DAY – 18 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY, Subject-wise Test 14, Textbook-wise Test 18 and October 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT an example of homeostasis in animals? a) Regulating body temperature b) Maintaining constant blood pH c) Controlling blood sugar levels d) Shedding fur during seasonal changes Correct Answer: d Explanation: Homeostasis refers to the biological process by which living organisms regulate their internal environment to maintain stability and balance, despite changes in the external environment. Essentially, it is the ability of an organism to maintain relatively constant internal conditions necessary for survival and optimal functioning. For example, when body temperature rises due to external heat exposure, mechanisms like sweating and vasodilation help dissipate heat and bring the temperature back to normal. Similarly, if blood sugar levels increase after a meal, insulin is released to facilitate glucose uptake by cells, thereby maintaining blood sugar within a healthy range. Homeostasis is essential for the proper functioning of cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems in organisms ranging from simple unicellular organisms to complex multicellular animals. Disruptions to homeostasis can lead to health problems, disease, and even death if not corrected. Regulating body temperature: This is an example of homeostasis. Animals regulate their body temperature to maintain it within a narrow range despite changes in external temperature. Examples include sweating or panting to cool down in hot environments and shivering to generate heat in cold environments. Maintaining constant blood pH: This is also an example of homeostasis. Animals regulate the pH of their blood and other bodily fluids to keep it within a specific range (around pH 7.4). Buffer systems and regulatory mechanisms help maintain this balance to ensure proper enzyme function and cellular activities. Controlling blood sugar levels: is another example of homeostasis. Animals regulate blood sugar levels through the actions of hormones such as insulin and glucagon, which help ensure that glucose levels remain within a relatively range. This regulation is essential for providing cells with a constant energy source and preventing hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Shedding fur during seasonal changes: This is NOT an example of homeostasis. Shedding fur during seasonal changes is a physical adaptation to environmental changes rather than a regulatory mechanism aimed at maintaining internal stability. It is a response to changes in daylight, temperature, or other environmental cues rather than a mechanism to stabilize internal conditions. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Homeostasis refers to the biological process by which living organisms regulate their internal environment to maintain stability and balance, despite changes in the external environment. Essentially, it is the ability of an organism to maintain relatively constant internal conditions necessary for survival and optimal functioning. For example, when body temperature rises due to external heat exposure, mechanisms like sweating and vasodilation help dissipate heat and bring the temperature back to normal. Similarly, if blood sugar levels increase after a meal, insulin is released to facilitate glucose uptake by cells, thereby maintaining blood sugar within a healthy range. Homeostasis is essential for the proper functioning of cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems in organisms ranging from simple unicellular organisms to complex multicellular animals. Disruptions to homeostasis can lead to health problems, disease, and even death if not corrected. Regulating body temperature: This is an example of homeostasis. Animals regulate their body temperature to maintain it within a narrow range despite changes in external temperature. Examples include sweating or panting to cool down in hot environments and shivering to generate heat in cold environments. Maintaining constant blood pH: This is also an example of homeostasis. Animals regulate the pH of their blood and other bodily fluids to keep it within a specific range (around pH 7.4). Buffer systems and regulatory mechanisms help maintain this balance to ensure proper enzyme function and cellular activities. Controlling blood sugar levels: is another example of homeostasis. Animals regulate blood sugar levels through the actions of hormones such as insulin and glucagon, which help ensure that glucose levels remain within a relatively range. This regulation is essential for providing cells with a constant energy source and preventing hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Shedding fur during seasonal changes: This is NOT an example of homeostasis. Shedding fur during seasonal changes is a physical adaptation to environmental changes rather than a regulatory mechanism aimed at maintaining internal stability. It is a response to changes in daylight, temperature, or other environmental cues rather than a mechanism to stabilize internal conditions. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 1. Question

Which of the following is NOT an example of homeostasis in animals?

• a) Regulating body temperature

• b) Maintaining constant blood pH

• c) Controlling blood sugar levels

• d) Shedding fur during seasonal changes

Explanation:

• Homeostasis refers to the biological process by which living organisms regulate their internal environment to maintain stability and balance, despite changes in the external environment. Essentially, it is the ability of an organism to maintain relatively constant internal conditions necessary for survival and optimal functioning.

• For example, when body temperature rises due to external heat exposure, mechanisms like sweating and vasodilation help dissipate heat and bring the temperature back to normal. Similarly, if blood sugar levels increase after a meal, insulin is released to facilitate glucose uptake by cells, thereby maintaining blood sugar within a healthy range.

• Homeostasis is essential for the proper functioning of cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems in organisms ranging from simple unicellular organisms to complex multicellular animals. Disruptions to homeostasis can lead to health problems, disease, and even death if not corrected.

• Regulating body temperature: This is an example of homeostasis. Animals regulate their body temperature to maintain it within a narrow range despite changes in external temperature. Examples include sweating or panting to cool down in hot environments and shivering to generate heat in cold environments.

• Maintaining constant blood pH: This is also an example of homeostasis. Animals regulate the pH of their blood and other bodily fluids to keep it within a specific range (around pH 7.4). Buffer systems and regulatory mechanisms help maintain this balance to ensure proper enzyme function and cellular activities.

• Controlling blood sugar levels: is another example of homeostasis. Animals regulate blood sugar levels through the actions of hormones such as insulin and glucagon, which help ensure that glucose levels remain within a relatively range. This regulation is essential for providing cells with a constant energy source and preventing hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia.

