DAY – 19 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY

Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2025 [ HERE ] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :

DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :

Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 30 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Wish you Good Luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 30 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Green Credit Programme’ recently in news: It incentivizes environmentally friendly actions by companies, communities and individuals. Credits generated can be traded on a market platform. The programme is administered by the Ministry of Finance. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Green Credit Programme is an innovative, market-based approach designed to incentivize environmentally positive actions across various sectors. It aims to mobilize collective action towards achieving environmental sustainability goals. Statement 1 is correct. The Green Credit Programme does incentivize environmentally friendly actions by various stakeholders. Statement 2 is correct. The programme envisions the trading of green credits on a market platform, allowing for a flexible and efficient mechanism for environmental stewardship. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Green Credit Programme is primarily administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, not the Ministry of Finance. Incorrect Solution: B The Green Credit Programme is an innovative, market-based approach designed to incentivize environmentally positive actions across various sectors. It aims to mobilize collective action towards achieving environmental sustainability goals. Statement 1 is correct. The Green Credit Programme does incentivize environmentally friendly actions by various stakeholders. Statement 2 is correct. The programme envisions the trading of green credits on a market platform, allowing for a flexible and efficient mechanism for environmental stewardship. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Green Credit Programme is primarily administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, not the Ministry of Finance.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Green Credit Programme’ recently in news:

• It incentivizes environmentally friendly actions by companies, communities and individuals.

• Credits generated can be traded on a market platform.

• The programme is administered by the Ministry of Finance.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The Green Credit Programme is an innovative, market-based approach designed to incentivize environmentally positive actions across various sectors. It aims to mobilize collective action towards achieving environmental sustainability goals.

• Statement 1 is correct. The Green Credit Programme does incentivize environmentally friendly actions by various stakeholders.

• Statement 2 is correct. The programme envisions the trading of green credits on a market platform, allowing for a flexible and efficient mechanism for environmental stewardship.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Green Credit Programme is primarily administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, not the Ministry of Finance.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Green Credit Programme does incentivize environmentally friendly actions by various stakeholders.

• Statement 2 is correct. The programme envisions the trading of green credits on a market platform, allowing for a flexible and efficient mechanism for environmental stewardship.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Green Credit Programme is primarily administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, not the Ministry of Finance.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the term ‘Ecological Niche Partitioning’? (a) The process where different species in an ecosystem evolve to occupy similar ecological niches to reduce competition. (b) The phenomenon where coexisting species utilize different resources or parts of a resource to minimize interspecific competition. (c) The spatial arrangement of different ecosystems within a larger landscape. (d) The role that keystone species play in maintaining the structure and function of an ecosystem. Correct Solution: B Ecological niche partitioning is a fundamental concept in ecology that explains how multiple species can coexist in the same habitat by utilizing resources in slightly different ways, thereby reducing direct competition. Hence, option (b) is correct. Option (a) describes competitive exclusion or potentially character displacement, not niche partitioning. Option (c) refers to landscape ecology and the arrangement of ecosystems. Option (d) describes the role of keystone species, which is different from how multiple species share resources. Incorrect Solution: B Ecological niche partitioning is a fundamental concept in ecology that explains how multiple species can coexist in the same habitat by utilizing resources in slightly different ways, thereby reducing direct competition. Hence, option (b) is correct. Option (a) describes competitive exclusion or potentially character displacement, not niche partitioning. Option (c) refers to landscape ecology and the arrangement of ecosystems. Option (d) describes the role of keystone species, which is different from how multiple species share resources.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following best describes the term ‘Ecological Niche Partitioning’?

• (a) The process where different species in an ecosystem evolve to occupy similar ecological niches to reduce competition.

• (b) The phenomenon where coexisting species utilize different resources or parts of a resource to minimize interspecific competition.

• (c) The spatial arrangement of different ecosystems within a larger landscape.

• (d) The role that keystone species play in maintaining the structure and function of an ecosystem.

Solution: B

Ecological niche partitioning is a fundamental concept in ecology that explains how multiple species can coexist in the same habitat by utilizing resources in slightly different ways, thereby reducing direct competition.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Option (a) describes competitive exclusion or potentially character displacement, not niche partitioning.

• Option (c) refers to landscape ecology and the arrangement of ecosystems.

• Option (d) describes the role of keystone species, which is different from how multiple species share resources.

Solution: B

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Option (a) describes competitive exclusion or potentially character displacement, not niche partitioning.

• Option (c) refers to landscape ecology and the arrangement of ecosystems.

• Option (d) describes the role of keystone species, which is different from how multiple species share resources.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs of pollutants and their primary sources: Benzopyrene : Vehicular emissions Dioxins : Incineration of medical waste Asbestos : Construction and demolition activities How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched. Benzopyrene is a known component of vehicular emissions, particularly from the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Dioxins are often formed as byproducts during the incineration of medical waste and other chlorine-containing materials. Pair 3 is correctly matched. Asbestos fibers are commonly released into the air during construction, renovation, and demolition activities involving asbestos-containing materials. Incorrect Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched. Benzopyrene is a known component of vehicular emissions, particularly from the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Dioxins are often formed as byproducts during the incineration of medical waste and other chlorine-containing materials. Pair 3 is correctly matched. Asbestos fibers are commonly released into the air during construction, renovation, and demolition activities involving asbestos-containing materials.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following pairs of pollutants and their primary sources:

• Benzopyrene : Vehicular emissions

• Dioxins : Incineration of medical waste

• Asbestos : Construction and demolition activities

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. Benzopyrene is a known component of vehicular emissions, particularly from the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. Dioxins are often formed as byproducts during the incineration of medical waste and other chlorine-containing materials.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched. Asbestos fibers are commonly released into the air during construction, renovation, and demolition activities involving asbestos-containing materials.

Solution: C

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. Benzopyrene is a known component of vehicular emissions, particularly from the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. Dioxins are often formed as byproducts during the incineration of medical waste and other chlorine-containing materials.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched. Asbestos fibers are commonly released into the air during construction, renovation, and demolition activities involving asbestos-containing materials.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to the ‘Mission LiFE’ (Lifestyle for Environment) movement, consider the following statements: It was launched at the COP26 summit in Glasgow. It aims to promote individual and community action for environmental protection. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Mission LiFE is a global initiative launched by India to encourage mindful and deliberate utilization of resources, promoting a sustainable lifestyle for environmental protection. Statement 1 is correct. Mission LiFE was indeed launched by the Prime Minister of India at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021. Statement 2 is correct. A core objective of Mission LiFE is to mobilize individual and community action to protect and improve the environment. Incorrect Solution: C Mission LiFE is a global initiative launched by India to encourage mindful and deliberate utilization of resources, promoting a sustainable lifestyle for environmental protection. Statement 1 is correct. Mission LiFE was indeed launched by the Prime Minister of India at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021. Statement 2 is correct. A core objective of Mission LiFE is to mobilize individual and community action to protect and improve the environment.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the ‘Mission LiFE’ (Lifestyle for Environment) movement, consider the following statements:

• It was launched at the COP26 summit in Glasgow.

• It aims to promote individual and community action for environmental protection.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Mission LiFE is a global initiative launched by India to encourage mindful and deliberate utilization of resources, promoting a sustainable lifestyle for environmental protection.

• Statement 1 is correct. Mission LiFE was indeed launched by the Prime Minister of India at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021.

• Statement 2 is correct. A core objective of Mission LiFE is to mobilize individual and community action to protect and improve the environment.

Solution: C

Mission LiFE is a global initiative launched by India to encourage mindful and deliberate utilization of resources, promoting a sustainable lifestyle for environmental protection.

• Statement 1 is correct. Mission LiFE was indeed launched by the Prime Minister of India at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021.

• Statement 2 is correct. A core objective of Mission LiFE is to mobilize individual and community action to protect and improve the environment.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Which of the following factors can lead to an increase in the frequency and intensity of algal blooms in water bodies? Increased levels of nitrates and phosphates Higher water temperatures Reduced water flow Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Algal blooms are rapid increases in the population of algae in an aquatic system. While some blooms are harmless, others can produce toxins and deplete oxygen levels, harming aquatic life. Increased levels of nitrates and phosphates (nutrient pollution) provide the necessary food for algae to multiply rapidly. Higher water temperatures can favor the growth of many algal species. Reduced water flow can allow nutrients to accumulate and prevent the dispersion of algal blooms. Incorrect Solution: D Algal blooms are rapid increases in the population of algae in an aquatic system. While some blooms are harmless, others can produce toxins and deplete oxygen levels, harming aquatic life. Increased levels of nitrates and phosphates (nutrient pollution) provide the necessary food for algae to multiply rapidly. Higher water temperatures can favor the growth of many algal species. Reduced water flow can allow nutrients to accumulate and prevent the dispersion of algal blooms.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following factors can lead to an increase in the frequency and intensity of algal blooms in water bodies?

• Increased levels of nitrates and phosphates

• Higher water temperatures

• Reduced water flow

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Algal blooms are rapid increases in the population of algae in an aquatic system. While some blooms are harmless, others can produce toxins and deplete oxygen levels, harming aquatic life. Increased levels of nitrates and phosphates (nutrient pollution) provide the necessary food for algae to multiply rapidly.

• Higher water temperatures can favor the growth of many algal species.

• Reduced water flow can allow nutrients to accumulate and prevent the dispersion of algal blooms.

Solution: D

• Higher water temperatures can favor the growth of many algal species.

• Reduced water flow can allow nutrients to accumulate and prevent the dispersion of algal blooms.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Global Methane Pledge’: It aims to reduce global methane emissions by at least 30 percent from 2020 levels by 2030. India is a signatory to this pledge. The pledge primarily focuses on the agricultural sector as the largest source of methane emissions. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Global Methane Pledge is a voluntary international agreement aimed at reducing global methane emissions, a potent greenhouse gas, to limit global warming. Statement 1 is correct. The Global Methane Pledge does aim for at least a 30 percent reduction in global methane emissions from 2020 levels by 2030. Statement 2 is incorrect. India has not yet signed the Global Methane Pledge. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the agricultural sector is a significant contributor, the pledge targets methane emissions across all sectors, including oil and gas, and waste management. Incorrect Solution: A The Global Methane Pledge is a voluntary international agreement aimed at reducing global methane emissions, a potent greenhouse gas, to limit global warming. Statement 1 is correct. The Global Methane Pledge does aim for at least a 30 percent reduction in global methane emissions from 2020 levels by 2030. Statement 2 is incorrect. India has not yet signed the Global Methane Pledge. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the agricultural sector is a significant contributor, the pledge targets methane emissions across all sectors, including oil and gas, and waste management.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Global Methane Pledge’:

• It aims to reduce global methane emissions by at least 30 percent from 2020 levels by 2030.

