DAY – 18 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points The formal establishment of the Global Big Cat Alliance (GBCA) was spearheaded by which of the following Indian institutions/authorities? (a) Wildlife Institute of India (WII) (b) National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) (c) Central Zoo Authority (CZA) (d) National Green Tribunal (NGT) Correct Solution: B Global Big Cat Alliance (GBCA): The GBCA is an initiative aimed at the conservation of seven major big cat species: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, and Puma. It serves as a platform for collaboration among countries and organizations involved in big cat conservation. The aim is to share expertise, provide resources, and coordinate efforts to protect these endangered species. Key Authorities: The initiative was launched by India, with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) playing a central role. Specifically, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), functioning under the MoEF&CC, is the nodal organisation for the establishment of the IBCA. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B Global Big Cat Alliance (GBCA): The GBCA is an initiative aimed at the conservation of seven major big cat species: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, and Puma. It serves as a platform for collaboration among countries and organizations involved in big cat conservation. The aim is to share expertise, provide resources, and coordinate efforts to protect these endangered species. Key Authorities: The initiative was launched by India, with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) playing a central role. Specifically, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), functioning under the MoEF&CC, is the nodal organisation for the establishment of the IBCA. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 1. Question

The formal establishment of the Global Big Cat Alliance (GBCA) was spearheaded by which of the following Indian institutions/authorities?

• (a) Wildlife Institute of India (WII)

• (b) National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)

• (c) Central Zoo Authority (CZA)

• (d) National Green Tribunal (NGT)

Solution: B

Global Big Cat Alliance (GBCA):

• The GBCA is an initiative aimed at the conservation of seven major big cat species: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, and Puma.

• It serves as a platform for collaboration among countries and organizations involved in big cat conservation.

• The aim is to share expertise, provide resources, and coordinate efforts to protect these endangered species.

Key Authorities:

• The initiative was launched by India, with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) playing a central role.

• Specifically, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), functioning under the MoEF&CC, is the nodal organisation for the establishment of the IBCA.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

Global Big Cat Alliance (GBCA):

• The GBCA is an initiative aimed at the conservation of seven major big cat species: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, and Puma.

• It serves as a platform for collaboration among countries and organizations involved in big cat conservation.

• The aim is to share expertise, provide resources, and coordinate efforts to protect these endangered species.

Key Authorities:

• The initiative was launched by India, with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) playing a central role.

• Specifically, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), functioning under the MoEF&CC, is the nodal organisation for the establishment of the IBCA.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which of the following initiatives is NOT directly related to India’s efforts towards promoting a circular economy? (a) Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) rules for various waste streams. (b) The Eco-mark Rules, 2024. (c) The National Green Hydrogen Mission. (d) Regulations for the management of end-of-life vehicles. Correct Solution: C Circular Economy: A circular economy aims to minimize waste and maximize the use of resources by keeping materials in circulation for as long as possible. It involves designing products for durability, reuse, and recycling. It focuses on shifting from a linear “take-make-dispose” model to a closed-loop system. The National Green Hydrogen Mission: This mission focuses on promoting the production and use of green hydrogen, which is produced from renewable energy sources. While it contributes to reducing carbon emissions and promoting sustainable energy, its primary focus is not on closing material loops or minimizing waste in the same way as the other options. While Green Hydrogen is very important for sustainability, it is not directly related to the movement of materials in the economy, which is the definition of a circular economy. Therefore, this is NOT directly related to India’s circular economy efforts in the same way as the other options. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Solution: C Circular Economy: A circular economy aims to minimize waste and maximize the use of resources by keeping materials in circulation for as long as possible. It involves designing products for durability, reuse, and recycling. It focuses on shifting from a linear “take-make-dispose” model to a closed-loop system. The National Green Hydrogen Mission: This mission focuses on promoting the production and use of green hydrogen, which is produced from renewable energy sources. While it contributes to reducing carbon emissions and promoting sustainable energy, its primary focus is not on closing material loops or minimizing waste in the same way as the other options. While Green Hydrogen is very important for sustainability, it is not directly related to the movement of materials in the economy, which is the definition of a circular economy. Therefore, this is NOT directly related to India’s circular economy efforts in the same way as the other options. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following initiatives is NOT directly related to India’s efforts towards promoting a circular economy?

• (a) Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) rules for various waste streams.

• (b) The Eco-mark Rules, 2024.

• (c) The National Green Hydrogen Mission.

• (d) Regulations for the management of end-of-life vehicles.

Solution: C

Circular Economy:

• A circular economy aims to minimize waste and maximize the use of resources by keeping materials in circulation for as long as possible.

• It involves designing products for durability, reuse, and recycling.

• It focuses on shifting from a linear “take-make-dispose” model to a closed-loop system.

The National Green Hydrogen Mission:

• This mission focuses on promoting the production and use of green hydrogen, which is produced from renewable energy sources.

• While it contributes to reducing carbon emissions and promoting sustainable energy, its primary focus is not on closing material loops or minimizing waste in the same way as the other options.

• While Green Hydrogen is very important for sustainability, it is not directly related to the movement of materials in the economy, which is the definition of a circular economy.

• Therefore, this is NOT directly related to India’s circular economy efforts in the same way as the other options.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Solution: C

Circular Economy:

• A circular economy aims to minimize waste and maximize the use of resources by keeping materials in circulation for as long as possible.

• It involves designing products for durability, reuse, and recycling.

• It focuses on shifting from a linear “take-make-dispose” model to a closed-loop system.

The National Green Hydrogen Mission:

• This mission focuses on promoting the production and use of green hydrogen, which is produced from renewable energy sources.

• While it contributes to reducing carbon emissions and promoting sustainable energy, its primary focus is not on closing material loops or minimizing waste in the same way as the other options.

• While Green Hydrogen is very important for sustainability, it is not directly related to the movement of materials in the economy, which is the definition of a circular economy.

• Therefore, this is NOT directly related to India’s circular economy efforts in the same way as the other options.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Which of the following is a key objective of the ‘National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)’ launched by the Government of India? (a) To achieve a 100% transition to electric vehicles in major cities by 2030. (b) To reduce particulate matter concentrations in targeted cities by up to 40% by 2025-26, using 2017-18 as the baseline. (c) To promote the use of cleaner fuels for domestic cooking across the country. (d) To establish a national network of air quality monitoring stations in all rural areas. Correct Solution: B National Clean Air Programme (NCAP): Launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) in January 2019. Aims to tackle the growing problem of air pollution in India. Focuses on a collaborative and participatory approach involving various stakeholders. To reduce particulate matter concentrations in targeted cities by up to 40% by 2025-26, using 2017-18 as the baseline is a core objective of NCAP. The program sets specific targets for reducing particulate matter (PM10 and PM2.5) concentrations in identified cities. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B National Clean Air Programme (NCAP): Launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) in January 2019. Aims to tackle the growing problem of air pollution in India. Focuses on a collaborative and participatory approach involving various stakeholders. To reduce particulate matter concentrations in targeted cities by up to 40% by 2025-26, using 2017-18 as the baseline is a core objective of NCAP. The program sets specific targets for reducing particulate matter (PM10 and PM2.5) concentrations in identified cities. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following is a key objective of the ‘National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)’ launched by the Government of India?

• (a) To achieve a 100% transition to electric vehicles in major cities by 2030.

• (b) To reduce particulate matter concentrations in targeted cities by up to 40% by 2025-26, using 2017-18 as the baseline.

• (c) To promote the use of cleaner fuels for domestic cooking across the country.

• (d) To establish a national network of air quality monitoring stations in all rural areas.

Solution: B

National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):

• Launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) in January 2019.

• Aims to tackle the growing problem of air pollution in India.

• Focuses on a collaborative and participatory approach involving various stakeholders.

To reduce particulate matter concentrations in targeted cities by up to 40% by 2025-26, using 2017-18 as the baseline is a core objective of NCAP.

The program sets specific targets for reducing particulate matter (PM10 and PM2.5) concentrations in identified cities.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):

• Launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) in January 2019.

• Aims to tackle the growing problem of air pollution in India.

• Focuses on a collaborative and participatory approach involving various stakeholders.

To reduce particulate matter concentrations in targeted cities by up to 40% by 2025-26, using 2017-18 as the baseline is a core objective of NCAP.

The program sets specific targets for reducing particulate matter (PM10 and PM2.5) concentrations in identified cities.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Recent scientific discoveries beneath the George VI Ice Shelf in Antarctica have provided insights into: (a) The impact of increased volcanic activity on ice shelf stability. (b) Unique ecosystems and previously unknown species in extreme, nutrient-poor environments. (c) The effectiveness of current international fishing regulations in the Southern Ocean. (d) The long-term effects of ozone depletion on Antarctic marine life. Correct Solution: B George VI Ice Shelf: It is a large ice shelf located on the western side of the Antarctic Peninsula. It is a region of interest to scientists due to its sensitivity to climate change. Recent Discoveries: Scientists have conducted research beneath the ice shelf, revealing the presence of a diverse ecosystem. This ecosystem includes various marine organisms that thrive in extreme conditions, characterized by darkness, cold temperatures, and limited nutrient availability. The research has shown the existence of species that were previously unknown to science. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B George VI Ice Shelf: It is a large ice shelf located on the western side of the Antarctic Peninsula. It is a region of interest to scientists due to its sensitivity to climate change. Recent Discoveries: Scientists have conducted research beneath the ice shelf, revealing the presence of a diverse ecosystem. This ecosystem includes various marine organisms that thrive in extreme conditions, characterized by darkness, cold temperatures, and limited nutrient availability. The research has shown the existence of species that were previously unknown to science. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 4. Question

Recent scientific discoveries beneath the George VI Ice Shelf in Antarctica have provided insights into:

• (a) The impact of increased volcanic activity on ice shelf stability.

• (b) Unique ecosystems and previously unknown species in extreme, nutrient-poor environments.

• (c) The effectiveness of current international fishing regulations in the Southern Ocean.

• (d) The long-term effects of ozone depletion on Antarctic marine life.

Solution: B

George VI Ice Shelf:

• It is a large ice shelf located on the western side of the Antarctic Peninsula.

• It is a region of interest to scientists due to its sensitivity to climate change.

Recent Discoveries:

• Scientists have conducted research beneath the ice shelf, revealing the presence of a diverse ecosystem.

• This ecosystem includes various marine organisms that thrive in extreme conditions, characterized by darkness, cold temperatures, and limited nutrient availability.

• The research has shown the existence of species that were previously unknown to science.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

George VI Ice Shelf:

• It is a large ice shelf located on the western side of the Antarctic Peninsula.

• It is a region of interest to scientists due to its sensitivity to climate change.

Recent Discoveries:

• Scientists have conducted research beneath the ice shelf, revealing the presence of a diverse ecosystem.

• This ecosystem includes various marine organisms that thrive in extreme conditions, characterized by darkness, cold temperatures, and limited nutrient availability.

• The research has shown the existence of species that were previously unknown to science.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points The ‘Tamil Nadu Turtle Guardians’ mobile app, launched in 2025, primarily aims to enhance the conservation of which of the following? (a) Freshwater turtles in inland wetlands (b) Sea turtles along the Tamil Nadu coast (c) Tortoises in the protected forest areas (d) River terrapins in the Cauvery basin Correct Solution: B Tamil Nadu has a significant coastline and various inland water bodies, making it a habitat for diverse turtle species. Conservation efforts are crucial to protect these vulnerable creatures from threats like habitat loss, poaching, and accidental entanglement. Focus of the App: The app is designed to engage local communities and volunteers in turtle conservation. It facilitates the reporting of turtle sightings, nesting sites, and potential threats. The app is specifically targeted at turtles that live along the coast of Tamil Nadu. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B Tamil Nadu has a significant coastline and various inland water bodies, making it a habitat for diverse turtle species. Conservation efforts are crucial to protect these vulnerable creatures from threats like habitat loss, poaching, and accidental entanglement. Focus of the App: The app is designed to engage local communities and volunteers in turtle conservation. It facilitates the reporting of turtle sightings, nesting sites, and potential threats. The app is specifically targeted at turtles that live along the coast of Tamil Nadu. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 5. Question

The ‘Tamil Nadu Turtle Guardians’ mobile app, launched in 2025, primarily aims to enhance the conservation of which of the following?