• Shedding fur during seasonal changes: This is NOT an example of homeostasis. Shedding fur during seasonal changes is a physical adaptation to environmental changes rather than a regulatory mechanism aimed at maintaining internal stability. It is a response to changes in daylight, temperature, or other environmental cues rather than a mechanism to stabilize internal conditions.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A food chain is less resilient to ecological disturbances as compared to a food web. Statement-II: A food web is a more complex and interconnected network of multiple food chains within an ecosystem. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: a Explanation: Food web and food chain are both concepts used to describe the flow of energy and nutrients through ecosystems, but they differ in their complexity and representation of feeding relationships. Food Chain: A food chain is a linear sequence of organisms, where each organism serves as a source of food for the next organism in the chain. It represents a single pathway of energy and nutrient transfer. Food chains are less resilient to disturbances because they represent a single pathway for energy flow. Disruptions to one species within the chain can have cascading effects on other species. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Food Web: A food web is a more complex and interconnected network of multiple food chains within an ecosystem. It depicts the feeding relationships among various organisms and illustrates the interconnectedness of different species. Food webs are more resilient to disturbances because of their complexity the interconnectedness of species within the web allows for alternative pathways of energy flow, buffering the ecosystem against disruptions. Hence, statement 2 is correct and it correctly explains statement 1. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Food web and food chain are both concepts used to describe the flow of energy and nutrients through ecosystems, but they differ in their complexity and representation of feeding relationships. Food Chain: A food chain is a linear sequence of organisms, where each organism serves as a source of food for the next organism in the chain. It represents a single pathway of energy and nutrient transfer. Food chains are less resilient to disturbances because they represent a single pathway for energy flow. Disruptions to one species within the chain can have cascading effects on other species. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Food Web: A food web is a more complex and interconnected network of multiple food chains within an ecosystem. It depicts the feeding relationships among various organisms and illustrates the interconnectedness of different species. Food webs are more resilient to disturbances because of their complexity the interconnectedness of species within the web allows for alternative pathways of energy flow, buffering the ecosystem against disruptions. Hence, statement 2 is correct and it correctly explains statement 1. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

A food chain is less resilient to ecological disturbances as compared to a food web.

Statement-II:

A food web is a more complex and interconnected network of multiple food chains within an ecosystem.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

• Food web and food chain are both concepts used to describe the flow of energy and nutrients through ecosystems, but they differ in their complexity and representation of feeding relationships.

• Food Chain: A food chain is a linear sequence of organisms, where each organism serves as a source of food for the next organism in the chain. It represents a single pathway of energy and nutrient transfer.

• Food chains are less resilient to disturbances because they represent a single pathway for energy flow. Disruptions to one species within the chain can have cascading effects on other species. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Food Web: A food web is a more complex and interconnected network of multiple food chains within an ecosystem. It depicts the feeding relationships among various organisms and illustrates the interconnectedness of different species.

• Food webs are more resilient to disturbances because of their complexity the interconnectedness of species within the web allows for alternative pathways of energy flow, buffering the ecosystem against disruptions. Hence, statement 2 is correct and it correctly explains statement 1.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Food web and food chain are both concepts used to describe the flow of energy and nutrients through ecosystems, but they differ in their complexity and representation of feeding relationships.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

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Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain? a) Seaweed -Shrimp -Squid - Octopus - Whale b) Seaweed-Squid-Shrimp-Octopus-Whale c) Squid-Seaweed-Shrimp-Octopus-Whale d) Seaweed-Shrimp-Octopus-Squid-Whale Correct Answer: a Explanation: Seaweed: Seaweed serves as a primary producer in the marine ecosystem, converting sunlight into energy through photosynthesis. It forms the base of the food chain, providing energy to the organisms at higher trophic levels. Shrimp: Shrimp are primary consumers that feed on seaweed. They consume the seaweed directly, utilizing its energy for growth and reproduction. Shrimp are an essential food source for many marine organisms. Squid: Squid are secondary consumers that feed on shrimp. They play a crucial role in controlling shrimp populations and contribute to the transfer of energy up the food chain. Squid are agile predators, preying on smaller organisms like shrimp. Octopus: Octopus, like squid, are secondary consumers that primarily feed on shrimp and small fish. They are adept hunters with complex behaviours and are essential in regulating the population sizes of their prey. Whale: Killer whales, or orcas, are apex predators at the top of the marine food chain. They feed on a variety of marine animals, including dolphins, seals, and large fish. As apex predators, killer whales help regulate the populations of their prey species and influence the structure and dynamics of the entire marine ecosystem. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Seaweed: Seaweed serves as a primary producer in the marine ecosystem, converting sunlight into energy through photosynthesis. It forms the base of the food chain, providing energy to the organisms at higher trophic levels. Shrimp: Shrimp are primary consumers that feed on seaweed. They consume the seaweed directly, utilizing its energy for growth and reproduction. Shrimp are an essential food source for many marine organisms. Squid: Squid are secondary consumers that feed on shrimp. They play a crucial role in controlling shrimp populations and contribute to the transfer of energy up the food chain. Squid are agile predators, preying on smaller organisms like shrimp. Octopus: Octopus, like squid, are secondary consumers that primarily feed on shrimp and small fish. They are adept hunters with complex behaviours and are essential in regulating the population sizes of their prey. Whale: Killer whales, or orcas, are apex predators at the top of the marine food chain. They feed on a variety of marine animals, including dolphins, seals, and large fish. As apex predators, killer whales help regulate the populations of their prey species and influence the structure and dynamics of the entire marine ecosystem. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 3. Question

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

• a) Seaweed -Shrimp -Squid - Octopus - Whale

• b) Seaweed-Squid-Shrimp-Octopus-Whale

• c) Squid-Seaweed-Shrimp-Octopus-Whale

• d) Seaweed-Shrimp-Octopus-Squid-Whale

Explanation:

• Seaweed: Seaweed serves as a primary producer in the marine ecosystem, converting sunlight into energy through photosynthesis. It forms the base of the food chain, providing energy to the organisms at higher trophic levels.

• Shrimp: Shrimp are primary consumers that feed on seaweed. They consume the seaweed directly, utilizing its energy for growth and reproduction. Shrimp are an essential food source for many marine organisms.

• Squid: Squid are secondary consumers that feed on shrimp. They play a crucial role in controlling shrimp populations and contribute to the transfer of energy up the food chain. Squid are agile predators, preying on smaller organisms like shrimp.

• Octopus: Octopus, like squid, are secondary consumers that primarily feed on shrimp and small fish. They are adept hunters with complex behaviours and are essential in regulating the population sizes of their prey.