• India is a signatory to this pledge.

• The pledge primarily focuses on the agricultural sector as the largest source of methane emissions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

The Global Methane Pledge is a voluntary international agreement aimed at reducing global methane emissions, a potent greenhouse gas, to limit global warming.

• Statement 1 is correct. The Global Methane Pledge does aim for at least a 30 percent reduction in global methane emissions from 2020 levels by 2030.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. India has not yet signed the Global Methane Pledge.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the agricultural sector is a significant contributor, the pledge targets methane emissions across all sectors, including oil and gas, and waste management.

Solution: A

The Global Methane Pledge is a voluntary international agreement aimed at reducing global methane emissions, a potent greenhouse gas, to limit global warming.

• Statement 1 is correct. The Global Methane Pledge does aim for at least a 30 percent reduction in global methane emissions from 2020 levels by 2030.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. India has not yet signed the Global Methane Pledge.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the agricultural sector is a significant contributor, the pledge targets methane emissions across all sectors, including oil and gas, and waste management.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are the potential ecological consequences of ocean acidification? Weakening of coral skeletons Disruption of marine food webs Increased solubility of heavy metals in seawater Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Ocean acidification is the ongoing decrease in the pH value of the Earth’s oceans, caused by the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere. Weakening of coral skeletons: Increased acidity reduces the availability of carbonate ions, which corals need to build their calcium carbonate skeletons. Disruption of marine food webs: Ocean acidification can affect the physiology and behaviour of various marine organisms, impacting the entire food web. Increased solubility of heavy metals in seawater: Lower pH can increase the solubility and thus the bioavailability and toxicity of some heavy metals. Incorrect Solution: D Ocean acidification is the ongoing decrease in the pH value of the Earth’s oceans, caused by the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere. Weakening of coral skeletons: Increased acidity reduces the availability of carbonate ions, which corals need to build their calcium carbonate skeletons. Disruption of marine food webs: Ocean acidification can affect the physiology and behaviour of various marine organisms, impacting the entire food web. Increased solubility of heavy metals in seawater: Lower pH can increase the solubility and thus the bioavailability and toxicity of some heavy metals.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following is/are the potential ecological consequences of ocean acidification?

• Weakening of coral skeletons

• Disruption of marine food webs

• Increased solubility of heavy metals in seawater

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Ocean acidification is the ongoing decrease in the pH value of the Earth’s oceans, caused by the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere.

• Weakening of coral skeletons: Increased acidity reduces the availability of carbonate ions, which corals need to build their calcium carbonate skeletons.

• Disruption of marine food webs: Ocean acidification can affect the physiology and behaviour of various marine organisms, impacting the entire food web.

• Increased solubility of heavy metals in seawater: Lower pH can increase the solubility and thus the bioavailability and toxicity of some heavy metals.

Solution: D

Ocean acidification is the ongoing decrease in the pH value of the Earth’s oceans, caused by the uptake of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere.

• Weakening of coral skeletons: Increased acidity reduces the availability of carbonate ions, which corals need to build their calcium carbonate skeletons.

• Disruption of marine food webs: Ocean acidification can affect the physiology and behaviour of various marine organisms, impacting the entire food web.

• Increased solubility of heavy metals in seawater: Lower pH can increase the solubility and thus the bioavailability and toxicity of some heavy metals.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘IUCN Red List of Ecosystems’: It assesses the risk of collapse of ecosystems across the globe. It uses a standardized set of criteria, including geographic distribution, degradation, and biotic interactions. The assessment is primarily focused on terrestrial ecosystems. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The IUCN Red List of Ecosystems provides a global framework for assessing the conservation status of ecosystems, similar to how the IUCN Red List assesses the status of species. Statement 1 is correct. The IUCN Red List of Ecosystems aims to assess the risk of ecosystem collapse worldwide. Statement 2 is correct. It uses a standardized set of criteria, including geographic distribution, environmental degradation, and disruption of biotic interactions, to evaluate ecosystem risk. Statement 3 is incorrect. The assessment covers all types of ecosystems, including terrestrial, freshwater, and marine ecosystems. Incorrect Solution: B The IUCN Red List of Ecosystems provides a global framework for assessing the conservation status of ecosystems, similar to how the IUCN Red List assesses the status of species. Statement 1 is correct. The IUCN Red List of Ecosystems aims to assess the risk of ecosystem collapse worldwide. Statement 2 is correct. It uses a standardized set of criteria, including geographic distribution, environmental degradation, and disruption of biotic interactions, to evaluate ecosystem risk. Statement 3 is incorrect. The assessment covers all types of ecosystems, including terrestrial, freshwater, and marine ecosystems.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘IUCN Red List of Ecosystems’:

• It assesses the risk of collapse of ecosystems across the globe.

• It uses a standardized set of criteria, including geographic distribution, degradation, and biotic interactions.

• The assessment is primarily focused on terrestrial ecosystems.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The IUCN Red List of Ecosystems provides a global framework for assessing the conservation status of ecosystems, similar to how the IUCN Red List assesses the status of species.

• Statement 1 is correct. The IUCN Red List of Ecosystems aims to assess the risk of ecosystem collapse worldwide.

• Statement 2 is correct. It uses a standardized set of criteria, including geographic distribution, environmental degradation, and disruption of biotic interactions, to evaluate ecosystem risk.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The assessment covers all types of ecosystems, including terrestrial, freshwater, and marine ecosystems.

Solution: B

The IUCN Red List of Ecosystems provides a global framework for assessing the conservation status of ecosystems, similar to how the IUCN Red List assesses the status of species.

• Statement 1 is correct. The IUCN Red List of Ecosystems aims to assess the risk of ecosystem collapse worldwide.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The assessment covers all types of ecosystems, including terrestrial, freshwater, and marine ecosystems.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following factors contributes to the phenomenon of ‘Urban Heat Island’? High concentration of buildings and infrastructure Reduced vegetation cover Anthropogenic heat emissions Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The urban heat island effect refers to the phenomenon where urban areas experience significantly warmer temperatures than their surrounding rural areas. High concentration of buildings and infrastructure: These materials absorb and retain more heat than natural surfaces. Reduced vegetation cover: Vegetation cools the environment through evapotranspiration, and its absence in urban areas contributes to higher temperatures. Anthropogenic heat emissions: Heat generated from human activities like transportation, industries, and air conditioning also contribute to the urban heat island effect. Incorrect Solution: D The urban heat island effect refers to the phenomenon where urban areas experience significantly warmer temperatures than their surrounding rural areas. High concentration of buildings and infrastructure: These materials absorb and retain more heat than natural surfaces. Reduced vegetation cover: Vegetation cools the environment through evapotranspiration, and its absence in urban areas contributes to higher temperatures. Anthropogenic heat emissions: Heat generated from human activities like transportation, industries, and air conditioning also contribute to the urban heat island effect.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following factors contributes to the phenomenon of ‘Urban Heat Island’?

• High concentration of buildings and infrastructure

• Reduced vegetation cover

• Anthropogenic heat emissions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

The urban heat island effect refers to the phenomenon where urban areas experience significantly warmer temperatures than their surrounding rural areas.

• High concentration of buildings and infrastructure: These materials absorb and retain more heat than natural surfaces.

• Reduced vegetation cover: Vegetation cools the environment through evapotranspiration, and its absence in urban areas contributes to higher temperatures.

• Anthropogenic heat emissions: Heat generated from human activities like transportation, industries, and air conditioning also contribute to the urban heat island effect.

Solution: D

The urban heat island effect refers to the phenomenon where urban areas experience significantly warmer temperatures than their surrounding rural areas.

• High concentration of buildings and infrastructure: These materials absorb and retain more heat than natural surfaces.

• Reduced vegetation cover: Vegetation cools the environment through evapotranspiration, and its absence in urban areas contributes to higher temperatures.

• Anthropogenic heat emissions: Heat generated from human activities like transportation, industries, and air conditioning also contribute to the urban heat island effect.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding ‘Ecological Footprint’: It measures the amount of biologically productive land and water area required to produce the resources a person or population consumes and to absorb the waste they generate. A country’s ecological footprint can be larger than its physical boundaries. Developed countries generally have a smaller ecological footprint compared to developing countries. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The ecological footprint is a measure of human demand on the Earth’s ecosystems. It compares human consumption of natural resources with Earth’s capacity to regenerate them. Statement 1 is correct. The ecological footprint measures the biologically productive area needed to support human consumption and waste absorption. Statement 2 is correct. A country’s demand for resources can exceed the regenerative capacity within its borders, resulting in an ecological footprint larger than its physical area. Statement 3 is incorrect. Developed countries generally have a larger ecological footprint per capita due to higher consumption rates compared to developing countries. Incorrect Solution: B The ecological footprint is a measure of human demand on the Earth’s ecosystems. It compares human consumption of natural resources with Earth’s capacity to regenerate them. Statement 1 is correct. The ecological footprint measures the biologically productive area needed to support human consumption and waste absorption. Statement 2 is correct. A country’s demand for resources can exceed the regenerative capacity within its borders, resulting in an ecological footprint larger than its physical area. Statement 3 is incorrect. Developed countries generally have a larger ecological footprint per capita due to higher consumption rates compared to developing countries.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Ecological Footprint’:

• It measures the amount of biologically productive land and water area required to produce the resources a person or population consumes and to absorb the waste they generate.

• A country’s ecological footprint can be larger than its physical boundaries.

• Developed countries generally have a smaller ecological footprint compared to developing countries.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The ecological footprint is a measure of human demand on the Earth’s ecosystems. It compares human consumption of natural resources with Earth’s capacity to regenerate them.

