DAY – 19 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY, Subject-wise Test 15, Textbook-wise Test 19 and October 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the ecological principle of Competitive Exclusion? (a) Two species with identical niches will adopt different survival strategies over time. (b) No two species can occupy the same niche in the same environment for a long time. (c) Species with similar needs for the same limiting resources will develop a predator-prey relationship. (d) Different species will always find a way to coexist in the same habitat. Correct Solution: B The competitive exclusion principle tells us that two species can’t have exactly the same niche in a habitat and stably coexist. That’s because species with identical niches also have identical needs, which means they would compete for precisely the same resources. Source: https://www.khanacademy.org/science/ap-biology/ecology-ap/community-ecology/a/niches-competition Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: B The competitive exclusion principle tells us that two species can’t have exactly the same niche in a habitat and stably coexist. That’s because species with identical niches also have identical needs, which means they would compete for precisely the same resources. Source: https://www.khanacademy.org/science/ap-biology/ecology-ap/community-ecology/a/niches-competition Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 1. Question

Which of the following best describes the ecological principle of Competitive Exclusion?

• (a) Two species with identical niches will adopt different survival strategies over time.

• (b) No two species can occupy the same niche in the same environment for a long time.

• (c) Species with similar needs for the same limiting resources will develop a predator-prey relationship.

• (d) Different species will always find a way to coexist in the same habitat.

Solution: B

The competitive exclusion principle tells us that two species can’t have exactly the same niche in a habitat and stably coexist. That’s because species with identical niches also have identical needs, which means they would compete for precisely the same resources.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: B

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points With respect to conservation status, How many of the following pairs are correctly matched? Species IUCN Conservation status Asiatic Lion – Endangered Great Indian Bustard – Critically Endangered Ganges River Dolphin – Vulnerable Indian Rhino – Near Threatened Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Asiatic lions were once distributed upto the state of West Bengal in east and Rewa in Madhya Pradesh, in central India. At present Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is the only abode of the Asiatic lion. The last surviving population of the Asiatic lions is a compact tract of dry deciduous forest and open grassy scrublands in southwestern part of Saurashtra region of Gujarat Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. Historically, the great Indian bustard was distributed throughout Western India, spanning 11 states, as well as parts of Pakistan. Its stronghold was once the Thar desert in the north-west and the Deccan plateau of the peninsula. Today, its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat. Small population occur in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Bustards generally favour flat open landscapes with minimal visual obstruction and disturbance, therefore adapt well in grasslands. In the non-breeding season they frequent wide agro-grass scrub landscapes. While in the breeding season (summers and monsoons) they congregate in traditional undisturbed grassland patches characterized by a mosaic of scantily grazed tall grass (below 50 cm). They avoid grasses taller than themselves and dense scrub like thickets. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. Ganges river dolphins prefer deep waters, in and around the confluence of rivers. The distribution range of the Ganges river dolphins in India covers seven states namely, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal. The upper Ganga River (in Uttar Pradesh), Chambal River (Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh), Ghaghra and Gandak Rivers (Bihar and Uttar Pradesh), Ganga River, from Varanasi to Patna (Uttar Pradesh and Bihar), Son and Kosi rivers (Bihar), Brahmaputra from Sadia (foothills of Arunachal Pradesh) upto Dhubri (on the Bangladesh border) and Kulsi River, a tributary of the Brahmaputra River, form ideal habitats for the Ganges river dolphin. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The greater one-horned rhino (or “Indian rhino”) is the largest of the rhino species. Once widespread across the entire northern part of the Indian sub-continent, rhino populations plummeted as they were hunted for sport or killed as agricultural pests. This pushed the species very close to extinction and by the start of the 20th century, around 200 wild greater one-horned rhinos remained. Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Species Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B Asiatic lions were once distributed upto the state of West Bengal in east and Rewa in Madhya Pradesh, in central India. At present Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is the only abode of the Asiatic lion. The last surviving population of the Asiatic lions is a compact tract of dry deciduous forest and open grassy scrublands in southwestern part of Saurashtra region of Gujarat Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. Historically, the great Indian bustard was distributed throughout Western India, spanning 11 states, as well as parts of Pakistan. Its stronghold was once the Thar desert in the north-west and the Deccan plateau of the peninsula. Today, its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat. Small population occur in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Bustards generally favour flat open landscapes with minimal visual obstruction and disturbance, therefore adapt well in grasslands. In the non-breeding season they frequent wide agro-grass scrub landscapes. While in the breeding season (summers and monsoons) they congregate in traditional undisturbed grassland patches characterized by a mosaic of scantily grazed tall grass (below 50 cm). They avoid grasses taller than themselves and dense scrub like thickets. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. Ganges river dolphins prefer deep waters, in and around the confluence of rivers. The distribution range of the Ganges river dolphins in India covers seven states namely, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal. The upper Ganga River (in Uttar Pradesh), Chambal River (Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh), Ghaghra and Gandak Rivers (Bihar and Uttar Pradesh), Ganga River, from Varanasi to Patna (Uttar Pradesh and Bihar), Son and Kosi rivers (Bihar), Brahmaputra from Sadia (foothills of Arunachal Pradesh) upto Dhubri (on the Bangladesh border) and Kulsi River, a tributary of the Brahmaputra River, form ideal habitats for the Ganges river dolphin. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The greater one-horned rhino (or “Indian rhino”) is the largest of the rhino species. Once widespread across the entire northern part of the Indian sub-continent, rhino populations plummeted as they were hunted for sport or killed as agricultural pests. This pushed the species very close to extinction and by the start of the 20th century, around 200 wild greater one-horned rhinos remained. Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Species Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 2. Question

With respect to conservation status, How many of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Species IUCN Conservation status

• Asiatic Lion – Endangered

• Great Indian Bustard – Critically Endangered

• Ganges River Dolphin – Vulnerable

• Indian Rhino – Near Threatened

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Asiatic lions were once distributed upto the state of West Bengal in east and Rewa in Madhya Pradesh, in central India. At present Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is the only abode of the Asiatic lion. The last surviving population of the Asiatic lions is a compact tract of dry deciduous forest and open grassy scrublands in southwestern part of Saurashtra region of Gujarat

Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

Historically, the great Indian bustard was distributed throughout Western India, spanning 11 states, as well as parts of Pakistan. Its stronghold was once the Thar desert in the north-west and the Deccan plateau of the peninsula. Today, its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat. Small population occur in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Bustards generally favour flat open landscapes with minimal visual obstruction and disturbance, therefore adapt well in grasslands. In the non-breeding season they frequent wide agro-grass scrub landscapes. While in the breeding season (summers and monsoons) they congregate in traditional undisturbed grassland patches characterized by a mosaic of scantily grazed tall grass (below 50 cm). They avoid grasses taller than themselves and dense scrub like thickets.

Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

Ganges river dolphins prefer deep waters, in and around the confluence of rivers. The distribution range of the Ganges river dolphins in India covers seven states namely, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal. The upper Ganga River (in Uttar Pradesh), Chambal River (Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh), Ghaghra and Gandak Rivers (Bihar and Uttar Pradesh), Ganga River, from Varanasi to Patna (Uttar Pradesh and Bihar), Son and Kosi rivers (Bihar), Brahmaputra from Sadia (foothills of Arunachal Pradesh) upto Dhubri (on the Bangladesh border) and Kulsi River, a tributary of the Brahmaputra River, form ideal habitats for the Ganges river dolphin.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

The greater one-horned rhino (or “Indian rhino”) is the largest of the rhino species. Once widespread across the entire northern part of the Indian sub-continent, rhino populations plummeted as they were hunted for sport or killed as agricultural pests. This pushed the species very close to extinction and by the start of the 20th century, around 200 wild greater one-horned rhinos remained.

Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

Trend: Important Species

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

Trend: Important Species

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET): PET is one of the common thermoplastic polymers used in the soft drink industry. PET bottles are resistant to microbial degradation. PET packaging is generally unsuitable for containing alcoholic beverages with strong spirit due to chemical reactions with alcohol. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C PET is made up of a polymer matrix of ethylene terephthalate monomers with alternating (C10H8O4) units. PET bottles are commonly used for carbonated drinks. PET is very compact and can be semirigid or rigid. It is a strong gas and moisture blocker, and also a great deterrent to liquor and solvents. Hence, statement 1 is correct. PET-based plastics possess a high degree of crystallinity (30–50%), which is one of the principal reasons for their low rate of microbial degradation, which is projected to take more than 50 years for complete degraded in the natural environment. Hence, statement 2 is correct. PET packaging may not be suitable for containing strong spirits due to the potential for chemical reactions over time, which can affect the flavour and quality of the alcohol. Higher strength alcoholic beverages are typically bottled in glass to prevent any such interactions and to preserve the integrity of the product during storage. Glass is chemically inert and provides an excellent barrier to oxygen and other gases, making it the preferred choice for long-term storage of spirits with high alcohol content. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C PET is made up of a polymer matrix of ethylene terephthalate monomers with alternating (C10H8O4) units. PET bottles are commonly used for carbonated drinks. PET is very compact and can be semirigid or rigid. It is a strong gas and moisture blocker, and also a great deterrent to liquor and solvents. Hence, statement 1 is correct. PET-based plastics possess a high degree of crystallinity (30–50%), which is one of the principal reasons for their low rate of microbial degradation, which is projected to take more than 50 years for complete degraded in the natural environment. Hence, statement 2 is correct. PET packaging may not be suitable for containing strong spirits due to the potential for chemical reactions over time, which can affect the flavour and quality of the alcohol. Higher strength alcoholic beverages are typically bottled in glass to prevent any such interactions and to preserve the integrity of the product during storage. Glass is chemically inert and provides an excellent barrier to oxygen and other gases, making it the preferred choice for long-term storage of spirits with high alcohol content. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET):

• PET is one of the common thermoplastic polymers used in the soft drink industry.

• PET bottles are resistant to microbial degradation.

