracted Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Pollution/soil degradation Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Subsurface mining involves extracting minerals and ores that are located deep within the Earth’s surface, often at considerable depths underground. This type of mining is associated with the release of heavy metals such as mercury and lead into the environment due to various reasons like inherent presence, accidental release, water contamination air pollution. While other types of mining, such as surface mining, placer mining, and hydraulic mining, can also have environmental impacts, subsurface mining is particularly associated with the release of heavy metals due to the depth at which mining operations take place and the nature of the ores extracted Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Pollution/soil degradation Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 9. Question

The release of heavy metals such as mercury and lead into the environment is associated with which type of mining?

• a) Surface mining

• b) Subsurface mining

• c) Placer mining

• d) Hydraulic mining

Explanation:

• Subsurface mining involves extracting minerals and ores that are located deep within the Earth’s surface, often at considerable depths underground. This type of mining is associated with the release of heavy metals such as mercury and lead into the environment due to various reasons like inherent presence, accidental release, water contamination air pollution.

• While other types of mining, such as surface mining, placer mining, and hydraulic mining, can also have environmental impacts, subsurface mining is particularly associated with the release of heavy metals due to the depth at which mining operations take place and the nature of the ores extracted

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Pollution/soil degradation

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Pollution/soil degradation

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points According to the World Health Organization (WHO), what is the recommended maximum noise level for residential areas during the daytime? a) 60 decibels (dB) b) 70 decibels (dB) c) 80 decibels (dB) d) 90 decibels (dB) Correct Answer: a Explanation: According to the World Health Organization (WHO), the recommended maximum noise level for residential areas during the daytime is typically around 55 to 60 decibels (dB) as an average noise level over a 24-hour period. This level is considered acceptable for maintaining a healthy living environment and minimizing the adverse effects of noise pollution on human health and well-being. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: According to the World Health Organization (WHO), the recommended maximum noise level for residential areas during the daytime is typically around 55 to 60 decibels (dB) as an average noise level over a 24-hour period. This level is considered acceptable for maintaining a healthy living environment and minimizing the adverse effects of noise pollution on human health and well-being. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

#### 10. Question

According to the World Health Organization (WHO), what is the recommended maximum noise level for residential areas during the daytime?

• a) 60 decibels (dB)

• b) 70 decibels (dB)

• c) 80 decibels (dB)

• d) 90 decibels (dB)

Explanation:

• According to the World Health Organization (WHO), the recommended maximum noise level for residential areas during the daytime is typically around 55 to 60 decibels (dB) as an average noise level over a 24-hour period. This level is considered acceptable for maintaining a healthy living environment and minimizing the adverse effects of noise pollution on human health and well-being.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points With reference to the Cryptogams, consider the following statements: They refer to a flowerless and seedless plants that reproduce through spores. Traditionally they are grouped into Thallophytes, Bryophytes and Pteridophytes. They are considered the building blocks of every kind of ecosystem on the earth. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The term “Cryptogams” is imputable to the flowerless and seedless group of plants having hidden sex organs, reproducing via spores. These plants were placed by Linnaeus in his 25th class Cryptogamia, where he let in Algae, Fungi, Bryophytes and Pteridophytes. Statement 2 is correct: Traditionally the Cryptogams are grouped in Thallophyte, Bryophyte and Pteridophyte. Thallophyte includes Algae, fungi, lichens and Bacteria but nowadays bacteria are treated independently from plants. The Bryophytes include liverworts, Hornworts and mosses and Pteridophytes include ferns and their allies. Statement 3 is correct: Cryptogams are the building blocks of every kind of ecosystem on the earth and inherent part of biodiversity. They provide the suitable atmosphere for the growth of higher plants, insects and animals, and play a pivotal role in ecosystem services such as climate regulation, environmental monitoring, water purification, nutrient cycling, modification of habitat, etc. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The term “Cryptogams” is imputable to the flowerless and seedless group of plants having hidden sex organs, reproducing via spores. These plants were placed by Linnaeus in his 25th class Cryptogamia, where he let in Algae, Fungi, Bryophytes and Pteridophytes. Statement 2 is correct: Traditionally the Cryptogams are grouped in Thallophyte, Bryophyte and Pteridophyte. Thallophyte includes Algae, fungi, lichens and Bacteria but nowadays bacteria are treated independently from plants. The Bryophytes include liverworts, Hornworts and mosses and Pteridophytes include ferns and their allies. Statement 3 is correct: Cryptogams are the building blocks of every kind of ecosystem on the earth and inherent part of biodiversity. They provide the suitable atmosphere for the growth of higher plants, insects and animals, and play a pivotal role in ecosystem services such as climate regulation, environmental monitoring, water purification, nutrient cycling, modification of habitat, etc. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

#### 11. Question

With reference to the Cryptogams, consider the following statements:

• They refer to a flowerless and seedless plants that reproduce through spores.

• Traditionally they are grouped into Thallophytes, Bryophytes and Pteridophytes.

• They are considered the building blocks of every kind of ecosystem on the earth.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The term “Cryptogams” is imputable to the flowerless and seedless group of plants having hidden sex organs, reproducing via spores.

These plants were placed by Linnaeus in his 25th class Cryptogamia, where he let in Algae, Fungi, Bryophytes and Pteridophytes.

Statement 2 is correct: Traditionally the Cryptogams are grouped in Thallophyte, Bryophyte and Pteridophyte. Thallophyte includes Algae, fungi, lichens and Bacteria but nowadays bacteria are treated independently from plants.

The Bryophytes include liverworts, Hornworts and mosses and Pteridophytes include ferns and their allies.

Statement 3 is correct: Cryptogams are the building blocks of every kind of ecosystem on the earth and inherent part of biodiversity.

They provide the suitable atmosphere for the growth of higher plants, insects and animals, and play a pivotal role in ecosystem services such as climate regulation, environmental monitoring, water purification, nutrient cycling, modification of habitat, etc.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The term “Cryptogams” is imputable to the flowerless and seedless group of plants having hidden sex organs, reproducing via spores.

These plants were placed by Linnaeus in his 25th class Cryptogamia, where he let in Algae, Fungi, Bryophytes and Pteridophytes.

The Bryophytes include liverworts, Hornworts and mosses and Pteridophytes include ferns and their allies.