• (a) Freshwater turtles in inland wetlands

• (b) Sea turtles along the Tamil Nadu coast

• (c) Tortoises in the protected forest areas

• (d) River terrapins in the Cauvery basin

Solution: B

• Tamil Nadu has a significant coastline and various inland water bodies, making it a habitat for diverse turtle species.

• Conservation efforts are crucial to protect these vulnerable creatures from threats like habitat loss, poaching, and accidental entanglement.

Focus of the App:

• The app is designed to engage local communities and volunteers in turtle conservation.

• It facilitates the reporting of turtle sightings, nesting sites, and potential threats.

• The app is specifically targeted at turtles that live along the coast of Tamil Nadu.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

• Tamil Nadu has a significant coastline and various inland water bodies, making it a habitat for diverse turtle species.

• Conservation efforts are crucial to protect these vulnerable creatures from threats like habitat loss, poaching, and accidental entanglement.

Focus of the App:

• The app is designed to engage local communities and volunteers in turtle conservation.

• It facilitates the reporting of turtle sightings, nesting sites, and potential threats.

• The app is specifically targeted at turtles that live along the coast of Tamil Nadu.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best describes the ‘Green Credit Programme’ launched in India in 2023? (a) A scheme to provide financial assistance to farmers adopting sustainable agricultural practices. (b) A regulatory framework for managing plastic waste and promoting its recycling. (c) A program focused on promoting the use of green hydrogen as a clean energy source. (d) A market-based mechanism to incentivize environmentally sustainable actions across various sectors. Correct Solution: D Green Credit Programme: This initiative is designed to incentivize environmentally friendly actions. It establishes a market-based approach where entities can earn “green credits” for engaging in activities that have a positive impact on the environment. These credits can then be traded or used to offset environmental liabilities. This program aims to promote sustainable practices across various sectors. The program’s core is to create a market for green credits, encouraging diverse sectors to adopt eco-friendly practices. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Solution: D Green Credit Programme: This initiative is designed to incentivize environmentally friendly actions. It establishes a market-based approach where entities can earn “green credits” for engaging in activities that have a positive impact on the environment. These credits can then be traded or used to offset environmental liabilities. This program aims to promote sustainable practices across various sectors. The program’s core is to create a market for green credits, encouraging diverse sectors to adopt eco-friendly practices. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following statements best describes the ‘Green Credit Programme’ launched in India in 2023?

• (a) A scheme to provide financial assistance to farmers adopting sustainable agricultural practices.

• (b) A regulatory framework for managing plastic waste and promoting its recycling.

• (c) A program focused on promoting the use of green hydrogen as a clean energy source.

• (d) A market-based mechanism to incentivize environmentally sustainable actions across various sectors.

Solution: D

Green Credit Programme:

• This initiative is designed to incentivize environmentally friendly actions.

• It establishes a market-based approach where entities can earn “green credits” for engaging in activities that have a positive impact on the environment.

• These credits can then be traded or used to offset environmental liabilities.

• This program aims to promote sustainable practices across various sectors.

• The program’s core is to create a market for green credits, encouraging diverse sectors to adopt eco-friendly practices.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Solution: D

Green Credit Programme:

• This initiative is designed to incentivize environmentally friendly actions.

• It establishes a market-based approach where entities can earn “green credits” for engaging in activities that have a positive impact on the environment.

• These credits can then be traded or used to offset environmental liabilities.

• This program aims to promote sustainable practices across various sectors.

• The program’s core is to create a market for green credits, encouraging diverse sectors to adopt eco-friendly practices.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following innovative environmental protection measures: Biorock technology Miyawaki method System of Rice Intensification (SRI) Which of these are correctly associated with the restoration of damaged coral reefs, creation of dense urban forests, and reduction of water usage in rice cultivation, respectively? (a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 1, and 3 (c) 1, 3, and 2 (d) 3, 2, and 1 Correct Solution: A Biorock Technology: This technology uses electrical currents to stimulate the growth of minerals, such as calcium carbonate, on submerged structures. These mineral accretions provide a stable substrate for coral larvae to settle and grow. Therefore, Biorock technology is associated with the restoration of damaged coral reefs. Miyawaki Method: This method involves planting a diverse mix of native tree species in a small area, creating dense, multi-layered forests. It is particularly effective in urban environments, where space is limited. Therefore, the Miyawaki method is associated with the creation of dense urban forests. System of Rice Intensification (SRI): SRI is a rice cultivation method that focuses on optimizing plant spacing, soil aeration, and water management. It significantly reduces water usage compared to traditional rice farming practices. Therefore, SRI is associated with the reduction of water usage in rice cultivation. Incorrect Solution: A Biorock Technology: This technology uses electrical currents to stimulate the growth of minerals, such as calcium carbonate, on submerged structures. These mineral accretions provide a stable substrate for coral larvae to settle and grow. Therefore, Biorock technology is associated with the restoration of damaged coral reefs. Miyawaki Method: This method involves planting a diverse mix of native tree species in a small area, creating dense, multi-layered forests. It is particularly effective in urban environments, where space is limited. Therefore, the Miyawaki method is associated with the creation of dense urban forests. System of Rice Intensification (SRI): SRI is a rice cultivation method that focuses on optimizing plant spacing, soil aeration, and water management. It significantly reduces water usage compared to traditional rice farming practices. Therefore, SRI is associated with the reduction of water usage in rice cultivation.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following innovative environmental protection measures:

• Biorock technology

• Miyawaki method

• System of Rice Intensification (SRI)

Which of these are correctly associated with the restoration of damaged coral reefs, creation of dense urban forests, and reduction of water usage in rice cultivation, respectively?

• (a) 1, 2, and 3

• (b) 2, 1, and 3

• (c) 1, 3, and 2

• (d) 3, 2, and 1

Solution: A

Biorock Technology:

• This technology uses electrical currents to stimulate the growth of minerals, such as calcium carbonate, on submerged structures.

• These mineral accretions provide a stable substrate for coral larvae to settle and grow.

• Therefore, Biorock technology is associated with the restoration of damaged coral reefs.

Miyawaki Method:

• This method involves planting a diverse mix of native tree species in a small area, creating dense, multi-layered forests.

• It is particularly effective in urban environments, where space is limited.

• Therefore, the Miyawaki method is associated with the creation of dense urban forests.

System of Rice Intensification (SRI):

• SRI is a rice cultivation method that focuses on optimizing plant spacing, soil aeration, and water management.

• It significantly reduces water usage compared to traditional rice farming practices.

• Therefore, SRI is associated with the reduction of water usage in rice cultivation.

Solution: A

Biorock Technology:

• This technology uses electrical currents to stimulate the growth of minerals, such as calcium carbonate, on submerged structures.

• These mineral accretions provide a stable substrate for coral larvae to settle and grow.

• Therefore, Biorock technology is associated with the restoration of damaged coral reefs.

Miyawaki Method:

• This method involves planting a diverse mix of native tree species in a small area, creating dense, multi-layered forests.

• It is particularly effective in urban environments, where space is limited.

• Therefore, the Miyawaki method is associated with the creation of dense urban forests.

System of Rice Intensification (SRI):

• SRI is a rice cultivation method that focuses on optimizing plant spacing, soil aeration, and water management.

• It significantly reduces water usage compared to traditional rice farming practices.

• Therefore, SRI is associated with the reduction of water usage in rice cultivation.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The concept of ‘Other Effective Area-based Conservation Measures (OECMs)’ is related to which of the following international agreements/frameworks? (a) Ramsar Convention (b) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) (c) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) (d) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Correct Solution: C Other Effective Area-based Conservation Measures (OECMs): OECMs are areas that achieve effective in-situ conservation of biodiversity outside of protected areas. These are areas that, while not primarily designated for conservation, still contribute significantly to the safeguarding of biodiversity. Examples can include areas managed for other purposes, such as military training areas, community-managed forests, or certain types of private lands, where biodiversity is effectively conserved as a secondary outcome. International Agreements: It is vital to understand which international agreements focus on biodiversity conservation. The CBD is an international treaty that aims to conserve biological diversity, promote the sustainable use of its components, and ensure the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources. The concept of OECMs was developed within the framework of the CBD, specifically in decision 14/8, to recognize and support conservation efforts beyond traditional protected areas. Hence, option (C) is correct. Incorrect Solution: C Other Effective Area-based Conservation Measures (OECMs): OECMs are areas that achieve effective in-situ conservation of biodiversity outside of protected areas. These are areas that, while not primarily designated for conservation, still contribute significantly to the safeguarding of biodiversity. Examples can include areas managed for other purposes, such as military training areas, community-managed forests, or certain types of private lands, where biodiversity is effectively conserved as a secondary outcome. International Agreements: It is vital to understand which international agreements focus on biodiversity conservation. The CBD is an international treaty that aims to conserve biological diversity, promote the sustainable use of its components, and ensure the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources. The concept of OECMs was developed within the framework of the CBD, specifically in decision 14/8, to recognize and support conservation efforts beyond traditional protected areas. Hence, option (C) is correct.

#### 8. Question

The concept of ‘Other Effective Area-based Conservation Measures (OECMs)’ is related to which of the following international agreements/frameworks?

• (a) Ramsar Convention

• (b) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)

• (c) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

• (d) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

Solution: C

Other Effective Area-based Conservation Measures (OECMs):

• OECMs are areas that achieve effective in-situ conservation of biodiversity outside of protected areas.

• These are areas that, while not primarily designated for conservation, still contribute significantly to the safeguarding of biodiversity.

• Examples can include areas managed for other purposes, such as military training areas, community-managed forests, or certain types of private lands, where biodiversity is effectively conserved as a secondary outcome.

International Agreements:

• It is vital to understand which international agreements focus on biodiversity conservation.

• The CBD is an international treaty that aims to conserve biological diversity, promote the sustainable use of its components, and ensure the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources.

• The concept of OECMs was developed within the framework of the CBD, specifically in decision 14/8, to recognize and support conservation efforts beyond traditional protected areas.

Hence, option (C) is correct.

Solution: C

Other Effective Area-based Conservation Measures (OECMs):

• OECMs are areas that achieve effective in-situ conservation of biodiversity outside of protected areas.

• These are areas that, while not primarily designated for conservation, still contribute significantly to the safeguarding of biodiversity.

International Agreements:

• It is vital to understand which international agreements focus on biodiversity conservation.

• The concept of OECMs was developed within the framework of the CBD, specifically in decision 14/8, to recognize and support conservation efforts beyond traditional protected areas.