• PET packaging is generally unsuitable for containing alcoholic beverages with strong spirit due to chemical reactions with alcohol.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

PET is made up of a polymer matrix of ethylene terephthalate monomers with alternating (C10H8O4) units. PET bottles are commonly used for carbonated drinks. PET is very compact and can be semirigid or rigid. It is a strong gas and moisture blocker, and also a great deterrent to liquor and solvents.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

PET-based plastics possess a high degree of crystallinity (30–50%), which is one of the principal reasons for their low rate of microbial degradation, which is projected to take more than 50 years for complete degraded in the natural environment.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

PET packaging may not be suitable for containing strong spirits due to the potential for chemical reactions over time, which can affect the flavour and quality of the alcohol. Higher strength alcoholic beverages are typically bottled in glass to prevent any such interactions and to preserve the integrity of the product during storage. Glass is chemically inert and provides an excellent barrier to oxygen and other gases, making it the preferred choice for long-term storage of spirits with high alcohol content.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: C

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Which biogeochemical cycle is critically dependent on the process of weathering of rocks for its major influx of nutrients? (a) Carbon cycle (b) Nitrogen cycle (c) Phosphorus cycle (d) Sulphur cycle Correct Solution: C Several forms of nitrogen (nitrogen gas, ammnoium, nitrates, etc.) were involved in the nitrogen cycle, but phosphorus remains primarily in the form of the phosphate ion (PO43-). Also in contrast to the nitrogen cycle, there is no form of phosphorus in the atmosphere. Phosphorus is used to make nucleic acids and the phospholipids that comprise biological membranes. Rocks are a reservoir for phosphorus, and these rocks have their origins in the ocean. Phosphate-containing ocean sediments form primarily from the bodies of ocean organisms and from their excretions. However, volcanic ash, aerosols, and mineral dust may also be significant phosphate sources. This sediment then is moved to land over geologic time by the uplifting of Earth’s surface Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Question on Phosphorus cycle has been previously asked in UPSC Prelims Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C Several forms of nitrogen (nitrogen gas, ammnoium, nitrates, etc.) were involved in the nitrogen cycle, but phosphorus remains primarily in the form of the phosphate ion (PO43-). Also in contrast to the nitrogen cycle, there is no form of phosphorus in the atmosphere. Phosphorus is used to make nucleic acids and the phospholipids that comprise biological membranes. Rocks are a reservoir for phosphorus, and these rocks have their origins in the ocean. Phosphate-containing ocean sediments form primarily from the bodies of ocean organisms and from their excretions. However, volcanic ash, aerosols, and mineral dust may also be significant phosphate sources. This sediment then is moved to land over geologic time by the uplifting of Earth’s surface Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Question on Phosphorus cycle has been previously asked in UPSC Prelims Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 4. Question

Which biogeochemical cycle is critically dependent on the process of weathering of rocks for its major influx of nutrients?

• (a) Carbon cycle

• (b) Nitrogen cycle

• (c) Phosphorus cycle

• (d) Sulphur cycle

Solution: C

Several forms of nitrogen (nitrogen gas, ammnoium, nitrates, etc.) were involved in the nitrogen cycle, but phosphorus remains primarily in the form of the phosphate ion (PO43-). Also in contrast to the nitrogen cycle, there is no form of phosphorus in the atmosphere. Phosphorus is used to make nucleic acids and the phospholipids that comprise biological membranes.

Rocks are a reservoir for phosphorus, and these rocks have their origins in the ocean. Phosphate-containing ocean sediments form primarily from the bodies of ocean organisms and from their excretions. However, volcanic ash, aerosols, and mineral dust may also be significant phosphate sources. This sediment then is moved to land over geologic time by the uplifting of Earth’s surface

Trend: Question on Phosphorus cycle has been previously asked in UPSC Prelims

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: C

Trend: Question on Phosphorus cycle has been previously asked in UPSC Prelims

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: the roles of different organisms in an ecosystem, identify the correct pairings: Organisms: Role in the ecosystem: Bees Pollination Earthworms Soil aeration and nutrient recycling Coyotes Primary producers How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None Correct Solution: B Bees make excellent pollinators because most of their life is spent collecting pollen, a source of protein that they feed to their developing offspring. When a bee lands on a flower, the hairs all over the bees’ body attract pollen grains through electrostatic forces. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. Earthworms are crucial in the nutrient cycling process, as they consume organic matter and produce nutrient-rich castings. These castings enrich the soil with essential nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, making them readily accessible for plant uptake. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. The coyote is a species of canine native to North America. It is smaller than its close relative, the gray wolf, and slightly smaller than the closely related eastern wolf and red wolf. It fills much of the same ecological niche as the golden jackal does in Eurasia. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Coyotes are a kind of canine, in the food chain they form the consumers/predators. Incorrect Solution: B Bees make excellent pollinators because most of their life is spent collecting pollen, a source of protein that they feed to their developing offspring. When a bee lands on a flower, the hairs all over the bees’ body attract pollen grains through electrostatic forces. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. Earthworms are crucial in the nutrient cycling process, as they consume organic matter and produce nutrient-rich castings. These castings enrich the soil with essential nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, making them readily accessible for plant uptake. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. The coyote is a species of canine native to North America. It is smaller than its close relative, the gray wolf, and slightly smaller than the closely related eastern wolf and red wolf. It fills much of the same ecological niche as the golden jackal does in Eurasia. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Coyotes are a kind of canine, in the food chain they form the consumers/predators.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following pairs:

the roles of different organisms in an ecosystem, identify the correct pairings:

Organisms: Role in the ecosystem:

• Bees Pollination

• Earthworms Soil aeration and nutrient recycling

• Coyotes Primary producers

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one pair

• (b) Only two pairs

• (c) All three pairs

Solution: B

Bees make excellent pollinators because most of their life is spent collecting pollen, a source of protein that they feed to their developing offspring. When a bee lands on a flower, the hairs all over the bees’ body attract pollen grains through electrostatic forces.

Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

Earthworms are crucial in the nutrient cycling process, as they consume organic matter and produce nutrient-rich castings. These castings enrich the soil with essential nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, making them readily accessible for plant uptake.

Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

The coyote is a species of canine native to North America. It is smaller than its close relative, the gray wolf, and slightly smaller than the closely related eastern wolf and red wolf. It fills much of the same ecological niche as the golden jackal does in Eurasia.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Coyotes are a kind of canine, in the food chain they form the consumers/predators.

Solution: B

Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Coyotes are a kind of canine, in the food chain they form the consumers/predators.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points What is the primary role of the Wetlands Authority established under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2019? a) Implementing wetland conservation projects b) Recommending wetlands for regulation c) Issuing permits for industrial activities in wetlands d) Issuing permits for conducting scientific research on wetland ecosystems Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change notified guidelines for implementing the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2019. The Rules constitute various bodies for the conservation of wetlands and define their powers and functions: As per the Wetlands Rules, the Wetlands Authority within a state is the nodal authority for all wetland-specific authorities in a state/UT. Functions of the authority: Preparing a list of all wetlands in the state/UT and recommending wetlands for regulation under the Rules. This reflects the primary responsibility of the Wetlands Authority to identify wetlands in need of protection and recommend them for regulatory measures to ensure their conservation and sustainable management. Developing a comprehensive list of activities to be regulated and permitted within the notified wetlands. While implementing conservation projects may be a part of the authority’s responsibilities, it is not the primary role defined under the rules. Issuing necessary directions for the conservation and sustainable management of wetlands to the respective implementing agencies. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change notified guidelines for implementing the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2019. The Rules constitute various bodies for the conservation of wetlands and define their powers and functions: As per the Wetlands Rules, the Wetlands Authority within a state is the nodal authority for all wetland-specific authorities in a state/UT. Functions of the authority: Preparing a list of all wetlands in the state/UT and recommending wetlands for regulation under the Rules. This reflects the primary responsibility of the Wetlands Authority to identify wetlands in need of protection and recommend them for regulatory measures to ensure their conservation and sustainable management. Developing a comprehensive list of activities to be regulated and permitted within the notified wetlands. While implementing conservation projects may be a part of the authority’s responsibilities, it is not the primary role defined under the rules. Issuing necessary directions for the conservation and sustainable management of wetlands to the respective implementing agencies. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 6. Question

What is the primary role of the Wetlands Authority established under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2019?

• a) Implementing wetland conservation projects

• b) Recommending wetlands for regulation

• c) Issuing permits for industrial activities in wetlands

• d) Issuing permits for conducting scientific research on wetland ecosystems

Explanation:

• The Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change notified guidelines for implementing the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2019. The Rules constitute various bodies for the conservation of wetlands and define their powers and functions:

• As per the Wetlands Rules, the Wetlands Authority within a state is the nodal authority for all wetland-specific authorities in a state/UT.

• Functions of the authority:

• Preparing a list of all wetlands in the state/UT and recommending wetlands for regulation under the Rules. This reflects the primary responsibility of the Wetlands Authority to identify wetlands in need of protection and recommend them for regulatory measures to ensure their conservation and sustainable management.

• Developing a comprehensive list of activities to be regulated and permitted within the notified wetlands. While implementing conservation projects may be a part of the authority’s responsibilities, it is not the primary role defined under the rules.

• Issuing necessary directions for the conservation and sustainable management of wetlands to the respective implementing agencies.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• As per the Wetlands Rules, the Wetlands Authority within a state is the nodal authority for all wetland-specific authorities in a state/UT.

• Functions of the authority:

• Issuing necessary directions for the conservation and sustainable management of wetlands to the respective implementing agencies.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT): NGT has the power to incarcerate a person for non-compliance of its orders. NGT is adjudicatory in nature. It does not undertake preventative actions. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010. India had become one of the distinguished leagues of countries that have a dedicated adjudicatory forum to address environmental disputes. This court can rightly be called ‘special’ because India is the third country following Australia and New Zealand to have such a system. An order/decision/award of Tribunal is executable as a decree of a civil court. The NGT Act also provides a procedure for a penalty for noncompliance: Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Fine which may extend to ten crore rupees, and Both fine and imprisonment. In October 2021, the Supreme Court declared the National Green Tribunal’s (NGT) position as a “unique” forum endowed with suo motu (on its own motion) powers to take up environmental issues across the country. As per SC, the role of the NGT is not simply adjudicatory in nature; it has to perform equally vital roles that are preventative, ameliorative or remedial in nature. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: National Bodies on protection of Environment/ecology Approach: NGT has powers similar to civil court. Hence, it has power to prevent/restrain/omit actions. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010. India had become one of the distinguished leagues of countries that have a dedicated adjudicatory forum to address environmental disputes. This court can rightly be called ‘special’ because India is the third country following Australia and New Zealand to have such a system. An order/decision/award of Tribunal is executable as a decree of a civil court. The NGT Act also provides a procedure for a penalty for noncompliance: Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Fine which may extend to ten crore rupees, and Both fine and imprisonment. In October 2021, the Supreme Court declared the National Green Tribunal’s (NGT) position as a “unique” forum endowed with suo motu (on its own motion) powers to take up environmental issues across the country. As per SC, the role of the NGT is not simply adjudicatory in nature; it has to perform equally vital roles that are preventative, ameliorative or remedial in nature. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: National Bodies on protection of Environment/ecology Approach: NGT has powers similar to civil court. Hence, it has power to prevent/restrain/omit actions.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT):

• NGT has the power to incarcerate a person for non-compliance of its orders.

• NGT is adjudicatory in nature. It does not undertake preventative actions.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.

• India had become one of the distinguished leagues of countries that have a dedicated adjudicatory forum to address environmental disputes.

• This court can rightly be called ‘special’ because India is the third country following Australia and New Zealand to have such a system.