Statement 3 is correct: Cryptogams are the building blocks of every kind of ecosystem on the earth and inherent part of biodiversity.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the “MY BHARAT” Platform: Its objectives include improving leadership skills through experiential learning. It is an autonomous body set up to benefit the youth and senior citizens of India. It comprises physical activities along with an opportunity to connect digitally. How many of the statements given above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: ‘Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat)’ is envisioned as a pivotal, technology-driven facilitator for youth development and youth-led development, with the overarching goal of providing equitable opportunities to empower the youth in realizing their aspirations and contributing to the creation of a “Viksit Bharat” (developed India), across the entire spectrum of the Government. Statement 2 is not correct: Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat), an autonomous body will benefit the youth in the age group of 15-29 years, in line with the definition of ‘Youth’ in the National Youth Policy. The beneficiaries will be in the age-group of 10-19 years. Statement 3 is correct: Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) is ‘Phygital Platform’ (physical + digital) comprising physical activity along with an opportunity to connect digitally. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in news Approach: Considering statement 1 and 3 to be correct, the subject matter in statement 2 is not relevant. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: ‘Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat)’ is envisioned as a pivotal, technology-driven facilitator for youth development and youth-led development, with the overarching goal of providing equitable opportunities to empower the youth in realizing their aspirations and contributing to the creation of a “Viksit Bharat” (developed India), across the entire spectrum of the Government. Statement 2 is not correct: Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat), an autonomous body will benefit the youth in the age group of 15-29 years, in line with the definition of ‘Youth’ in the National Youth Policy. The beneficiaries will be in the age-group of 10-19 years. Statement 3 is correct: Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) is ‘Phygital Platform’ (physical + digital) comprising physical activity along with an opportunity to connect digitally. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in news Approach: Considering statement 1 and 3 to be correct, the subject matter in statement 2 is not relevant.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the “MY BHARAT” Platform:

• Its objectives include improving leadership skills through experiential learning.

• It is an autonomous body set up to benefit the youth and senior citizens of India.

• It comprises physical activities along with an opportunity to connect digitally.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: ‘Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat)’ is envisioned as a pivotal, technology-driven facilitator for youth development and youth-led development, with the overarching goal of providing equitable opportunities to empower the youth in realizing their aspirations and contributing to the creation of a “Viksit Bharat” (developed India), across the entire spectrum of the Government.

Statement 2 is not correct: Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat), an autonomous body will benefit the youth in the age group of 15-29 years, in line with the definition of ‘Youth’ in the National Youth Policy. The beneficiaries will be in the age-group of 10-19 years.

Statement 3 is correct: Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) is ‘Phygital Platform’ (physical + digital) comprising physical activity along with an opportunity to connect digitally.

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: Considering statement 1 and 3 to be correct, the subject matter in statement 2 is not relevant.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 3 is correct: Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) is ‘Phygital Platform’ (physical + digital) comprising physical activity along with an opportunity to connect digitally.

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: Considering statement 1 and 3 to be correct, the subject matter in statement 2 is not relevant.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following passage: This is the first space mission to explore a diverse small bodies known as the Jupiter Trojan asteroids. It will fly by Earth to get a push from its gravity, making it the first spacecraft to return to the vicinity of Earth from the outer solar system. The mission promises to expand the knowledge of planetary origins. Which one of the following space missions is best described in the passage given above? (a) The MOXIE Mission (b) The Artemis Mission (c) The JUNO Mission (d) The LUCY Mission Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (a) is not correct: The Mars Oxygen In-Situ Resource Utilization Experiment, or MOXIE, is helping NASA prepare for human exploration of Mars. Option (b) is not correct: With the Artemis campaign, NASA will land the first woman and first person of color on the Moon, using innovative technologies to explore more of the lunar surface than ever before. Option (c) is not correct: NASA’s Juno spacecraft has been probing beneath the dense, clouds encircling the giant planet Jupiter. It seeks answers to questions about the origin and evolution of Jupiter, our solar system, and giant planets across the cosmos. Option (d) is correct: NASA’s Lucy Mission/spacecraft will explore a record-breaking number of asteroids, flying by three asteroids in the solar system’s main asteroid belt, and by eight Trojan asteroids that share an orbit around the Sun with Jupiter. It is the first mission to explore the Jupiter Trojan asteroids. Trojan asteroids orbit in two “swarms” that lead and follow Jupiter in its orbit around the Sun and are thought to be comparable in number to the objects in the main asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. Source: Science and technology Trend: Space exploration Approach: factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (a) is not correct: The Mars Oxygen In-Situ Resource Utilization Experiment, or MOXIE, is helping NASA prepare for human exploration of Mars. Option (b) is not correct: With the Artemis campaign, NASA will land the first woman and first person of color on the Moon, using innovative technologies to explore more of the lunar surface than ever before. Option (c) is not correct: NASA’s Juno spacecraft has been probing beneath the dense, clouds encircling the giant planet Jupiter. It seeks answers to questions about the origin and evolution of Jupiter, our solar system, and giant planets across the cosmos. Option (d) is correct: NASA’s Lucy Mission/spacecraft will explore a record-breaking number of asteroids, flying by three asteroids in the solar system’s main asteroid belt, and by eight Trojan asteroids that share an orbit around the Sun with Jupiter. It is the first mission to explore the Jupiter Trojan asteroids. Trojan asteroids orbit in two “swarms” that lead and follow Jupiter in its orbit around the Sun and are thought to be comparable in number to the objects in the main asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. Source: Science and technology Trend: Space exploration Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

#### 13. Question

Consider the following passage:

This is the first space mission to explore a diverse small bodies known as the Jupiter Trojan asteroids. It will fly by Earth to get a push from its gravity, making it the first spacecraft to return to the vicinity of Earth from the outer solar system. The mission promises to expand the knowledge of planetary origins.

Which one of the following space missions is best described in the passage given above?

• (a) The MOXIE Mission

• (b) The Artemis Mission

• (c) The JUNO Mission

• (d) The LUCY Mission

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (a) is not correct: The Mars Oxygen In-Situ Resource Utilization Experiment, or MOXIE, is helping NASA prepare for human exploration of Mars.

Option (b) is not correct: With the Artemis campaign, NASA will land the first woman and first person of color on the Moon, using innovative technologies to explore more of the lunar surface than ever before.

Option (c) is not correct: NASA’s Juno spacecraft has been probing beneath the dense, clouds encircling the giant planet Jupiter. It seeks answers to questions about the origin and evolution of Jupiter, our solar system, and giant planets across the cosmos.

Option (d) is correct: NASA’s Lucy Mission/spacecraft will explore a record-breaking number of asteroids, flying by three asteroids in the solar system’s main asteroid belt, and by eight Trojan asteroids that share an orbit around the Sun with Jupiter. It is the first mission to explore the Jupiter Trojan asteroids.

Trojan asteroids orbit in two “swarms” that lead and follow Jupiter in its orbit around the Sun and are thought to be comparable in number to the objects in the main asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

Trend: Space exploration

Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (a) is not correct: The Mars Oxygen In-Situ Resource Utilization Experiment, or MOXIE, is helping NASA prepare for human exploration of Mars.