• Statement 1 is correct. The ecological footprint measures the biologically productive area needed to support human consumption and waste absorption.

• Statement 2 is correct. A country’s demand for resources can exceed the regenerative capacity within its borders, resulting in an ecological footprint larger than its physical area.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Developed countries generally have a larger ecological footprint per capita due to higher consumption rates compared to developing countries.

Solution: B

The ecological footprint is a measure of human demand on the Earth’s ecosystems. It compares human consumption of natural resources with Earth’s capacity to regenerate them.

• Statement 1 is correct. The ecological footprint measures the biologically productive area needed to support human consumption and waste absorption.

• Statement 2 is correct. A country’s demand for resources can exceed the regenerative capacity within its borders, resulting in an ecological footprint larger than its physical area.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Developed countries generally have a larger ecological footprint per capita due to higher consumption rates compared to developing countries.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following animals: Koala Kinkajous Sugar glider How many of the animals given above are arboreal in nature? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Koalas are arboreal herbivorous marsupials native to Australia. It is found in coastal areas of the islands eastern and Southern regions inhabiting Queensland, New South Wales, Victoria and South Australia. Kinkajous lives in the canopy of tropical forests of Central and South America and hangs from its prehensile tail, which also helps maintaining their balance and acts as a blanket when sleeping. These animals also have crawled feet to help them stay anchored to the trees. Sugar gliders are squirrel sized arboreal marsupials that inhabit forests of Australia and New Guinea. They are highly social, living in small colonies or family groups numbering up to seve6 adults. They are highly nocturnal; they rarely come to the ground, finding both food and shelter in the trees. Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Koalas are arboreal herbivorous marsupials native to Australia. It is found in coastal areas of the islands eastern and Southern regions inhabiting Queensland, New South Wales, Victoria and South Australia. Kinkajous lives in the canopy of tropical forests of Central and South America and hangs from its prehensile tail, which also helps maintaining their balance and acts as a blanket when sleeping. These animals also have crawled feet to help them stay anchored to the trees. Sugar gliders are squirrel sized arboreal marsupials that inhabit forests of Australia and New Guinea. They are highly social, living in small colonies or family groups numbering up to seve6 adults. They are highly nocturnal; they rarely come to the ground, finding both food and shelter in the trees. Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following animals:

• Sugar glider

How many of the animals given above are arboreal in nature?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Koalas are arboreal herbivorous marsupials native to Australia. It is found in coastal areas of the islands eastern and Southern regions inhabiting Queensland, New South Wales, Victoria and South Australia.

• Kinkajous lives in the canopy of tropical forests of Central and South America and hangs from its prehensile tail, which also helps maintaining their balance and acts as a blanket when sleeping. These animals also have crawled feet to help them stay anchored to the trees.

• Sugar gliders are squirrel sized arboreal marsupials that inhabit forests of Australia and New Guinea. They are highly social, living in small colonies or family groups numbering up to seve6 adults. They are highly nocturnal; they rarely come to the ground, finding both food and shelter in the trees.

Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following authorities: Central Zoo Authority National Tiger Conservation Authority Central Groundwater Authority State Boards for Wildlife How many of the above were formed under the Wildlife Protection Act 1972? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only Correct Solution: B Central Zoo Authority is statutory body of the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change responsible for oversight of Zoos in India. It was constituted under Section 38A of the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA ) 1972. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change established in 2006 to strengthen Tiger conservation in India and plays a key role in management of Project Tiger and tiger reserves in the country. It was constituted under WPA 1972, as amended in 2006. State Boards for Wildlife were established under WPA 1972 as state level advisory bodies for advising the state government on matters related to wildlife conservation and management including protection of protected areas and policy formulation. Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct Central Groundwater Authority was established under Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act 1986. It was established to regulate and control development and management of groundwater resources in the country. Hence option 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B Central Zoo Authority is statutory body of the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change responsible for oversight of Zoos in India. It was constituted under Section 38A of the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA ) 1972. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change established in 2006 to strengthen Tiger conservation in India and plays a key role in management of Project Tiger and tiger reserves in the country. It was constituted under WPA 1972, as amended in 2006. State Boards for Wildlife were established under WPA 1972 as state level advisory bodies for advising the state government on matters related to wildlife conservation and management including protection of protected areas and policy formulation. Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct Central Groundwater Authority was established under Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act 1986. It was established to regulate and control development and management of groundwater resources in the country. Hence option 3 is incorrect

#### 12. Question

Consider the following authorities:

• Central Zoo Authority

• National Tiger Conservation Authority

• Central Groundwater Authority

• State Boards for Wildlife

How many of the above were formed under the Wildlife Protection Act 1972?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1 and 4 only

Solution: B

• Central Zoo Authority is statutory body of the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change responsible for oversight of Zoos in India. It was constituted under Section 38A of the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA ) 1972.

• National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change established in 2006 to strengthen Tiger conservation in India and plays a key role in management of Project Tiger and tiger reserves in the country. It was constituted under WPA 1972, as amended in 2006.

• State Boards for Wildlife were established under WPA 1972 as state level advisory bodies for advising the state government on matters related to wildlife conservation and management including protection of protected areas and policy formulation.

Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct

• Central Groundwater Authority was established under Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act 1986.

• It was established to regulate and control development and management of groundwater resources in the country.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct

• Central Groundwater Authority was established under Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act 1986.

• It was established to regulate and control development and management of groundwater resources in the country.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Biomagnification is the amplification in concentration of pollutants at successive tropic levels. Bioaccumulation can lead to Biomagnification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Biomagnification or bio amplification is the increase in concentration of toxic chemicals at successive trophic levels. It is due to the reason that toxic elements cannot be absorbed and simultaneously get transferred to the successive higher trophic levels, resulting in more concentration of pollutants at higher trophic level. Pollutants having properties like long life, solubility in fat, biologically active, will lead to the process of biomagnification Persistent organic pollutants, dioxins, heavy metals, etc. are all agents of biomagnification since they persist in the environment and magnify in the food web. Hence statement 1 is correct Bioaccumulation is the process of increase in concentration of toxic elements within the body of a particular organism and in general, the concentration of such pollutants becomes higher in the body of organism compared to the external environment. This accumulation will increase until it leads the organism to a deadly situation The processes of bioaccumulation and biomagnification go side by side; bioaccumulation often leads to biomagnification where toxins accumulate and increase in concentration as they move up the food chain. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Biomagnification or bio amplification is the increase in concentration of toxic chemicals at successive trophic levels. It is due to the reason that toxic elements cannot be absorbed and simultaneously get transferred to the successive higher trophic levels, resulting in more concentration of pollutants at higher trophic level. Pollutants having properties like long life, solubility in fat, biologically active, will lead to the process of biomagnification Persistent organic pollutants, dioxins, heavy metals, etc. are all agents of biomagnification since they persist in the environment and magnify in the food web. Hence statement 1 is correct Bioaccumulation is the process of increase in concentration of toxic elements within the body of a particular organism and in general, the concentration of such pollutants becomes higher in the body of organism compared to the external environment. This accumulation will increase until it leads the organism to a deadly situation The processes of bioaccumulation and biomagnification go side by side; bioaccumulation often leads to biomagnification where toxins accumulate and increase in concentration as they move up the food chain. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Biomagnification is the amplification in concentration of pollutants at successive tropic levels.

• Bioaccumulation can lead to Biomagnification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Biomagnification or bio amplification is the increase in concentration of toxic chemicals at successive trophic levels.

• It is due to the reason that toxic elements cannot be absorbed and simultaneously get transferred to the successive higher trophic levels, resulting in more concentration of pollutants at higher trophic level.

• Pollutants having properties like long life, solubility in fat, biologically active, will lead to the process of biomagnification

• Persistent organic pollutants, dioxins, heavy metals, etc. are all agents of biomagnification since they persist in the environment and magnify in the food web.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Bioaccumulation is the process of increase in concentration of toxic elements within the body of a particular organism and in general, the concentration of such pollutants becomes higher in the body of organism compared to the external environment.

• This accumulation will increase until it leads the organism to a deadly situation

• The processes of bioaccumulation and biomagnification go side by side; bioaccumulation often leads to biomagnification where toxins accumulate and increase in concentration as they move up the food chain.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: C

• Biomagnification or bio amplification is the increase in concentration of toxic chemicals at successive trophic levels.

• Pollutants having properties like long life, solubility in fat, biologically active, will lead to the process of biomagnification

• Persistent organic pollutants, dioxins, heavy metals, etc. are all agents of biomagnification since they persist in the environment and magnify in the food web.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• This accumulation will increase until it leads the organism to a deadly situation

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Regarding Conservation Reserves, consider the following statements: The concept of legal protection for Conservation Reserves was first introduced under the Forest (Conservation) Act 1980. Conservation Reserves serve as buffer zones between Wildlife sanctuaries and other protected regions. These areas are administered by local people and local Agencies including Gram Panchayats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Act of 2002 – the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Conservation Reserves are protected areas created on government land that typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, Wildlife sanctuaries and reserves and other protected areas. Hence statement 2 is correct The Conservation reserves are primarily administered by the state government The State Forest Department under the respective state government is responsible for management and administration of forest and wildlife reserves including Conservation Reserves The Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change plays a crucial role in policy, finance and coordination at the national level. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Act of 2002 – the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Conservation Reserves are protected areas created on government land that typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, Wildlife sanctuaries and reserves and other protected areas. Hence statement 2 is correct The Conservation reserves are primarily administered by the state government The State Forest Department under the respective state government is responsible for management and administration of forest and wildlife reserves including Conservation Reserves The Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change plays a crucial role in policy, finance and coordination at the national level. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Regarding Conservation Reserves, consider the following statements:

• The concept of legal protection for Conservation Reserves was first introduced under the Forest (Conservation) Act 1980.

• Conservation Reserves serve as buffer zones between Wildlife sanctuaries and other protected regions.