• Whale: Killer whales, or orcas, are apex predators at the top of the marine food chain. They feed on a variety of marine animals, including dolphins, seals, and large fish. As apex predators, killer whales help regulate the populations of their prey species and influence the structure and dynamics of the entire marine ecosystem.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

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Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points In the context of ecological pyramids, consider the following statements: The pyramid of numbers is always upright and never inverted in a terrestrial ecosystem. In a pond ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is generally inverted. Pyramid of energy is always upright and never inverted. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: Ecological pyramids are the graphic representations of trophic levels in an ecosystem. They are pyramidal in shape and they are of three types The ecological pyramids are of three categories. Pyramid of numbers, Pyramid of biomass, and Pyramid of energy or productivity. Pyramid of Number: This represents the number of organisms at each trophic level. Pyramid of number is mostly upright but not always. For example, in grassland the number of grass is more than the number of herbivores that feed on them and the number of herbivores is more than the number of carnivores. In some instances, the pyramid of number may be inverted. An inverted pyramid of numbers can be found in an ecosystem where the community contains a few producers with a very number of smaller consumers. An inverted pyramid of numbers can also be found in an ecosystem where the community contains parasites. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. A biomass pyramid is the representation of total living biomass or organic matter present at different trophic levels in an ecosystem. Biomass is calculated as the mass of living organisms present at each trophic level in a given sample size. It can be represented as dry weight in grams or calories per unit area. In most of the terrestrial ecosystems the pyramid of biomass is upright. However, in case of aquatic ecosystems the pyramid of biomass may be invertedg. in a pond phytoplankton are the main producers, they have very short life cycles and a rapid turnover rate (i.e. they are rapidly replaced by new plants). Therefore, their total biomass at any given time is less than the biomass of herbivores supported by them. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Pyramid of Energy: This pyramid represents the total amount of energy at each trophic level. Energy is expressed in terms of rate such as kcal/unit area /unit time or cal/unit area/unit time. The flow of energy in an ecosystem is always unidirectional (from producers to consumers).There is a loss of some energy in the form of unusable heat at each trophic level so that energy level decreases from the first trophic level upwards. Therefore, pyramid of energy is always upright and never inverted. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Ecological pyramids are the graphic representations of trophic levels in an ecosystem. They are pyramidal in shape and they are of three types The ecological pyramids are of three categories. Pyramid of numbers, Pyramid of biomass, and Pyramid of energy or productivity. Pyramid of Number: This represents the number of organisms at each trophic level. Pyramid of number is mostly upright but not always. For example, in grassland the number of grass is more than the number of herbivores that feed on them and the number of herbivores is more than the number of carnivores. In some instances, the pyramid of number may be inverted. An inverted pyramid of numbers can be found in an ecosystem where the community contains a few producers with a very number of smaller consumers. An inverted pyramid of numbers can also be found in an ecosystem where the community contains parasites. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. A biomass pyramid is the representation of total living biomass or organic matter present at different trophic levels in an ecosystem. Biomass is calculated as the mass of living organisms present at each trophic level in a given sample size. It can be represented as dry weight in grams or calories per unit area. In most of the terrestrial ecosystems the pyramid of biomass is upright. However, in case of aquatic ecosystems the pyramid of biomass may be invertedg. in a pond phytoplankton are the main producers, they have very short life cycles and a rapid turnover rate (i.e. they are rapidly replaced by new plants). Therefore, their total biomass at any given time is less than the biomass of herbivores supported by them. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Pyramid of Energy: This pyramid represents the total amount of energy at each trophic level. Energy is expressed in terms of rate such as kcal/unit area /unit time or cal/unit area/unit time. The flow of energy in an ecosystem is always unidirectional (from producers to consumers).There is a loss of some energy in the form of unusable heat at each trophic level so that energy level decreases from the first trophic level upwards. Therefore, pyramid of energy is always upright and never inverted. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 4. Question

In the context of ecological pyramids, consider the following statements:

• The pyramid of numbers is always upright and never inverted in a terrestrial ecosystem.

• In a pond ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is generally inverted.

• Pyramid of energy is always upright and never inverted.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Ecological pyramids are the graphic representations of trophic levels in an ecosystem. They are pyramidal in shape and they are of three types

• The ecological pyramids are of three categories.

• Pyramid of numbers,

• Pyramid of biomass, and

• Pyramid of energy or productivity.

• Pyramid of Number: This represents the number of organisms at each trophic level. Pyramid of number is mostly upright but not always.

• For example, in grassland the number of grass is more than the number of herbivores that feed on them and the number of herbivores is more than the number of carnivores.

• In some instances, the pyramid of number may be inverted. An inverted pyramid of numbers can be found in an ecosystem where the community contains a few producers with a very number of smaller consumers. An inverted pyramid of numbers can also be found in an ecosystem where the community contains parasites. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• A biomass pyramid is the representation of total living biomass or organic matter present at different trophic levels in an ecosystem. Biomass is calculated as the mass of living organisms present at each trophic level in a given sample size. It can be represented as dry weight in grams or calories per unit area.

• In most of the terrestrial ecosystems the pyramid of biomass is upright. However, in case of aquatic ecosystems the pyramid of biomass may be invertedg. in a pond phytoplankton are the main producers, they have very short life cycles and a rapid turnover rate (i.e. they are rapidly replaced by new plants). Therefore, their total biomass at any given time is less than the biomass of herbivores supported by them. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Pyramid of Energy: This pyramid represents the total amount of energy at each trophic level. Energy is expressed in terms of rate such as kcal/unit area /unit time or cal/unit area/unit time.

• The flow of energy in an ecosystem is always unidirectional (from producers to consumers).There is a loss of some energy in the form of unusable heat at each trophic level so that energy level decreases from the first trophic level upwards. Therefore, pyramid of energy is always upright and never inverted. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Ecological pyramids are the graphic representations of trophic levels in an ecosystem. They are pyramidal in shape and they are of three types

• The ecological pyramids are of three categories.

• Pyramid of numbers,

• Pyramid of biomass, and

• Pyramid of energy or productivity.

• Pyramid of Number: This represents the number of organisms at each trophic level. Pyramid of number is mostly upright but not always.

• For example, in grassland the number of grass is more than the number of herbivores that feed on them and the number of herbivores is more than the number of carnivores.

• Pyramid of Energy: This pyramid represents the total amount of energy at each trophic level. Energy is expressed in terms of rate such as kcal/unit area /unit time or cal/unit area/unit time.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following: Mangroves Savannahs Steppes Deltas How many of the above are ‘ecotones’? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. Ecotone is the zone where two communities meet and integrate. Examples are: Grassland (between forest and desert), Estuary/delta(between fresh water and salt water) Riverbank or marshland (between dry and wet). Mangroves are marshlands, savannah, steppe, prairie, are all grasslands. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. Ecotone is the zone where two communities meet and integrate. Examples are: Grassland (between forest and desert), Estuary/delta(between fresh water and salt water) Riverbank or marshland (between dry and wet). Mangroves are marshlands, savannah, steppe, prairie, are all grasslands. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 5. Question

Consider the following:

How many of the above are ‘ecotones’?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. Ecotone is the zone where two communities meet and integrate.