Trend: Space exploration

Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Which one of the following diseases known as the River Blindness, is a Neglected Tropical Disease and is being eliminated by the World Health Organisation through the “GONE” Initiative? (a) Trachoma (b) Thalassemia (c) Onchocerciasis (d) Encephalitis Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Onchocerciasis (also known as river blindness) is the second leading infectious cause of blindness after trachoma. It is classified as a neglected tropical disease (NTD). It can cause intense itching, rashes, skin discoloration, visual impairment and eye disease leading to permanent blindness. The parasite is spread by the bites of infected black flies that breed in rapidly flowing rivers. Four countries have been verified by the World Health Organization (WHO) for eliminating transmission of the disease: Colombia, Ecuador, Guatemala and Mexico. Senegal was selected for the first meeting of the Global Onchocerciasis Elimination Network (GONE) to strengthen collaboration among countries and partners. GONE is a country-driven initiative supported by WHO, with an emphasis on being pragmatic, flexible and solutions-oriented to meet the needs of national programmes. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International institutions/bodies Approach: factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Onchocerciasis (also known as river blindness) is the second leading infectious cause of blindness after trachoma. It is classified as a neglected tropical disease (NTD). It can cause intense itching, rashes, skin discoloration, visual impairment and eye disease leading to permanent blindness. The parasite is spread by the bites of infected black flies that breed in rapidly flowing rivers. Four countries have been verified by the World Health Organization (WHO) for eliminating transmission of the disease: Colombia, Ecuador, Guatemala and Mexico. Senegal was selected for the first meeting of the Global Onchocerciasis Elimination Network (GONE) to strengthen collaboration among countries and partners. GONE is a country-driven initiative supported by WHO, with an emphasis on being pragmatic, flexible and solutions-oriented to meet the needs of national programmes. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International institutions/bodies Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

#### 14. Question

Which one of the following diseases known as the River Blindness, is a Neglected Tropical Disease and is being eliminated by the World Health Organisation through the “GONE” Initiative?

• (a) Trachoma

• (b) Thalassemia

• (c) Onchocerciasis

• (d) Encephalitis

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Onchocerciasis (also known as river blindness) is the second leading infectious cause of blindness after trachoma. It is classified as a neglected tropical disease (NTD).

• It can cause intense itching, rashes, skin discoloration, visual impairment and eye disease leading to permanent blindness.

• The parasite is spread by the bites of infected black flies that breed in rapidly flowing rivers.

• Four countries have been verified by the World Health Organization (WHO) for eliminating transmission of the disease: Colombia, Ecuador, Guatemala and Mexico.

• Senegal was selected for the first meeting of the Global Onchocerciasis Elimination Network (GONE) to strengthen collaboration among countries and partners.

• GONE is a country-driven initiative supported by WHO, with an emphasis on being pragmatic, flexible and solutions-oriented to meet the needs of national programmes.

Trend: International institutions/bodies

Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Onchocerciasis (also known as river blindness) is the second leading infectious cause of blindness after trachoma. It is classified as a neglected tropical disease (NTD).

• It can cause intense itching, rashes, skin discoloration, visual impairment and eye disease leading to permanent blindness.

• The parasite is spread by the bites of infected black flies that breed in rapidly flowing rivers.

• Four countries have been verified by the World Health Organization (WHO) for eliminating transmission of the disease: Colombia, Ecuador, Guatemala and Mexico.

• Senegal was selected for the first meeting of the Global Onchocerciasis Elimination Network (GONE) to strengthen collaboration among countries and partners.

• GONE is a country-driven initiative supported by WHO, with an emphasis on being pragmatic, flexible and solutions-oriented to meet the needs of national programmes.

Trend: International institutions/bodies

Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Places in news Associated Regions Isthmus of Kra South China Sea Lake Titicaca Horn of Africa Mongla Port Bay of Bengal Mont Blanc Russian Far East How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: A Explanation: Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The Kra Isthmus in Thailand is the narrowest part of the Malay Peninsula. The Isthmus, is a narrow strip of land that connects the Andaman Sea and the Gulf of Thailand. Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Lake Titicaca is located between Peru and Bolivia and is the largest freshwater lake in South America. Pair 3 is correctly matched: Mongla Port is the second-largest seaport in Bangladesh, is located near the Bay of Bengal’s coastline. Bangladesh made a significant decision by granting India permission to use Mongla port to transit and trans-shipment cargo vessels. Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Mont Blanc, French for “white mountain”, is the highest mountain in the Alps and Western Europe. Mont Blanc is the second most renowned mountain after Mount Elbrus, and the eleventh most prominent mountain peak in the world. Source: Geography Trend: Places in news Approach: factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The Kra Isthmus in Thailand is the narrowest part of the Malay Peninsula. The Isthmus, is a narrow strip of land that connects the Andaman Sea and the Gulf of Thailand. Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Lake Titicaca is located between Peru and Bolivia and is the largest freshwater lake in South America. Pair 3 is correctly matched: Mongla Port is the second-largest seaport in Bangladesh, is located near the Bay of Bengal’s coastline. Bangladesh made a significant decision by granting India permission to use Mongla port to transit and trans-shipment cargo vessels. Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Mont Blanc, French for “white mountain”, is the highest mountain in the Alps and Western Europe. Mont Blanc is the second most renowned mountain after Mount Elbrus, and the eleventh most prominent mountain peak in the world. Source: Geography Trend: Places in news Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

#### 15. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Places in news Associated Regions

• Isthmus of Kra South China Sea

• Lake Titicaca Horn of Africa

• Mongla Port Bay of Bengal

• Mont Blanc Russian Far East

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: A

Explanation:

Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The Kra Isthmus in Thailand is the narrowest part of the Malay Peninsula. The Isthmus, is a narrow strip of land that connects the Andaman Sea and the Gulf of Thailand.

Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Lake Titicaca is located between Peru and Bolivia and is the largest freshwater lake in South America.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Mongla Port is the second-largest seaport in Bangladesh, is located near the Bay of Bengal’s coastline.

Bangladesh made a significant decision by granting India permission to use Mongla port to transit and trans-shipment cargo vessels.

Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Mont Blanc, French for “white mountain”, is the highest mountain in the Alps and Western Europe.

Mont Blanc is the second most renowned mountain after Mount Elbrus, and the eleventh most prominent mountain peak in the world.

Trend: Places in news

Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Lake Titicaca is located between Peru and Bolivia and is the largest freshwater lake in South America.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Mongla Port is the second-largest seaport in Bangladesh, is located near the Bay of Bengal’s coastline.

Bangladesh made a significant decision by granting India permission to use Mongla port to transit and trans-shipment cargo vessels.

Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Mont Blanc, French for “white mountain”, is the highest mountain in the Alps and Western Europe.

Mont Blanc is the second most renowned mountain after Mount Elbrus, and the eleventh most prominent mountain peak in the world.