Hence, option (C) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following international organizations is/are directly associated with the ‘Climate Action Tracker’ initiative? United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) World Bank Coalition of research organisations Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: C Climate Action Tracker: This is an independent scientific analysis produced by a coalition of research organizations. It tracks government climate action and measures it against the Paris Agreement temperature goals. It provides an independent assessment of countries’ current climate policies and their impact on global temperature rise. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP): While UNEP is involved in climate change initiatives, it is not a direct partner in the Climate Action Tracker. UNEP does produce reports relating to climate action and the emissions gap, but it is not one of the groups that produce the Climate Action Tracker. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. World Bank: Similar to UNEP, the World Bank is involved in climate finance and development projects, but it is not directly involved in the Climate Action Tracker’s research and analysis. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Coalition of research organizations: This is the core of the Climate Action Tracker. It is produced by a coalition of independent scientific research organizations. Specifically, it is produced by NewClimate Institute and Climate Analytics. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: C Climate Action Tracker: This is an independent scientific analysis produced by a coalition of research organizations. It tracks government climate action and measures it against the Paris Agreement temperature goals. It provides an independent assessment of countries’ current climate policies and their impact on global temperature rise. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP): While UNEP is involved in climate change initiatives, it is not a direct partner in the Climate Action Tracker. UNEP does produce reports relating to climate action and the emissions gap, but it is not one of the groups that produce the Climate Action Tracker. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. World Bank: Similar to UNEP, the World Bank is involved in climate finance and development projects, but it is not directly involved in the Climate Action Tracker’s research and analysis. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Coalition of research organizations: This is the core of the Climate Action Tracker. It is produced by a coalition of independent scientific research organizations. Specifically, it is produced by NewClimate Institute and Climate Analytics. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following international organizations is/are directly associated with the ‘Climate Action Tracker’ initiative?

• United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

• World Bank

• Coalition of research organisations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: C

Climate Action Tracker:

• This is an independent scientific analysis produced by a coalition of research organizations.

• It tracks government climate action and measures it against the Paris Agreement temperature goals.

• It provides an independent assessment of countries’ current climate policies and their impact on global temperature rise.

United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP):

• While UNEP is involved in climate change initiatives, it is not a direct partner in the Climate Action Tracker.

• UNEP does produce reports relating to climate action and the emissions gap, but it is not one of the groups that produce the Climate Action Tracker.

• Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

World Bank:

• Similar to UNEP, the World Bank is involved in climate finance and development projects, but it is not directly involved in the Climate Action Tracker’s research and analysis.

• Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Coalition of research organizations:

• This is the core of the Climate Action Tracker. It is produced by a coalition of independent scientific research organizations.

• Specifically, it is produced by NewClimate Institute and Climate Analytics.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: C

Climate Action Tracker:

• This is an independent scientific analysis produced by a coalition of research organizations.

• It tracks government climate action and measures it against the Paris Agreement temperature goals.

• It provides an independent assessment of countries’ current climate policies and their impact on global temperature rise.

United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP):

• While UNEP is involved in climate change initiatives, it is not a direct partner in the Climate Action Tracker.

• UNEP does produce reports relating to climate action and the emissions gap, but it is not one of the groups that produce the Climate Action Tracker.

• Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

World Bank:

• Similar to UNEP, the World Bank is involved in climate finance and development projects, but it is not directly involved in the Climate Action Tracker’s research and analysis.

• Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Coalition of research organizations:

• This is the core of the Climate Action Tracker. It is produced by a coalition of independent scientific research organizations.

• Specifically, it is produced by NewClimate Institute and Climate Analytics.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points The ‘Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)’ launched in 2024, is primarily funded through which of the following? (a) National Clean Energy Fund (b) Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) (c) National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (d) Green Climate Fund Correct Solution: B The ‘Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)’ launched in 2024 is funded through a convergence of multiple sources, including the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA), the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), and other government and private funding sources. Given the options provided, the most appropriate answer is: (b) Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) Incorrect Solution: B The ‘Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)’ launched in 2024 is funded through a convergence of multiple sources, including the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA), the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), and other government and private funding sources. Given the options provided, the most appropriate answer is: (b) Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA)

#### 10. Question

The ‘Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)’ launched in 2024, is primarily funded through which of the following?

• (a) National Clean Energy Fund

• (b) Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA)

• (c) National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change

• (d) Green Climate Fund

Solution: B

The ‘Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)’ launched in 2024 is funded through a convergence of multiple sources, including the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA), the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), and other government and private funding sources.

Given the options provided, the most appropriate answer is:

(b) Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA)

Solution: B

Given the options provided, the most appropriate answer is:

(b) Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA)

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) has been launched by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to promote green buildings in India. GRIHA system is aimed at reducing stress on natural resources. GRIHA is part of the Intended Nationally Determined Contributions of India submitted to the UNFCCC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: A GRIHA is a rating tool that help us the environmental performance of buildings throughout their life cycle from construction to demolition. It was established in 2007 by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) to promote green buildings in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The GRIHA system has been developed to help, design and evaluate new buildings. GRIHA, along with the activities and processes that lead up to it will benefit the community at large with the improvement in the environment by reducing greenhouse gas emissions, energy consumption and the stress on natural resources. The green buildings are aimed at reducing energy consumption, reduction of destruction of natural habitats and biodiversity, reduction of air and water pollution, reduction in water consumption, Limited waste generation and other benefits for the society. Hence statement 2 is correct The GRIHA system is recognised as India’s own green building rating system and is part of the country’s INDCs submitted to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: A GRIHA is a rating tool that help us the environmental performance of buildings throughout their life cycle from construction to demolition. It was established in 2007 by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) to promote green buildings in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The GRIHA system has been developed to help, design and evaluate new buildings. GRIHA, along with the activities and processes that lead up to it will benefit the community at large with the improvement in the environment by reducing greenhouse gas emissions, energy consumption and the stress on natural resources. The green buildings are aimed at reducing energy consumption, reduction of destruction of natural habitats and biodiversity, reduction of air and water pollution, reduction in water consumption, Limited waste generation and other benefits for the society. Hence statement 2 is correct The GRIHA system is recognised as India’s own green building rating system and is part of the country’s INDCs submitted to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) has been launched by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to promote green buildings in India.

• GRIHA system is aimed at reducing stress on natural resources.

• GRIHA is part of the Intended Nationally Determined Contributions of India submitted to the UNFCCC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: A

• GRIHA is a rating tool that help us the environmental performance of buildings throughout their life cycle from construction to demolition.

• It was established in 2007 by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) to promote green buildings in India.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The GRIHA system has been developed to help, design and evaluate new buildings.

• GRIHA, along with the activities and processes that lead up to it will benefit the community at large with the improvement in the environment by reducing greenhouse gas emissions, energy consumption and the stress on natural resources.

• The green buildings are aimed at reducing energy consumption, reduction of destruction of natural habitats and biodiversity, reduction of air and water pollution, reduction in water consumption, Limited waste generation and other benefits for the society.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The GRIHA system is recognised as India’s own green building rating system and is part of the country’s INDCs submitted to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: A

• GRIHA is a rating tool that help us the environmental performance of buildings throughout their life cycle from construction to demolition.

• It was established in 2007 by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) to promote green buildings in India.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The GRIHA system has been developed to help, design and evaluate new buildings.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The GRIHA system is recognised as India’s own green building rating system and is part of the country’s INDCs submitted to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points The Global Wildlife Programme, sometimes seen in news, is one of the largest global partnerships to combat wildlife poaching; it has been launched by: (a) IUCN (b) WWF (c) Global Environment Facility (d) Conservation International Correct Solution: C The Global Wildlife Programme was launched by Global Environment Facility in 2015 as the Global Partnership on Wildlife Conservation and Crime Prevention for Sustainable Development. It is funded by GEF and is led by the World Bank. It is one of the largest global partnerships created to combat wildlife trafficking, poaching and demand In 2019 the programme expanded its focus to include the promotion of wildlife based economies to create economic benefits from conserving wildlife and habitat. It is continuing its expansion with the addition of new National projects in 15 countries in 2024. It’s projects across Asia, Africa and Latin America and the Caribbean create a collaborative program that facilitates action on the ground, connection across borders and the sharing of experiences, lessons and best practices. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Global Wildlife Programme was launched by Global Environment Facility in 2015 as the Global Partnership on Wildlife Conservation and Crime Prevention for Sustainable Development. It is funded by GEF and is led by the World Bank. It is one of the largest global partnerships created to combat wildlife trafficking, poaching and demand In 2019 the programme expanded its focus to include the promotion of wildlife based economies to create economic benefits from conserving wildlife and habitat. It is continuing its expansion with the addition of new National projects in 15 countries in 2024. It’s projects across Asia, Africa and Latin America and the Caribbean create a collaborative program that facilitates action on the ground, connection across borders and the sharing of experiences, lessons and best practices. Hence option C is correct

#### 12. Question

The Global Wildlife Programme, sometimes seen in news, is one of the largest global partnerships to combat wildlife poaching; it has been launched by:

• (c) Global Environment Facility

• (d) Conservation International

Solution: C

• The Global Wildlife Programme was launched by Global Environment Facility in 2015 as the Global Partnership on Wildlife Conservation and Crime Prevention for Sustainable Development.

• It is funded by GEF and is led by the World Bank.

• It is one of the largest global partnerships created to combat wildlife trafficking, poaching and demand

• In 2019 the programme expanded its focus to include the promotion of wildlife based economies to create economic benefits from conserving wildlife and habitat.

• It is continuing its expansion with the addition of new National projects in 15 countries in 2024.

• It’s projects across Asia, Africa and Latin America and the Caribbean create a collaborative program that facilitates action on the ground, connection across borders and the sharing of experiences, lessons and best practices.

Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

• The Global Wildlife Programme was launched by Global Environment Facility in 2015 as the Global Partnership on Wildlife Conservation and Crime Prevention for Sustainable Development.

• It is funded by GEF and is led by the World Bank.

• It is one of the largest global partnerships created to combat wildlife trafficking, poaching and demand

• In 2019 the programme expanded its focus to include the promotion of wildlife based economies to create economic benefits from conserving wildlife and habitat.

• It is continuing its expansion with the addition of new National projects in 15 countries in 2024.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Commission for Air Quality Management: Its Jurisdiction extends all over India except the North Eastern states. It was created under Environment Protection Act 1986. Its technical members include Central pollution control board, ISRO and NITI Aayog. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the CAQM Act 2021 for NCR and adjoining areas replacing the Environment Pollution (Prevention and control) Authority. Its jurisdiction extends to Delhi- NCR, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. It is empowered to restrict activities affecting air quality, conduct research on pollution and issue binding directions to authorities as well as individuals. Hence statement 1 and 2 is incorrect. It is composed of a chairperson (secretary/ chief secretary rank official), 5 ex-officio members from Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and UP; 3 full time technical members and members from NGOs and technical bodies like CPCB, ISRO and NITI Aayog. Hence statements 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: A The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the CAQM Act 2021 for NCR and adjoining areas replacing the Environment Pollution (Prevention and control) Authority. Its jurisdiction extends to Delhi- NCR, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. It is empowered to restrict activities affecting air quality, conduct research on pollution and issue binding directions to authorities as well as individuals. Hence statement 1 and 2 is incorrect. It is composed of a chairperson (secretary/ chief secretary rank official), 5 ex-officio members from Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and UP; 3 full time technical members and members from NGOs and technical bodies like CPCB, ISRO and NITI Aayog. Hence statements 3 is correct.

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Commission for Air Quality Management:

• Its Jurisdiction extends all over India except the North Eastern states.

• It was created under Environment Protection Act 1986.

• Its technical members include Central pollution control board, ISRO and NITI Aayog.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the CAQM Act 2021 for NCR and adjoining areas replacing the Environment Pollution (Prevention and control) Authority.

• Its jurisdiction extends to Delhi- NCR, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

• It is empowered to restrict activities affecting air quality, conduct research on pollution and issue binding directions to authorities as well as individuals.

Hence statement 1 and 2 is incorrect.

• It is composed of a chairperson (secretary/ chief secretary rank official), 5 ex-officio members from Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and UP; 3 full time technical members and members from NGOs and technical bodies like CPCB, ISRO and NITI Aayog.

Hence statements 3 is correct.

Solution: A

• The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the CAQM Act 2021 for NCR and adjoining areas replacing the Environment Pollution (Prevention and control) Authority.