• An order/decision/award of Tribunal is executable as a decree of a civil court. The NGT Act also provides a procedure for a penalty for noncompliance:

• Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Fine which may extend to ten crore rupees, and

• Both fine and imprisonment.

• In October 2021, the Supreme Court declared the National Green Tribunal’s (NGT) position as a “unique” forum endowed with suo motu (on its own motion) powers to take up environmental issues across the country.

• As per SC, the role of the NGT is not simply adjudicatory in nature; it has to perform equally vital roles that are preventative, ameliorative or remedial in nature. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: National Bodies on protection of Environment/ecology

Approach: NGT has powers similar to civil court. Hence, it has power to prevent/restrain/omit actions.

Explanation:

• The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.

• India had become one of the distinguished leagues of countries that have a dedicated adjudicatory forum to address environmental disputes.

• This court can rightly be called ‘special’ because India is the third country following Australia and New Zealand to have such a system.

• An order/decision/award of Tribunal is executable as a decree of a civil court. The NGT Act also provides a procedure for a penalty for noncompliance:

• Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Fine which may extend to ten crore rupees, and

• Both fine and imprisonment.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: National Bodies on protection of Environment/ecology

Approach: NGT has powers similar to civil court. Hence, it has power to prevent/restrain/omit actions.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: In India, the state governments can notify establishment of a national park but cannot change the boundaries of a National Park on their own. All the states in India have at least one national park. The biggest national park of India is in Leh and the smallest national park is in Andaman and Nicobar Islands. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: There are 106 existing national parks in India covering an area of 44,372 km2, which is 1.35% of the geographical area of the country. An area, whether within a sanctuary or not, can be notified by the state government to be constituted as a National Park, by reason of its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, or zoological association or importance, needed to for the purpose of protecting & propagating or developing wildlife therein or its environment. The state governments cannot change the boundaries of a National Park unless the National Board recommends it. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Punjab, Chandigarh, Dadar & Nagar Haveli, Diu & Daman, Delhi, Lakshadweep and Puducherry have no national parks at all. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hemis National Park Established in 1981in Leh (Zaskar Range). Hemis is the only national park in India which lies to the north of the Himalayas. Hemis is the largest notified protected area in India and so the largest national park of India. South Button National Park in Andaman &Nicobar is the smallest national park in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: National Parks Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: There are 106 existing national parks in India covering an area of 44,372 km2, which is 1.35% of the geographical area of the country. An area, whether within a sanctuary or not, can be notified by the state government to be constituted as a National Park, by reason of its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, or zoological association or importance, needed to for the purpose of protecting & propagating or developing wildlife therein or its environment. The state governments cannot change the boundaries of a National Park unless the National Board recommends it. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Punjab, Chandigarh, Dadar & Nagar Haveli, Diu & Daman, Delhi, Lakshadweep and Puducherry have no national parks at all. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hemis National Park Established in 1981in Leh (Zaskar Range). Hemis is the only national park in India which lies to the north of the Himalayas. Hemis is the largest notified protected area in India and so the largest national park of India. South Button National Park in Andaman &Nicobar is the smallest national park in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: National Parks Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements:

• In India, the state governments can notify establishment of a national park but cannot change the boundaries of a National Park on their own.

• All the states in India have at least one national park.

• The biggest national park of India is in Leh and the smallest national park is in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

How many of the above given statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• There are 106 existing national parks in India covering an area of 44,372 km2, which is 1.35% of the geographical area of the country.

• An area, whether within a sanctuary or not, can be notified by the state government to be constituted as a National Park, by reason of its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, or zoological association or importance, needed to for the purpose of protecting & propagating or developing wildlife therein or its environment. The state governments cannot change the boundaries of a National Park unless the National Board recommends it. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Punjab, Chandigarh, Dadar & Nagar Haveli, Diu & Daman, Delhi, Lakshadweep and Puducherry have no national parks at all. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hemis National Park

• Established in 1981in Leh (Zaskar Range). Hemis is the only national park in India which lies to the north of the Himalayas. Hemis is the largest notified protected area in India and so the largest national park of India.

• South Button National Park in Andaman &Nicobar is the smallest national park in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: National Parks

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• There are 106 existing national parks in India covering an area of 44,372 km2, which is 1.35% of the geographical area of the country.

• Punjab, Chandigarh, Dadar & Nagar Haveli, Diu & Daman, Delhi, Lakshadweep and Puducherry have no national parks at all. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hemis National Park

• South Button National Park in Andaman &Nicobar is the smallest national park in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: National Parks

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following: 1) Flagship species Serve as ambassadors, drawing attention to conservation issues. 2) Keystone species Crucial to the functioning, or productivity of a habitat 3) Indicator species Provide information about the condition of an ecosystem 4) Foundation species Play a dominant role as primary producers in an ecosystem How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one pair b) Only two pairs c) Only three pairs d) All four pairs Correct Answer: d Explanation: Species types encompass a vast array of organisms that inhabit our planet, each possessing unique characteristics and playing crucial roles within their respective ecosystems. From microscopic bacteria to towering trees, the diversity of life on Earth is awe-inspiring. These species can be broadly classified into different categories based on various criteria such as their physical traits, habitat preferences, reproductive strategies, and genetic makeup. Understanding these species types is fundamental to comprehending the complexities of biodiversity and the interconnectedness of all living things. FLAGSHIP SPECIES: Flagship species are selected to symbolize and advocate for a specific habitat, environmental cause, or campaign. They serve as ambassadors, drawing attention to broader conservation issues. Hence, pair 1 is correct. Examples include iconic species like the Giant Panda, Indian Tiger, Golden Lion, African Elephant, and Asian Elephant. KEYSTONE SPECIES: Keystone species have a significant impact on the abundance or occurrence of other species within an ecosystem. Their role is crucial to the structure, functioning, or productivity of a habitat. Hence, pair 2 is correct. Predators like Tigers, Lions, Crocodiles, and Elephants are examples of keystone species. INDICATOR SPECIES: Indicator species provide information about the condition of an ecosystem or specific processes within it. Hence, pair 3 is correct. For instance, crayfish can indicate freshwater quality, while lichens are sensitive indicators of air quality, particularly to pollutants like sulphur dioxide. FOUNDATION SPECIES: Foundation species, such as corals, play a dominant role as primary producers in an ecosystem. They exhibit both abundance and influence, forming the bedrock of the ecosystem’s structure and function. Hence, pair 4 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Species types encompass a vast array of organisms that inhabit our planet, each possessing unique characteristics and playing crucial roles within their respective ecosystems. From microscopic bacteria to towering trees, the diversity of life on Earth is awe-inspiring. These species can be broadly classified into different categories based on various criteria such as their physical traits, habitat preferences, reproductive strategies, and genetic makeup. Understanding these species types is fundamental to comprehending the complexities of biodiversity and the interconnectedness of all living things. FLAGSHIP SPECIES: Flagship species are selected to symbolize and advocate for a specific habitat, environmental cause, or campaign. They serve as ambassadors, drawing attention to broader conservation issues. Hence, pair 1 is correct. Examples include iconic species like the Giant Panda, Indian Tiger, Golden Lion, African Elephant, and Asian Elephant. KEYSTONE SPECIES: Keystone species have a significant impact on the abundance or occurrence of other species within an ecosystem. Their role is crucial to the structure, functioning, or productivity of a habitat. Hence, pair 2 is correct. Predators like Tigers, Lions, Crocodiles, and Elephants are examples of keystone species. INDICATOR SPECIES: Indicator species provide information about the condition of an ecosystem or specific processes within it. Hence, pair 3 is correct. For instance, crayfish can indicate freshwater quality, while lichens are sensitive indicators of air quality, particularly to pollutants like sulphur dioxide. FOUNDATION SPECIES: Foundation species, such as corals, play a dominant role as primary producers in an ecosystem. They exhibit both abundance and influence, forming the bedrock of the ecosystem’s structure and function. Hence, pair 4 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 9. Question

Consider the following:

1.Flagship species | Serve as ambassadors, drawing attention to conservation issues.
2.Keystone species | Crucial to the functioning, or productivity of a habitat
3.Indicator species | Provide information about the condition of an ecosystem
4.Foundation species | Play a dominant role as primary producers in an ecosystem

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• a) Only one pair

• b) Only two pairs

• c) Only three pairs

• d) All four pairs

Explanation:

• Species types encompass a vast array of organisms that inhabit our planet, each possessing unique characteristics and playing crucial roles within their respective ecosystems. From microscopic bacteria to towering trees, the diversity of life on Earth is awe-inspiring. These species can be broadly classified into different categories based on various criteria such as their physical traits, habitat preferences, reproductive strategies, and genetic makeup. Understanding these species types is fundamental to comprehending the complexities of biodiversity and the interconnectedness of all living things.

• FLAGSHIP SPECIES:

• Flagship species are selected to symbolize and advocate for a specific habitat, environmental cause, or campaign.

• They serve as ambassadors, drawing attention to broader conservation issues. Hence, pair 1 is correct.

• Examples include iconic species like the Giant Panda, Indian Tiger, Golden Lion, African Elephant, and Asian Elephant.

• KEYSTONE SPECIES:

• Keystone species have a significant impact on the abundance or occurrence of other species within an ecosystem.

• Their role is crucial to the structure, functioning, or productivity of a habitat. Hence, pair 2 is correct.

• Predators like Tigers, Lions, Crocodiles, and Elephants are examples of keystone species.

• INDICATOR SPECIES:

• Indicator species provide information about the condition of an ecosystem or specific processes within it. Hence, pair 3 is correct.

• For instance, crayfish can indicate freshwater quality, while lichens are sensitive indicators of air quality, particularly to pollutants like sulphur dioxide.

• FOUNDATION SPECIES:

• Foundation species, such as corals, play a dominant role as primary producers in an ecosystem.

• They exhibit both abundance and influence, forming the bedrock of the ecosystem’s structure and function. Hence, pair 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• FLAGSHIP SPECIES:

• Flagship species are selected to symbolize and advocate for a specific habitat, environmental cause, or campaign.

• They serve as ambassadors, drawing attention to broader conservation issues. Hence, pair 1 is correct.

• Examples include iconic species like the Giant Panda, Indian Tiger, Golden Lion, African Elephant, and Asian Elephant.

• KEYSTONE SPECIES:

• Keystone species have a significant impact on the abundance or occurrence of other species within an ecosystem.

• Their role is crucial to the structure, functioning, or productivity of a habitat. Hence, pair 2 is correct.

• Predators like Tigers, Lions, Crocodiles, and Elephants are examples of keystone species.

• INDICATOR SPECIES:

• Indicator species provide information about the condition of an ecosystem or specific processes within it. Hence, pair 3 is correct.

• For instance, crayfish can indicate freshwater quality, while lichens are sensitive indicators of air quality, particularly to pollutants like sulphur dioxide.