Examples are:

• Grassland (between forest and desert),

• Estuary/delta(between fresh water and salt water)

• Riverbank or marshland (between dry and wet).

Mangroves are marshlands, savannah, steppe, prairie, are all grasslands.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

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Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. Ecotone is the zone where two communities meet and integrate.

Examples are:

• Grassland (between forest and desert),

• Estuary/delta(between fresh water and salt water)

• Riverbank or marshland (between dry and wet).

Mangroves are marshlands, savannah, steppe, prairie, are all grasslands.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

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Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which are the two most important climatic factors that separates different type of biomes? a) Fertility of soil and Humidity b) Flora and Fauna c) Precipitation and soil conditions d) Temperature and precipitation Correct Answer: d Explanation: Biomes are large geographic areas characterized by distinct climate, vegetation, and animal life. There are several major types of biomes found across the globe, each with its own unique characteristics. For Example; Tundra, Taiga, deciduous forests, deserts, grasslands etc. No two biomes are alike. The climate determines the boundaries of biome and abundance of plants and animals found in each one of them. The most important climatic factors are temperature and precipitation. Temperature: Temperature plays a significant role in determining the distribution of biomes across the Earth’s surface. It influences the length of growing seasons, rates of evaporation, and the types of plants and animals that can thrive in a particular area. Biomes such as tundra have low temperatures year-round, while tropical rainforests experience consistently warm temperatures. Precipitation: Precipitation, including rainfall and snowfall, is another critical climatic factor that separates biomes. It determines water availability, which is essential for plant growth and ecosystem development. Biomes like deserts have low precipitation levels, leading to arid conditions, while rainforests receive abundant rainfall, creating lush and diverse ecosystems. Precipitation patterns also influence soil moisture levels and the distribution of vegetation within biomes. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Biomes are large geographic areas characterized by distinct climate, vegetation, and animal life. There are several major types of biomes found across the globe, each with its own unique characteristics. For Example; Tundra, Taiga, deciduous forests, deserts, grasslands etc. No two biomes are alike. The climate determines the boundaries of biome and abundance of plants and animals found in each one of them. The most important climatic factors are temperature and precipitation. Temperature: Temperature plays a significant role in determining the distribution of biomes across the Earth’s surface. It influences the length of growing seasons, rates of evaporation, and the types of plants and animals that can thrive in a particular area. Biomes such as tundra have low temperatures year-round, while tropical rainforests experience consistently warm temperatures. Precipitation: Precipitation, including rainfall and snowfall, is another critical climatic factor that separates biomes. It determines water availability, which is essential for plant growth and ecosystem development. Biomes like deserts have low precipitation levels, leading to arid conditions, while rainforests receive abundant rainfall, creating lush and diverse ecosystems. Precipitation patterns also influence soil moisture levels and the distribution of vegetation within biomes. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 6. Question

Which are the two most important climatic factors that separates different type of biomes?

• a) Fertility of soil and Humidity

• b) Flora and Fauna

• c) Precipitation and soil conditions

• d) Temperature and precipitation

Explanation:

Biomes are large geographic areas characterized by distinct climate, vegetation, and animal life. There are several major types of biomes found across the globe, each with its own unique characteristics. For Example; Tundra, Taiga, deciduous forests, deserts, grasslands etc.

No two biomes are alike. The climate determines the boundaries of biome and abundance of plants and animals found in each one of them. The most important climatic factors are temperature and precipitation.

• Temperature: Temperature plays a significant role in determining the distribution of biomes across the Earth’s surface. It influences the length of growing seasons, rates of evaporation, and the types of plants and animals that can thrive in a particular area. Biomes such as tundra have low temperatures year-round, while tropical rainforests experience consistently warm temperatures.

• Precipitation: Precipitation, including rainfall and snowfall, is another critical climatic factor that separates biomes. It determines water availability, which is essential for plant growth and ecosystem development. Biomes like deserts have low precipitation levels, leading to arid conditions, while rainforests receive abundant rainfall, creating lush and diverse ecosystems. Precipitation patterns also influence soil moisture levels and the distribution of vegetation within biomes.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

Hence, option (d) is correct.

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Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points In which type of ecosystem is nitrogen often the limiting factor of productivity? a) Temperate forests b) Tropical rainforests c) Grasslands d) Marine ecosystems Correct Answer: b Explanation: The limiting factor of productivity refers to the environmental factor that most restricts the growth and productivity of organisms within an ecosystem. This factor determines the maximum rate at which primary producers can photosynthesize and produce organic matter, thus influencing the overall productivity and biomass of the ecosystem. Typically tropical rainforests are limited in their growth by low nitrogen levels. Tropical rainforests are characterized by high levels of rainfall and temperatures, which lead to rapid decomposition of organic matter. As a result, nitrogen, an essential nutrient for plant growth, is quickly leached from the soil. Additionally, the dense vegetation in tropical rainforests leads to intense competition for nutrients among plants. In contrast, temperate forests, grasslands, and marine ecosystems may have other limiting factors for productivity. For example, in temperate forests, factors such as temperature, light availability, and soil moisture can limit productivity. In grasslands, water availability and soil nutrients, particularly phosphorus, may be more limiting. In marine ecosystems, productivity may be limited by factors such as light availability and temperature. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The limiting factor of productivity refers to the environmental factor that most restricts the growth and productivity of organisms within an ecosystem. This factor determines the maximum rate at which primary producers can photosynthesize and produce organic matter, thus influencing the overall productivity and biomass of the ecosystem. Typically tropical rainforests are limited in their growth by low nitrogen levels. Tropical rainforests are characterized by high levels of rainfall and temperatures, which lead to rapid decomposition of organic matter. As a result, nitrogen, an essential nutrient for plant growth, is quickly leached from the soil. Additionally, the dense vegetation in tropical rainforests leads to intense competition for nutrients among plants. In contrast, temperate forests, grasslands, and marine ecosystems may have other limiting factors for productivity. For example, in temperate forests, factors such as temperature, light availability, and soil moisture can limit productivity. In grasslands, water availability and soil nutrients, particularly phosphorus, may be more limiting. In marine ecosystems, productivity may be limited by factors such as light availability and temperature. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 7. Question

In which type of ecosystem is nitrogen often the limiting factor of productivity?