• Its jurisdiction extends to Delhi- NCR, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

• It is empowered to restrict activities affecting air quality, conduct research on pollution and issue binding directions to authorities as well as individuals.

Hence statement 1 and 2 is incorrect.

Hence statements 3 is correct.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points The National Green Tribunal has jurisdiction over all civil cases under several legislations enacted by the government of India; which of the following legislations are included within its Ambit? Forest Conservation Act 1980 Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act 1977 Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974 Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D The National Green Tribunal has the authority to hear and decide cases related to environmental protection, conservation of forest and other natural resources and enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment. It possesses both Civil and criminal jurisdiction allowing it to hear cases related to environmental violations and offences. NGT has jurisdiction over all civil cases under the – Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974 Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act 1977 Air (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act 1981 Environment Protection Act 1986 Forest Conservation Act 1980 Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 Biological Diversity Act 2002 The NGT Act outlines penalties including imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to Rs.10 crores or both, based on nature of violation and seriousness of the crime. Hence options 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct Incorrect Solution: D The National Green Tribunal has the authority to hear and decide cases related to environmental protection, conservation of forest and other natural resources and enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment. It possesses both Civil and criminal jurisdiction allowing it to hear cases related to environmental violations and offences. NGT has jurisdiction over all civil cases under the – Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974 Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act 1977 Air (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act 1981 Environment Protection Act 1986 Forest Conservation Act 1980 Public Liability Insurance Act 1991 Biological Diversity Act 2002 The NGT Act outlines penalties including imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to Rs.10 crores or both, based on nature of violation and seriousness of the crime. Hence options 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

#### 14. Question

The National Green Tribunal has jurisdiction over all civil cases under several legislations enacted by the government of India; which of the following legislations are included within its Ambit?

• Forest Conservation Act 1980

• Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act 1977

• Public Liability Insurance Act 1991

• Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

The National Green Tribunal has the authority to hear and decide cases related to environmental protection, conservation of forest and other natural resources and enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment. It possesses both Civil and criminal jurisdiction allowing it to hear cases related to environmental violations and offences.

NGT has jurisdiction over all civil cases under the –

• Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974

• Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act 1977

• Air (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act 1981

• Environment Protection Act 1986

• Forest Conservation Act 1980

• Public Liability Insurance Act 1991

• Biological Diversity Act 2002

The NGT Act outlines penalties including imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to Rs.10 crores or both, based on nature of violation and seriousness of the crime.

Hence options 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Solution: D

NGT has jurisdiction over all civil cases under the –

• Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974

• Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act 1977

• Air (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act 1981

• Environment Protection Act 1986

• Forest Conservation Act 1980

• Public Liability Insurance Act 1991

• Biological Diversity Act 2002

The NGT Act outlines penalties including imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to Rs.10 crores or both, based on nature of violation and seriousness of the crime.

Hence options 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Who among the following is responsible for framing laws for tourists for entering National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries in States? (a) District Magistrate (b) Chief Wildlife Warden (c) Principle Chief Conservator of Forests (d) State Minister of Forest Correct Solution: B The Forest Minister of the State is in charge of all matters related to forests and wildlife and is assisted by a principal secretary along with a full-fledged Forest Secretariat which is in charge of all statutory and policy matters. The state Forest Department is vested with the task of administration and management of forests including Wildlife reserves. State Forest Departments are headed by Principal Chief Conservator of Forests who are officers of Indian Forest Service. The Chief Wildlife Warden is a statutory Authority under the Wildlife Protection Act 1972; he heads the Wildlife Wing of the Department and exercises complete administrative control over protected areas within a state. The act empowers the Chief Wildlife Warden of a state to frame laws for tourists entering the protected areas. Every Protected area is typically classified as a wildlife division and is headed by a Deputy Conservator of Forest. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Forest Minister of the State is in charge of all matters related to forests and wildlife and is assisted by a principal secretary along with a full-fledged Forest Secretariat which is in charge of all statutory and policy matters. The state Forest Department is vested with the task of administration and management of forests including Wildlife reserves. State Forest Departments are headed by Principal Chief Conservator of Forests who are officers of Indian Forest Service. The Chief Wildlife Warden is a statutory Authority under the Wildlife Protection Act 1972; he heads the Wildlife Wing of the Department and exercises complete administrative control over protected areas within a state. The act empowers the Chief Wildlife Warden of a state to frame laws for tourists entering the protected areas. Every Protected area is typically classified as a wildlife division and is headed by a Deputy Conservator of Forest. Hence option B is correct

#### 15. Question

Who among the following is responsible for framing laws for tourists for entering National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries in States?

• (a) District Magistrate

• (b) Chief Wildlife Warden

• (c) Principle Chief Conservator of Forests

• (d) State Minister of Forest

Solution: B

• The Forest Minister of the State is in charge of all matters related to forests and wildlife and is assisted by a principal secretary along with a full-fledged Forest Secretariat which is in charge of all statutory and policy matters.

• The state Forest Department is vested with the task of administration and management of forests including Wildlife reserves.

• State Forest Departments are headed by Principal Chief Conservator of Forests who are officers of Indian Forest Service.

• The Chief Wildlife Warden is a statutory Authority under the Wildlife Protection Act 1972; he heads the Wildlife Wing of the Department and exercises complete administrative control over protected areas within a state. The act empowers the Chief Wildlife Warden of a state to frame laws for tourists entering the protected areas.

• Every Protected area is typically classified as a wildlife division and is headed by a Deputy Conservator of Forest.

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• The state Forest Department is vested with the task of administration and management of forests including Wildlife reserves.

• State Forest Departments are headed by Principal Chief Conservator of Forests who are officers of Indian Forest Service.

• Every Protected area is typically classified as a wildlife division and is headed by a Deputy Conservator of Forest.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Intergovernmental Science Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) was created by the United Nations General Assembly as an United Nations open platform to promote sustainable development. Nexus Report is published by IPBES. The Nexus Report analyses complex interdependencies among biodiversity, food, water, health and climate change. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A The IPBES is an independent intergovernmental body established by States to strengthen science policy interface for biodiversity and Ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long term human well being and sustainable development. It was established in Panama City in 2012 by 94 governments. It is not a United Nations body. However, at the request of IPBES Plenary and with authorisation of UNEP Governing Council, the UNEP provides Secretariat Services to IPBES. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Nexus Report has been launched by IPBES It is a comprehensive scientific assessment of the interconnections among biodiversity, water, food, health and climate change. It analyses the complex interdependencies among biodiversity, water, food, health and climate change offering over 60 specific response options to optimise co-benefits and tackle global challenges effectively. Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: A The IPBES is an independent intergovernmental body established by States to strengthen science policy interface for biodiversity and Ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long term human well being and sustainable development. It was established in Panama City in 2012 by 94 governments. It is not a United Nations body. However, at the request of IPBES Plenary and with authorisation of UNEP Governing Council, the UNEP provides Secretariat Services to IPBES. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Nexus Report has been launched by IPBES It is a comprehensive scientific assessment of the interconnections among biodiversity, water, food, health and climate change. It analyses the complex interdependencies among biodiversity, water, food, health and climate change offering over 60 specific response options to optimise co-benefits and tackle global challenges effectively. Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Intergovernmental Science Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) was created by the United Nations General Assembly as an United Nations open platform to promote sustainable development.

• Nexus Report is published by IPBES.

• The Nexus Report analyses complex interdependencies among biodiversity, food, water, health and climate change.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• The IPBES is an independent intergovernmental body established by States to strengthen science policy interface for biodiversity and Ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long term human well being and sustainable development.

• It was established in Panama City in 2012 by 94 governments.

• It is not a United Nations body.

• However, at the request of IPBES Plenary and with authorisation of UNEP Governing Council, the UNEP provides Secretariat Services to IPBES.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Nexus Report has been launched by IPBES

• It is a comprehensive scientific assessment of the interconnections among biodiversity, water, food, health and climate change.

• It analyses the complex interdependencies among biodiversity, water, food, health and climate change offering over 60 specific response options to optimise co-benefits and tackle global challenges effectively.

Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: A

• It was established in Panama City in 2012 by 94 governments.

• It is not a United Nations body.

• However, at the request of IPBES Plenary and with authorisation of UNEP Governing Council, the UNEP provides Secretariat Services to IPBES.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Nexus Report has been launched by IPBES

• It is a comprehensive scientific assessment of the interconnections among biodiversity, water, food, health and climate change.

Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following countries: China Afghanistan Nepal Mongolia Pakistan How many of the above countries are members of International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: C The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development was established in 1983 to foster sustainable, inclusive and climate resilient development in the Hindu Kush Himalaya region. The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan. The platform is useful for sharing innovative knowledge to address mountain specific challenges, bridge science with actionable policies and practices and facilitate a regional platform for collaboration among experts, policymakers and practitioners. Recently the platform has launched an innovative Air Quality dashboard to address the persistent issue of hazardous air pollution across the Indo-Gangetic plain and Himalayan foothills. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development was established in 1983 to foster sustainable, inclusive and climate resilient development in the Hindu Kush Himalaya region. The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan. The platform is useful for sharing innovative knowledge to address mountain specific challenges, bridge science with actionable policies and practices and facilitate a regional platform for collaboration among experts, policymakers and practitioners. Recently the platform has launched an innovative Air Quality dashboard to address the persistent issue of hazardous air pollution across the Indo-Gangetic plain and Himalayan foothills. Hence option C is correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following countries:

• Afghanistan

How many of the above countries are members of International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: C

• The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development was established in 1983 to foster sustainable, inclusive and climate resilient development in the Hindu Kush Himalaya region.

• The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan.

• The platform is useful for sharing innovative knowledge to address mountain specific challenges, bridge science with actionable policies and practices and facilitate a regional platform for collaboration among experts, policymakers and practitioners.

• Recently the platform has launched an innovative Air Quality dashboard to address the persistent issue of hazardous air pollution across the Indo-Gangetic plain and Himalayan foothills.

Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

• The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development was established in 1983 to foster sustainable, inclusive and climate resilient development in the Hindu Kush Himalaya region.

• The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal and Pakistan.

• Recently the platform has launched an innovative Air Quality dashboard to address the persistent issue of hazardous air pollution across the Indo-Gangetic plain and Himalayan foothills.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The ‘Reducing Methane from Organic Waste’ Declaration has been developed with the Climate and Clean Air Coalition. The Reducing Methane from Organic Waste declaration sets targets for reducing methane emissions from organic waste with an aim to support the Global Methane Pledge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C The COP29 of UNFCCC launched the ‘Reducing Methane from Organic Waste’ Declaration with over to 30 countries (India excluded) committing to set sectoral targets for reducing Methane emission from organic waste. This includes 7 of world’s 10 largest organic waste methane emitters. It has been developed with the UNEP convened Climate and Clean Air Coalition. The declaration aims to reduce Methane emissions from organic waste and meet targets in future Nationally Determined Contributions. The declaration builds on the work of previous COPs by supporting the implementation of the 2021 Global Methane Pledge launched at COP26. The Global Methane Pledge sets the Global target of reducing Methane emissions by at least 30% below 2020 levels by 2030. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C The COP29 of UNFCCC launched the ‘Reducing Methane from Organic Waste’ Declaration with over to 30 countries (India excluded) committing to set sectoral targets for reducing Methane emission from organic waste. This includes 7 of world’s 10 largest organic waste methane emitters. It has been developed with the UNEP convened Climate and Clean Air Coalition. The declaration aims to reduce Methane emissions from organic waste and meet targets in future Nationally Determined Contributions. The declaration builds on the work of previous COPs by supporting the implementation of the 2021 Global Methane Pledge launched at COP26. The Global Methane Pledge sets the Global target of reducing Methane emissions by at least 30% below 2020 levels by 2030. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The ‘Reducing Methane from Organic Waste’ Declaration has been developed with the Climate and Clean Air Coalition.