• FOUNDATION SPECIES:

• Foundation species, such as corals, play a dominant role as primary producers in an ecosystem.

• They exhibit both abundance and influence, forming the bedrock of the ecosystem’s structure and function. Hence, pair 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points With reference to cheetahs, consider the following statements: Asiatic cheetah is smaller than the African cheetah. Asiatic cheetah has been declared as ‘extinct in wild’ in the IUCN Red list. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Cheetahs, the fastest land animals, are considered “crepuscular” hunters, meaning they hunt at sunrise and sunset. Cheetah females have a gestation period of 92-95 days; and will give birth to a litter of approximately three or five cubs. Asiatic Cheetah African Cheetah Physical Characteristics Smaller and paler than the African cheetah. Has smaller head and a longer neck. Usually have red eyes and they have a more cat-like appearance. Bigger in size as compared to Asiatic Cheetah. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Distribution Around 40-50 found only in Iran. ( now reintroduced in India) Around 6,500-7,000 African cheetahs present in the wild. Conservation Status IUCN: Critically Endangered IUCN: Endangered Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Species Approach: Cheetah Reintroduction- cheetahs from South Africa, Namibia to be reintroduced in India Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Cheetahs, the fastest land animals, are considered “crepuscular” hunters, meaning they hunt at sunrise and sunset. Cheetah females have a gestation period of 92-95 days; and will give birth to a litter of approximately three or five cubs. Asiatic Cheetah African Cheetah Physical Characteristics Smaller and paler than the African cheetah. Has smaller head and a longer neck. Usually have red eyes and they have a more cat-like appearance. Bigger in size as compared to Asiatic Cheetah. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Distribution Around 40-50 found only in Iran. ( now reintroduced in India) Around 6,500-7,000 African cheetahs present in the wild. Conservation Status IUCN: Critically Endangered IUCN: Endangered Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Species Approach: Cheetah Reintroduction- cheetahs from South Africa, Namibia to be reintroduced in India

#### 10. Question

With reference to cheetahs, consider the following statements:

• Asiatic cheetah is smaller than the African cheetah.

• Asiatic cheetah has been declared as ‘extinct in wild’ in the IUCN Red list.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Cheetahs, the fastest land animals, are considered “crepuscular” hunters, meaning they hunt at sunrise and sunset.

• Cheetah females have a gestation period of 92-95 days; and will give birth to a litter of approximately three or five cubs.

| Asiatic Cheetah | African Cheetah

Physical Characteristics | Smaller and paler than the African cheetah. Has smaller head and a longer neck. Usually have red eyes and they have a more cat-like appearance. | Bigger in size as compared to Asiatic Cheetah. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

| |

Distribution | Around 40-50 found only in Iran. ( now reintroduced in India) | Around 6,500-7,000 African cheetahs present in the wild.

Conservation Status | IUCN: Critically Endangered | IUCN: Endangered Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

( now reintroduced in India)

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Source: Environment and ecology

Trend: Important Species

Approach: Cheetah Reintroduction- cheetahs from South Africa, Namibia to be reintroduced in India

Explanation:

• Cheetahs, the fastest land animals, are considered “crepuscular” hunters, meaning they hunt at sunrise and sunset.

• Cheetah females have a gestation period of 92-95 days; and will give birth to a litter of approximately three or five cubs.

| Asiatic Cheetah | African Cheetah

| |

Distribution | Around 40-50 found only in Iran. ( now reintroduced in India) | Around 6,500-7,000 African cheetahs present in the wild.

Conservation Status | IUCN: Critically Endangered | IUCN: Endangered Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

( now reintroduced in India)

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Source: Environment and ecology

Trend: Important Species

Approach: Cheetah Reintroduction- cheetahs from South Africa, Namibia to be reintroduced in India

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following: a) 4-2-1-3 b) 2-4-1-3 c) 3-1-2-4 d) 4-2-3-1 Correct Answer: a Explanation: According to the Wildlife Institute of India’s (WII) 5th quadrennial tiger census, India’s tiger population increased to 3,682 in 2022.It was released on the occasion of Global Tiger Day July 29, The numbers in the report, revised from 3167 earlier, reflect a commendable annual growth rate of 6.1% per annum. Number of tigers in states in an ascending order: Maharashtra (444), Uttarakhand (560), Karnataka (563), and the largest tiger population of 785 is in MP. The tiger abundance within the Tiger Reserve is highest in Corbett (260), followed by Bandipur (150), Nagarhole (141), Bandhavgarh (135), Dudhwa (135). Hence option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Species Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: According to the Wildlife Institute of India’s (WII) 5th quadrennial tiger census, India’s tiger population increased to 3,682 in 2022.It was released on the occasion of Global Tiger Day July 29, The numbers in the report, revised from 3167 earlier, reflect a commendable annual growth rate of 6.1% per annum. Number of tigers in states in an ascending order: Maharashtra (444), Uttarakhand (560), Karnataka (563), and the largest tiger population of 785 is in MP. The tiger abundance within the Tiger Reserve is highest in Corbett (260), followed by Bandipur (150), Nagarhole (141), Bandhavgarh (135), Dudhwa (135). Hence option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Species Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 11. Question

Consider the following:

• a) 4-2-1-3

• b) 2-4-1-3

• c) 3-1-2-4

• d) 4-2-3-1

Explanation:

• According to the Wildlife Institute of India’s (WII) 5th quadrennial tiger census, India’s tiger population increased to 3,682 in 2022.It was released on the occasion of Global Tiger Day July 29,

• The numbers in the report, revised from 3167 earlier, reflect a commendable annual growth rate of 6.1% per annum.

• Number of tigers in states in an ascending order: Maharashtra (444), Uttarakhand (560), Karnataka (563), and the largest tiger population of 785 is in MP.

• The tiger abundance within the Tiger Reserve is highest in Corbett (260), followed by Bandipur (150), Nagarhole (141), Bandhavgarh (135), Dudhwa (135).

• Hence option (a) is correct.

Trend: Important Species

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The numbers in the report, revised from 3167 earlier, reflect a commendable annual growth rate of 6.1% per annum.

• Number of tigers in states in an ascending order: Maharashtra (444), Uttarakhand (560), Karnataka (563), and the largest tiger population of 785 is in MP.

• The tiger abundance within the Tiger Reserve is highest in Corbett (260), followed by Bandipur (150), Nagarhole (141), Bandhavgarh (135), Dudhwa (135).

• Hence option (a) is correct.

Trend: Important Species

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points With reference to protected areas in India, consider the following statements: Conservation reserves are typically uninhabited and fully owned by the Government, while Community reserves may include privately owned lands. The power to notify Conservation reserves and Community reserves rests with the state governments. Conservation reserves have legal status, whereas, community reserves do not have legal status. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: Conservation Reserve: It is a state-owned area adjacent to National Parks and sanctuaries for the protection of the landscape, seascape, and habitat of fauna and flora. It is overseen by a Conservation Reserve Management Committee. After consulting with local communities, the State Government may declare any area owned by the Government as a conservation reserve. The State Government may designate any community land or private land as a Community Reserve if the members of that community or individuals involved agree to offer such areas for the protection of fauna and flora, as well as their traditions, cultures, and practises. Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. Both Conservation reserve and Community reserve categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002, the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, providing them legal status. These categories were added because of reduced protection in and around existing or proposed protected areas due to private ownership of land, and land use. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Jammu and Kashmir hold the highest number of Conservation Reserves in India, totalling 32 reserves. Nagaland leads in the number of Community Reserves in India, with 114 reserves, reflecting a strong commitment to community-based conservation initiatives and the preservation of biodiversity and cultural heritage. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Community reserves are mentioned as one of the protected areas under Wildlife Act, 1972 Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Conservation Reserve: It is a state-owned area adjacent to National Parks and sanctuaries for the protection of the landscape, seascape, and habitat of fauna and flora. It is overseen by a Conservation Reserve Management Committee. After consulting with local communities, the State Government may declare any area owned by the Government as a conservation reserve. The State Government may designate any community land or private land as a Community Reserve if the members of that community or individuals involved agree to offer such areas for the protection of fauna and flora, as well as their traditions, cultures, and practises. Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. Both Conservation reserve and Community reserve categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002, the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, providing them legal status. These categories were added because of reduced protection in and around existing or proposed protected areas due to private ownership of land, and land use. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Jammu and Kashmir hold the highest number of Conservation Reserves in India, totalling 32 reserves. Nagaland leads in the number of Community Reserves in India, with 114 reserves, reflecting a strong commitment to community-based conservation initiatives and the preservation of biodiversity and cultural heritage. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Community reserves are mentioned as one of the protected areas under Wildlife Act, 1972

#### 12. Question

With reference to protected areas in India, consider the following statements:

• Conservation reserves are typically uninhabited and fully owned by the Government, while Community reserves may include privately owned lands.

• The power to notify Conservation reserves and Community reserves rests with the state governments.

• Conservation reserves have legal status, whereas, community reserves do not have legal status.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Conservation Reserve: It is a state-owned area adjacent to National Parks and sanctuaries for the protection of the landscape, seascape, and habitat of fauna and flora. It is overseen by a Conservation Reserve Management Committee.

• After consulting with local communities, the State Government may declare any area owned by the Government as a conservation reserve.

• The State Government may designate any community land or private land as a Community Reserve if the members of that community or individuals involved agree to offer such areas for the protection of fauna and flora, as well as their traditions, cultures, and practises. Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

• Both Conservation reserve and Community reserve categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002, the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, providing them legal status. These categories were added because of reduced protection in and around existing or proposed protected areas due to private ownership of land, and land use. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Jammu and Kashmir hold the highest number of Conservation Reserves in India, totalling 32 reserves. Nagaland leads in the number of Community Reserves in India, with 114 reserves, reflecting a strong commitment to community-based conservation initiatives and the preservation of biodiversity and cultural heritage.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Community reserves are mentioned as one of the protected areas under Wildlife Act, 1972

Explanation:

• After consulting with local communities, the State Government may declare any area owned by the Government as a conservation reserve.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Community reserves are mentioned as one of the protected areas under Wildlife Act, 1972

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Which of the following is the world’s largest Marine Protected Area (MPA)? a) Ross Sea b) Dead Sea c) Great barrier reef d) Gulf of Mannar Correct Answer: a Explanation: Antarctica’s Ross Sea has been declared as world’s largest Marine Protected Area (MPA) to protect the Earth’s most pristine marine ecosystem. It was declared after landmark international agreement among 24 countries and European Union in Commission for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources (CCAMLR) meeting in Hobart, Australia. The Ross Sea is one of the last intact marine ecosystems in the world. It covers 1.6 million square kilometres. MPA status to Ross Sea will bring blanket ban on commercial fishing across about three quarters of its area for 35 years. Ross Sea in the Southern Ocean is home to 38% of the world’s Adelie penguins, 30% of world’s Antarctic petrels and around 6% of world’s population of Antarctic minke whales. It is also home to huge numbers of krill, a staple food for species including whales and seals. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Antarctica’s Ross Sea has been declared as world’s largest Marine Protected Area (MPA) to protect the Earth’s most pristine marine ecosystem. It was declared after landmark international agreement among 24 countries and European Union in Commission for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources (CCAMLR) meeting in Hobart, Australia. The Ross Sea is one of the last intact marine ecosystems in the world. It covers 1.6 million square kilometres. MPA status to Ross Sea will bring blanket ban on commercial fishing across about three quarters of its area for 35 years. Ross Sea in the Southern Ocean is home to 38% of the world’s Adelie penguins, 30% of world’s Antarctic petrels and around 6% of world’s population of Antarctic minke whales. It is also home to huge numbers of krill, a staple food for species including whales and seals. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 13. Question

Which of the following is the world’s largest Marine Protected Area (MPA)?