• a) Temperate forests

• b) Tropical rainforests

• c) Grasslands

• d) Marine ecosystems

Explanation:

The limiting factor of productivity refers to the environmental factor that most restricts the growth and productivity of organisms within an ecosystem. This factor determines the maximum rate at which primary producers can photosynthesize and produce organic matter, thus influencing the overall productivity and biomass of the ecosystem.

Typically tropical rainforests are limited in their growth by low nitrogen levels. Tropical rainforests are characterized by high levels of rainfall and temperatures, which lead to rapid decomposition of organic matter. As a result, nitrogen, an essential nutrient for plant growth, is quickly leached from the soil. Additionally, the dense vegetation in tropical rainforests leads to intense competition for nutrients among plants.

In contrast, temperate forests, grasslands, and marine ecosystems may have other limiting factors for productivity. For example, in temperate forests, factors such as temperature, light availability, and soil moisture can limit productivity. In grasslands, water availability and soil nutrients, particularly phosphorus, may be more limiting. In marine ecosystems, productivity may be limited by factors such as light availability and temperature.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the tolerance range of species: Tolerance range varies widely among species based on their evolutionary adaptations. The tolerance range of plant species is more than that of animals. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: The tolerance range of a species refers to the range of environmental conditions within which the species can survive, grow, and reproduce. These conditions include factors such as temperature, humidity, pH, salinity, light intensity, and nutrient availability. Types: Upper Tolerance Limit: This represents the maximum value of an environmental factor that a species can withstand without experiencing adverse effects. For example, a species may have an upper tolerance limit for temperature beyond which it cannot survive due to heat stress or metabolic inefficiency. Lower Tolerance Limit: This represents the minimum value of an environmental factor that a species can tolerate without adverse effects. For instance, a species may have a lower tolerance limit for temperature below which metabolic processes slow down, leading to reduced growth or reproduction. Optimal Range: Within the tolerance limits, there is an optimal range of environmental conditions where the species performs best and exhibits maximum growth, reproduction, and fitness. This range represents the conditions most conducive to the species’ physiological processes. Zone of Stress: Environmental conditions outside the optimal range but within the tolerance limits may still be tolerated by the species, but with reduced performance or fitness. This zone is often referred to as the “zone of stress” because the species may experience suboptimal growth, reproduction, or physiological stress. Zone of Intolerance: Beyond the tolerance limits, environmental conditions become intolerable for the species, leading to mortality or significant physiological damage. The tolerance range of a species can vary widely depending on its adaptations, evolutionary history, and ecological niche. Some species may exhibit narrow tolerance ranges and be highly specialized to specific environmental conditions, while others may have broad tolerance ranges and be capable of inhabiting diverse habitats. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The tolerance range can vary widely among different species, regardless of whether they belong to the flora (plants) or fauna (animals) kingdoms. It’s not accurate to generalize and say that flora always have a greater tolerance range than fauna, or vice versa. Instead, the tolerance range of a species depends on various factors, including its evolutionary adaptations, ecological niche, and environmental conditions. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. In some cases, certain plant species may exhibit a broad tolerance range to environmental factors such as temperature, soil pH, and moisture levels. For example, pioneer plant species that colonize disturbed habitats may have wide tolerance ranges, allowing them to thrive in a variety of conditions. Similarly, certain animal species may also have broad tolerance ranges, enabling them to inhabit diverse environments. For instance, some generalist species like raccoons or certain bird species can adapt to a wide range of habitats and environmental conditions, exhibiting relatively high tolerance to changes. Conversely, some plant and animal species may have narrow tolerance ranges, making them more specialized and restricted to specific environmental conditions. For example, endemic plant species adapted to unique habitats like high-altitude alpine meadows or specialized animal species with specific dietary or habitat requirements may have narrower tolerance ranges. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The tolerance range of a species refers to the range of environmental conditions within which the species can survive, grow, and reproduce. These conditions include factors such as temperature, humidity, pH, salinity, light intensity, and nutrient availability. Types: Upper Tolerance Limit: This represents the maximum value of an environmental factor that a species can withstand without experiencing adverse effects. For example, a species may have an upper tolerance limit for temperature beyond which it cannot survive due to heat stress or metabolic inefficiency. Lower Tolerance Limit: This represents the minimum value of an environmental factor that a species can tolerate without adverse effects. For instance, a species may have a lower tolerance limit for temperature below which metabolic processes slow down, leading to reduced growth or reproduction. Optimal Range: Within the tolerance limits, there is an optimal range of environmental conditions where the species performs best and exhibits maximum growth, reproduction, and fitness. This range represents the conditions most conducive to the species’ physiological processes. Zone of Stress: Environmental conditions outside the optimal range but within the tolerance limits may still be tolerated by the species, but with reduced performance or fitness. This zone is often referred to as the “zone of stress” because the species may experience suboptimal growth, reproduction, or physiological stress. Zone of Intolerance: Beyond the tolerance limits, environmental conditions become intolerable for the species, leading to mortality or significant physiological damage. The tolerance range of a species can vary widely depending on its adaptations, evolutionary history, and ecological niche. Some species may exhibit narrow tolerance ranges and be highly specialized to specific environmental conditions, while others may have broad tolerance ranges and be capable of inhabiting diverse habitats. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The tolerance range can vary widely among different species, regardless of whether they belong to the flora (plants) or fauna (animals) kingdoms. It’s not accurate to generalize and say that flora always have a greater tolerance range than fauna, or vice versa. Instead, the tolerance range of a species depends on various factors, including its evolutionary adaptations, ecological niche, and environmental conditions. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. In some cases, certain plant species may exhibit a broad tolerance range to environmental factors such as temperature, soil pH, and moisture levels. For example, pioneer plant species that colonize disturbed habitats may have wide tolerance ranges, allowing them to thrive in a variety of conditions. Similarly, certain animal species may also have broad tolerance ranges, enabling them to inhabit diverse environments. For instance, some generalist species like raccoons or certain bird species can adapt to a wide range of habitats and environmental conditions, exhibiting relatively high tolerance to changes. Conversely, some plant and animal species may have narrow tolerance ranges, making them more specialized and restricted to specific environmental conditions. For example, endemic plant species adapted to unique habitats like high-altitude alpine meadows or specialized animal species with specific dietary or habitat requirements may have narrower tolerance ranges. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the tolerance range of species:

• Tolerance range varies widely among species based on their evolutionary adaptations.