• The Reducing Methane from Organic Waste declaration sets targets for reducing methane emissions from organic waste with an aim to support the Global Methane Pledge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• The COP29 of UNFCCC launched the ‘Reducing Methane from Organic Waste’ Declaration with over to 30 countries (India excluded) committing to set sectoral targets for reducing Methane emission from organic waste.

• This includes 7 of world’s 10 largest organic waste methane emitters.

• It has been developed with the UNEP convened Climate and Clean Air Coalition.

• The declaration aims to reduce Methane emissions from organic waste and meet targets in future Nationally Determined Contributions.

• The declaration builds on the work of previous COPs by supporting the implementation of the 2021 Global Methane Pledge launched at COP26.

• The Global Methane Pledge sets the Global target of reducing Methane emissions by at least 30% below 2020 levels by 2030.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• This includes 7 of world’s 10 largest organic waste methane emitters.

• It has been developed with the UNEP convened Climate and Clean Air Coalition.

• The declaration aims to reduce Methane emissions from organic waste and meet targets in future Nationally Determined Contributions.

• The declaration builds on the work of previous COPs by supporting the implementation of the 2021 Global Methane Pledge launched at COP26.

• The Global Methane Pledge sets the Global target of reducing Methane emissions by at least 30% below 2020 levels by 2030.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points The Global Peatland Hotspot Atlas 2024 has been published by: (a) The Global Mangrove Alliance (b) UNEP (c) International Union of Forest Research Organisation (d) Rainforest Alliance Correct Solution: B The Global Peatland Hotspot Atlas 2024 has been published by United Nations Environment Programme under the Global Peatland Initiative. It seeks to provide data and insights into the Global state of Peatlands ; It also highlights threats and opportunities for conservation and sustainable management of Peatlands and bridge the gap between science and policy for informed decision making. It consists of updated hotspot maps, intersecting data on biodiversity, climate change and land use. It identifies 488 million hectares of Peatlands globally with 12% being highly degraded. Peatlands are found nearly in all countries and cover at least 3% of land surface on the Earth; the Congo basin has the largest known tropical Peatland. Peatlands store more carbon than all of the world’s forests combined, acting as a natural buffer against climate change. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Global Peatland Hotspot Atlas 2024 has been published by United Nations Environment Programme under the Global Peatland Initiative. It seeks to provide data and insights into the Global state of Peatlands ; It also highlights threats and opportunities for conservation and sustainable management of Peatlands and bridge the gap between science and policy for informed decision making. It consists of updated hotspot maps, intersecting data on biodiversity, climate change and land use. It identifies 488 million hectares of Peatlands globally with 12% being highly degraded. Peatlands are found nearly in all countries and cover at least 3% of land surface on the Earth; the Congo basin has the largest known tropical Peatland. Peatlands store more carbon than all of the world’s forests combined, acting as a natural buffer against climate change. Hence option B is correct

#### 19. Question

The Global Peatland Hotspot Atlas 2024 has been published by:

• (a) The Global Mangrove Alliance

• (c) International Union of Forest Research Organisation

• (d) Rainforest Alliance

Solution: B

• The Global Peatland Hotspot Atlas 2024 has been published by United Nations Environment Programme under the Global Peatland Initiative.

• It seeks to provide data and insights into the Global state of Peatlands ;

• It also highlights threats and opportunities for conservation and sustainable management of Peatlands and bridge the gap between science and policy for informed decision making.

• It consists of updated hotspot maps, intersecting data on biodiversity, climate change and land use.

• It identifies 488 million hectares of Peatlands globally with 12% being highly degraded.

• Peatlands are found nearly in all countries and cover at least 3% of land surface on the Earth; the Congo basin has the largest known tropical Peatland.

• Peatlands store more carbon than all of the world’s forests combined, acting as a natural buffer against climate change.

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• The Global Peatland Hotspot Atlas 2024 has been published by United Nations Environment Programme under the Global Peatland Initiative.

• It seeks to provide data and insights into the Global state of Peatlands ;

• It also highlights threats and opportunities for conservation and sustainable management of Peatlands and bridge the gap between science and policy for informed decision making.

• It consists of updated hotspot maps, intersecting data on biodiversity, climate change and land use.

• It identifies 488 million hectares of Peatlands globally with 12% being highly degraded.

• Peatlands are found nearly in all countries and cover at least 3% of land surface on the Earth; the Congo basin has the largest known tropical Peatland.

• Peatlands store more carbon than all of the world’s forests combined, acting as a natural buffer against climate change.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points The Polar Coupled Analysis and Prediction for Services (PCAPS), recently in news, has been launched by: (a) The Arctic Council (b) World Meteorological Organisation (c) United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (d) International Arctic Science Committee Correct Solution: B The Polar Coupled Analysis and Prediction for Services (PCAPS) has been launched by the World Meteorological Organisation The project is aimed at enhancing weather, water, ice and climate forecasting in the Arctic and Antarctic regions. The project seeks to improve security and safety for those living or travelling in polar areas by developing better observation system and Earth system models It built on previous initiative like the Polar Prediction Project and is part of the World Weather Research Programme. The project addresses the rapid climate change in polar regions which significantly impacts indigenous communities and local populations. It aims to bridge scientific research with societal needs, improving decision making and risk assessment related to extreme weather events. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Polar Coupled Analysis and Prediction for Services (PCAPS) has been launched by the World Meteorological Organisation The project is aimed at enhancing weather, water, ice and climate forecasting in the Arctic and Antarctic regions. The project seeks to improve security and safety for those living or travelling in polar areas by developing better observation system and Earth system models It built on previous initiative like the Polar Prediction Project and is part of the World Weather Research Programme. The project addresses the rapid climate change in polar regions which significantly impacts indigenous communities and local populations. It aims to bridge scientific research with societal needs, improving decision making and risk assessment related to extreme weather events. Hence option B is correct

#### 20. Question

The Polar Coupled Analysis and Prediction for Services (PCAPS), recently in news, has been launched by:

• (a) The Arctic Council

• (b) World Meteorological Organisation

• (c) United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea

• (d) International Arctic Science Committee

Solution: B

• The Polar Coupled Analysis and Prediction for Services (PCAPS) has been launched by the World Meteorological Organisation

• The project is aimed at enhancing weather, water, ice and climate forecasting in the Arctic and Antarctic regions.

• The project seeks to improve security and safety for those living or travelling in polar areas by developing better observation system and Earth system models

• It built on previous initiative like the Polar Prediction Project and is part of the World Weather Research Programme.

• The project addresses the rapid climate change in polar regions which significantly impacts indigenous communities and local populations.

• It aims to bridge scientific research with societal needs, improving decision making and risk assessment related to extreme weather events.

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• The Polar Coupled Analysis and Prediction for Services (PCAPS) has been launched by the World Meteorological Organisation

• The project is aimed at enhancing weather, water, ice and climate forecasting in the Arctic and Antarctic regions.

• The project seeks to improve security and safety for those living or travelling in polar areas by developing better observation system and Earth system models

• It built on previous initiative like the Polar Prediction Project and is part of the World Weather Research Programme.

• The project addresses the rapid climate change in polar regions which significantly impacts indigenous communities and local populations.

• It aims to bridge scientific research with societal needs, improving decision making and risk assessment related to extreme weather events.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points With reference to the recent initiative on bio-bitumen in India, consider the following statements: Bio-bitumen is derived from agricultural residues like paddy straw and can also generate by-products such as bio-gas and biochar. The Government of India has approved 100% replacement of petroleum-based bitumen with bio-bitumen for all national highway projects. The use of bio-bitumen is expected to reduce both greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution caused by stubble burning. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Bio-bitumen: Bio-bitumen is a biomass-based alternative to conventional petroleum-based bitumen, used primarily in road construction. It is derived from agricultural residues, especially paddy straw (parali). During the processing of bio-bitumen, bio-gas and biochar are also generated as by-products. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The Government of India plans to allow up to 35% blending of bio-bitumen with conventional petroleum-based bitumen. This is part of a strategy to reduce foreign exchange outflows on bitumen imports and promote indigenous, eco-friendly alternatives. There is no approval for 100% replacement of petroleum-based bitumen with bio-bitumen for national highway or other projects. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) The use of bio-bitumen has multiple environmental and economic benefits: Reduces greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions Helps reduce air pollution from stubble burning Provides economic opportunities for farmers and MSMEs Is cost-effective compared to petroleum-based bitumen (Hence, statement 3 is correct) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/government-to-allow-up-to-35-bio-bitumen-mixing-to-save-rs-10000-crore-of-forex-outflows/article68498456.ece Incorrect Solution: B Bio-bitumen: Bio-bitumen is a biomass-based alternative to conventional petroleum-based bitumen, used primarily in road construction. It is derived from agricultural residues, especially paddy straw (parali). During the processing of bio-bitumen, bio-gas and biochar are also generated as by-products. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The Government of India plans to allow up to 35% blending of bio-bitumen with conventional petroleum-based bitumen. This is part of a strategy to reduce foreign exchange outflows on bitumen imports and promote indigenous, eco-friendly alternatives. There is no approval for 100% replacement of petroleum-based bitumen with bio-bitumen for national highway or other projects. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) The use of bio-bitumen has multiple environmental and economic benefits: Reduces greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions Helps reduce air pollution from stubble burning Provides economic opportunities for farmers and MSMEs Is cost-effective compared to petroleum-based bitumen (Hence, statement 3 is correct) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/government-to-allow-up-to-35-bio-bitumen-mixing-to-save-rs-10000-crore-of-forex-outflows/article68498456.ece

#### 21. Question

With reference to the recent initiative on bio-bitumen in India, consider the following statements:

• Bio-bitumen is derived from agricultural residues like paddy straw and can also generate by-products such as bio-gas and biochar.

• The Government of India has approved 100% replacement of petroleum-based bitumen with bio-bitumen for all national highway projects.

• The use of bio-bitumen is expected to reduce both greenhouse gas emissions and air pollution caused by stubble burning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

Bio-bitumen:

• Bio-bitumen is a biomass-based alternative to conventional petroleum-based bitumen, used primarily in road construction.

• It is derived from agricultural residues, especially paddy straw (parali). During the processing of bio-bitumen, bio-gas and biochar are also generated as by-products. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The Government of India plans to allow up to 35% blending of bio-bitumen with conventional petroleum-based bitumen. This is part of a strategy to reduce foreign exchange outflows on bitumen imports and promote indigenous, eco-friendly alternatives. There is no approval for 100% replacement of petroleum-based bitumen with bio-bitumen for national highway or other projects. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• This is part of a strategy to reduce foreign exchange outflows on bitumen imports and promote indigenous, eco-friendly alternatives.

• There is no approval for 100% replacement of petroleum-based bitumen with bio-bitumen for national highway or other projects. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• The use of bio-bitumen has multiple environmental and economic benefits: Reduces greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions Helps reduce air pollution from stubble burning Provides economic opportunities for farmers and MSMEs Is cost-effective compared to petroleum-based bitumen (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• Reduces greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions

• Helps reduce air pollution from stubble burning

• Provides economic opportunities for farmers and MSMEs

• Is cost-effective compared to petroleum-based bitumen (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/government-to-allow-up-to-35-bio-bitumen-mixing-to-save-rs-10000-crore-of-forex-outflows/article68498456.ece

Solution: B

Bio-bitumen:

• Bio-bitumen is a biomass-based alternative to conventional petroleum-based bitumen, used primarily in road construction.

• This is part of a strategy to reduce foreign exchange outflows on bitumen imports and promote indigenous, eco-friendly alternatives.