• a) Ross Sea

• b) Dead Sea

• c) Great barrier reef

• d) Gulf of Mannar

Explanation:

• Antarctica’s Ross Sea has been declared as world’s largest Marine Protected Area (MPA) to protect the Earth’s most pristine marine ecosystem. It was declared after landmark international agreement among 24 countries and European Union in Commission for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources (CCAMLR) meeting in Hobart, Australia.

• The Ross Sea is one of the last intact marine ecosystems in the world. It covers 1.6 million square kilometres.

• MPA status to Ross Sea will bring blanket ban on commercial fishing across about three quarters of its area for 35 years.

• Ross Sea in the Southern Ocean is home to 38% of the world’s Adelie penguins, 30% of world’s Antarctic petrels and around 6% of world’s population of Antarctic minke whales.

• It is also home to huge numbers of krill, a staple food for species including whales and seals.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The Ross Sea is one of the last intact marine ecosystems in the world. It covers 1.6 million square kilometres.

• MPA status to Ross Sea will bring blanket ban on commercial fishing across about three quarters of its area for 35 years.

• Ross Sea in the Southern Ocean is home to 38% of the world’s Adelie penguins, 30% of world’s Antarctic petrels and around 6% of world’s population of Antarctic minke whales.

• It is also home to huge numbers of krill, a staple food for species including whales and seals.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following: Nagarhole National Park Mukurthi National Park Silent Valley National Park Mudumalai Tiger reserve How many of the above are part of the Nilgiri Biosphere reserve? a) Only One b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve have the distinction of being the first biosphere reserve in India. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was established in September 1986 by Government of India and later in year 2020 it was included in the list of World Network of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO. It is located in the Western Ghats. Total area of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve – 5,520 sq. km. Core area(s): 1240 Sq. Km. Buffer zone(s): 3574 Sq. Km. Transition zone(s): 706 Sq. Km. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve situated in parts of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka. Protected areas present within this reserve. Nagarhole National Park (Karnataka), Bandipur National Park (Karnataka), Wyanaad Wildlife Sanctuary ( Kerala), Mudumalai Tiger reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary (Tamil Nadu), Mukurthi National Park (Tamil Nadu), Silent Valley National Park (Kerala) Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: National Parks/ Biosphere reserves Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve have the distinction of being the first biosphere reserve in India. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was established in September 1986 by Government of India and later in year 2020 it was included in the list of World Network of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO. It is located in the Western Ghats. Total area of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve – 5,520 sq. km. Core area(s): 1240 Sq. Km. Buffer zone(s): 3574 Sq. Km. Transition zone(s): 706 Sq. Km. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve situated in parts of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka. Protected areas present within this reserve. Nagarhole National Park (Karnataka), Bandipur National Park (Karnataka), Wyanaad Wildlife Sanctuary ( Kerala), Mudumalai Tiger reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary (Tamil Nadu), Mukurthi National Park (Tamil Nadu), Silent Valley National Park (Kerala) Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: National Parks/ Biosphere reserves Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 14. Question

Consider the following:

• Nagarhole National Park

• Mukurthi National Park

• Silent Valley National Park

• Mudumalai Tiger reserve

How many of the above are part of the Nilgiri Biosphere reserve?

• a) Only One

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve have the distinction of being the first biosphere reserve in India. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was established in September 1986 by Government of India and later in year 2020 it was included in the list of World Network of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO.

• It is located in the Western Ghats.

• Total area of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve – 5,520 sq. km.

• Core area(s): 1240 Sq. Km.

• Buffer zone(s): 3574 Sq. Km.

• Transition zone(s): 706 Sq. Km.

• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve situated in parts of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka.

• Protected areas present within this reserve.

• Nagarhole National Park (Karnataka),

• Bandipur National Park (Karnataka),

• Wyanaad Wildlife Sanctuary ( Kerala),

• Mudumalai Tiger reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary (Tamil Nadu),

• Mukurthi National Park (Tamil Nadu),

• Silent Valley National Park (Kerala)

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: National Parks/ Biosphere reserves

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• It is located in the Western Ghats.

• Total area of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve – 5,520 sq. km.

• Core area(s): 1240 Sq. Km.

• Buffer zone(s): 3574 Sq. Km.

• Transition zone(s): 706 Sq. Km.

• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve situated in parts of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka.

• Protected areas present within this reserve.

• Nagarhole National Park (Karnataka),

• Bandipur National Park (Karnataka),

• Wyanaad Wildlife Sanctuary ( Kerala),

• Mudumalai Tiger reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary (Tamil Nadu),

• Mukurthi National Park (Tamil Nadu),

• Silent Valley National Park (Kerala)

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: National Parks/ Biosphere reserves

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Carnivorous plants are plants that derive their nutrients from trapping and consuming only insects. Carnivorous plants are typically associated with rain washed, nutrient-poor soils, or wet and acidic areas that are ill-drained No Carnivorous plants are naturally found in India How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: Carnivorous plants are plants that derive some or most of their nutrients (but not energy) from trapping and consuming animals or protozoans, typically insects and other arthropods. Carnivorous plants have adapted to grow in places where the soil is thin or poor in nutrients, especially nitrogen, such as acidic bogs. Charles Darwin wrote Insectivorous Plants, the first well-known treatise on carnivorous plants, in 1875. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. These plants are typically associated with rain washed, nutrient-poor soils, or wet and acidic areas that are ill-drained. Such wetlands are acidic due to anaerobic conditions, which cause incomplete decomposition of organic matter discharging acidic compounds into the surroundings. As a consequence, most microbes necessary for complete decomposition of organic matter cannot survive in such poorly oxygenated conditions. Normal plants find it difficult to survive in such nutrient poor habitats. The hunter plants are successful in such places because they supplement their photosynthetic food production by trapping insects and digesting their nitrogen rich bodies. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Insectivorous plants of India belong mainly to three families: Droseraceae (3 species), Nepenthaceae (1 species) and Lentibulariaceae (36 species). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: Flora/fauna/tropical vegetation Approach: Statement 1 can be eliminated as it is extreme, all nutrients cannot be derived from consumption of only animals. Similarly, considering India has Biodiversity hotspots statement 3 can be eliminated. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Carnivorous plants are plants that derive some or most of their nutrients (but not energy) from trapping and consuming animals or protozoans, typically insects and other arthropods. Carnivorous plants have adapted to grow in places where the soil is thin or poor in nutrients, especially nitrogen, such as acidic bogs. Charles Darwin wrote Insectivorous Plants, the first well-known treatise on carnivorous plants, in 1875. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. These plants are typically associated with rain washed, nutrient-poor soils, or wet and acidic areas that are ill-drained. Such wetlands are acidic due to anaerobic conditions, which cause incomplete decomposition of organic matter discharging acidic compounds into the surroundings. As a consequence, most microbes necessary for complete decomposition of organic matter cannot survive in such poorly oxygenated conditions. Normal plants find it difficult to survive in such nutrient poor habitats. The hunter plants are successful in such places because they supplement their photosynthetic food production by trapping insects and digesting their nitrogen rich bodies. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Insectivorous plants of India belong mainly to three families: Droseraceae (3 species), Nepenthaceae (1 species) and Lentibulariaceae (36 species). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: Flora/fauna/tropical vegetation Approach: Statement 1 can be eliminated as it is extreme, all nutrients cannot be derived from consumption of only animals. Similarly, considering India has Biodiversity hotspots statement 3 can be eliminated.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Carnivorous plants are plants that derive their nutrients from trapping and consuming only insects.

• Carnivorous plants are typically associated with rain washed, nutrient-poor soils, or wet and acidic areas that are ill-drained

• No Carnivorous plants are naturally found in India

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Carnivorous plants are plants that derive some or most of their nutrients (but not energy) from trapping and consuming animals or protozoans, typically insects and other arthropods. Carnivorous plants have adapted to grow in places where the soil is thin or poor in nutrients, especially nitrogen, such as acidic bogs. Charles Darwin wrote Insectivorous Plants, the first well-known treatise on carnivorous plants, in 1875. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• These plants are typically associated with rain washed, nutrient-poor soils, or wet and acidic areas that are ill-drained. Such wetlands are acidic due to anaerobic conditions, which cause incomplete decomposition of organic matter discharging acidic compounds into the surroundings. As a consequence, most microbes necessary for complete decomposition of organic matter cannot survive in such poorly oxygenated conditions. Normal plants find it difficult to survive in such nutrient poor habitats. The hunter plants are successful in such places because they supplement their photosynthetic food production by trapping insects and digesting their nitrogen rich bodies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Insectivorous plants of India belong mainly to three families:

• Droseraceae (3 species),

• Nepenthaceae (1 species) and

• Lentibulariaceae (36 species). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Flora/fauna/tropical vegetation

Approach: Statement 1 can be eliminated as it is extreme, all nutrients cannot be derived from consumption of only animals. Similarly, considering India has Biodiversity hotspots statement 3 can be eliminated.