• The tolerance range of plant species is more than that of animals.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The tolerance range of a species refers to the range of environmental conditions within which the species can survive, grow, and reproduce. These conditions include factors such as temperature, humidity, pH, salinity, light intensity, and nutrient availability.

Types:

• Upper Tolerance Limit: This represents the maximum value of an environmental factor that a species can withstand without experiencing adverse effects. For example, a species may have an upper tolerance limit for temperature beyond which it cannot survive due to heat stress or metabolic inefficiency.

• Lower Tolerance Limit: This represents the minimum value of an environmental factor that a species can tolerate without adverse effects. For instance, a species may have a lower tolerance limit for temperature below which metabolic processes slow down, leading to reduced growth or reproduction.

• Optimal Range: Within the tolerance limits, there is an optimal range of environmental conditions where the species performs best and exhibits maximum growth, reproduction, and fitness. This range represents the conditions most conducive to the species’ physiological processes.

• Zone of Stress: Environmental conditions outside the optimal range but within the tolerance limits may still be tolerated by the species, but with reduced performance or fitness. This zone is often referred to as the “zone of stress” because the species may experience suboptimal growth, reproduction, or physiological stress.

• Zone of Intolerance: Beyond the tolerance limits, environmental conditions become intolerable for the species, leading to mortality or significant physiological damage.

The tolerance range of a species can vary widely depending on its adaptations, evolutionary history, and ecological niche. Some species may exhibit narrow tolerance ranges and be highly specialized to specific environmental conditions, while others may have broad tolerance ranges and be capable of inhabiting diverse habitats. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The tolerance range can vary widely among different species, regardless of whether they belong to the flora (plants) or fauna (animals) kingdoms. It’s not accurate to generalize and say that flora always have a greater tolerance range than fauna, or vice versa. Instead, the tolerance range of a species depends on various factors, including its evolutionary adaptations, ecological niche, and environmental conditions. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

In some cases, certain plant species may exhibit a broad tolerance range to environmental factors such as temperature, soil pH, and moisture levels. For example, pioneer plant species that colonize disturbed habitats may have wide tolerance ranges, allowing them to thrive in a variety of conditions.

Similarly, certain animal species may also have broad tolerance ranges, enabling them to inhabit diverse environments. For instance, some generalist species like raccoons or certain bird species can adapt to a wide range of habitats and environmental conditions, exhibiting relatively high tolerance to changes.

Conversely, some plant and animal species may have narrow tolerance ranges, making them more specialized and restricted to specific environmental conditions. For example, endemic plant species adapted to unique habitats like high-altitude alpine meadows or specialized animal species with specific dietary or habitat requirements may have narrower tolerance ranges.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

Types:

• Zone of Intolerance: Beyond the tolerance limits, environmental conditions become intolerable for the species, leading to mortality or significant physiological damage.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following: Tropical rainforests contain about 50% of the world’s terrestrial plant and animal species, yet they encompass only about 6% of the world’s land area. Due to tremendous amount and diversity of foliage, the soil in tropical forests are rich in nutrients. Which of the above statements is/are *not correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: b Explanation: Tropical Rain Forests are found in the high rain fall areas on either side of the equator. Such forests are found in the western coast of India, scattered in south East Asia, some parts of Africa and South America. The tropical rainforests has four main characteristics: very high annual rainfall, high average temperatures, nutrient-poor soil, and high levels of biodiversity (species richness). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Biologists estimate that tropical rainforests contain about 50% of the world’s terrestrial plant and animal species, yet they encompass only about 6% of the world’s land area. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Soil Composition: Rainforest soils are nutrient-poor because nutrients are not stored in them for very long. The heavy rains that occur in rainforests wash organic material from the soil. Although decomposition occurs rapidly in the hot, moist conditions, many of the dead, fallen leaves and other organic detritus are swept away before releasing all of their nutrients. In addition, rainwater seeps into the ground and leaches away nutrients. Nevertheless, the high diversity of decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi accelerates the decomposition process enough that the nutrients released by decomposition are taken up quickly by the plants, instead of being stored in the soil. Soil is rich in humus. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Tropical Rain Forests are found in the high rain fall areas on either side of the equator. Such forests are found in the western coast of India, scattered in south East Asia, some parts of Africa and South America. The tropical rainforests has four main characteristics: very high annual rainfall, high average temperatures, nutrient-poor soil, and high levels of biodiversity (species richness). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Biologists estimate that tropical rainforests contain about 50% of the world’s terrestrial plant and animal species, yet they encompass only about 6% of the world’s land area. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Soil Composition: Rainforest soils are nutrient-poor because nutrients are not stored in them for very long. The heavy rains that occur in rainforests wash organic material from the soil. Although decomposition occurs rapidly in the hot, moist conditions, many of the dead, fallen leaves and other organic detritus are swept away before releasing all of their nutrients. In addition, rainwater seeps into the ground and leaches away nutrients. Nevertheless, the high diversity of decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi accelerates the decomposition process enough that the nutrients released by decomposition are taken up quickly by the plants, instead of being stored in the soil. Soil is rich in humus. Hence, option (b) is correct. * Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 9. Question

Consider the following:

• Tropical rainforests contain about 50% of the world’s terrestrial plant and animal species, yet they encompass only about 6% of the world’s land area.

• Due to tremendous amount and diversity of foliage, the soil in tropical forests are rich in nutrients.

Which of the above statements is/are *not* correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Tropical Rain Forests are found in the high rain fall areas on either side of the equator. Such forests are found in the western coast of India, scattered in south East Asia, some parts of Africa and South America.