• These areas are administered by local people and local Agencies including Gram Panchayats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Act of 2002 – the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Conservation Reserves are protected areas created on government land that typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, Wildlife sanctuaries and reserves and other protected areas.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Conservation reserves are primarily administered by the state government

• The State Forest Department under the respective state government is responsible for management and administration of forest and wildlife reserves including Conservation Reserves

• The Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change plays a crucial role in policy, finance and coordination at the national level.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Act of 2002 – the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Conservation reserves are primarily administered by the state government

• The State Forest Department under the respective state government is responsible for management and administration of forest and wildlife reserves including Conservation Reserves

• The Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change plays a crucial role in policy, finance and coordination at the national level.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Bioluminescence is exhibited by phytoplanktons and jellyfishes. Bioluminescence helps in communication for the organism producing it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Bioluminescence is the production of light by living organisms primarily due to chemical reactions within marine life. Noctiluca scintillans, also known as Sea sparkle, is a bioluminescent phytoplankton that creates mesmerizing blue waves when disturbed. Common bioluminescent organisms include certain fishes, bacteria and jellyfish. It serves multiple functions for marine life including escaping predators, communication among the species and so on. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Bioluminescence is the production of light by living organisms primarily due to chemical reactions within marine life. Noctiluca scintillans, also known as Sea sparkle, is a bioluminescent phytoplankton that creates mesmerizing blue waves when disturbed. Common bioluminescent organisms include certain fishes, bacteria and jellyfish. It serves multiple functions for marine life including escaping predators, communication among the species and so on. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Bioluminescence is exhibited by phytoplanktons and jellyfishes.

• Bioluminescence helps in communication for the organism producing it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Bioluminescence is the production of light by living organisms primarily due to chemical reactions within marine life.

• Noctiluca scintillans, also known as Sea sparkle, is a bioluminescent phytoplankton that creates mesmerizing blue waves when disturbed.

• Common bioluminescent organisms include certain fishes, bacteria and jellyfish.

• It serves multiple functions for marine life including escaping predators, communication among the species and so on.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• Bioluminescence is the production of light by living organisms primarily due to chemical reactions within marine life.

• Noctiluca scintillans, also known as Sea sparkle, is a bioluminescent phytoplankton that creates mesmerizing blue waves when disturbed.

• Common bioluminescent organisms include certain fishes, bacteria and jellyfish.

• It serves multiple functions for marine life including escaping predators, communication among the species and so on.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following: Non-stick cookware Waterproof jackets Stain resistant textiles In how many of the above Per- and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (PFAS) are used? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C PFAS are human made toxic chemicals also known as forever chemicals. They have various applications like waterproofing, non-stick surfaces, cosmetics, firefighting forms, stain resistant fabrics and food packaging. These are notorious for their durability and can persist in the environment for thousands of years and causing significant pollution. Recently researchers have developed a ground breaking technique to track and manage these forever chemicals The method uses unique fingerprints of carbon isotopes in the molecule enabling the tracking of these chemicals from their source to their destination This technique offers a new way to trace the spread of PFAS in the environment. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C PFAS are human made toxic chemicals also known as forever chemicals. They have various applications like waterproofing, non-stick surfaces, cosmetics, firefighting forms, stain resistant fabrics and food packaging. These are notorious for their durability and can persist in the environment for thousands of years and causing significant pollution. Recently researchers have developed a ground breaking technique to track and manage these forever chemicals The method uses unique fingerprints of carbon isotopes in the molecule enabling the tracking of these chemicals from their source to their destination This technique offers a new way to trace the spread of PFAS in the environment. Hence option C is correct

#### 16. Question

Consider the following:

• Non-stick cookware

• Waterproof jackets

• Stain resistant textiles

In how many of the above Per- and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (PFAS) are used?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• PFAS are human made toxic chemicals also known as forever chemicals.

• They have various applications like waterproofing, non-stick surfaces, cosmetics, firefighting forms, stain resistant fabrics and food packaging.

• These are notorious for their durability and can persist in the environment for thousands of years and causing significant pollution.

• Recently researchers have developed a ground breaking technique to track and manage these forever chemicals

• The method uses unique fingerprints of carbon isotopes in the molecule enabling the tracking of these chemicals from their source to their destination

• This technique offers a new way to trace the spread of PFAS in the environment.

Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

• PFAS are human made toxic chemicals also known as forever chemicals.

• They have various applications like waterproofing, non-stick surfaces, cosmetics, firefighting forms, stain resistant fabrics and food packaging.

• These are notorious for their durability and can persist in the environment for thousands of years and causing significant pollution.

• Recently researchers have developed a ground breaking technique to track and manage these forever chemicals

• The method uses unique fingerprints of carbon isotopes in the molecule enabling the tracking of these chemicals from their source to their destination

• This technique offers a new way to trace the spread of PFAS in the environment.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Recently, Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability was in news; it was organised by: (a) The Energy and Resources Institute (b) Healing Himalayas (c) Bharat Clean Rivers Foundation (d) All India Plastic Manufacturers’ Association Correct Solution: D The Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability was organised by All India plastic manufacturers Association along with the Chemicals and Petrochemicals Association. The main aim of the event was to raise awareness about the serious problems caused by plastic use and its effects on the planet by supporting recycling and sustainability efforts. The conclave focused on Sustainable plastic use and problems related to mitigation of plastic waste and how it pollutes land, water and air systems. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D The Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability was organised by All India plastic manufacturers Association along with the Chemicals and Petrochemicals Association. The main aim of the event was to raise awareness about the serious problems caused by plastic use and its effects on the planet by supporting recycling and sustainability efforts. The conclave focused on Sustainable plastic use and problems related to mitigation of plastic waste and how it pollutes land, water and air systems. Hence option D is correct

#### 17. Question

Recently, Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability was in news; it was organised by:

• (a) The Energy and Resources Institute

• (b) Healing Himalayas

• (c) Bharat Clean Rivers Foundation

• (d) All India Plastic Manufacturers’ Association

Solution: D

• The Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability was organised by All India plastic manufacturers Association along with the Chemicals and Petrochemicals Association.

• The main aim of the event was to raise awareness about the serious problems caused by plastic use and its effects on the planet by supporting recycling and sustainability efforts.

• The conclave focused on Sustainable plastic use and problems related to mitigation of plastic waste and how it pollutes land, water and air systems.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• The Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability was organised by All India plastic manufacturers Association along with the Chemicals and Petrochemicals Association.

• The main aim of the event was to raise awareness about the serious problems caused by plastic use and its effects on the planet by supporting recycling and sustainability efforts.

• The conclave focused on Sustainable plastic use and problems related to mitigation of plastic waste and how it pollutes land, water and air systems.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The term of ‘biodiversity hotspot’ was first provided at the Convention on Biological Diversity at the Rio Earth Summit. A Biodiversity hotspot is required to have a minimum of 1500 vascular plants as endemic species. The entire Western Ghats is the only biodiversity hotspot region in India. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A British ecologist Norman Myres coined the term biodiversity hotspot in 1988 and initially identified 10 tropical forest areas as regions of high plant endemism and significant Habitat loss. Later it was adopted by Conservation International; it played a major role in refining and promoting the idea. Hence statement 1 is incorrect A region is classified as a biodiversity hotspot if it meet the two following criteria – It must have at least 1500 vascular plants as endemics It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation or it must be threatened. Hence statement 2 is correct There are 4 biodiversity hotspots in India – The Himalayan region including the entire Indian Himalayan region and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, China and Myanmar Indo-Burma including entire northeast India except Assam and Andaman group of Islands Sundalands includes and Nicobar group of Islands (along with Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, Philippines) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A British ecologist Norman Myres coined the term biodiversity hotspot in 1988 and initially identified 10 tropical forest areas as regions of high plant endemism and significant Habitat loss. Later it was adopted by Conservation International; it played a major role in refining and promoting the idea. Hence statement 1 is incorrect A region is classified as a biodiversity hotspot if it meet the two following criteria – It must have at least 1500 vascular plants as endemics It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation or it must be threatened. Hence statement 2 is correct There are 4 biodiversity hotspots in India – The Himalayan region including the entire Indian Himalayan region and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, China and Myanmar Indo-Burma including entire northeast India except Assam and Andaman group of Islands Sundalands includes and Nicobar group of Islands (along with Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, Philippines) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The term of ‘biodiversity hotspot’ was first provided at the Convention on Biological Diversity at the Rio Earth Summit.

• A Biodiversity hotspot is required to have a minimum of 1500 vascular plants as endemic species.

• The entire Western Ghats is the only biodiversity hotspot region in India.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• British ecologist Norman Myres coined the term biodiversity hotspot in 1988 and initially identified 10 tropical forest areas as regions of high plant endemism and significant Habitat loss.

• Later it was adopted by Conservation International; it played a major role in refining and promoting the idea.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

A region is classified as a biodiversity hotspot if it meet the two following criteria –

• It must have at least 1500 vascular plants as endemics

• It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation or it must be threatened.

Hence statement 2 is correct

There are 4 biodiversity hotspots in India –

• The Himalayan region including the entire Indian Himalayan region and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, China and Myanmar

• Indo-Burma including entire northeast India except Assam and Andaman group of Islands

• Sundalands includes and Nicobar group of Islands (along with Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, Philippines)

• Western Ghats and Sri Lanka

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• British ecologist Norman Myres coined the term biodiversity hotspot in 1988 and initially identified 10 tropical forest areas as regions of high plant endemism and significant Habitat loss.

• Later it was adopted by Conservation International; it played a major role in refining and promoting the idea.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

A region is classified as a biodiversity hotspot if it meet the two following criteria –

• It must have at least 1500 vascular plants as endemics

• It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation or it must be threatened.