Trend: Places in news

Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following effects regarding ocean acidification: Coral bleaching and destruction of coral reefs Weakening of the shells of certain shellfish Increased growth of seagrasses How many of the above are potential impacts of ocean acidification? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: C All the statements are correct. Ocean acidification is a global threat to the world’s oceans, estuaries, and waterways. It is often called “climate change’s evil twin” and is projected to grow as carbon dioxide continues to be emitted into the atmosphere at record-high levels. Like a sponge, our oceans are absorbing increasing amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. This exchange helps regulate the planet’s atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations, but comes at a cost for the oceans and sea life, particularly shellfish such as commercially valuable oysters and clams. Ocean acidification is best known for its osteoporosis-like effects on shellfish, which makes building and maintaining shells difficult for these creatures. Acidification also affects other species vital to the marine ecosystem, including reef-building corals and pteropods (tiny snails eaten by numerous species such as fish and whales). The impacts of ocean acidification are not uniform across all species. Some algae and seagrass may benefit from higher CO2 concentrations in the ocean, as they may increase their photosynthetic and growth rates. However, a more acidic environment will harm other marine species such as molluscs, corals and some varieties of plankton Source: https://www.ipcc.ch/report/ar6/wg2/chapter/chapter-3/ Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C All the statements are correct. Ocean acidification is a global threat to the world’s oceans, estuaries, and waterways. It is often called “climate change’s evil twin” and is projected to grow as carbon dioxide continues to be emitted into the atmosphere at record-high levels. Like a sponge, our oceans are absorbing increasing amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. This exchange helps regulate the planet’s atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations, but comes at a cost for the oceans and sea life, particularly shellfish such as commercially valuable oysters and clams. Ocean acidification is best known for its osteoporosis-like effects on shellfish, which makes building and maintaining shells difficult for these creatures. Acidification also affects other species vital to the marine ecosystem, including reef-building corals and pteropods (tiny snails eaten by numerous species such as fish and whales). The impacts of ocean acidification are not uniform across all species. Some algae and seagrass may benefit from higher CO2 concentrations in the ocean, as they may increase their photosynthetic and growth rates. However, a more acidic environment will harm other marine species such as molluscs, corals and some varieties of plankton Source: https://www.ipcc.ch/report/ar6/wg2/chapter/chapter-3/ Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 16. Question

Consider the following effects regarding ocean acidification:

• Coral bleaching and destruction of coral reefs

• Weakening of the shells of certain shellfish

• Increased growth of seagrasses

How many of the above are potential impacts of ocean acidification?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: C

All the statements are correct.

Ocean acidification is a global threat to the world’s oceans, estuaries, and waterways. It is often called “climate change’s evil twin” and is projected to grow as carbon dioxide continues to be emitted into the atmosphere at record-high levels.

Like a sponge, our oceans are absorbing increasing amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. This exchange helps regulate the planet’s atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations, but comes at a cost for the oceans and sea life, particularly shellfish such as commercially valuable oysters and clams. Ocean acidification is best known for its osteoporosis-like effects on shellfish, which makes building and maintaining shells difficult for these creatures. Acidification also affects other species vital to the marine ecosystem, including reef-building corals and pteropods (tiny snails eaten by numerous species such as fish and whales).

The impacts of ocean acidification are not uniform across all species. Some algae and seagrass may benefit from higher CO2 concentrations in the ocean, as they may increase their photosynthetic and growth rates. However, a more acidic environment will harm other marine species such as molluscs, corals and some varieties of plankton

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: C

All the statements are correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Which ecosystem acts as a significant carbon sink on Earth? (a) Deserts (b) Tundra (c) Oceans (d) Urban Areas Correct Solution: C The oceans are considered to be a significant carbon sink on Earth. They play a vital role in absorbing atmospheric carbon through both biological and physical processes. In terms of carbon storage capacity, the ocean contains about 50 times more carbon than the atmosphere and potentially acts as the largest carbon sink on Earth. Source: https://ocean-climate.org/en/awareness/the-ocean-a-carbon-sink/ Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C The oceans are considered to be a significant carbon sink on Earth. They play a vital role in absorbing atmospheric carbon through both biological and physical processes. In terms of carbon storage capacity, the ocean contains about 50 times more carbon than the atmosphere and potentially acts as the largest carbon sink on Earth. Source: https://ocean-climate.org/en/awareness/the-ocean-a-carbon-sink/ Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 17. Question

Which ecosystem acts as a significant carbon sink on Earth?

• (a) Deserts

• (b) Tundra

• (c) Oceans

• (d) Urban Areas

Solution: C

The oceans are considered to be a significant carbon sink on Earth. They play a vital role in absorbing atmospheric carbon through both biological and physical processes.

In terms of carbon storage capacity, the ocean contains about 50 times more carbon than the atmosphere and potentially acts as the largest carbon sink on Earth.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: C

The oceans are considered to be a significant carbon sink on Earth. They play a vital role in absorbing atmospheric carbon through both biological and physical processes.

In terms of carbon storage capacity, the ocean contains about 50 times more carbon than the atmosphere and potentially acts as the largest carbon sink on Earth.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following uses of various gases: Foam blowing agents Refrigerants in cooling systems Fire extinguishing agents Air conditioning How many of the above traditionally use or have used hydrofluorocarbons? a) Only one b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are a group of synthetic gases primarily used for cooling and refrigeration. Many HFCs are very powerful, short-lived climate pollutants with an average atmospheric lifetime of 15 years. Though HFCs currently represent around 2% of total greenhouse gases, their impact on global warming can be hundreds to thousands of times greater than that of carbon dioxide (CO2) per unit of mass. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are used in applications such as air conditioning, refrigeration, fire suppression, solvents, foam blowing agents, and aerosols. HFCs are greenhouse gases with global warming potentials (GWPs) that can be hundreds to thousands of times more potent than carbon dioxide (CO2) Source: https://www.ccacoalition.org/short-lived-climate-pollutants/hydrofluorocarbons-hfcs Trend: Global warming- use of hydrocarbons Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: D Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are a group of synthetic gases primarily used for cooling and refrigeration. Many HFCs are very powerful, short-lived climate pollutants with an average atmospheric lifetime of 15 years. Though HFCs currently represent around 2% of total greenhouse gases, their impact on global warming can be hundreds to thousands of times greater than that of carbon dioxide (CO2) per unit of mass. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are used in applications such as air conditioning, refrigeration, fire suppression, solvents, foam blowing agents, and aerosols. HFCs are greenhouse gases with global warming potentials (GWPs) that can be hundreds to thousands of times more potent than carbon dioxide (CO2) Source: https://www.ccacoalition.org/short-lived-climate-pollutants/hydrofluorocarbons-hfcs Trend: Global warming- use of hydrocarbons Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 18. Question

Consider the following uses of various gases:

• Foam blowing agents

• Refrigerants in cooling systems

• Fire extinguishing agents

• Air conditioning

How many of the above traditionally use or have used hydrofluorocarbons?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are a group of synthetic gases primarily used for cooling and refrigeration. Many HFCs are very powerful, short-lived climate pollutants with an average atmospheric lifetime of 15 years.