The tropical rainforests has four main characteristics: very high annual rainfall, high average temperatures, nutrient-poor soil, and high levels of biodiversity (species richness). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Biologists estimate that tropical rainforests contain about 50% of the world’s terrestrial plant and animal species, yet they encompass only about 6% of the world’s land area. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Soil Composition: Rainforest soils are nutrient-poor because nutrients are not stored in them for very long. The heavy rains that occur in rainforests wash organic material from the soil. Although decomposition occurs rapidly in the hot, moist conditions, many of the dead, fallen leaves and other organic detritus are swept away before releasing all of their nutrients. In addition, rainwater seeps into the ground and leaches away nutrients. Nevertheless, the high diversity of decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi accelerates the decomposition process enough that the nutrients released by decomposition are taken up quickly by the plants, instead of being stored in the soil. Soil is rich in humus.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Region Grassland North America : Pampas South America : Steppes Eurasia : Velds Australia : Downs How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: a Explanation: Grasslands are areas dominated by grasses. They occupy about 20% of the land on the earth surface. Grasslands occur in both in tropical and temperate regions where rainfall is not enough to support the growth of trees. Grasslands are known by various names in different parts of the world. Region Name of Grasslands North America Prairies South America Pampas Eurasia (Europe and Asia) Steppes Africa Savannahs South Africa Velds Australia Downs Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: factual/ knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Grasslands are areas dominated by grasses. They occupy about 20% of the land on the earth surface. Grasslands occur in both in tropical and temperate regions where rainfall is not enough to support the growth of trees. Grasslands are known by various names in different parts of the world. Region Name of Grasslands North America Prairies South America Pampas Eurasia (Europe and Asia) Steppes Africa Savannahs South Africa Velds Australia Downs Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

#### 10. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Region Grassland

• North America : Pampas

• South America : Steppes

• Eurasia : Velds

• Australia : Downs

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

Grasslands are areas dominated by grasses. They occupy about 20% of the land on the earth surface. Grasslands occur in both in tropical and temperate regions where rainfall is not enough to support the growth of trees. Grasslands are known by various names in different parts of the world.

Region | Name of Grasslands

North America | Prairies

South America | Pampas

Eurasia (Europe and Asia) | Steppes

Africa | Savannahs

South Africa | Velds

Australia | Downs

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

Explanation:

Region | Name of Grasslands

North America | Prairies

South America | Pampas

Eurasia (Europe and Asia) | Steppes

Africa | Savannahs

South Africa | Velds

Australia | Downs

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: factual/ knowledge based question

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Cluster Bombs: Cluster munitions are weapons that disperse explosive submunitions over a wide area. The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) prohibits the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of cluster munitions. India is not a party to the convention. How many of the above statements are *incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: d Cluster Bombs Cluster munitions are weapons that disperse explosive submunitions over a wide area, causing significant civilian casualties and posing long-term risks due to unexploded ordnance. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Convention to Ban it: The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) prohibits the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of cluster munitions. However, major countries like the U.S., Russia, China, India, Israel, Pakistan, and Ukraine, along with several NATO countries, are not party to the convention. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Is India Party to it? According to Cluster Munition Monitor 2022, sixteen countries that have refused to sign the convention and who produce cluster munitions included Brazil, China, Egypt, Greece, Iran, Israel, India, North Korea, Pakistan, Poland, Romania, Russia, Singapore, South Korea, the United States and Turkey. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International treaties/conventions Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: d Cluster Bombs Cluster munitions are weapons that disperse explosive submunitions over a wide area, causing significant civilian casualties and posing long-term risks due to unexploded ordnance. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Convention to Ban it: The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) prohibits the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of cluster munitions. However, major countries like the U.S., Russia, China, India, Israel, Pakistan, and Ukraine, along with several NATO countries, are not party to the convention. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Is India Party to it? According to Cluster Munition Monitor 2022, sixteen countries that have refused to sign the convention and who produce cluster munitions included Brazil, China, Egypt, Greece, Iran, Israel, India, North Korea, Pakistan, Poland, Romania, Russia, Singapore, South Korea, the United States and Turkey. Hence, statement 3 is correct.* Source: Current Affairs Trend: International treaties/conventions Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Cluster Bombs:

• Cluster munitions are weapons that disperse explosive submunitions over a wide area.

• The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) prohibits the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of cluster munitions.

• India is not a party to the convention.

How many of the above statements are *incorrect*?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Cluster Bombs

Cluster munitions are weapons that disperse explosive submunitions over a wide area, causing significant civilian casualties and posing long-term risks due to unexploded ordnance.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Convention to Ban it:

The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) prohibits the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of cluster munitions. However, major countries like the U.S., Russia, China, India, Israel, Pakistan, and Ukraine, along with several NATO countries, are not party to the convention.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Is India Party to it?

According to Cluster Munition Monitor 2022, sixteen countries that have refused to sign the convention and who produce cluster munitions included Brazil, China, Egypt, Greece, Iran, Israel, India, North Korea, Pakistan, Poland, Romania, Russia, Singapore, South Korea, the United States and Turkey.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Trend: International treaties/conventions

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

Cluster Bombs

Cluster munitions are weapons that disperse explosive submunitions over a wide area, causing significant civilian casualties and posing long-term risks due to unexploded ordnance.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Convention to Ban it:

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Is India Party to it?

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Trend: International treaties/conventions

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following: Nutrition Drinking Water Electricity Housing Cooking fuel How many of the above are the indicators of Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2023? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Answer: d Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International Reports and indices Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: d Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International Reports and indices Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 12. Question

Consider the following:

• Drinking Water

• Electricity

• Cooking fuel

How many of the above are the indicators of Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2023?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: International Reports and indices

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: International Reports and indices

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following: United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) World Health Organisation (WHO) United Nations Development Program (UNDP) Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) How many of the above are involved in the preparation of “State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World Report”? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World Report: It is an annual flagship report jointly prepared by the – Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO), International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD), United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), World Food Programme (WFP) and World Health Organisation (WHO) Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International Reports and indices Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World Report: It is an annual flagship report jointly prepared by the – Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO), International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD), United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), World Food Programme (WFP) and World Health Organisation (WHO) Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International Reports and indices Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 13. Question

Consider the following:

• United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF)

• World Health Organisation (WHO)

• United Nations Development Program (UNDP)

• Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO)

How many of the above are involved in the preparation of “State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World Report”?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World Report:

It is an annual flagship report jointly prepared by the –

• Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO),

• International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD),

• United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF),

• World Food Programme (WFP) and

• World Health Organisation (WHO)

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: International Reports and indices

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World Report:

It is an annual flagship report jointly prepared by the –

• Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations (FAO),

• International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD),

• United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF),

• World Food Programme (WFP) and

• World Health Organisation (WHO)

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: International Reports and indices

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points In India, Export Preparedness Index (EPI) is published by- (a) NITI Aayog (b) DIPAM (c) DPIIT (d) Department of Financial Services Correct Answer: a NITI Aayog is releasing the third edition of the Export Preparedness Index (EPI) for States/UTs of India for the year 2022. Hence, option (a) is correct. The report discusses India’s export performance, followed by an overview of the country’s sector-specific export performance. The report further highlights the need to develop our districts as export hubs in the country and undertakes a district-level analysis of merchandise exports in the country. Source: Current Affairs Trend: National Reports and Indices Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a NITI Aayog is releasing the third edition of the Export Preparedness Index (EPI) for States/UTs of India for the year 2022. Hence, option (a) is correct. The report discusses India’s export performance, followed by an overview of the country’s sector-specific export performance. The report further highlights the need to develop our districts as export hubs in the country and undertakes a district-level analysis of merchandise exports in the country. Source: Current Affairs Trend: National Reports and Indices Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 14. Question

In India, Export Preparedness Index (EPI) is published by-

• (a) NITI Aayog

• (d) Department of Financial Services

NITI Aayog is releasing the third edition of the Export Preparedness Index (EPI) for States/UTs of India for the year 2022.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

The report discusses India’s export performance, followed by an overview of the country’s sector-specific export performance. The report further highlights the need to develop our districts as export hubs in the country and undertakes a district-level analysis of merchandise exports in the country.