Hence statement 2 is correct

There are 4 biodiversity hotspots in India –

• The Himalayan region including the entire Indian Himalayan region and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, China and Myanmar

• Indo-Burma including entire northeast India except Assam and Andaman group of Islands

• Sundalands includes and Nicobar group of Islands (along with Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, Philippines)

• Western Ghats and Sri Lanka

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: Acidification of ocean water negatively impacts calcifying Marine organisms. Statement – II: Ocean acidification is characterized by a decrease in carbonate ions in the ocean. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: A Ocean acidification refers to a reduction in pH of ocean over an extended period of time resulting primarily by uptake of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. When Carbon dioxide is absorbed by sea water, a series of chemical reactions occur resulting in increased concentration of hydrogen ions This increase causes the sea water to become more acidic and causes carbonate ions to be relatively less abundant Carbonate ions are important building blocks for structures such as sea shells and coral skeleton Decreases in carbonate ions can make building and maintaining shells and other calcium carbonate structures difficult for calcifying organisms such as oysters, clam, shallow water corals, deep sea corals and calcareous planktons. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution: A Ocean acidification refers to a reduction in pH of ocean over an extended period of time resulting primarily by uptake of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. When Carbon dioxide is absorbed by sea water, a series of chemical reactions occur resulting in increased concentration of hydrogen ions This increase causes the sea water to become more acidic and causes carbonate ions to be relatively less abundant Carbonate ions are important building blocks for structures such as sea shells and coral skeleton Decreases in carbonate ions can make building and maintaining shells and other calcium carbonate structures difficult for calcifying organisms such as oysters, clam, shallow water corals, deep sea corals and calcareous planktons. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I:

Acidification of ocean water negatively impacts calcifying Marine organisms.

Statement – II:

Ocean acidification is characterized by a decrease in carbonate ions in the ocean.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: A

• Ocean acidification refers to a reduction in pH of ocean over an extended period of time resulting primarily by uptake of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

• When Carbon dioxide is absorbed by sea water, a series of chemical reactions occur resulting in increased concentration of hydrogen ions

• This increase causes the sea water to become more acidic and causes carbonate ions to be relatively less abundant

• Carbonate ions are important building blocks for structures such as sea shells and coral skeleton

• Decreases in carbonate ions can make building and maintaining shells and other calcium carbonate structures difficult for calcifying organisms such as oysters, clam, shallow water corals, deep sea corals and calcareous planktons.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

Solution: A

• Ocean acidification refers to a reduction in pH of ocean over an extended period of time resulting primarily by uptake of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

• When Carbon dioxide is absorbed by sea water, a series of chemical reactions occur resulting in increased concentration of hydrogen ions

• This increase causes the sea water to become more acidic and causes carbonate ions to be relatively less abundant

• Carbonate ions are important building blocks for structures such as sea shells and coral skeleton

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Bonn Convention is the only Global convention of the United Nations for conservation of migratory species. The Convention on Migratory Species is applicable only to migratory birds and provides protection to them throughout their Migratory routes. Appendix II of the Bonn Convention includes migratory species that would significantly benefit from international cooperation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: D The Convention on Migratory Species or the Bonn Convention is an environmental Treaty of the United Nations It is the only Global convention specialising in conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes. Hence statement 1 is correct The species covered under the Bonn convention include mammals, birds, reptiles, fishes and one insect. These are listed in two appendices of the Convention. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Migratory species threatened with extinction are listed in Appendix I of the Convention. The parties of the convention work towards strictly protecting these animals, conserving or restoring the places where they live Migratory species that need or would significantly benefit from international cooperation is listed in Appendix II of the convention; for this reason, the convention encourages the range states to conclude Global or regional Agreements. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: D The Convention on Migratory Species or the Bonn Convention is an environmental Treaty of the United Nations It is the only Global convention specialising in conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes. Hence statement 1 is correct The species covered under the Bonn convention include mammals, birds, reptiles, fishes and one insect. These are listed in two appendices of the Convention. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Migratory species threatened with extinction are listed in Appendix I of the Convention. The parties of the convention work towards strictly protecting these animals, conserving or restoring the places where they live Migratory species that need or would significantly benefit from international cooperation is listed in Appendix II of the convention; for this reason, the convention encourages the range states to conclude Global or regional Agreements. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Bonn Convention is the only Global convention of the United Nations for conservation of migratory species.

• The Convention on Migratory Species is applicable only to migratory birds and provides protection to them throughout their Migratory routes.

• Appendix II of the Bonn Convention includes migratory species that would significantly benefit from international cooperation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

• The Convention on Migratory Species or the Bonn Convention is an environmental Treaty of the United Nations

• It is the only Global convention specialising in conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The species covered under the Bonn convention include mammals, birds, reptiles, fishes and one insect.

• These are listed in two appendices of the Convention.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Migratory species threatened with extinction are listed in Appendix I of the Convention.

• The parties of the convention work towards strictly protecting these animals, conserving or restoring the places where they live

• Migratory species that need or would significantly benefit from international cooperation is listed in Appendix II of the convention; for this reason, the convention encourages the range states to conclude Global or regional Agreements.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: D

• The Convention on Migratory Species or the Bonn Convention is an environmental Treaty of the United Nations

• It is the only Global convention specialising in conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The species covered under the Bonn convention include mammals, birds, reptiles, fishes and one insect.

• These are listed in two appendices of the Convention.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Migratory species threatened with extinction are listed in Appendix I of the Convention.

• The parties of the convention work towards strictly protecting these animals, conserving or restoring the places where they live

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points With reference to Bhagat Singh in colonial India, consider the following statements He was a founding member of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA). He established the Naujawan Bharat Sabha with the aim of mobilizing youth and workers against imperialism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Bhagat Singh: The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was originally formed in 1924 as the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) by leaders like Ram Prasad Bismil, Sachindranath Sanyal, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee. In 1928, the HRA was reorganized and renamed as HSRA, with a clear emphasis on socialist ideals. Although Bhagat Singh became one of the leading members of the HSRA and gave it ideological direction, he was not among its original founders. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The Naujawan Bharat Sabha was founded by Bhagat Singh in Lahore in 1926. It served as a mass front organization to mobilize youth, peasants, and workers against British imperialism. The Sabha propagated secular, anti-colonial, and socialist ideas, and was instrumental in creating revolutionary awareness among the common people. It functioned both independently and in coordination with HSRA, especially in Punjab. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_international/issues/101103/OPS/GM6DBMSIG.1+GC2DCRKBH.1.html Incorrect Solution: B Bhagat Singh: The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was originally formed in 1924 as the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) by leaders like Ram Prasad Bismil, Sachindranath Sanyal, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee. In 1928, the HRA was reorganized and renamed as HSRA, with a clear emphasis on socialist ideals. Although Bhagat Singh became one of the leading members of the HSRA and gave it ideological direction, he was not among its original founders. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The Naujawan Bharat Sabha was founded by Bhagat Singh in Lahore in 1926. It served as a mass front organization to mobilize youth, peasants, and workers against British imperialism. The Sabha propagated secular, anti-colonial, and socialist ideas, and was instrumental in creating revolutionary awareness among the common people. It functioned both independently and in coordination with HSRA, especially in Punjab. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_international/issues/101103/OPS/GM6DBMSIG.1+GC2DCRKBH.1.html

#### 21. Question

With reference to Bhagat Singh in colonial India, consider the following statements

• He was a founding member of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA).

• He established the Naujawan Bharat Sabha with the aim of mobilizing youth and workers against imperialism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Bhagat Singh:

• The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was originally formed in 1924 as the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) by leaders like Ram Prasad Bismil, Sachindranath Sanyal, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee.

• In 1928, the HRA was reorganized and renamed as HSRA, with a clear emphasis on socialist ideals.

• Although Bhagat Singh became one of the leading members of the HSRA and gave it ideological direction, he was not among its original founders. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• The Naujawan Bharat Sabha was founded by Bhagat Singh in Lahore in 1926.

• It served as a mass front organization to mobilize youth, peasants, and workers against British imperialism.

• The Sabha propagated secular, anti-colonial, and socialist ideas, and was instrumental in creating revolutionary awareness among the common people.

• It functioned both independently and in coordination with HSRA, especially in Punjab. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_international/issues/101103/OPS/GM6DBMSIG.1+GC2DCRKBH.1.html

Solution: B

Bhagat Singh:

• In 1928, the HRA was reorganized and renamed as HSRA, with a clear emphasis on socialist ideals.

• Although Bhagat Singh became one of the leading members of the HSRA and gave it ideological direction, he was not among its original founders. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• The Naujawan Bharat Sabha was founded by Bhagat Singh in Lahore in 1926.

• It served as a mass front organization to mobilize youth, peasants, and workers against British imperialism.

• The Sabha propagated secular, anti-colonial, and socialist ideas, and was instrumental in creating revolutionary awareness among the common people.

• It functioned both independently and in coordination with HSRA, especially in Punjab. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_international/issues/101103/OPS/GM6DBMSIG.1+GC2DCRKBH.1.html

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements The Chairman of the PAC is always a Member of Parliament from the Lok Sabha. The PAC can examine the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) only after they are laid before the Parliament. The Public Accounts Committee was first established after the enactment of the Government of India Act, 1935. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Public Accounts Committee (PAC): The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the three Financial Committees of the Parliament. It plays a vital role in ensuring accountability of the executive to the legislature with respect to public finance. The PAC consists of 22 members: 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. These members are elected annually by the respective Houses of Parliament. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and is always a Lok Sabha MP. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Since 1967, it has been a convention to appoint a member from the Opposition party as the Chairman of PAC. The PAC examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India only after they are laid before the Parliament. These reports include audit of accounts, appropriation accounts, and various financial audits of the government. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The Committee on Public Accounts was first constituted in 1921 following the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) — making it the oldest parliamentary committee. Therefore, it was not established after the Government of India Act, 1935. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/%E2%80%8Bpublic-accounts-on-the-newly-constituted-public-accounts-committee/article68630677.ece Incorrect Solution: B Public Accounts Committee (PAC): The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the three Financial Committees of the Parliament. It plays a vital role in ensuring accountability of the executive to the legislature with respect to public finance. The PAC consists of 22 members: 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. These members are elected annually by the respective Houses of Parliament. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and is always a Lok Sabha MP. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Since 1967, it has been a convention to appoint a member from the Opposition party as the Chairman of PAC. The PAC examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India only after they are laid before the Parliament. These reports include audit of accounts, appropriation accounts, and various financial audits of the government. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The Committee on Public Accounts was first constituted in 1921 following the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) — making it the oldest parliamentary committee. Therefore, it was not established after the Government of India Act, 1935. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/%E2%80%8Bpublic-accounts-on-the-newly-constituted-public-accounts-committee/article68630677.ece

#### 22. Question

With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements

• The Chairman of the PAC is always a Member of Parliament from the Lok Sabha.