• There is no approval for 100% replacement of petroleum-based bitumen with bio-bitumen for national highway or other projects. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• Reduces greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions

• Helps reduce air pollution from stubble burning

• Provides economic opportunities for farmers and MSMEs

• Is cost-effective compared to petroleum-based bitumen (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/government-to-allow-up-to-35-bio-bitumen-mixing-to-save-rs-10000-crore-of-forex-outflows/article68498456.ece

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A “Blue Moon” refers to the occurrence of a second full moon within a single calendar month, making it a relatively rare lunar event. Statement-II: A “Supermoon” appears larger and brighter than usual because it occurs when the moon is at its farthest point from Earth in its orbit. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Super Blue Moon: A Super Blue Moon is a rare astronomical event that combines two distinct lunar phenomena: A Blue Moon A Supermoon A Blue Moon refers to either: The second full moon occurring within a single calendar month, or The third full moon in a season that has four full moons. This is a relatively rare phenomenon, happening once every 2 to 3 years. (Hence, statement I is correct) A Supermoon occurs when the Moon is at its closest point (perigee) to Earth in its elliptical orbit and is simultaneously a full moon. Due to its proximity, it appears about 14% larger and 30% brighter than when it is at its farthest point (apogee). The statement incorrectly says it occurs at the farthest point, which is factually inaccurate. (Hence, statement II is incorrect) A Super Blue Moon is exceptionally rare, as it requires both a Blue Moon and a Supermoon to coincide — which can happen once in a decade or more. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/super-blue-moon-raksha-bandhan-2024-9521732/ Incorrect Solution: C Super Blue Moon: A Super Blue Moon is a rare astronomical event that combines two distinct lunar phenomena: A Blue Moon A Supermoon A Blue Moon refers to either: The second full moon occurring within a single calendar month, or The third full moon in a season that has four full moons. This is a relatively rare phenomenon, happening once every 2 to 3 years. (Hence, statement I is correct) A Supermoon occurs when the Moon is at its closest point (perigee) to Earth in its elliptical orbit and is simultaneously a full moon. Due to its proximity, it appears about 14% larger and 30% brighter than when it is at its farthest point (apogee). The statement incorrectly says it occurs at the farthest point, which is factually inaccurate. (Hence, statement II is incorrect) A Super Blue Moon is exceptionally rare, as it requires both a Blue Moon and a Supermoon to coincide — which can happen once in a decade or more. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/super-blue-moon-raksha-bandhan-2024-9521732/

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A “Blue Moon” refers to the occurrence of a second full moon within a single calendar month, making it a relatively rare lunar event.

Statement-II: A “Supermoon” appears larger and brighter than usual because it occurs when the moon is at its farthest point from Earth in its orbit.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Super Blue Moon:

• A Super Blue Moon is a rare astronomical event that combines two distinct lunar phenomena: A Blue Moon A Supermoon

• A Blue Moon

• A Supermoon

• A Blue Moon refers to either: The second full moon occurring within a single calendar month, or The third full moon in a season that has four full moons. This is a relatively rare phenomenon, happening once every 2 to 3 years. (Hence, statement I is correct)

• The second full moon occurring within a single calendar month, or

• The third full moon in a season that has four full moons.

• This is a relatively rare phenomenon, happening once every 2 to 3 years. (Hence, statement I is correct)

• A Supermoon occurs when the Moon is at its closest point (perigee) to Earth in its elliptical orbit and is simultaneously a full moon. Due to its proximity, it appears about 14% larger and 30% brighter than when it is at its farthest point (apogee). The statement incorrectly says it occurs at the farthest point, which is factually inaccurate. (Hence, statement II is incorrect)

• Due to its proximity, it appears about 14% larger and 30% brighter than when it is at its farthest point (apogee).

• The statement incorrectly says it occurs at the farthest point, which is factually inaccurate. (Hence, statement II is incorrect)

• A Super Blue Moon is exceptionally rare, as it requires both a Blue Moon and a Supermoon to coincide — which can happen once in a decade or more.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/super-blue-moon-raksha-bandhan-2024-9521732/

Solution: C

Super Blue Moon:

• A Super Blue Moon is a rare astronomical event that combines two distinct lunar phenomena: A Blue Moon A Supermoon

• A Blue Moon

• A Supermoon

• The second full moon occurring within a single calendar month, or

• The third full moon in a season that has four full moons.

• This is a relatively rare phenomenon, happening once every 2 to 3 years. (Hence, statement I is correct)

• Due to its proximity, it appears about 14% larger and 30% brighter than when it is at its farthest point (apogee).

• The statement incorrectly says it occurs at the farthest point, which is factually inaccurate. (Hence, statement II is incorrect)

• A Super Blue Moon is exceptionally rare, as it requires both a Blue Moon and a Supermoon to coincide — which can happen once in a decade or more.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/super-blue-moon-raksha-bandhan-2024-9521732/

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points With reference to the Agricultural Infrastructure Fund (AIF), consider the following statements: It is a Central Government initiative launched under the Atmanirbhar Bharat campaign to support the development of post-harvest and farm-gate infrastructure. Farmers’ Producers Organisations (FPOs) are now eligible for financial assistance under the expanded scope of the scheme. The primary objective of the fund is to provide income support to small and marginal farmers through direct cash transfers. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Agricultural Infrastructure Fund (AIF): The Agricultural Infrastructure Fund (AIF) is a Central Government scheme launched in July 2020 under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan. It is a medium to long-term debt financing facility intended to facilitate the creation of post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The fund provides interest subvention of 3% per annum on loans up to ₹2 crore and credit guarantee coverage through the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE). Eligible beneficiaries include individual farmers, FPOs, PACS, APMCs, SHGs, startups, and agri-entrepreneurs. In its expanded version approved by the Union Cabinet, the scheme now provides enhanced financial support for Farmers’ Producers Organisations (FPOs). This redesign seeks to improve the financial security and creditworthiness of FPOs, making the scheme more inclusive and impactful, and encouraging FPO-led infrastructure projects. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The primary objective of the AIF is to strengthen agricultural infrastructure, not to provide direct income support through cash transfers. Instead, the fund aims to improve productivity, reduce post-harvest losses, and increase farm income indirectly through the creation of better infrastructure. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cabinet-approves-expansion-of-scope-of-agricultural-infrastructure-fund-scheme/article68576903.ece Incorrect Solution: B Agricultural Infrastructure Fund (AIF): The Agricultural Infrastructure Fund (AIF) is a Central Government scheme launched in July 2020 under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan. It is a medium to long-term debt financing facility intended to facilitate the creation of post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The fund provides interest subvention of 3% per annum on loans up to ₹2 crore and credit guarantee coverage through the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE). Eligible beneficiaries include individual farmers, FPOs, PACS, APMCs, SHGs, startups, and agri-entrepreneurs. In its expanded version approved by the Union Cabinet, the scheme now provides enhanced financial support for Farmers’ Producers Organisations (FPOs). This redesign seeks to improve the financial security and creditworthiness of FPOs, making the scheme more inclusive and impactful, and encouraging FPO-led infrastructure projects. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The primary objective of the AIF is to strengthen agricultural infrastructure, not to provide direct income support through cash transfers. Instead, the fund aims to improve productivity, reduce post-harvest losses, and increase farm income indirectly through the creation of better infrastructure. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cabinet-approves-expansion-of-scope-of-agricultural-infrastructure-fund-scheme/article68576903.ece

#### 23. Question

With reference to the Agricultural Infrastructure Fund (AIF), consider the following statements:

• It is a Central Government initiative launched under the Atmanirbhar Bharat campaign to support the development of post-harvest and farm-gate infrastructure.

• Farmers’ Producers Organisations (FPOs) are now eligible for financial assistance under the expanded scope of the scheme.

• The primary objective of the fund is to provide income support to small and marginal farmers through direct cash transfers.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Agricultural Infrastructure Fund (AIF):

• The Agricultural Infrastructure Fund (AIF) is a Central Government scheme launched in July 2020 under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan. It is a medium to long-term debt financing facility intended to facilitate the creation of post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The fund provides interest subvention of 3% per annum on loans up to ₹2 crore and credit guarantee coverage through the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE).

• Eligible beneficiaries include individual farmers, FPOs, PACS, APMCs, SHGs, startups, and agri-entrepreneurs.

• In its expanded version approved by the Union Cabinet, the scheme now provides enhanced financial support for Farmers’ Producers Organisations (FPOs). This redesign seeks to improve the financial security and creditworthiness of FPOs, making the scheme more inclusive and impactful, and encouraging FPO-led infrastructure projects. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The primary objective of the AIF is to strengthen agricultural infrastructure, not to provide direct income support through cash transfers. Instead, the fund aims to improve productivity, reduce post-harvest losses, and increase farm income indirectly through the creation of better infrastructure. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cabinet-approves-expansion-of-scope-of-agricultural-infrastructure-fund-scheme/article68576903.ece

Solution: B

Agricultural Infrastructure Fund (AIF):

• Eligible beneficiaries include individual farmers, FPOs, PACS, APMCs, SHGs, startups, and agri-entrepreneurs.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cabinet-approves-expansion-of-scope-of-agricultural-infrastructure-fund-scheme/article68576903.ece

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the role of Kindlin proteins? (a) They regulate gene expression by binding directly to DNA promoter regions. (b) They act as adapter proteins that convert extracellular mechanical signals into intracellular biochemical responses. (c) They function as enzymes facilitating cellular metabolism and energy production. (d) They serve as membrane transporters enabling ion exchange across cell membranes. Correct Solution: B Kindlin Proteins: Kindlins are a family of adapter proteins located inside cells, attached to the inner side of cell membranes in vertebrates. Their primary role is to transmit extracellular mechanical cues into intracellular biochemical signals. (Hence, option (b) is correct) The Kindlin family includes Kindlin-1, Kindlin-2, and Kindlin-3, each with distinct amino acid sequences and tissue-specific distribution. These proteins play a pivotal role in mechano-chemical signal transduction by physically interacting with: Structural proteins Cell surface receptors Transcription factors Through these interactions, Kindlins trigger intracellular signaling cascades, helping maintain mechanical homeostasis and functional balance among body systems. Mutations in Kindlin proteins—induced by agents like nicotine, UV radiation, and other carcinogens—can disrupt mechanical homeostasis, potentially contributing to disease progression including cancer. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2039090 Incorrect Solution: B Kindlin Proteins: Kindlins are a family of adapter proteins located inside cells, attached to the inner side of cell membranes in vertebrates. Their primary role is to transmit extracellular mechanical cues into intracellular biochemical signals. (Hence, option (b) is correct) The Kindlin family includes Kindlin-1, Kindlin-2, and Kindlin-3, each with distinct amino acid sequences and tissue-specific distribution. These proteins play a pivotal role in mechano-chemical signal transduction by physically interacting with: Structural proteins Cell surface receptors Transcription factors Through these interactions, Kindlins trigger intracellular signaling cascades, helping maintain mechanical homeostasis and functional balance among body systems. Mutations in Kindlin proteins—induced by agents like nicotine, UV radiation, and other carcinogens—can disrupt mechanical homeostasis, potentially contributing to disease progression including cancer. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2039090

#### 24. Question

Which of the following best describes the role of Kindlin proteins?

• (a) They regulate gene expression by binding directly to DNA promoter regions.

• (b) They act as adapter proteins that convert extracellular mechanical signals into intracellular biochemical responses.

• (c) They function as enzymes facilitating cellular metabolism and energy production.

• (d) They serve as membrane transporters enabling ion exchange across cell membranes.