Though HFCs currently represent around 2% of total greenhouse gases, their impact on global warming can be hundreds to thousands of times greater than that of carbon dioxide (CO2) per unit of mass.

Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are used in applications such as air conditioning, refrigeration, fire suppression, solvents, foam blowing agents, and aerosols. HFCs are greenhouse gases with global warming potentials (GWPs) that can be hundreds to thousands of times more potent than carbon dioxide (CO2)

Trend: Global warming- use of hydrocarbons

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: D

Though HFCs currently represent around 2% of total greenhouse gases, their impact on global warming can be hundreds to thousands of times greater than that of carbon dioxide (CO2) per unit of mass.

Trend: Global warming- use of hydrocarbons

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Which one of the following seas is known for its significant shrinkage due to irrigation and water diversion projects? (a) The North Sea (b) The Black Sea (c) The Aral Sea (d) The Caspian Sea Correct Solution: C In the 1960s, the Soviet Union undertook a major water diversion project on the arid plains of Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, and Turkmenistan. The region’s two major rivers, fed by snowmelt and precipitation in faraway mountains, were used to transform the desert into farms for cotton and other crops. Before the project, the Syr Darya and the Amu Darya rivers flowed down from the mountains, cut northwest through the Kyzylkum Desert, and finally pooled together in the lowest part of the basin. The lake they made, the Aral Sea, was once the fourth largest in the world. Although irrigation made the desert bloom, it devastated the Aral Sea. Source: https://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/world-of-change/AralSea Trend: Question on Aral sea, has been previously asked in UPSC’s examination Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C In the 1960s, the Soviet Union undertook a major water diversion project on the arid plains of Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, and Turkmenistan. The region’s two major rivers, fed by snowmelt and precipitation in faraway mountains, were used to transform the desert into farms for cotton and other crops. Before the project, the Syr Darya and the Amu Darya rivers flowed down from the mountains, cut northwest through the Kyzylkum Desert, and finally pooled together in the lowest part of the basin. The lake they made, the Aral Sea, was once the fourth largest in the world. Although irrigation made the desert bloom, it devastated the Aral Sea. Source: https://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/world-of-change/AralSea Trend: Question on Aral sea, has been previously asked in UPSC’s examination Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 19. Question

Which one of the following seas is known for its significant shrinkage due to irrigation and water diversion projects?

• (a) The North Sea

• (b) The Black Sea

• (c) The Aral Sea

• (d) The Caspian Sea

Solution: C

In the 1960s, the Soviet Union undertook a major water diversion project on the arid plains of Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, and Turkmenistan. The region’s two major rivers, fed by snowmelt and precipitation in faraway mountains, were used to transform the desert into farms for cotton and other crops. Before the project, the Syr Darya and the Amu Darya rivers flowed down from the mountains, cut northwest through the Kyzylkum Desert, and finally pooled together in the lowest part of the basin. The lake they made, the Aral Sea, was once the fourth largest in the world.

Although irrigation made the desert bloom, it devastated the Aral Sea.

Trend: Question on Aral sea, has been previously asked in UPSC’s examination

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

Although irrigation made the desert bloom, it devastated the Aral Sea.

Trend: Question on Aral sea, has been previously asked in UPSC’s examination

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points The term ‘Ecological Deficit’ refers to a situation where: (a) The biocapacity of a region is less than the ecological footprint of the population living there. (b) A country's recycling efforts surpass its waste production. (c) A nation's carbon emissions are fully offset by its carbon sequestration projects. (d) The number of endangered species in an area is decreasing due to conservation efforts. Correct Solution: A An ecological deficit occurs when the Ecological Footprint of a population exceeds the biocapacity of the area available to that population. A national ecological deficit means that the country is net-importing biocapacity through trade, liquidating national ecological assets or emitting more carbon dioxide waste into the atmosphere than its own ecosystems absorb. In contrast, an ecological reserve exists when the biocapacity of a region exceeds its population’s Ecological Footprint. Source: https://data.footprintnetwork.org/#/ Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Only option (a) suggests some sort of deficit/insufficiency wrt ecological capacity. Incorrect Solution: A An ecological deficit occurs when the Ecological Footprint of a population exceeds the biocapacity of the area available to that population. A national ecological deficit means that the country is net-importing biocapacity through trade, liquidating national ecological assets or emitting more carbon dioxide waste into the atmosphere than its own ecosystems absorb. In contrast, an ecological reserve exists when the biocapacity of a region exceeds its population’s Ecological Footprint. Source: https://data.footprintnetwork.org/#/ Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Only option (a) suggests some sort of deficit/insufficiency wrt ecological capacity.

#### 20. Question

The term ‘Ecological Deficit’ refers to a situation where:

• (a) The biocapacity of a region is less than the ecological footprint of the population living there.

• (b) A country's recycling efforts surpass its waste production.

• (c) A nation's carbon emissions are fully offset by its carbon sequestration projects.

• (d) The number of endangered species in an area is decreasing due to conservation efforts.

Solution: A

An ecological deficit occurs when the Ecological Footprint of a population exceeds the biocapacity of the area available to that population. A national ecological deficit means that the country is net-importing biocapacity through trade, liquidating national ecological assets or emitting more carbon dioxide waste into the atmosphere than its own ecosystems absorb. In contrast, an ecological reserve exists when the biocapacity of a region exceeds its population’s Ecological Footprint.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Only option (a) suggests some sort of deficit/insufficiency wrt ecological capacity.

Solution: A

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Only option (a) suggests some sort of deficit/insufficiency wrt ecological capacity.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, considers noise as an ‘air pollutant’. The Central Pollution Control Board has listed fines for the violation of noise pollution norms. There is no dedicated noise pollution regulation or rule in place in India presently. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: The Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules , 2000 under the Environment Protection Act 1986 mandate that firecrackers cannot be used in ‘silence zones’, and anywhere after 10 PM. Central Pollution Control Board has listed fines for the violation of noise pollution norms, including the use of loudspeakers or public addresses that can result in a fine of Rs 10,000. Section 2 (a) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 considers noise as ‘air pollutant’ India has noise pollution regulations in place, such as the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000. However, enforcement remains a challenge. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important legislations Approach: Statement 3 is vague, as any pollutant once considered as such, will be subjected to certain norms and regulations. Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: The Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules , 2000 under the Environment Protection Act 1986 mandate that firecrackers cannot be used in ‘silence zones’, and anywhere after 10 PM. Central Pollution Control Board has listed fines for the violation of noise pollution norms, including the use of loudspeakers or public addresses that can result in a fine of Rs 10,000. Section 2 (a) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 considers noise as ‘air pollutant’ India has noise pollution regulations in place, such as the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000. However, enforcement remains a challenge. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important legislations Approach: Statement 3 is vague, as any pollutant once considered as such, will be subjected to certain norms and regulations.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, considers noise as an ‘air pollutant’.