• The PAC can examine the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) only after they are laid before the Parliament.

• The Public Accounts Committee was first established after the enactment of the Government of India Act, 1935.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Public Accounts Committee (PAC):

• The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the three Financial Committees of the Parliament. It plays a vital role in ensuring accountability of the executive to the legislature with respect to public finance.

• The PAC consists of 22 members: 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. These members are elected annually by the respective Houses of Parliament. The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and is always a Lok Sabha MP. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Since 1967, it has been a convention to appoint a member from the Opposition party as the Chairman of PAC.

• The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and is always a Lok Sabha MP. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Since 1967, it has been a convention to appoint a member from the Opposition party as the Chairman of PAC.

• The PAC examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India only after they are laid before the Parliament. These reports include audit of accounts, appropriation accounts, and various financial audits of the government. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• These reports include audit of accounts, appropriation accounts, and various financial audits of the government. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The Committee on Public Accounts was first constituted in 1921 following the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) — making it the oldest parliamentary committee. Therefore, it was not established after the Government of India Act, 1935. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• Therefore, it was not established after the Government of India Act, 1935. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/%E2%80%8Bpublic-accounts-on-the-newly-constituted-public-accounts-committee/article68630677.ece

Solution: B

Public Accounts Committee (PAC):

• The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and is always a Lok Sabha MP. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Since 1967, it has been a convention to appoint a member from the Opposition party as the Chairman of PAC.

• These reports include audit of accounts, appropriation accounts, and various financial audits of the government. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Therefore, it was not established after the Government of India Act, 1935. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/%E2%80%8Bpublic-accounts-on-the-newly-constituted-public-accounts-committee/article68630677.ece

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points With reference to the Indus Waters Treaty, consider the following statements: Under the Treaty, the waters of the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej rivers were allocated to India. India is permitted limited use of the western rivers for domestic needs, agricultural use, and run-of-the-river hydroelectric projects, subject to treaty conditions. The World Bank acted as a broker and is one of the signatory to the Treaty. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Indus Waters Treaty (1960): The Indus Waters Treaty (1960) was signed between India and Pakistan to divide the waters of the Indus River system. The Treaty allocated the eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) to India and the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) to Pakistan. India has full control over the eastern rivers while Pakistan retains full control over the western rivers. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct) India’s Rights to Western Rivers: India is allowed to use the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) for non-consumptive purposes, such as irrigation, hydroelectric power generation, and domestic needs (subject to specific conditions outlined in the Treaty). The Treaty ensures water use for hydroelectric projects must not alter the flow of rivers significantly and must not violate Pakistan’s rights. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct) World Bank’s Role: The World Bank played a crucial mediating role in facilitating the agreement but was not a signatory to the Treaty. The Treaty was signed by India and Pakistan on September 19, 1960. The World Bank helped resolve disputes regarding water usage, but its role was as a facilitator, not a signatory. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect) https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/india-notice-pakistan-indus-water-treaty-9574375/ Incorrect Solution: B Indus Waters Treaty (1960): The Indus Waters Treaty (1960) was signed between India and Pakistan to divide the waters of the Indus River system. The Treaty allocated the eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) to India and the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) to Pakistan. India has full control over the eastern rivers while Pakistan retains full control over the western rivers. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct) India’s Rights to Western Rivers: India is allowed to use the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) for non-consumptive purposes, such as irrigation, hydroelectric power generation, and domestic needs (subject to specific conditions outlined in the Treaty). The Treaty ensures water use for hydroelectric projects must not alter the flow of rivers significantly and must not violate Pakistan’s rights. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct) World Bank’s Role: The World Bank played a crucial mediating role in facilitating the agreement but was not a signatory to the Treaty. The Treaty was signed by India and Pakistan on September 19, 1960. The World Bank helped resolve disputes regarding water usage, but its role was as a facilitator, not a signatory. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect) https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/india-notice-pakistan-indus-water-treaty-9574375/

#### 23. Question

With reference to the Indus Waters Treaty, consider the following statements:

• Under the Treaty, the waters of the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej rivers were allocated to India.

• India is permitted limited use of the western rivers for domestic needs, agricultural use, and run-of-the-river hydroelectric projects, subject to treaty conditions.

• The World Bank acted as a broker and is one of the signatory to the Treaty.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Indus Waters Treaty (1960):

• The Indus Waters Treaty (1960) was signed between India and Pakistan to divide the waters of the Indus River system. The Treaty allocated the eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) to India and the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) to Pakistan. India has full control over the eastern rivers while Pakistan retains full control over the western rivers. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct)

• The Treaty allocated the eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) to India and the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) to Pakistan.

• India has full control over the eastern rivers while Pakistan retains full control over the western rivers. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct)

• India’s Rights to Western Rivers: India is allowed to use the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) for non-consumptive purposes, such as irrigation, hydroelectric power generation, and domestic needs (subject to specific conditions outlined in the Treaty). The Treaty ensures water use for hydroelectric projects must not alter the flow of rivers significantly and must not violate Pakistan’s rights. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct)

• India is allowed to use the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) for non-consumptive purposes, such as irrigation, hydroelectric power generation, and domestic needs (subject to specific conditions outlined in the Treaty).

• The Treaty ensures water use for hydroelectric projects must not alter the flow of rivers significantly and must not violate Pakistan’s rights. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct)

• World Bank’s Role: The World Bank played a crucial mediating role in facilitating the agreement but was not a signatory to the Treaty. The Treaty was signed by India and Pakistan on September 19, 1960. The World Bank helped resolve disputes regarding water usage, but its role was as a facilitator, not a signatory. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect)

• The World Bank played a crucial mediating role in facilitating the agreement but was not a signatory to the Treaty.

• The Treaty was signed by India and Pakistan on September 19, 1960.

• The World Bank helped resolve disputes regarding water usage, but its role was as a facilitator, not a signatory. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect)

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/india-notice-pakistan-indus-water-treaty-9574375/

Solution: B

Indus Waters Treaty (1960):

• The Treaty allocated the eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) to India and the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) to Pakistan.

• India has full control over the eastern rivers while Pakistan retains full control over the western rivers. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct)

• The Treaty ensures water use for hydroelectric projects must not alter the flow of rivers significantly and must not violate Pakistan’s rights. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct)

• The World Bank played a crucial mediating role in facilitating the agreement but was not a signatory to the Treaty.

• The Treaty was signed by India and Pakistan on September 19, 1960.

• The World Bank helped resolve disputes regarding water usage, but its role was as a facilitator, not a signatory. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect)

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/india-notice-pakistan-indus-water-treaty-9574375/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points With reference to the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), consider the following statements CDRI was established in 2019 under India’s leadership at the UN Climate Action Summit. The main objective of CDRI is to enhance the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks. The Secretariat of CDRI is located in New Delhi, India. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI): Year of establishment: The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) was established in 2019 at the UN Climate Action Summit. Leadership: The initiative was launched under India’s leadership, with support from the UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR). Nature: CDRI is a global coalition that brings together countries, UN organizations, multilateral development banks, corporate sector, and academic institutions to work collaboratively on building disaster-resilient infrastructure. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Objective Main Goal: The primary goal of CDRI is to enhance the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate change and disaster risks. Key Focus: The coalition aims to reduce vulnerabilities and promote climate-proofing of infrastructure systems, ensuring they can withstand extreme weather events and natural disasters, while also being sustainable in the long term. Global Outreach: CDRI also works to create awareness on disaster resilience and sustainable infrastructure development globally. The coalition helps build knowledge-sharing platforms, capacity-building programs, and technical support mechanisms for governments and other stakeholders. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Governing Structure Key Bodies: CDRI operates with a three-tier governance structure: Governing Council: The supreme authority of CDRI, responsible for setting the strategic direction of the coalition. Executive Committee: Handles the operational aspects, ensuring the implementation of policies and decisions made by the Governing Council. Secretariat: The operational body of the coalition, which manages day-to-day activities and facilitates the implementation of projects. The Secretariat is located in New Delhi, India. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) Membership Countries: CDRI has 39 member countries (as of 2023), with 7 organizations from the development sector. Open Membership: Membership is open to all countries and organizations, subject to approval by the Governing Council. https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/cdri-launches-2-5-million-to-support-cities-for-climate-resilience-101727107917489.html Incorrect Solution: C Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI): Year of establishment: The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) was established in 2019 at the UN Climate Action Summit. Leadership: The initiative was launched under India’s leadership, with support from the UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR). Nature: CDRI is a global coalition that brings together countries, UN organizations, multilateral development banks, corporate sector, and academic institutions to work collaboratively on building disaster-resilient infrastructure. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Objective Main Goal: The primary goal of CDRI is to enhance the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate change and disaster risks. Key Focus: The coalition aims to reduce vulnerabilities and promote climate-proofing of infrastructure systems, ensuring they can withstand extreme weather events and natural disasters, while also being sustainable in the long term. Global Outreach: CDRI also works to create awareness on disaster resilience and sustainable infrastructure development globally. The coalition helps build knowledge-sharing platforms, capacity-building programs, and technical support mechanisms for governments and other stakeholders. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Governing Structure Key Bodies: CDRI operates with a three-tier governance structure: Governing Council: The supreme authority of CDRI, responsible for setting the strategic direction of the coalition. Executive Committee: Handles the operational aspects, ensuring the implementation of policies and decisions made by the Governing Council. Secretariat: The operational body of the coalition, which manages day-to-day activities and facilitates the implementation of projects. The Secretariat is located in New Delhi, India. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) Membership Countries: CDRI has 39 member countries (as of 2023), with 7 organizations from the development sector. Open Membership: Membership is open to all countries and organizations, subject to approval by the Governing Council. https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/cdri-launches-2-5-million-to-support-cities-for-climate-resilience-101727107917489.html

#### 24. Question

With reference to the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), consider the following statements

• CDRI was established in 2019 under India’s leadership at the UN Climate Action Summit.

• The main objective of CDRI is to enhance the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks.

• The Secretariat of CDRI is located in New Delhi, India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI):

• Year of establishment: The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) was established in 2019 at the UN Climate Action Summit.