Solution: B

Kindlin Proteins:

• Kindlins are a family of adapter proteins located inside cells, attached to the inner side of cell membranes in vertebrates. Their primary role is to transmit extracellular mechanical cues into intracellular biochemical signals. (Hence, option (b) is correct)

• The Kindlin family includes Kindlin-1, Kindlin-2, and Kindlin-3, each with distinct amino acid sequences and tissue-specific distribution.

• These proteins play a pivotal role in mechano-chemical signal transduction by physically interacting with: Structural proteins Cell surface receptors Transcription factors

• Structural proteins

• Cell surface receptors

• Transcription factors

• Through these interactions, Kindlins trigger intracellular signaling cascades, helping maintain mechanical homeostasis and functional balance among body systems.

• Mutations in Kindlin proteins—induced by agents like nicotine, UV radiation, and other carcinogens—can disrupt mechanical homeostasis, potentially contributing to disease progression including cancer.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2039090

Solution: B

Kindlin Proteins:

• The Kindlin family includes Kindlin-1, Kindlin-2, and Kindlin-3, each with distinct amino acid sequences and tissue-specific distribution.

• These proteins play a pivotal role in mechano-chemical signal transduction by physically interacting with: Structural proteins Cell surface receptors Transcription factors

• Structural proteins

• Cell surface receptors

• Transcription factors

• Through these interactions, Kindlins trigger intracellular signaling cascades, helping maintain mechanical homeostasis and functional balance among body systems.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2039090

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Kelp forests are restricted only to cold, polar waters and cannot survive in lower latitudes under any circumstances. Statement-II: Kelp forests are declining due to climate change, which affects their ability to survive in shallow marine environments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Kelp Forests: Kelp forests are underwater marine ecosystems formed in shallow coastal waters by large brown algae known as kelp. These forests are often referred to as “underwater rainforests” due to their high biodiversity, ecological productivity, and role in supporting hundreds of marine species. Kelp forests are typically associated with cool, nutrient-rich waters and are most abundant in temperate and polar coastal regions. However, kelp is not restricted only to cold polar waters. It can survive in lower latitudes when aided by cool-water upwelling or in deep-water refugia protected by the thermocline (a transition layer between warmer surface water and cooler deep water). (Hence, statement I is incorrect) According to recent studies, kelp forests are experiencing widespread decline due to climate change, which impacts their survival through: Rising ocean temperatures Changes in nutrient availability Increased frequency of marine heatwaves Loss of ecological balance (e.g., predator-prey dynamics) (Hence, statement II is correct) Incorrect Solution: D Kelp Forests: Kelp forests are underwater marine ecosystems formed in shallow coastal waters by large brown algae known as kelp. These forests are often referred to as “underwater rainforests” due to their high biodiversity, ecological productivity, and role in supporting hundreds of marine species. Kelp forests are typically associated with cool, nutrient-rich waters and are most abundant in temperate and polar coastal regions. However, kelp is not restricted only to cold polar waters. It can survive in lower latitudes when aided by cool-water upwelling or in deep-water refugia protected by the thermocline (a transition layer between warmer surface water and cooler deep water). (Hence, statement I is incorrect) According to recent studies, kelp forests are experiencing widespread decline due to climate change, which impacts their survival through: Rising ocean temperatures Changes in nutrient availability Increased frequency of marine heatwaves Loss of ecological balance (e.g., predator-prey dynamics) (Hence, statement II is correct)

#### 25. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Kelp forests are restricted only to cold, polar waters and cannot survive in lower latitudes under any circumstances.

Statement-II:

Kelp forests are declining due to climate change, which affects their ability to survive in shallow marine environments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

Kelp Forests:

• Kelp forests are underwater marine ecosystems formed in shallow coastal waters by large brown algae known as kelp.

• These forests are often referred to as “underwater rainforests” due to their high biodiversity, ecological productivity, and role in supporting hundreds of marine species.

• Kelp forests are typically associated with cool, nutrient-rich waters and are most abundant in temperate and polar coastal regions.

• However, kelp is not restricted only to cold polar waters. It can survive in lower latitudes when aided by cool-water upwelling or in deep-water refugia protected by the thermocline (a transition layer between warmer surface water and cooler deep water). (Hence, statement I is incorrect)

• According to recent studies, kelp forests are experiencing widespread decline due to climate change, which impacts their survival through: Rising ocean temperatures Changes in nutrient availability Increased frequency of marine heatwaves Loss of ecological balance (e.g., predator-prey dynamics) (Hence, statement II is correct)

• Rising ocean temperatures

• Changes in nutrient availability

• Increased frequency of marine heatwaves

• Loss of ecological balance (e.g., predator-prey dynamics) (Hence, statement II is correct)

Solution: D

Kelp Forests:

• Kelp forests are underwater marine ecosystems formed in shallow coastal waters by large brown algae known as kelp.

• These forests are often referred to as “underwater rainforests” due to their high biodiversity, ecological productivity, and role in supporting hundreds of marine species.

• Kelp forests are typically associated with cool, nutrient-rich waters and are most abundant in temperate and polar coastal regions.

• Rising ocean temperatures

• Changes in nutrient availability

• Increased frequency of marine heatwaves

• Loss of ecological balance (e.g., predator-prey dynamics) (Hence, statement II is correct)

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Governments and education stakeholders globally are called upon to support the Commitment to Action on Foundational Learning, aiming to ensure universal access to foundational skills for all children, especially the marginalized. Around 60% of children worldwide, and 70% in low- and middle-income countries, face learning poverty, exacerbated by the pandemic. The Commitment emphasizes that without foundational learning, children struggle academically, leading to increased grade repetition, school dropout, and long-term societal consequences. It serves as a formal commitment to address this crisis, recognizing foundational learning as the basis for all other knowledge and skills. By endorsing this commitment, countries commit to urgent action to reduce by half the global share of children unable to read by age ten, contributing to the broader goals of Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG4). The Commitment to Action is part of seven global initiatives launched at the UN Secretary-General’s Transforming Education Summit in September 2022. Which of the following best summarizes the main message conveyed in the passage about the Commitment to Action on Foundational Learning? a) The Commitment to Action urges governments and education stakeholders to ensure universal access to foundational skills, especially for marginalized children, addressing the global issue of learning poverty exacerbated by the pandemic. b) Governments globally are urged to endorse the Commitment to Action, emphasizing the importance of foundational learning as the basis for all knowledge and skills, with a goal to reduce child illiteracy by half by 2030. c) The Commitment to Action highlights the need for urgent global efforts to reduce the percentage of children facing learning poverty. d) Around 60% of children worldwide, and 70% in low- and middle-income countries, are affected by learning poverty, leading to academic struggles and long-term consequences. Correct Correct Option: A Justification: Option A is correct: This option mentions the call for universal access to foundational skills, with a focus on marginalized children, and acknowledges the global problem of learning poverty worsened by the pandemic, aligning with the passage’s key points. Option B is incorrect: While this option correctly mentions the urging of governments to endorse the Commitment to Action, it introduces the idea of reducing child illiteracy by half by 2030, which is not explicitly stated in the passage. Option C is incorrect: This option accurately mentions the launch of the Commitment to Action, but it introduces the concept of reducing the percentage of children facing learning poverty, which is not explicitly stated in the passage. The passage emphasizes reducing the global share of children unable to read by age ten. Option D is incorrect: This option provides factual information about the prevalence of learning poverty but does not fully capture the essence of the Commitment to Action. Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: Option A is correct: This option mentions the call for universal access to foundational skills, with a focus on marginalized children, and acknowledges the global problem of learning poverty worsened by the pandemic, aligning with the passage’s key points. Option B is incorrect: While this option correctly mentions the urging of governments to endorse the Commitment to Action, it introduces the idea of reducing child illiteracy by half by 2030, which is not explicitly stated in the passage. Option C is incorrect: This option accurately mentions the launch of the Commitment to Action, but it introduces the concept of reducing the percentage of children facing learning poverty, which is not explicitly stated in the passage. The passage emphasizes reducing the global share of children unable to read by age ten. Option D is incorrect: This option provides factual information about the prevalence of learning poverty but does not fully capture the essence of the Commitment to Action.

#### 26. Question

Governments and education stakeholders globally are called upon to support the Commitment to Action on Foundational Learning, aiming to ensure universal access to foundational skills for all children, especially the marginalized. Around 60% of children worldwide, and 70% in low- and middle-income countries, face learning poverty, exacerbated by the pandemic. The Commitment emphasizes that without foundational learning, children struggle academically, leading to increased grade repetition, school dropout, and long-term societal consequences. It serves as a formal commitment to address this crisis, recognizing foundational learning as the basis for all other knowledge and skills. By endorsing this commitment, countries commit to urgent action to reduce by half the global share of children unable to read by age ten, contributing to the broader goals of Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG4). The Commitment to Action is part of seven global initiatives launched at the UN Secretary-General’s Transforming Education Summit in September 2022.

Which of the following best summarizes the main message conveyed in the passage about the Commitment to Action on Foundational Learning?

• a) The Commitment to Action urges governments and education stakeholders to ensure universal access to foundational skills, especially for marginalized children, addressing the global issue of learning poverty exacerbated by the pandemic.

• b) Governments globally are urged to endorse the Commitment to Action, emphasizing the importance of foundational learning as the basis for all knowledge and skills, with a goal to reduce child illiteracy by half by 2030.

• c) The Commitment to Action highlights the need for urgent global efforts to reduce the percentage of children facing learning poverty.

• d) Around 60% of children worldwide, and 70% in low- and middle-income countries, are affected by learning poverty, leading to academic struggles and long-term consequences.

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Option A is correct: This option mentions the call for universal access to foundational skills, with a focus on marginalized children, and acknowledges the global problem of learning poverty worsened by the pandemic, aligning with the passage’s key points.

Option B is incorrect: While this option correctly mentions the urging of governments to endorse the Commitment to Action, it introduces the idea of reducing child illiteracy by half by 2030, which is not explicitly stated in the passage.

Option C is incorrect: This option accurately mentions the launch of the Commitment to Action, but it introduces the concept of reducing the percentage of children facing learning poverty, which is not explicitly stated in the passage. The passage emphasizes reducing the global share of children unable to read by age ten.

Option D is incorrect: This option provides factual information about the prevalence of learning poverty but does not fully capture the essence of the Commitment to Action.

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Option D is incorrect: This option provides factual information about the prevalence of learning poverty but does not fully capture the essence of the Commitment to Action.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points A merchant marks his goods up by 25 % above his cost price. What is the maximum % discount that he can offer so that he ends up selling at no profit or loss? a) 25% b) 33.33% c) 20% d) 50% Correct Correct Option: C Justification: Let the cost price be x. Marked up price = x + 25% of x = 125% of x Selling price to make no profit no loss, the merchant should sell at cost price only Therefore, discount on mark-up price = (25/125) 100 % = 20 % Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: Let the cost price be x. Marked up price = x + 25% of x = 125% of x Selling price to make no profit no loss, the merchant should sell at cost price only Therefore, discount on mark-up price = (25/125) 100 % = 20 %

#### 27. Question

A merchant marks his goods up by 25 % above his cost price. What is the maximum % discount that he can offer so that he ends up selling at no profit or loss?

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Let the cost price be x.

Marked up price = x + 25% of x = 125% of x

Selling price to make no profit no loss, the merchant should sell at cost price only

Therefore, discount on mark-up price = (25/125) * 100 % = 20 %

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Let the cost price be x.