• The Central Pollution Control Board has listed fines for the violation of noise pollution norms.

• There is no dedicated noise pollution regulation or rule in place in India presently.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Justification: The Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules , 2000 under the Environment Protection Act 1986 mandate that firecrackers cannot be used in ‘silence zones’, and anywhere after 10 PM.

Central Pollution Control Board has listed fines for the violation of noise pollution norms, including the use of loudspeakers or public addresses that can result in a fine of Rs 10,000.

Section 2 (a) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 considers noise as ‘air pollutant’

India has noise pollution regulations in place, such as the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000. However, enforcement remains a challenge.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: Statement 3 is vague, as any pollutant once considered as such, will be subjected to certain norms and regulations.

Solution: a)

Central Pollution Control Board has listed fines for the violation of noise pollution norms, including the use of loudspeakers or public addresses that can result in a fine of Rs 10,000.

Section 2 (a) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 considers noise as ‘air pollutant’

India has noise pollution regulations in place, such as the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000. However, enforcement remains a challenge.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: Statement 3 is vague, as any pollutant once considered as such, will be subjected to certain norms and regulations.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. A majority of India’s biosphere reserves are a part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves, based on the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme list. UNESCO-recognised biosphere reserves do not have a buffer zone, and only allow for a core zone with a transition zone to connect the reserve with adjoining areas. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: Biosphere reserves are areas designated by UNESCO to promote the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable development, and scientific research. They consist of three zones: a core zone for the strict protection of ecosystems a buffer zone where people live and work in harmony with nature a transition zone for sustainable activities. India has 18 internationally recognized Biosphere reserves, with the Nilgiri reserve being the first. The latest addition is Panna in Madhya Pradesh. Twelve of the eighteen biosphere reserves are a part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves, based on the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme list. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: National Parks/Biosphere reserves Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Biosphere reserves are areas designated by UNESCO to promote the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable development, and scientific research. They consist of three zones: a core zone for the strict protection of ecosystems a buffer zone where people live and work in harmony with nature a transition zone for sustainable activities. India has 18 internationally recognized Biosphere reserves, with the Nilgiri reserve being the first. The latest addition is Panna in Madhya Pradesh. Twelve of the eighteen biosphere reserves are a part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves, based on the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme list. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: National Parks/Biosphere reserves Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements.

• A majority of India’s biosphere reserves are a part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves, based on the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme list.

• UNESCO-recognised biosphere reserves do not have a buffer zone, and only allow for a core zone with a transition zone to connect the reserve with adjoining areas.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Justification: Biosphere reserves are areas designated by UNESCO to promote the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable development, and scientific research. They consist of three zones:

• a core zone for the strict protection of ecosystems

• a buffer zone where people live and work in harmony with nature

• a transition zone for sustainable activities.

India has 18 internationally recognized Biosphere reserves, with the Nilgiri reserve being the first. The latest addition is Panna in Madhya Pradesh. Twelve of the eighteen biosphere reserves are a part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves, based on the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme list.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: National Parks/Biosphere reserves

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: a)

Justification: Biosphere reserves are areas designated by UNESCO to promote the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable development, and scientific research. They consist of three zones:

• a core zone for the strict protection of ecosystems

• a buffer zone where people live and work in harmony with nature

• a transition zone for sustainable activities.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: National Parks/Biosphere reserves

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Sagarmala Project is a strategic initiative aimed at modernizing ports and connecting India’s international ports with the One Belt One Road initiative of China. O-SMART in a blue-economy-related initiative that aims to regulate ocean and marine resource use for sustainable development. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Learning: Some blue economy initiatives: India-Norway Task Force on Blue Economy: A collaborative effort between India and Norway established in 2020 to pursue joint initiatives for sustainable development. Sagarmala Project: A strategic initiative aimed at modernizing ports and fostering port-led development through IT-enabled services. O-SMART: India’s comprehensive program regulating ocean and marine resource use for sustainable development. Integrated Coastal Zone Management: Focused on conserving coastal and marine resources and improving livelihood opportunities for coastal communities. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Schemes and projects in News Approach: India is not a part of Chinas’ land grabbing OBOR and BRI projects, rather it is a threat to our territorial security. Incorrect Solution: b) Learning: Some blue economy initiatives: India-Norway Task Force on Blue Economy: A collaborative effort between India and Norway established in 2020 to pursue joint initiatives for sustainable development. Sagarmala Project: A strategic initiative aimed at modernizing ports and fostering port-led development through IT-enabled services. O-SMART: India’s comprehensive program regulating ocean and marine resource use for sustainable development. Integrated Coastal Zone Management: Focused on conserving coastal and marine resources and improving livelihood opportunities for coastal communities. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Schemes and projects in News Approach: India is not a part of Chinas’ land grabbing OBOR and BRI projects, rather it is a threat to our territorial security.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Sagarmala Project is a strategic initiative aimed at modernizing ports and connecting India’s international ports with the One Belt One Road initiative of China.

• O-SMART in a blue-economy-related initiative that aims to regulate ocean and marine resource use for sustainable development.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Learning: Some blue economy initiatives:

India-Norway Task Force on Blue Economy: A collaborative effort between India and Norway established in 2020 to pursue joint initiatives for sustainable development.

• Sagarmala Project: A strategic initiative aimed at modernizing ports and fostering port-led development through IT-enabled services.

• O-SMART: India’s comprehensive program regulating ocean and marine resource use for sustainable development.

• Integrated Coastal Zone Management: Focused on conserving coastal and marine resources and improving livelihood opportunities for coastal communities.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Schemes and projects in News

Approach: India is not a part of Chinas’ land grabbing OBOR and BRI projects, rather it is a threat to our territorial security.

Solution: b)

Learning: Some blue economy initiatives:

India-Norway Task Force on Blue Economy: A collaborative effort between India and Norway established in 2020 to pursue joint initiatives for sustainable development.

• Sagarmala Project: A strategic initiative aimed at modernizing ports and fostering port-led development through IT-enabled services.

• O-SMART: India’s comprehensive program regulating ocean and marine resource use for sustainable development.