• Leadership: The initiative was launched under India’s leadership, with support from the UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR).

• Nature: CDRI is a global coalition that brings together countries, UN organizations, multilateral development banks, corporate sector, and academic institutions to work collaboratively on building disaster-resilient infrastructure.

(Hence, statement 1 is correct)

Objective

• Main Goal: The primary goal of CDRI is to enhance the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate change and disaster risks.

• Key Focus: The coalition aims to reduce vulnerabilities and promote climate-proofing of infrastructure systems, ensuring they can withstand extreme weather events and natural disasters, while also being sustainable in the long term.

• Global Outreach: CDRI also works to create awareness on disaster resilience and sustainable infrastructure development globally. The coalition helps build knowledge-sharing platforms, capacity-building programs, and technical support mechanisms for governments and other stakeholders.

(Hence, statement 2 is correct)

Governing Structure

• Key Bodies: CDRI operates with a three-tier governance structure: Governing Council: The supreme authority of CDRI, responsible for setting the strategic direction of the coalition. Executive Committee: Handles the operational aspects, ensuring the implementation of policies and decisions made by the Governing Council.

• Governing Council: The supreme authority of CDRI, responsible for setting the strategic direction of the coalition.

• Executive Committee: Handles the operational aspects, ensuring the implementation of policies and decisions made by the Governing Council.

• Secretariat: The operational body of the coalition, which manages day-to-day activities and facilitates the implementation of projects. The Secretariat is located in New Delhi, India.

(Hence, statement 3 is correct)

Membership

• Countries: CDRI has 39 member countries (as of 2023), with 7 organizations from the development sector.

• Open Membership: Membership is open to all countries and organizations, subject to approval by the Governing Council.

https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/cdri-launches-2-5-million-to-support-cities-for-climate-resilience-101727107917489.html

Solution: C

Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI):

• Year of establishment: The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) was established in 2019 at the UN Climate Action Summit.

• Leadership: The initiative was launched under India’s leadership, with support from the UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR).

(Hence, statement 1 is correct)

Objective

• Main Goal: The primary goal of CDRI is to enhance the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate change and disaster risks.

(Hence, statement 2 is correct)

Governing Structure

• Governing Council: The supreme authority of CDRI, responsible for setting the strategic direction of the coalition.

• Executive Committee: Handles the operational aspects, ensuring the implementation of policies and decisions made by the Governing Council.

• Secretariat: The operational body of the coalition, which manages day-to-day activities and facilitates the implementation of projects. The Secretariat is located in New Delhi, India.

(Hence, statement 3 is correct)

Membership

• Countries: CDRI has 39 member countries (as of 2023), with 7 organizations from the development sector.

• Open Membership: Membership is open to all countries and organizations, subject to approval by the Governing Council.

https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/cdri-launches-2-5-million-to-support-cities-for-climate-resilience-101727107917489.html

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Operation Bhediya’: The operation was launched in response to recurring human-wildlife conflict caused by Indian Grey Wolves. The species involved in the operation is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Operation Bhediya: Operation Bhediya was launched in Madhya Pradesh to address a series of human-wildlife conflict incidents involving attacks by Indian Grey Wolves (Canis lupus pallipes), including multiple human fatalities. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The operation was a targeted response by the State Forest Department to track and capture the wolves responsible for the attacks in forest-fringe villages. It was not part of a conservation breeding programme or anti-trafficking operation. The Indian Grey Wolf is a subspecies of the grey wolf, primarily found in arid and semi-arid regions of India. While its populations in India are considered fragmented and vulnerable, the species is currently classified as ‘Least Concern’ under the IUCN Red List, based on its wider global range. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) Despite the IUCN classification, the species is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, reflecting its conservation importance within India. The operation highlights the growing challenge of human-wildlife conflict in landscapes where shrinking habitats bring carnivores into closer contact with rural communities. Incorrect Solution: A Operation Bhediya: Operation Bhediya was launched in Madhya Pradesh to address a series of human-wildlife conflict incidents involving attacks by Indian Grey Wolves (Canis lupus pallipes), including multiple human fatalities. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The operation was a targeted response by the State Forest Department to track and capture the wolves responsible for the attacks in forest-fringe villages. It was not part of a conservation breeding programme or anti-trafficking operation. The Indian Grey Wolf is a subspecies of the grey wolf, primarily found in arid and semi-arid regions of India. While its populations in India are considered fragmented and vulnerable, the species is currently classified as ‘Least Concern’ under the IUCN Red List, based on its wider global range. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) Despite the IUCN classification, the species is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, reflecting its conservation importance within India. The operation highlights the growing challenge of human-wildlife conflict in landscapes where shrinking habitats bring carnivores into closer contact with rural communities.

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Operation Bhediya’:

• The operation was launched in response to recurring human-wildlife conflict caused by Indian Grey Wolves.

• The species involved in the operation is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Operation Bhediya:

• Operation Bhediya was launched in Madhya Pradesh to address a series of human-wildlife conflict incidents involving attacks by Indian Grey Wolves (Canis lupus pallipes), including multiple human fatalities. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The operation was a targeted response by the State Forest Department to track and capture the wolves responsible for the attacks in forest-fringe villages. It was not part of a conservation breeding programme or anti-trafficking operation.

• The Indian Grey Wolf is a subspecies of the grey wolf, primarily found in arid and semi-arid regions of India. While its populations in India are considered fragmented and vulnerable, the species is currently classified as ‘Least Concern’ under the IUCN Red List, based on its wider global range. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• Despite the IUCN classification, the species is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, reflecting its conservation importance within India.

• The operation highlights the growing challenge of human-wildlife conflict in landscapes where shrinking habitats bring carnivores into closer contact with rural communities.

Solution: A

Operation Bhediya:

• Despite the IUCN classification, the species is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, reflecting its conservation importance within India.

• The operation highlights the growing challenge of human-wildlife conflict in landscapes where shrinking habitats bring carnivores into closer contact with rural communities.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Biodiversity and traditional knowledge extend beyond health and are intricately linked to natural resource management. Indigenous communities often have a deep understanding of their natural surroundings, the medicinal properties of various plants, and how the variety of plant and animal life supports food security, livelihoods, nutrition, and other dimensions of health and well-being. Biodiversity and traditional knowledge are foundational pillars of health and well-being and are essential to meeting the global commitments made under the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF), and the Paris Climate Agreement. Which of the following best describes the role played by biodiversity and traditional knowledge? a) Indigenous communities have greater understanding and are the sole custodians of biodiversity and traditional knowledge b) They are central to the fulfilment of obligations under global international commitments c) They are interconnected with natural resource management and contribute to various dimensions of health and wellbeing aligning with global commitments d) They comprise of animal life support, nutrition, health and wellbeing Correct Solution: C Justification: The central idea of the passage revolves around the importance of biodiversity and traditional knowledge, and the role they play in health management. Additionally, the passage also talks about the importance of indigenous communities in safeguarding this knowledge. Option A is incorrect as it is factually incorrect, and it is nowhere mentioned that indigenous communities are the ‘sole custodians.’ Option B and D are incorrect as the statements are data insufficient and irrelevant to the central theme of the passage. Option C is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution: C Justification: The central idea of the passage revolves around the importance of biodiversity and traditional knowledge, and the role they play in health management. Additionally, the passage also talks about the importance of indigenous communities in safeguarding this knowledge. Option A is incorrect as it is factually incorrect, and it is nowhere mentioned that indigenous communities are the ‘sole custodians.’ Option B and D are incorrect as the statements are data insufficient and irrelevant to the central theme of the passage. Option C is the correct answer.

#### 26. Question

Biodiversity and traditional knowledge extend beyond health and are intricately linked to natural resource management. Indigenous communities often have a deep understanding of their natural surroundings, the medicinal properties of various plants, and how the variety of plant and animal life supports food security, livelihoods, nutrition, and other dimensions of health and well-being. Biodiversity and traditional knowledge are foundational pillars of health and well-being and are essential to meeting the global commitments made under the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF), and the Paris Climate Agreement.

Which of the following best describes the role played by biodiversity and traditional knowledge?

• a) Indigenous communities have greater understanding and are the sole custodians of biodiversity and traditional knowledge

• b) They are central to the fulfilment of obligations under global international commitments

• c) They are interconnected with natural resource management and contribute to various dimensions of health and wellbeing aligning with global commitments

• d) They comprise of animal life support, nutrition, health and wellbeing

Solution: C

Justification:

The central idea of the passage revolves around the importance of biodiversity and traditional knowledge, and the role they play in health management. Additionally, the passage also talks about the importance of indigenous communities in safeguarding this knowledge.

Option A is incorrect as it is factually incorrect, and it is nowhere mentioned that indigenous communities are the ‘sole custodians.’

Option B and D are incorrect as the statements are data insufficient and irrelevant to the central theme of the passage.

Option C is the correct answer.

Solution: C

Justification:

Option A is incorrect as it is factually incorrect, and it is nowhere mentioned that indigenous communities are the ‘sole custodians.’

Option B and D are incorrect as the statements are data insufficient and irrelevant to the central theme of the passage.

Option C is the correct answer.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Y traveled from City A to City B. On the first day, Y covered 20% of the entire distance, and on the second day, Y traveled 60% of the remaining distance. After the first two days, the distance left to be covered is 10 km less than the distance covered on the first day. Consider the following statements: The total distance between City A and City B is 120 km. Distance traveled on the second day is more than that traveled on the first day by 40 km. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Justification: Let the total distance between City A and City B be ‘d’ km. Distance traveled on the first day = (20/100) × d = d/5 Remaining distance to be covered after the first day = d – (d/5) = 4d/5 Distance traveled on the second day = (60/100) × (4d/5) = (3/5) × (4d/5) = (12/25) × d Remaining distance to be covered after second day = (4d/5) – (12d/25) = 8d/25 We are given that this remaining distance is 10 km less than the distance covered on the first day, which is d/5: (8d/25) = (d/5) – 10 => (d/5) – (8d/25) = 10 => d = -250/3 However, distance cannot be negative, so this value doesn’t make sense in the context of the problem. Therefore, there is no valid solution for the total distance between City A and City B that satisfies the given conditions. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution: D Justification: Let the total distance between City A and City B be ‘d’ km. Distance traveled on the first day = (20/100) × d = d/5 Remaining distance to be covered after the first day = d – (d/5) = 4d/5 Distance traveled on the second day = (60/100) × (4d/5) = (3/5) × (4d/5) = (12/25) × d Remaining distance to be covered after second day = (4d/5) – (12d/25) = 8d/25 We are given that this remaining distance is 10 km less than the distance covered on the first day, which is d/5: (8d/25) = (d/5) – 10 => (d/5) – (8d/25) = 10 => d = -250/3 However, distance cannot be negative, so this value doesn’t make sense in the context of the problem. Therefore, there is no valid solution for the total distance between City A and City B that satisfies the given conditions. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

#### 27. Question

Y traveled from City A to City B. On the first day, Y covered 20% of the entire distance, and on the second day, Y traveled 60% of the remaining distance. After the first two days, the distance left to be covered is 10 km less than the distance covered on the first day.