Explanation:

• Insectivorous plants of India belong mainly to three families:

• Droseraceae (3 species),

• Nepenthaceae (1 species) and

• Lentibulariaceae (36 species). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Flora/fauna/tropical vegetation

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act introduced the ‘anti-defection’ law in India through the Tenth Schedule. The Tenth Schedule provides that a when member of a House of Parliament votes against the instructions of their party in a House, such member is liable for disqualification. The Tenth Schedule originally did not provide any exceptions on disqualification of members. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: To ensure the stability of elected governments, the 52nd constitutional amendment introduced the ‘anti-defection’ law through the Tenth Schedule in 1985. Statement 2 is correct: This Schedule provides that a member of a House of Parliament or State legislature who voluntarily gives up the membership of their political party or votes against the instructions of their party in a House are liable for disqualification from said House. This instruction with respect to voting is issued by the ‘whip’ of a party. Statement 3 is not correct: The Tenth Schedule originally provided for two exceptions that would not render the members liable for disqualification. First, one-third members of the ‘legislature party’ splitting to form a separate group (para 3). Second, merger of their ‘political party’ with another party that is approved by two-third members of its ‘legislature party’. Source: Polity Trend: Current Affairs related to defection Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: To ensure the stability of elected governments, the 52nd constitutional amendment introduced the ‘anti-defection’ law through the Tenth Schedule in 1985. Statement 2 is correct: This Schedule provides that a member of a House of Parliament or State legislature who voluntarily gives up the membership of their political party or votes against the instructions of their party in a House are liable for disqualification from said House. This instruction with respect to voting is issued by the ‘whip’ of a party. Statement 3 is not correct: The Tenth Schedule originally provided for two exceptions that would not render the members liable for disqualification. First, one-third members of the ‘legislature party’ splitting to form a separate group (para 3). Second, merger of their ‘political party’ with another party that is approved by two-third members of its ‘legislature party’. Source: Polity Trend: Current Affairs related to defection Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act introduced the ‘anti-defection’ law in India through the Tenth Schedule.

• The Tenth Schedule provides that a when member of a House of Parliament votes against the instructions of their party in a House, such member is liable for disqualification.

• The Tenth Schedule originally did not provide any exceptions on disqualification of members.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: To ensure the stability of elected governments, the 52nd constitutional amendment introduced the ‘anti-defection’ law through the Tenth Schedule in 1985.

Statement 2 is correct: This Schedule provides that a member of a House of Parliament or State legislature who voluntarily gives up the membership of their political party or votes against the instructions of their party in a House are liable for disqualification from said House. This instruction with respect to voting is issued by the ‘whip’ of a party.

Statement 3 is not correct: The Tenth Schedule originally provided for two exceptions that would not render the members liable for disqualification. First, one-third members of the ‘legislature party’ splitting to form a separate group (para 3).

Second, merger of their ‘political party’ with another party that is approved by two-third members of its ‘legislature party’.

Trend: Current Affairs related to defection

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: To ensure the stability of elected governments, the 52nd constitutional amendment introduced the ‘anti-defection’ law through the Tenth Schedule in 1985.

Second, merger of their ‘political party’ with another party that is approved by two-third members of its ‘legislature party’.

Trend: Current Affairs related to defection

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points With reference to Limited Liability Partnership, consider the following statements: It is a hybrid between a Limited Liability Company and a Partnership. It is a corporate body essentially regulated by the statutory provisions. All the partners in this partnership cannot participate in its management. How many of the statements given above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: A Limited Liability Partnership Firm (LLP) reports about Significant Beneficial Owners to the Registrar of Companies within 30 days of the date of declaration made by an individual about holding or acquiring that status. Statement 1 is correct: An LLP is quintessentially a hybrid between a Limited Liability Company and a Partnership. Statement 2 is not correct: It has the advantage of being a body corporate, but at the same time, internal governance and inter se relations among partners and LLP are regulated by the LLP Agreement and not by any statutory provisions. Statement 3 is not correct: It has a partner designated to file compliance with the authorities. As in a general partnership, all partners in an LLP can participate in the management of the partnership. Source: Indian Economy Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: A Limited Liability Partnership Firm (LLP) reports about Significant Beneficial Owners to the Registrar of Companies within 30 days of the date of declaration made by an individual about holding or acquiring that status. Statement 1 is correct: An LLP is quintessentially a hybrid between a Limited Liability Company and a Partnership. Statement 2 is not correct: It has the advantage of being a body corporate, but at the same time, internal governance and inter se relations among partners and LLP are regulated by the LLP Agreement and not by any statutory provisions. Statement 3 is not correct: It has a partner designated to file compliance with the authorities. As in a general partnership, all partners in an LLP can participate in the management of the partnership. Source: Indian Economy Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 17. Question

With reference to Limited Liability Partnership, consider the following statements:

• It is a hybrid between a Limited Liability Company and a Partnership.

• It is a corporate body essentially regulated by the statutory provisions.

• All the partners in this partnership cannot participate in its management.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

A Limited Liability Partnership Firm (LLP) reports about Significant Beneficial Owners to the Registrar of Companies within 30 days of the date of declaration made by an individual about holding or acquiring that status.

Statement 1 is correct: An LLP is quintessentially a hybrid between a Limited Liability Company and a Partnership.

Statement 2 is not correct: It has the advantage of being a body corporate, but at the same time, internal governance and inter se relations among partners and LLP are regulated by the LLP Agreement and not by any statutory provisions.

Statement 3 is not correct: It has a partner designated to file compliance with the authorities. As in a general partnership, all partners in an LLP can participate in the management of the partnership.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: An LLP is quintessentially a hybrid between a Limited Liability Company and a Partnership.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Marginal seas are shallow water bodies located along the continental margins. The Bering Sea is a marginal sea in the northern part of the Pacific Ocean. The Strait of Hormuz separates the two continents of North America and Asia. How many of the statements given above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Marginal seas can be defined as large, shallow water bodies that are located along the continental margins. Statement 2 is correct: The Bering Sea is such a marginal sea in the northern part of the Pacific Ocean. Statement 3 is not correct: This sea together with the Bering Strait separates the two continents of North America and Asia. The Gulf of Oman and the Persian Gulf are connected by the Strait of Hormuz. The strait is the only sea passage that allows the Persian Gulf waters to reach Indian Ocean. The Strait of Hormuz is a strategically important waterway that facilitates international trade. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts/ places in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Marginal seas can be defined as large, shallow water bodies that are located along the continental margins. Statement 2 is correct: The Bering Sea is such a marginal sea in the northern part of the Pacific Ocean. Statement 3 is not correct: This sea together with the Bering Strait separates the two continents of North America and Asia. The Gulf of Oman and the Persian Gulf are connected by the Strait of Hormuz. The strait is the only sea passage that allows the Persian Gulf waters to reach Indian Ocean. The Strait of Hormuz is a strategically important waterway that facilitates international trade. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts/ places in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Marginal seas are shallow water bodies located along the continental margins.

• The Bering Sea is a marginal sea in the northern part of the Pacific Ocean.

• The Strait of Hormuz separates the two continents of North America and Asia.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Marginal seas can be defined as large, shallow water bodies that are located along the continental margins.

Statement 2 is correct: The Bering Sea is such a marginal sea in the northern part of the Pacific Ocean.

Statement 3 is not correct: This sea together with the Bering Strait separates the two continents of North America and Asia.

The Gulf of Oman and the Persian Gulf are connected by the Strait of Hormuz. The strait is the only sea passage that allows the Persian Gulf waters to reach Indian Ocean.

The Strait of Hormuz is a strategically important waterway that facilitates international trade.

Trend: Basic concepts/ places in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Marginal seas can be defined as large, shallow water bodies that are located along the continental margins.

Statement 2 is correct: The Bering Sea is such a marginal sea in the northern part of the Pacific Ocean.

Statement 3 is not correct: This sea together with the Bering Strait separates the two continents of North America and Asia.

The Gulf of Oman and the Persian Gulf are connected by the Strait of Hormuz. The strait is the only sea passage that allows the Persian Gulf waters to reach Indian Ocean.

The Strait of Hormuz is a strategically important waterway that facilitates international trade.

Trend: Basic concepts/ places in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Venezuela: It is located on the Southern tip of South America. It is bounded by the North Atlantic Ocean. It is bordered by Brazil and Colombia. It is entirely placed in the Northern hemisphere of the Earth. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Venezuela is located on the northern edge of South America. Statement 2 is correct: It is bounded by the North Atlantic Ocean to the northeast and by the Caribbean Sea to the north. Statement 3 is correct: Venezuela is bordered by Brazil to the south; by Guyana to the east; by Colombia to the west and southwest. Venezuela shares maritime borders with Barbados, The Dominican Republic, Dominica, Saint Kitts & Nevis, Saint Lucia, Trinidad and Tobago and Puerto Rico. Statement 4 is not correct: It is geographically positioned in the Northern and Western hemispheres of the Earth. Source: Geography Trend: Places in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Venezuela is located on the northern edge of South America. Statement 2 is correct: It is bounded by the North Atlantic Ocean to the northeast and by the Caribbean Sea to the north. Statement 3 is correct: Venezuela is bordered by Brazil to the south; by Guyana to the east; by Colombia to the west and southwest. Venezuela shares maritime borders with Barbados, The Dominican Republic, Dominica, Saint Kitts & Nevis, Saint Lucia, Trinidad and Tobago and Puerto Rico. Statement 4 is not correct: It is geographically positioned in the Northern and Western hemispheres of the Earth. Source: Geography Trend: Places in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Venezuela:

• It is located on the Southern tip of South America.

• It is bounded by the North Atlantic Ocean.

• It is bordered by Brazil and Colombia.

• It is entirely placed in the Northern hemisphere of the Earth.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Venezuela is located on the northern edge of South America.

Statement 2 is correct: It is bounded by the North Atlantic Ocean to the northeast and by the Caribbean Sea to the north.

Statement 3 is correct: Venezuela is bordered by Brazil to the south; by Guyana to the east; by Colombia to the west and southwest.

Venezuela shares maritime borders with Barbados, The Dominican Republic, Dominica, Saint Kitts & Nevis, Saint Lucia, Trinidad and Tobago and Puerto Rico.

Statement 4 is not correct: It is geographically positioned in the Northern and Western hemispheres of the Earth.

Trend: Places in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Venezuela is located on the northern edge of South America.

Statement 2 is correct: It is bounded by the North Atlantic Ocean to the northeast and by the Caribbean Sea to the north.

Statement 3 is correct: Venezuela is bordered by Brazil to the south; by Guyana to the east; by Colombia to the west and southwest.

Venezuela shares maritime borders with Barbados, The Dominican Republic, Dominica, Saint Kitts & Nevis, Saint Lucia, Trinidad and Tobago and Puerto Rico.

Statement 4 is not correct: It is geographically positioned in the Northern and Western hemispheres of the Earth.