• Integrated Coastal Zone Management: Focused on conserving coastal and marine resources and improving livelihood opportunities for coastal communities.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Schemes and projects in News

Approach: India is not a part of Chinas’ land grabbing OBOR and BRI projects, rather it is a threat to our territorial security.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points The EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a tool to put a fair price on the carbon emitted during the production of carbon intensive goods that are entering the EU encourage cleaner industrial production in non-EU countries. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: The EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is the EU’s tool to put a fair price on the carbon emitted during the production of carbon intensive goods that are entering the EU, and to encourage cleaner industrial production in non-EU countries. By confirming that a price has been paid for the embedded carbon emissions generated in the production of certain goods imported into the EU, the CBAM will ensure the carbon price of imports is equivalent to the carbon price of domestic production, and that the EU’s climate objectives are not undermined. The CBAM is designed to be compatible with WTO-rules. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf https://taxation-customs.ec.europa.eu/carbon-border-adjustment-mechanism_en Trend: International initiatives on Global warming/climate change Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is the EU’s tool to put a fair price on the carbon emitted during the production of carbon intensive goods that are entering the EU, and to encourage cleaner industrial production in non-EU countries. By confirming that a price has been paid for the embedded carbon emissions generated in the production of certain goods imported into the EU, the CBAM will ensure the carbon price of imports is equivalent to the carbon price of domestic production, and that the EU’s climate objectives are not undermined. The CBAM is designed to be compatible with WTO-rules. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf https://taxation-customs.ec.europa.eu/carbon-border-adjustment-mechanism_en Trend: International initiatives on Global warming/climate change Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 24. Question

The EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a tool to

• put a fair price on the carbon emitted during the production of carbon intensive goods that are entering the EU

• encourage cleaner industrial production in non-EU countries.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: The EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is the EU’s tool to put a fair price on the carbon emitted during the production of carbon intensive goods that are entering the EU, and to encourage cleaner industrial production in non-EU countries.

By confirming that a price has been paid for the embedded carbon emissions generated in the production of certain goods imported into the EU, the CBAM will ensure the carbon price of imports is equivalent to the carbon price of domestic production, and that the EU’s climate objectives are not undermined. The CBAM is designed to be compatible with WTO-rules.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

https://taxation-customs.ec.europa.eu/carbon-border-adjustment-mechanism_en

Trend: International initiatives on Global warming/climate change

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: c)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

https://taxation-customs.ec.europa.eu/carbon-border-adjustment-mechanism_en

Trend: International initiatives on Global warming/climate change

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following schemes/initiatives can have a bearing on addressing insurgencies and development-related issues in north-eastern India? Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Project Regional Connectivity Scheme – UDAN Border Area Development Programme Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: d) Justification: The following may help: Implementation of programs like Border Area Development and Hill Area Development. Special category status to Northeast states; Developmental assistance for Infrastructure projects through Bharatmala Pariyojana Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS)- UDAN; Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Project, which aims at connecting the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in Rakhine State, Myanmar by sea. India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway Digital North East Vision 2022 National Bamboo Mission Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Initiatives/projects Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: The following may help: Implementation of programs like Border Area Development and Hill Area Development. Special category status to Northeast states; Developmental assistance for Infrastructure projects through Bharatmala Pariyojana Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS)- UDAN; Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Project, which aims at connecting the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in Rakhine State, Myanmar by sea. India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway Digital North East Vision 2022 National Bamboo Mission Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Initiatives/projects Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 25. Question

Which of the following schemes/initiatives can have a bearing on addressing insurgencies and development-related issues in north-eastern India?

• Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Project

• Regional Connectivity Scheme – UDAN

• Border Area Development Programme

Which of the above is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)

Justification: The following may help:

• Implementation of programs like Border Area Development and Hill Area Development.

• Special category status to Northeast states;

• Developmental assistance for Infrastructure projects through Bharatmala Pariyojana

• Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS)- UDAN;

• Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Project, which aims at connecting the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in Rakhine State, Myanmar by sea.

• India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway Digital North East Vision 2022 National Bamboo Mission

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Initiatives/projects

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: d)

Justification: The following may help:

• Implementation of programs like Border Area Development and Hill Area Development.

• Special category status to Northeast states;

• Developmental assistance for Infrastructure projects through Bharatmala Pariyojana

• Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS)- UDAN;

• Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Project, which aims at connecting the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in Rakhine State, Myanmar by sea.

• India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway Digital North East Vision 2022 National Bamboo Mission

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Initiatives/projects

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points About 15,000 years ago, humans colonised America, wiping out in the process about 75% of its large mammals. Numerous other species disappeared from Africa, from Eurasia and from the myriad islands around their coasts. The archaeological record of country after country tells the same sad story. The tragedy opens with a scene showing a rich and varied population of large animals, without any trace of Homo sapiens. In scene two, humans appear, evidenced by a fossilised bone, a spear point, or perhaps a campfire. Scene three quickly follows, in which men and women occupy centre-stage and most large animals, along with many smaller ones, have gone. Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage? a) Humans have failed to learn to coexist with other species b) Humans are at the top of the food chain and it is natural for them to dominate over other species c) Darwin's theory of survival of the fittest is applicable the most to human species d) None of the above Correct Ans. A. A is correct as the passage states that whenever humans have dominated an ecosystem, other animals have disappeared which proves A. Incorrect Ans. A. A is correct as the passage states that whenever humans have dominated an ecosystem, other animals have disappeared which proves A.

#### 26. Question

About 15,000 years ago, humans colonised America, wiping out in the process about 75% of its large mammals. Numerous other species disappeared from Africa, from Eurasia and from the myriad islands around their coasts. The archaeological record of country after country tells the same sad story. The tragedy opens with a scene showing a rich and varied population of large animals, without any trace of Homo sapiens. In scene two, humans appear, evidenced by a fossilised bone, a spear point, or perhaps a campfire. Scene three quickly follows, in which men and women occupy centre-stage and most large animals, along with many smaller ones, have gone.

Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage?

• a) Humans have failed to learn to coexist with other species

• b) Humans are at the top of the food chain and it is natural for them to dominate over other species

• c) Darwin's theory of survival of the fittest is applicable the most to human species

• d) None of the above

A is correct as the passage states that whenever humans have dominated an ecosystem, other animals have disappeared which proves A.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Had Karl Marx, whose revolutionary theories gave historical legitimacy and intellectual heft to people’s revolution, been alive, he would have been deeply distressed. The ragtag groups of insurgents in Indian forests, purporting to engineer the “rise of the proletariat”, have played into the hands of their own leadership. However, the revelation of steep economic inequality between Naxal foot soldiers and their supreme bosses doesn’t underscore an accidental contradiction. The rich and poor divide has been a defining feature of Marxist-Communist governments around the world in the last 100-odd years. And, yet, the very rank and file, so intoxicated by the Maoist-Marxist-Leninist opium, fail to see the stark disparities. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage? a) Marxism has several underlying problems that have been exposed by the performance of the communist governments around the world b) The red foot soldiers of India, if they remove the glasses of ignorance from their eyes, will no longer be intoxicated by the ideology they are fighting for c) Inequality is a defining feature of all societies d)Marxism is a utopia which can never be attained Correct Ans. B. The central focus of the passage is on the LWEs who are fighting an ideological battle, where their ideology is guilty of the same crimes as the ideology they are fighting for. Hence B. Incorrect Ans. B. The central focus of the passage is on the LWEs who are fighting an ideological battle, where their ideology is guilty of the same crimes as the ideology they are fighting for. Hence B.