Consider the following statements:

• The total distance between City A and City B is 120 km.

• Distance traveled on the second day is more than that traveled on the first day by 40 km.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

Justification:

Let the total distance between City A and City B be ‘d’ km. Distance traveled on the first day = (20/100) × d = d/5

Remaining distance to be covered after the first day = d – (d/5) = 4d/5 Distance traveled on the second day = (60/100) × (4d/5) = (3/5) × (4d/5) = (12/25) × d

Remaining distance to be covered after second day = (4d/5) – (12d/25) = 8d/25 We are given that this remaining distance is 10 km less than the distance covered on the first day, which is d/5:

(8d/25) = (d/5) – 10

=> (d/5) – (8d/25) = 10

=> d = -250/3

However, distance cannot be negative, so this value doesn’t make sense in the context of the problem. Therefore, there is no valid solution for the total distance between City A and City B that satisfies the given conditions.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Solution: D

Justification:

Let the total distance between City A and City B be ‘d’ km. Distance traveled on the first day = (20/100) × d = d/5

Remaining distance to be covered after the first day = d – (d/5) = 4d/5 Distance traveled on the second day = (60/100) × (4d/5) = (3/5) × (4d/5) = (12/25) × d

Remaining distance to be covered after second day = (4d/5) – (12d/25) = 8d/25 We are given that this remaining distance is 10 km less than the distance covered on the first day, which is d/5:

(8d/25) = (d/5) – 10

=> (d/5) – (8d/25) = 10

=> d = -250/3

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points One day, a street vendor sold 60% of his stock of apples while throwing away 25% of the rotting ones. From the remaining, next day, he bought the same quantity of apples that he had the day before and combined them with the leftover apples. He then sold 70% of the apples and threw away the rest. What percentage of the total amount of apples the vendor had in two days did he throw away? (a) 20.5% (b) 33% (c) 24.5% (d) 29.66% Correct Solution: C Justification: Let the initial total number of apples be 100. As he sold 60 percent of the apples he had, he must have been left with 40 apples. Number of apples he threw the first day = 40 × (25/100) = 10 apples Total apples left for second day = 40 – 10 = 30 apples Next day he would have purchased 100 apples again. So, total number of apples on second day = 30 + 100 = 130 apples Now, he sold 70% of the apples, and threw away the rest. So, 70% of 130 = 91, hence, he threw away 130-91 = 39 apples So, total apples he threw in two days = 10 + 39 = 49 Hence, the percentage of apples thrown by the vendor in two days = (49/200) x 100 = 24.5% Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution: C Justification: Let the initial total number of apples be 100. As he sold 60 percent of the apples he had, he must have been left with 40 apples. Number of apples he threw the first day = 40 × (25/100) = 10 apples Total apples left for second day = 40 – 10 = 30 apples Next day he would have purchased 100 apples again. So, total number of apples on second day = 30 + 100 = 130 apples Now, he sold 70% of the apples, and threw away the rest. So, 70% of 130 = 91, hence, he threw away 130-91 = 39 apples So, total apples he threw in two days = 10 + 39 = 49 Hence, the percentage of apples thrown by the vendor in two days = (49/200) x 100 = 24.5% Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

#### 28. Question

One day, a street vendor sold 60% of his stock of apples while throwing away 25% of the rotting ones. From the remaining, next day, he bought the same quantity of apples that he had the day before and combined them with the leftover apples. He then sold 70% of the apples and threw away the rest. What percentage of the total amount of apples the vendor had in two days did he throw away?

• (d) 29.66%

Solution: C

Justification:

Let the initial total number of apples be 100.

As he sold 60 percent of the apples he had, he must have been left with 40 apples.

Number of apples he threw the first day = 40 × (25/100) = 10 apples Total apples left for second day = 40 – 10 = 30 apples

Next day he would have purchased 100 apples again.

So, total number of apples on second day = 30 + 100 = 130 apples Now, he sold 70% of the apples, and threw away the rest.

So, 70% of 130 = 91, hence, he threw away 130-91 = 39 apples So, total apples he threw in two days = 10 + 39 = 49

Hence, the percentage of apples thrown by the vendor in two days = (49/200) x 100 = 24.5%

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Solution: C

Justification:

Let the initial total number of apples be 100.

As he sold 60 percent of the apples he had, he must have been left with 40 apples.

Number of apples he threw the first day = 40 × (25/100) = 10 apples Total apples left for second day = 40 – 10 = 30 apples

Next day he would have purchased 100 apples again.

So, total number of apples on second day = 30 + 100 = 130 apples Now, he sold 70% of the apples, and threw away the rest.

So, 70% of 130 = 91, hence, he threw away 130-91 = 39 apples So, total apples he threw in two days = 10 + 39 = 49

Hence, the percentage of apples thrown by the vendor in two days = (49/200) x 100 = 24.5%

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Nandini’s office and home are 40 kilometers apart. She once left for work 30 minutes later than usual, so she increased her speed by 4 km/h and arrived at the office at the scheduled time. What is Nandini’s new (or increased) speed? (a) 25 km/h (b) 20 km/h (c) 30 km/h (d) 16 km/h Correct Solution: B Justification: Let the normal speed be x km/h, then => x2 + 4x − 320 = 0 => x (x + 20) − 16 (x + 20) = 0 => (x + 20) (x − 16) = 0 => x = 16 So, x + 4 = 20 Therefore, increased speed = 20 km/h Hence, option (b) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution: B Justification: Let the normal speed be x km/h, then => x2 + 4x − 320 = 0 => x (x + 20) − 16 (x + 20) = 0 => (x + 20) (x − 16) = 0 => x = 16 So, x + 4 = 20 Therefore, increased speed = 20 km/h Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

#### 29. Question

Nandini’s office and home are 40 kilometers apart. She once left for work 30 minutes later than usual, so she increased her speed by 4 km/h and arrived at the office at the scheduled time. What is Nandini’s new (or increased) speed?

• (a) 25 km/h

• (b) 20 km/h

• (c) 30 km/h

• (d) 16 km/h

Solution: B

Justification:

Let the normal speed be x km/h, then

=> x2 + 4x − 320 = 0

=> x (x + 20) − 16 (x + 20) = 0

=> (x + 20) (x − 16) = 0

So, x + 4 = 20

Therefore, increased speed = 20 km/h

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Solution: B

Justification:

Let the normal speed be x km/h, then

=> x2 + 4x − 320 = 0

=> x (x + 20) − 16 (x + 20) = 0

=> (x + 20) (x − 16) = 0

So, x + 4 = 20

Therefore, increased speed = 20 km/h

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Consider the following sequence: 9, 7, 14, 8, 39, 12, 164, 21, @, @. Find the missing numbers that should replace @ (a) 876, 36 (b) 512, 39 (c) 789, 37 (d) 672, 25 Correct Solution: C Justification: Given sequence: 9, 7, 14, 8, 39, 12, 164, 21, @, @ The given sequence is a combination of the following two series: 1st series: 9, 14, 39, 164, @ Pattern of this series is: 9 9 + 51 = 14 14 + 52 = 39 39 + 53 = 164 @ = 164 + 54 = 789 2nd series: 7, 8, 12, 21, @ Pattern of this series is: 7 7 + 12 = 8 8 + 22 = 12 12 + 32 = 21 @ = 21 + 42 = 37 Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution: C Justification: Given sequence: 9, 7, 14, 8, 39, 12, 164, 21, @, @ The given sequence is a combination of the following two series: 1st series: 9, 14, 39, 164, @ Pattern of this series is: 9 9 + 51 = 14 14 + 52 = 39 39 + 53 = 164 @ = 164 + 54 = 789 2nd series: 7, 8, 12, 21, @ Pattern of this series is: 7 7 + 12 = 8 8 + 22 = 12 12 + 32 = 21 @ = 21 + 42 = 37 Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

#### 30. Question

Consider the following sequence: 9, 7, 14, 8, 39, 12, 164, 21, @, @.

Find the missing numbers that should replace @

• (a) 876, 36

• (b) 512, 39

• (c) 789, 37

• (d) 672, 25

Solution: C

Justification:

Given sequence:

9, 7, 14, 8, 39, 12, 164, 21, @, @

The given sequence is a combination of the following two series: 1st series: 9, 14, 39, 164, @

Pattern of this series is: 9

9 + 51 = 14

14 + 52 = 39

39 + 53 = 164

@ = 164 + 54 = 789

2nd series: 7, 8, 12, 21, @ Pattern of this series is:

7 + 12 = 8

8 + 22 = 12

12 + 32 = 21

@ = 21 + 42 = 37

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Solution: C

Justification:

Given sequence:

9, 7, 14, 8, 39, 12, 164, 21, @, @

The given sequence is a combination of the following two series: 1st series: 9, 14, 39, 164, @

Pattern of this series is: 9

9 + 51 = 14

14 + 52 = 39

39 + 53 = 164

@ = 164 + 54 = 789

2nd series: 7, 8, 12, 21, @ Pattern of this series is:

7 + 12 = 8

8 + 22 = 12

12 + 32 = 21

@ = 21 + 42 = 37

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE

Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE

Follow our Twitter Account HERE

Follow our Instagram ID HERE