Trend: Places in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points The term “CAIPEEX-Phase IV” has been recently talked about in the news in the context of- (a) Coral Restoration Technology (b) Flex-Fuel Vehicle Production (c) Cloud Seeding Technique (d) Sustainable aviation fuels Correct Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Cloud seeding is considered an effective technique for weather modification, especially to enhance rainfall in rain shadow areas which can boost agriculture and the economy. It has been implemented by several countries, including the USA, Australia, UAE, and China, and seems to hold the potential to mitigate the looming crisis of water scarcity and inadequate rainfall in several parts of our country. The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Govt of India, has conducted in-depth investigations to test the feasibility and effectiveness of cloud seeding, as part of Cloud Aerosol Interaction and Rainfall Enhancement Experiment (CAIPEEX) Phase IV, at Solapur, Maharashtra. The outcome from this experiment shows that cloud seeding is an effective strategy for enhancing rainfall in a region under suitable conditions. The characteristics of suitable clouds that can be targeted to enhance rainfall have been identified. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Terms in news Approach: Factual/knowledge question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Option (c) is correct: Cloud seeding is considered an effective technique for weather modification, especially to enhance rainfall in rain shadow areas which can boost agriculture and the economy. It has been implemented by several countries, including the USA, Australia, UAE, and China, and seems to hold the potential to mitigate the looming crisis of water scarcity and inadequate rainfall in several parts of our country. The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Govt of India, has conducted in-depth investigations to test the feasibility and effectiveness of cloud seeding, as part of Cloud Aerosol Interaction and Rainfall Enhancement Experiment (CAIPEEX) Phase IV, at Solapur, Maharashtra. The outcome from this experiment shows that cloud seeding is an effective strategy for enhancing rainfall in a region under suitable conditions. The characteristics of suitable clouds that can be targeted to enhance rainfall have been identified. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Terms in news Approach: Factual/knowledge question

#### 20. Question

The term “CAIPEEX-Phase IV” has been recently talked about in the news in the context of-

• (a) Coral Restoration Technology

• (b) Flex-Fuel Vehicle Production

• (c) Cloud Seeding Technique

• (d) Sustainable aviation fuels

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Cloud seeding is considered an effective technique for weather modification, especially to enhance rainfall in rain shadow areas which can boost agriculture and the economy.

• It has been implemented by several countries, including the USA, Australia, UAE, and China, and seems to hold the potential to mitigate the looming crisis of water scarcity and inadequate rainfall in several parts of our country.

• The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Govt of India, has conducted in-depth investigations to test the feasibility and effectiveness of cloud seeding, as part of Cloud Aerosol Interaction and Rainfall Enhancement Experiment (CAIPEEX) Phase IV, at Solapur, Maharashtra.

• The outcome from this experiment shows that cloud seeding is an effective strategy for enhancing rainfall in a region under suitable conditions. The characteristics of suitable clouds that can be targeted to enhance rainfall have been identified.

Trend: Terms in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge question

Answer: C

Explanation:

Trend: Terms in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge question

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. The Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) has recently launched the LEAP AHEAD initiative, a collaborative effort between the Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) and The Indus Entrepreneurs (TiE) Delhi-NCR. The LEAP AHEAD initiative aims to support tech start-ups by offering them access to funding (up to ₹1 Crore), mentorship and global connections. Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Learning: It is a collaborative effort between the Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) and The Indus Entrepreneurs (TiE) Delhi-NCR, aimed at sup- porting and accelerating the success of tech startups in India. Launchpad for Tech Entrepreneurs towards Accelerated Growth and Pioneering AHEAD (LEAP AHEAD) aims to support tech startups by offering them access to funding (up to ₹1 Crore), mentorship and global connections. India has become the 3rd largest start-up ecosystem in the world after the US and China. India is home to as many as 75,000 Startups. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Learning: It is a collaborative effort between the Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) and The Indus Entrepreneurs (TiE) Delhi-NCR, aimed at sup- porting and accelerating the success of tech startups in India. Launchpad for Tech Entrepreneurs towards Accelerated Growth and Pioneering AHEAD (LEAP AHEAD) aims to support tech startups by offering them access to funding (up to ₹1 Crore), mentorship and global connections. India has become the 3rd largest start-up ecosystem in the world after the US and China. India is home to as many as 75,000 Startups. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) has recently launched the LEAP AHEAD initiative, a collaborative effort between the Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) and The Indus Entrepreneurs (TiE) Delhi-NCR.

• The LEAP AHEAD initiative aims to support tech start-ups by offering them access to funding (up to ₹1 Crore), mentorship and global connections.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Learning: It is a collaborative effort between the Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) and The Indus Entrepreneurs (TiE) Delhi-NCR, aimed at sup- porting and accelerating the success of tech startups in India.

Launchpad for Tech Entrepreneurs towards Accelerated Growth and Pioneering AHEAD (LEAP AHEAD) aims to support tech startups by offering them access to funding (up to ₹1 Crore), mentorship and global connections.

India has become the 3rd largest start-up ecosystem in the world after the US and China. India is home to as many as 75,000 Startups.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

India has become the 3rd largest start-up ecosystem in the world after the US and China. India is home to as many as 75,000 Startups.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Article 1 of the General Agreement on Trade and Tarriff (GATT) 1994 mandates WTO member countries to grant Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status to each other, ensuring equal trade treatment. But the exceptions to this rule may include bilateral trade agreements special access for developing nations. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: Article 1 of GATT 1994 mandates WTO member countries to grant Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status to each other, ensuring equal trade treatment. There can be exceptions, like bilateral trade agreements and special access for developing nations. For instance, India initially granted MFN status to all WTO members, including Pakistan. However, India suspended Pakistan’s MFN status in 2019 due to security concerns, and Pakistan never reciprocated MFN status for India. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Article 1 of GATT 1994 mandates WTO member countries to grant Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status to each other, ensuring equal trade treatment. There can be exceptions, like bilateral trade agreements and special access for developing nations. For instance, India initially granted MFN status to all WTO members, including Pakistan. However, India suspended Pakistan’s MFN status in 2019 due to security concerns, and Pakistan never reciprocated MFN status for India. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 22. Question

Article 1 of the General Agreement on Trade and Tarriff (GATT) 1994 mandates WTO member countries to grant Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status to each other, ensuring equal trade treatment. But the exceptions to this rule may include

• bilateral trade agreements

• special access for developing nations.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: Article 1 of GATT 1994 mandates WTO member countries to grant Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status to each other, ensuring equal trade treatment. There can be exceptions, like bilateral trade agreements and special access for developing nations.

For instance, India initially granted MFN status to all WTO members, including Pakistan. However, India suspended Pakistan’s MFN status in 2019 due to security concerns, and Pakistan never reciprocated MFN status for India.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are government schemes to promote start-ups in India? National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI) Startup India Action Plan (SIAP) Ranking of States on Support to Start-up Ecosystems (RSSSE) Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) How many of the above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Justification: Government’s Initiatives for Startups: National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI); Startup India Action Plan (SIAP); Ranking of States on Support to Startup Ecosystems (RSSSE); Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS); National Startup Awards; SCO Startup Forum; Prarambh Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: Government’s Initiatives for Startups: National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI); Startup India Action Plan (SIAP); Ranking of States on Support to Startup Ecosystems (RSSSE); Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS); National Startup Awards; SCO Startup Forum; Prarambh Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 23. Question

Which of the following is/are government schemes to promote start-ups in India?

• National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI)

• Startup India Action Plan (SIAP)

• Ranking of States on Support to Start-up Ecosystems (RSSSE)

• Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS)

How many of the above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: d)

Justification: Government’s Initiatives for Startups: National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI); Startup India Action Plan (SIAP); Ranking of States on Support to Startup Ecosystems (RSSSE); Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS); National Startup Awards; SCO Startup Forum; Prarambh

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: d)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. India’s Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) aims to restore the health of deep oceans primarily for climate change mitigation. DOM is one of the nine missions under the Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PMSTIAC). Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Justification: Pillar 2: Mineral Exploration Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Pillar 2: Mineral Exploration Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements.

• India’s Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) aims to restore the health of deep oceans primarily for climate change mitigation.

• DOM is one of the nine missions under the Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PMSTIAC).

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Justification:

Pillar 2: Mineral Exploration

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: b)

Justification:

Pillar 2: Mineral Exploration

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Matsya6000 is a deep-ocean submersible designed to accommodate a three-member crew. Varaha is an underwater mining system that can operate at a depth of over 5,000m below mean sea level. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: Samudrayaan and Matsya6000: Samudrayaan (2021) is a crewed mission to explore the ocean’s depths, reaching 6,000 meters in the Central Indian Ocean. The DOM mission will be carried out using Matsya6000, a deep-ocean submersible designed to accommodate a three-member crew. o 6000m depth is strategically significant due to the presence of valuable resources such as polymetallic nodules and sulphides, containing essential metals, found between depths of 3,000 to 5,500 meters. Varaha – India’s Deep-Ocean Mining System: The National Institute of Ocean Technology conducted successful deep-sea locomotion trials using ‘Varaha,’ an underwater mining system, at a depth of 5,270 meters in the central Indian Ocean. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Samudrayaan and Matsya6000: Samudrayaan (2021) is a crewed mission to explore the ocean’s depths, reaching 6,000 meters in the Central Indian Ocean. The DOM mission will be carried out using Matsya6000, a deep-ocean submersible designed to accommodate a three-member crew. o 6000m depth is strategically significant due to the presence of valuable resources such as polymetallic nodules and sulphides, containing essential metals, found between depths of 3,000 to 5,500 meters. Varaha – India’s Deep-Ocean Mining System: The National Institute of Ocean Technology conducted successful deep-sea locomotion trials using ‘Varaha,’ an underwater mining system, at a depth of 5,270 meters in the central Indian Ocean. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Matsya6000 is a deep-ocean submersible designed to accommodate a three-member crew.

• Varaha is an underwater mining system that can operate at a depth of over 5,000m below mean sea level.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: Samudrayaan and Matsya6000: Samudrayaan (2021) is a crewed mission to explore the ocean’s depths, reaching 6,000 meters in the Central Indian Ocean. The DOM mission will be carried out using Matsya6000, a deep-ocean submersible designed to accommodate a three-member crew.

o 6000m depth is strategically significant due to the presence of valuable resources such as polymetallic nodules and sulphides, containing essential metals, found between depths of 3,000 to 5,500 meters.

• Varaha – India’s Deep-Ocean Mining System: The National Institute of Ocean Technology conducted successful deep-sea locomotion trials using ‘Varaha,’ an underwater mining system, at a depth of 5,270 meters in the central Indian Ocean.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points A retailer buys a radio for Rs.225. His overhead expenses are Rs.15. He sells the radio for Rs.300. The profit percent of the retailer is (A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 40 Correct Ans: C) 25 C.P. = Rs. (225 + 15) = Rs. 240 S.P. = Rs. 300 ∴ Gain % = [(60/240)×100]% = 25%. Incorrect Ans: C) 25 C.P. = Rs. (225 + 15) = Rs. 240 S.P. = Rs. 300 ∴ Gain % = [(60/240)×100]% = 25%.

#### 26. Question

A retailer buys a radio for Rs.225. His overhead expenses are Rs.15. He sells the radio for Rs.300. The profit percent of the retailer is

Ans: C) 25

C.P. = Rs. (225 + 15) = Rs. 240

S.P. = Rs. 300

∴ Gain % = [(60/240)×100]% = 25%.