#### 27. Question

Had Karl Marx, whose revolutionary theories gave historical legitimacy and intellectual heft to people’s revolution, been alive, he would have been deeply distressed. The ragtag groups of insurgents in Indian forests, purporting to engineer the “rise of the proletariat”, have played into the hands of their own leadership. However, the revelation of steep economic inequality between Naxal foot soldiers and their supreme bosses doesn’t underscore an accidental contradiction. The rich and poor divide has been a defining feature of Marxist-Communist governments around the world in the last 100-odd years. And, yet, the very rank and file, so intoxicated by the Maoist-Marxist-Leninist opium, fail to see the stark disparities.

Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?

• a) Marxism has several underlying problems that have been exposed by the performance of the communist governments around the world

• b) The red foot soldiers of India, if they remove the glasses of ignorance from their eyes, will no longer be intoxicated by the ideology they are fighting for

• c) Inequality is a defining feature of all societies

• d)Marxism is a utopia which can never be attained

The central focus of the passage is on the LWEs who are fighting an ideological battle, where their ideology is guilty of the same crimes as the ideology they are fighting for. Hence B.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Prana, Archana and Sana started a business by investing Rs. 12000, Rs. 18000 and Rs. 22000 respectively. After 6 months, Sana withdraw the full amount and Prana and Archana invested Rs. 5000 and Rs. 8000 more respectively. Find the share of Sana, if the total profit at the end of the year is Rs. 42940? (A) Rs. 7558 (B) Rs. 9944 (C) Rs. 10056 (D) Rs. 8182 Correct Correct option is : B) Solution: The share of Prana, Archana and Sana = > [120006 + 170006]: [180006 + 260006]: [220006] = > 174000: 264000: 132000 = > 29: 44: 2295’s = 42940 1’s = 452 The share of Sana = 22452 = Rs. 9944 Incorrect Correct option is : B) Solution: The share of Prana, Archana and Sana = > [120006 + 170006]: [180006 + 260006]: [220006] = > 174000: 264000: 132000 = > 29: 44: 2295’s = 42940 1’s = 452 The share of Sana = 22452 = Rs. 9944

#### 28. Question

Prana, Archana and Sana started a business by investing Rs. 12000, Rs. 18000 and Rs. 22000 respectively. After 6 months, Sana withdraw the full amount and Prana and Archana invested Rs. 5000 and Rs. 8000 more respectively. Find the share of Sana, if the total profit at the end of the year is Rs. 42940?

• (A) Rs. 7558

• (B) Rs. 9944

• (C) Rs. 10056

• (D) Rs. 8182

Correct option is : B)

The share of Prana, Archana and Sana

= > [120006 + 170006]: [180006 + 260006]: [22000*6]

= > 174000: 264000: 132000

= > 29: 44: 2295’s = 42940

The share of Sana = 22*452

= Rs. 9944

Correct option is : B)

The share of Prana, Archana and Sana

= > [120006 + 170006]: [180006 + 260006]: [22000*6]

= > 174000: 264000: 132000

= > 29: 44: 2295’s = 42940

The share of Sana = 22*452

= Rs. 9944

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Dinesh sells onions in the streets of KR market. Due to recent shortfall in the supply of onions, he doubles his selling price despite the cost price remains same for him due to a fixed price contract. He realizes that his profit have tripled. Find the original profit percent. a) 200/3% b) 100% c) 120% d) 105∗1/3% Correct Answer B) 100% Relating the profit percent with the selling price is the key here. Let the C.P. be x and S.P. be y. ∴ Given, 3(y-x) = 2y – x => 3y – 3x = 2y – x => y = 2x Original profit = Rs y – x = Rs 2x – x (Since, y = 2x) = Rs x ∴ Original profit % = x/x ∗ 100 = 100 % Hence, the answer is 100%. Choice B is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer B) 100% Relating the profit percent with the selling price is the key here. Let the C.P. be x and S.P. be y. ∴ Given, 3(y-x) = 2y – x => 3y – 3x = 2y – x => y = 2x Original profit = Rs y – x = Rs 2x – x (Since, y = 2x) = Rs x ∴ Original profit % = x/x ∗ 100 = 100 % Hence, the answer is 100%. Choice B is the correct answer.

#### 29. Question

Dinesh sells onions in the streets of KR market. Due to recent shortfall in the supply of onions, he doubles his selling price despite the cost price remains same for him due to a fixed price contract. He realizes that his profit have tripled. Find the original profit percent.

• d) 105∗1/3%

Answer B) 100%

Relating the profit percent with the selling price is the key here.

Let the C.P. be x and S.P. be y.

3(y-x) = 2y – x

=> 3y – 3x = 2y – x

Original profit = Rs y – x

= Rs 2x – x (Since, y = 2x)

∴ Original profit % = x/x ∗ 100

Hence, the answer is 100%.

Choice B is the correct answer.

Answer B) 100%

Relating the profit percent with the selling price is the key here.

Let the C.P. be x and S.P. be y.

3(y-x) = 2y – x

=> 3y – 3x = 2y – x

Original profit = Rs y – x

= Rs 2x – x (Since, y = 2x)

∴ Original profit % = x/x ∗ 100

Hence, the answer is 100%.

Choice B is the correct answer.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points An article costing Rs. 363 is marked to be sold at a price which gives a profit of 20%. What will be its selling price in a sale when 15% is taken off the marked price? A. Rs. 390.56 B. Rs. 390.26 C. Rs. 382.26 D. None of these Correct Answer D) none of these Net profit on the article = + 20 – 15 – (20 × 15)/100 = +2% ∴ Selling price of the article = 363 × 1.02 = Rs. 370.26 Hence, option (D) is correct. Incorrect Answer D) none of these Net profit on the article = + 20 – 15 – (20 × 15)/100 = +2% ∴ Selling price of the article = 363 × 1.02 = Rs. 370.26 Hence, option (D) is correct.

#### 30. Question

An article costing Rs. 363 is marked to be sold at a price which gives a profit of 20%. What will be its selling price in a sale when 15% is taken off the marked price?

• A. Rs. 390.56

• B. Rs. 390.26

• C. Rs. 382.26

• D. None of these

Answer D) none of these

Net profit on the article = + 20 – 15 – (20 × 15)/100 = +2%

∴ Selling price of the article = 363 × 1.02 = Rs. 370.26

Hence, option (D) is correct.

Answer D) none of these

Net profit on the article = + 20 – 15 – (20 × 15)/100 = +2%

∴ Selling price of the article = 363 × 1.02 = Rs. 370.26

Hence, option (D) is correct.

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