Marked up price = x + 25% of x = 125% of x

Selling price to make no profit no loss, the merchant should sell at cost price only

Therefore, discount on mark-up price = (25/125) * 100 % = 20 %

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points 10% percent of apples bought by a fruit vendor got lost during transportation. On selling the remaining apples, the vendor’s overall profit turned out to be 8%. If the vendor had not lost any apples and had sold them at the price of the remaining apples, what would have been his profit percentage? a) 10% b) 18% c) 20% d) 15% Correct Correct Option: C Justification: For these kinds of questions, it is advisable to assume convenient values. Let there are 100 apples and each cost Rs 1. Therefore, total cost incurred to fruit vendors is Rs.100. Now, 10% apples got lost during transportation, therefore vendor was left with 90 apples. If he has got profit of 8% on his cost price, he has received Rs 108 in total. That means, he sold 90 apples for Rs 108 or each apple was sold at Rs 1.2. Thus, if had sold all 100 apples at Rs 1.2 then he would have got Rs 120 which is 20% profit. Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: For these kinds of questions, it is advisable to assume convenient values. Let there are 100 apples and each cost Rs 1. Therefore, total cost incurred to fruit vendors is Rs.100. Now, 10% apples got lost during transportation, therefore vendor was left with 90 apples. If he has got profit of 8% on his cost price, he has received Rs 108 in total. That means, he sold 90 apples for Rs 108 or each apple was sold at Rs 1.2. Thus, if had sold all 100 apples at Rs 1.2 then he would have got Rs 120 which is 20% profit.

#### 28. Question

10% percent of apples bought by a fruit vendor got lost during transportation. On selling the remaining apples, the vendor’s overall profit turned out to be 8%. If the vendor had not lost any apples and had sold them at the price of the remaining apples, what would have been his profit percentage?

Correct Option: C

Justification:

For these kinds of questions, it is advisable to assume convenient values.

Let there are 100 apples and each cost Rs 1. Therefore, total cost incurred to fruit vendors is Rs.100.

Now, 10% apples got lost during transportation, therefore vendor was left with 90 apples.

If he has got profit of 8% on his cost price, he has received Rs 108 in total.

That means, he sold 90 apples for Rs 108 or each apple was sold at Rs 1.2.

Thus, if had sold all 100 apples at Rs 1.2 then he would have got Rs 120 which is 20% profit.

Correct Option: C

Justification:

For these kinds of questions, it is advisable to assume convenient values.

Let there are 100 apples and each cost Rs 1. Therefore, total cost incurred to fruit vendors is Rs.100.

Now, 10% apples got lost during transportation, therefore vendor was left with 90 apples.

If he has got profit of 8% on his cost price, he has received Rs 108 in total.

That means, he sold 90 apples for Rs 108 or each apple was sold at Rs 1.2.

Thus, if had sold all 100 apples at Rs 1.2 then he would have got Rs 120 which is 20% profit.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Abhay sells a car to Basu at five third the rate of profit at which Basu decides to sell it to Chitranshu. Chitranshu sells the car to Dileep at one third the rate of profit at which Basu sells it to Chitranshu. If Dileep pays Rs 21450 to Chitranshu at 5% profit. For how much money did Abhay buy it for around? a) Rs 14211 b) Rs 17764 c) Rs 20429 d) Rs 16564 Correct Correct Option: A Justification: Dileep pays Rs 21450 to Chitranshu and Chitranshu earns 5% profit on it. ——(1) Chitranshu’s purchase(cost) price was 21450×100/(100+5) = around Rs.20429—-(2) Chitranshu’s profit is ⅓ of Basu’s profit. Basu’s rate of profit is 3 times that of Chitranshu’s. So from equation (1) , Basu’s rate of profit is 15% Basu sells it to Chitranshu at 15% of profit. ——(3) Basu’s cost price(B) + 15% of profit = Chitranshu’s cost price = 20429 B x (100+15)/100= 20429 B = around Rs 17764 Abhay’s profit is 5/3 of Basu’s rate of profit. From equation (3), Abhay’s rate of profit is 5/3 x(15) = 25% Thus, Abhay’s cost price(A) + 25% profit = Basu’s cost price = Rs 17764 A x(100+25)/100 = 17764 A= Rs 14211 Aman bought it for Rs 14211. Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: Dileep pays Rs 21450 to Chitranshu and Chitranshu earns 5% profit on it. ——(1) Chitranshu’s purchase(cost) price was 21450×100/(100+5) = around Rs.20429—-(2) Chitranshu’s profit is ⅓ of Basu’s profit. Basu’s rate of profit is 3 times that of Chitranshu’s. So from equation (1) , Basu’s rate of profit is 15% Basu sells it to Chitranshu at 15% of profit. ——(3) Basu’s cost price(B) + 15% of profit = Chitranshu’s cost price = 20429 B x (100+15)/100= 20429 B = around Rs 17764 Abhay’s profit is 5/3 of Basu’s rate of profit. From equation (3), Abhay’s rate of profit is 5/3 x(15) = 25% Thus, Abhay’s cost price(A) + 25% profit = Basu’s cost price = Rs 17764 A x(100+25)/100 = 17764 A= Rs 14211 Aman bought it for Rs 14211.

#### 29. Question

Abhay sells a car to Basu at five third the rate of profit at which Basu decides to sell it to Chitranshu. Chitranshu sells the car to Dileep at one third the rate of profit at which Basu sells it to Chitranshu. If Dileep pays Rs 21450 to Chitranshu at 5% profit. For how much money did Abhay buy it for around?

• a) Rs 14211

• b) Rs 17764

• c) Rs 20429

• d) Rs 16564

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Dileep pays Rs 21450 to Chitranshu and Chitranshu earns 5% profit on it. ——(1)

Chitranshu’s purchase(cost) price was 21450×100/(100+5) = around Rs.20429—-(2)

Chitranshu’s profit is ⅓ of Basu’s profit.

Basu’s rate of profit is 3 times that of Chitranshu’s. So from equation (1) , Basu’s rate of profit is 15%

Basu sells it to Chitranshu at 15% of profit. ——(3)

Basu’s cost price(B) + 15% of profit = Chitranshu’s cost price = 20429

B x (100+15)/100= 20429

B = around Rs 17764

Abhay’s profit is 5/3 of Basu’s rate of profit.

From equation (3),

Abhay’s rate of profit is 5/3 x(15) = 25%

Thus, Abhay’s cost price(A) + 25% profit = Basu’s cost price = Rs 17764

A x(100+25)/100 = 17764

A= Rs 14211

Aman bought it for Rs 14211.

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Dileep pays Rs 21450 to Chitranshu and Chitranshu earns 5% profit on it. ——(1)

Chitranshu’s purchase(cost) price was 21450×100/(100+5) = around Rs.20429—-(2)

Chitranshu’s profit is ⅓ of Basu’s profit.

Basu’s rate of profit is 3 times that of Chitranshu’s. So from equation (1) , Basu’s rate of profit is 15%

Basu sells it to Chitranshu at 15% of profit. ——(3)

Basu’s cost price(B) + 15% of profit = Chitranshu’s cost price = 20429

B x (100+15)/100= 20429

B = around Rs 17764

Abhay’s profit is 5/3 of Basu’s rate of profit.

From equation (3),

Abhay’s rate of profit is 5/3 x(15) = 25%

Thus, Abhay’s cost price(A) + 25% profit = Basu’s cost price = Rs 17764

A x(100+25)/100 = 17764

A= Rs 14211

Aman bought it for Rs 14211.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points A ghee shopkeeper marks up the price of ghee by 20%. And he gives a discount of 10% to the consumers. But he has the greed to make more profit. So he cheats his supplier and buyer by 100gm while buying or selling 1 kilogram. How much percentage profit does the shopkeeper earn? a) 32% b) 28% c) 24% d) 36% Correct Correct Option: A Justification: Let’s assume the Cost price (CP) of ghee is Rs 1/ gram So the CP for 1kg = Rs (1×1000) = Rs 1000 The marked up price is = Rs[1000x(100+20)]/100 = Rs1200 for 1000 gm Now he gives a discount of 10% , so the sell price (SP) = Rs [1200x(100-10)]/100 = Rs 1080 for 1000 gm. Given, He cheats his supplier by 100 gm while buying 1000 gm Implies he buys 1100gm at the cost of 1000 gm. That is his CP for 1100 gm is Rs1000————-(1) Given, he cheats his buyer by 100 gm while selling 1000 gm Implies he sells 900 gm at the SP of 1000 gm. That is his SP for 900 gm is Rs 1080——————-(2) Now, CP for 1100 gm = Rs 1000 SP for 900 gm = Rs 1080 SP for 1100 gm by unitary method = (1080/900)x1100 = Rs 1320 From equation 1, CP for 1100 gm = Rs 1000 So the profit % ={(1320-1000)/1000}X100 = 32% Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: Let’s assume the Cost price (CP) of ghee is Rs 1/ gram So the CP for 1kg = Rs (1×1000) = Rs 1000 The marked up price is = Rs[1000x(100+20)]/100 = Rs1200 for 1000 gm Now he gives a discount of 10% , so the sell price (SP) = Rs [1200x(100-10)]/100 = Rs 1080 for 1000 gm. Given, He cheats his supplier by 100 gm while buying 1000 gm Implies he buys 1100gm at the cost of 1000 gm. That is his CP for 1100 gm is Rs1000————-(1) Given, he cheats his buyer by 100 gm while selling 1000 gm Implies he sells 900 gm at the SP of 1000 gm. That is his SP for 900 gm is Rs 1080——————-(2) Now, CP for 1100 gm = Rs 1000 SP for 900 gm = Rs 1080 SP for 1100 gm by unitary method = (1080/900)x1100 = Rs 1320 From equation 1, CP for 1100 gm = Rs 1000 So the profit % ={(1320-1000)/1000}X100 = 32%

#### 30. Question

A ghee shopkeeper marks up the price of ghee by 20%. And he gives a discount of 10% to the consumers. But he has the greed to make more profit. So he cheats his supplier and buyer by 100gm while buying or selling 1 kilogram. How much percentage profit does the shopkeeper earn?

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Let’s assume the Cost price (CP) of ghee is Rs 1/ gram

So the CP for 1kg = Rs (1×1000) = Rs 1000

The marked up price is = Rs[1000x(100+20)]/100 = Rs1200 for 1000 gm

Now he gives a discount of 10% , so the sell price (SP) = Rs [1200x(100-10)]/100 = Rs 1080 for 1000 gm.

Given, He cheats his supplier by 100 gm while buying 1000 gm

Implies he buys 1100gm at the cost of 1000 gm. That is his CP for 1100 gm is Rs1000————-(1)

Given, he cheats his buyer by 100 gm while selling 1000 gm

Implies he sells 900 gm at the SP of 1000 gm. That is his SP for 900 gm is Rs 1080——————-(2)

CP for 1100 gm = Rs 1000

SP for 900 gm = Rs 1080

SP for 1100 gm by unitary method = (1080/900)x1100 = Rs 1320

From equation 1, CP for 1100 gm = Rs 1000

So the profit % ={(1320-1000)/1000}X100 = 32%

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Let’s assume the Cost price (CP) of ghee is Rs 1/ gram

So the CP for 1kg = Rs (1×1000) = Rs 1000

The marked up price is = Rs[1000x(100+20)]/100 = Rs1200 for 1000 gm

Now he gives a discount of 10% , so the sell price (SP) = Rs [1200x(100-10)]/100 = Rs 1080 for 1000 gm.

Given, He cheats his supplier by 100 gm while buying 1000 gm

Implies he buys 1100gm at the cost of 1000 gm. That is his CP for 1100 gm is Rs1000————-(1)

Given, he cheats his buyer by 100 gm while selling 1000 gm

Implies he sells 900 gm at the SP of 1000 gm. That is his SP for 900 gm is Rs 1080——————-(2)

CP for 1100 gm = Rs 1000

SP for 900 gm = Rs 1080

SP for 1100 gm by unitary method = (1080/900)x1100 = Rs 1320

From equation 1, CP for 1100 gm = Rs 1000

So the profit % ={(1320-1000)/1000}X100 = 32%

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