Ans: C) 25

C.P. = Rs. (225 + 15) = Rs. 240

S.P. = Rs. 300

∴ Gain % = [(60/240)×100]% = 25%.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Traders A and B buy two goods for Rs. 1000 and Rs. 2000 respectively. Trader A marks his goods up by x%, while trader B marks his goods up by 2x% and offers a discount of x%. If both make the same non-zero profit, find x. a) 25% b) 12.5% c) 37.5% d) 40% Correct Answer A) 25% This question is all about forming the right equations. SP of trader A = 1000 (1 + x). Profit of trader A = 1000 (1 + x) – 1000. MP of trader B = 2000 (1 + 2x). SP of trader B = 2000 (1 + 2x) (1 – x). Profit of trader B = 2000(1 + 2x) (1 – x) – 2000. Both make the same profit => 1000(1 + x) – 1000 = 2000(1 + 2x) (1 – x) – 2000 1000x = 2000 – 4000×2 + 4000x – 2000x – 2000 4000xx2 -1000x = 0 1000x (4x – 1) = 0 => x = 25% Hence, the answer is 25%. Choice A is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer A) 25% This question is all about forming the right equations. SP of trader A = 1000 (1 + x). Profit of trader A = 1000 (1 + x) – 1000. MP of trader B = 2000 (1 + 2x). SP of trader B = 2000 (1 + 2x) (1 – x). Profit of trader B = 2000(1 + 2x) (1 – x) – 2000. Both make the same profit => 1000(1 + x) – 1000 = 2000(1 + 2x) (1 – x) – 2000 1000x = 2000 – 4000×2 + 4000x – 2000x – 2000 4000xx2 -1000x = 0 1000x (4x – 1) = 0 => x = 25% Hence, the answer is 25%. Choice A is the correct answer.

#### 27. Question

Traders A and B buy two goods for Rs. 1000 and Rs. 2000 respectively. Trader A marks his goods up by x%, while trader B marks his goods up by 2x% and offers a discount of x%. If both make the same non-zero profit, find x.

Answer A) 25%

This question is all about forming the right equations.

SP of trader A = 1000 (1 + x).

Profit of trader A = 1000 (1 + x) – 1000.

MP of trader B = 2000 (1 + 2x).

SP of trader B = 2000 (1 + 2x) (1 – x).

Profit of trader B = 2000(1 + 2x) (1 – x) – 2000.

Both make the same profit => 1000(1 + x) – 1000 = 2000(1 + 2x) (1 – x) – 2000

1000x = 2000 – 4000×2 + 4000x – 2000x – 2000

4000xx2 -1000x = 0

1000x (4x – 1) = 0

=> x = 25%

Hence, the answer is 25%.

Choice A is the correct answer.

Answer A) 25%

This question is all about forming the right equations.

SP of trader A = 1000 (1 + x).

Profit of trader A = 1000 (1 + x) – 1000.

MP of trader B = 2000 (1 + 2x).

SP of trader B = 2000 (1 + 2x) (1 – x).

Profit of trader B = 2000(1 + 2x) (1 – x) – 2000.

Both make the same profit => 1000(1 + x) – 1000 = 2000(1 + 2x) (1 – x) – 2000

1000x = 2000 – 4000×2 + 4000x – 2000x – 2000

4000xx2 -1000x = 0

1000x (4x – 1) = 0

=> x = 25%

Hence, the answer is 25%.

Choice A is the correct answer.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Given below is a question followed by three statements. Study the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to answer the question. What was the discount percentage given? I) On selling the table, for Rs 12650, 26.5 %, Profit was earned. II) If there had been no discount, 30% would have been earned as profit. III) The Cost price of the table was Rs 10000 a) Only I and II b) Only II and III c) Only I and III d) Any two of the above Correct Answer A) Only I and II Details required to get the discount percentage. From statement – I S.P. = Rs 12650, Profit = 26.5% ∴ C.P = (100/126.5) 12650 = 10000 From statement II Mark Price = 130% of C.P. = Rs 13000 ∴ From statement I and II Discount = Rs (13000 – 12650) = Rs 350 Discount % = (350/13000) 100 and Therefore, can be calculated ∴ Statement I and II can give the answer. However, statement II and III together cannot. Hence, the answer is Only I and II. Choice A is the correct answer. Incorrect Answer A) Only I and II Details required to get the discount percentage. From statement – I S.P. = Rs 12650, Profit = 26.5% ∴ C.P = (100/126.5) 12650 = 10000 From statement II Mark Price = 130% of C.P. = Rs 13000 ∴ From statement I and II Discount = Rs (13000 – 12650) = Rs 350 Discount % = (350/13000) 100 and Therefore, can be calculated ∴ Statement I and II can give the answer. However, statement II and III together cannot. Hence, the answer is Only I and II. Choice A is the correct answer.

#### 28. Question

Given below is a question followed by three statements. Study the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to answer the question. What was the discount percentage given?

I) On selling the table, for Rs 12650, 26.5 %, Profit was earned.

II) If there had been no discount, 30% would have been earned as profit.

III) The Cost price of the table was Rs 10000

• a) Only I and II

• b) Only II and III

• c) Only I and III

• d) Any two of the above

Answer A) Only I and II

Details required to get the discount percentage.

From statement – I

S.P. = Rs 12650, Profit = 26.5%

∴ C.P = (100/126.5) * 12650 = 10000

From statement II

Mark Price = 130% of C.P. = Rs 13000

∴ From statement I and II

Discount = Rs (13000 – 12650) = Rs 350

Discount % = (350/13000) * 100

and Therefore, can be calculated

∴ Statement I and II can give the answer. However, statement II and III together cannot.

Hence, the answer is Only I and II.

Choice A is the correct answer.

Answer A) Only I and II

Details required to get the discount percentage.

From statement – I

S.P. = Rs 12650, Profit = 26.5%

∴ C.P = (100/126.5) * 12650 = 10000

From statement II

Mark Price = 130% of C.P. = Rs 13000

∴ From statement I and II

Discount = Rs (13000 – 12650) = Rs 350

Discount % = (350/13000) * 100

and Therefore, can be calculated

∴ Statement I and II can give the answer. However, statement II and III together cannot.

Hence, the answer is Only I and II.

Choice A is the correct answer.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points For over a century the fate of Marx’s thought was tied to that of Marxism. Even today, three decades after the fall of the Soviet empire, many still blame Marx for the cruel atrocities that happened around the world in the name of Marxism. However, to think and to repeat that Marx is responsible for the Stalinist gulags or the killing fields of Pol Pot in Cambodia would be nothing but pure nonsense. No doubt, he would have been one of the first victims of Stalin, Pol Pot or any communist dictator. As such, the responsibility for the horrors of communist totalitarianism would be on the shoulders of no other ideology than Marxism-Leninism, which turned the materialist and historicist philosophy of Marx into a revolutionary eschatology and in many cases into a thermodynamics of terror. As Voltaire says majestically, “Those who can make you believe absurdities, can make you commit atrocities.” Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage? a) The horrors of totalitarianism can never be attributed to any one particular ideology b) Marxism was misunderstood by totalitarian leaders like Stalin who used the call for violent revolution too seriously c) The problem with political ideology lies in its subjectivity d) Marxism-Leninism, the distorted form of Marxism, designed to perpetuate power, is the cause behind violence unleashed in the name of marxism Correct Ans. D. A is wrong as the passage states that Marxism leninism is responsible for the violence unleashed. B is wrong as Marxism was not misunderstood but deliberately distorted to perpetuate power. C is correct but incomplete explanation of the passage. Hence D Incorrect Ans. D. A is wrong as the passage states that Marxism leninism is responsible for the violence unleashed. B is wrong as Marxism was not misunderstood but deliberately distorted to perpetuate power. C is correct but incomplete explanation of the passage. Hence D

#### 29. Question

For over a century the fate of Marx’s thought was tied to that of Marxism. Even today, three decades after the fall of the Soviet empire, many still blame Marx for the cruel atrocities that happened around the world in the name of Marxism. However, to think and to repeat that Marx is responsible for the Stalinist gulags or the killing fields of Pol Pot in Cambodia would be nothing but pure nonsense. No doubt, he would have been one of the first victims of Stalin, Pol Pot or any communist dictator. As such, the responsibility for the horrors of communist totalitarianism would be on the shoulders of no other ideology than Marxism-Leninism, which turned the materialist and historicist philosophy of Marx into a revolutionary eschatology and in many cases into a thermodynamics of terror. As Voltaire says majestically, “Those who can make you believe absurdities, can make you commit atrocities.”

Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?

• a) The horrors of totalitarianism can never be attributed to any one particular ideology

• b) Marxism was misunderstood by totalitarian leaders like Stalin who used the call for violent revolution too seriously

• c) The problem with political ideology lies in its subjectivity

• d) Marxism-Leninism, the distorted form of Marxism, designed to perpetuate power, is the cause behind violence unleashed in the name of marxism

A is wrong as the passage states that Marxism leninism is responsible for the violence unleashed. B is wrong as Marxism was not misunderstood but deliberately distorted to perpetuate power. C is correct but incomplete explanation of the passage. Hence D

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points In India, the present information ecology is vitiated by many factors: undue pressure on mainstream news organisations and journalists, strategic deployment of trolls, planting suspicion regarding legitimate reports by indulging in whataboutery, and amplifying disinformation through social media networks. Whenever the issue reaches a tipping point, the government comes up with restrictive mechanisms which not only fail to curb the spread of disinformation but end up hurting the dissenting voices more, like the now-repealed Section 66A of the Information Technology Act. India is also one of the few countries where defamation is both a civil and a criminal offence. Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage? a) Indian media indulges in unfair practices which compels the government to intervene b) Section 66A of IT Act was a draconian provision which needed to be repealed c) Freedom of speech in our country comes at a premium d) Government policies gave failed to address the issues arising out of the present information ecology Correct Ans. D. A and C are hypothesis unsupported by the passage. B is not the central idea of the passage. Hence D, which provides the inference. Incorrect Ans. D. A and C are hypothesis unsupported by the passage. B is not the central idea of the passage. Hence D, which provides the inference.

#### 30. Question

In India, the present information ecology is vitiated by many factors: undue pressure on mainstream news organisations and journalists, strategic deployment of trolls, planting suspicion regarding legitimate reports by indulging in whataboutery, and amplifying disinformation through social media networks. Whenever the issue reaches a tipping point, the government comes up with restrictive mechanisms which not only fail to curb the spread of disinformation but end up hurting the dissenting voices more, like the now-repealed Section 66A of the Information Technology Act. India is also one of the few countries where defamation is both a civil and a criminal offence.

Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage?

• a) Indian media indulges in unfair practices which compels the government to intervene

• b) Section 66A of IT Act was a draconian provision which needed to be repealed

• c) Freedom of speech in our country comes at a premium

• d) Government policies gave failed to address the issues arising out of the present information ecology

A and C are hypothesis unsupported by the passage. B is not the central idea of the passage. Hence D, which provides the inference.

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