Trend: National Reports and Indices

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

NITI Aayog is releasing the third edition of the Export Preparedness Index (EPI) for States/UTs of India for the year 2022.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: National Reports and Indices

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Recently, the Tam Pà Ling Cave was in news. It is situated in- (a) Brunei (b) Laos (c) Thailand (d) Cambodia Correct Answer: b Tam Pà Ling Cave New research published in Nature Communications has revealed that humans arrived in Southeast Asia much earlier than previously thought. The findings are based on evidence found in Tam Pà Ling Cave in northern Laos. Findings: Early human migration to Asia involved the arrival of Homo sapiens in Southeast Asia at least 68,000 years ago, according to recent evidence from Tam Pà Ling Cave in Northern Laos. This discovery challenges previous assumptions and suggests that the region, including mainland, coastal, and island locations, could have been a viable dispersal route. The presence of Denisovans, an extinct human relative, further highlights the complexity of early human movements and interbreeding with other hominin species. Significance of the finding: The discoveries in Tam Pà Ling Cave contribute to our understanding of the ancient human journey across the world. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Places in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Tam Pà Ling Cave New research published in Nature Communications has revealed that humans arrived in Southeast Asia much earlier than previously thought. The findings are based on evidence found in Tam Pà Ling Cave in northern Laos. Findings: Early human migration to Asia involved the arrival of Homo sapiens in Southeast Asia at least 68,000 years ago, according to recent evidence from Tam Pà Ling Cave in Northern Laos. This discovery challenges previous assumptions and suggests that the region, including mainland, coastal, and island locations, could have been a viable dispersal route. The presence of Denisovans, an extinct human relative, further highlights the complexity of early human movements and interbreeding with other hominin species. Significance of the finding: The discoveries in Tam Pà Ling Cave contribute to our understanding of the ancient human journey across the world. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Places in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 15. Question

Recently, the Tam Pà Ling Cave was in news. It is situated in-

• (a) Brunei

• (c) Thailand

• (d) Cambodia

Tam Pà Ling Cave

New research published in Nature Communications has revealed that humans arrived in Southeast Asia much earlier than previously thought. The findings are based on evidence found in Tam Pà Ling Cave in northern Laos.

Findings:

• Early human migration to Asia involved the arrival of Homo sapiens in Southeast Asia at least 68,000 years ago, according to recent evidence from Tam Pà Ling Cave in Northern Laos.

• This discovery challenges previous assumptions and suggests that the region, including mainland, coastal, and island locations, could have been a viable dispersal route.

• The presence of Denisovans, an extinct human relative, further highlights the complexity of early human movements and interbreeding with other hominin species.

• Significance of the finding: The discoveries in Tam Pà Ling Cave contribute to our understanding of the ancient human journey across the world.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Places in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Tam Pà Ling Cave

Findings:

• Early human migration to Asia involved the arrival of Homo sapiens in Southeast Asia at least 68,000 years ago, according to recent evidence from Tam Pà Ling Cave in Northern Laos.

• This discovery challenges previous assumptions and suggests that the region, including mainland, coastal, and island locations, could have been a viable dispersal route.

• The presence of Denisovans, an extinct human relative, further highlights the complexity of early human movements and interbreeding with other hominin species.

• Significance of the finding: The discoveries in Tam Pà Ling Cave contribute to our understanding of the ancient human journey across the world.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Places in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Scientists study the Yarkovsky effect to better understand and predict the risk of solar flares the movements of asteroids in our solar system information carried by neutrinos How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Learning: The Yarkovsky effect is a phenomenon in space where the way an asteroid absorbs and re-emits solar radiation can alter its trajectory over time. This effect can lead to small but significant changes in an asteroid’s path, potentially influencing its orbit and posing collision risks with Earth. NASA’s OSIRIS-REx mission successfully collected a sample from asteroid Bennu and is now on an extended mission to study Apophis. The mission was significant for understanding the early solar system, potential asteroid impacts, and the Yarkovsky effect on asteroids. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Space exploration Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: a) Learning: The Yarkovsky effect is a phenomenon in space where the way an asteroid absorbs and re-emits solar radiation can alter its trajectory over time. This effect can lead to small but significant changes in an asteroid’s path, potentially influencing its orbit and posing collision risks with Earth. NASA’s OSIRIS-REx mission successfully collected a sample from asteroid Bennu and is now on an extended mission to study Apophis. The mission was significant for understanding the early solar system, potential asteroid impacts, and the Yarkovsky effect on asteroids. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Space exploration Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 16. Question

Scientists study the Yarkovsky effect to better understand and predict

• the risk of solar flares

• the movements of asteroids in our solar system

• information carried by neutrinos

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Learning: The Yarkovsky effect is a phenomenon in space where the way an asteroid absorbs and re-emits solar radiation can alter its trajectory over time.

This effect can lead to small but significant changes in an asteroid’s path, potentially influencing its orbit and posing collision risks with Earth.

NASA’s OSIRIS-REx mission successfully collected a sample from asteroid Bennu and is now on an extended mission to study Apophis. The mission was significant for understanding the early solar system, potential asteroid impacts, and the Yarkovsky effect on asteroids.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Space exploration

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: a)

Learning: The Yarkovsky effect is a phenomenon in space where the way an asteroid absorbs and re-emits solar radiation can alter its trajectory over time.

This effect can lead to small but significant changes in an asteroid’s path, potentially influencing its orbit and posing collision risks with Earth.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Space exploration

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points All Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) are required to be categorised into four schedules, namely, Schedule ‘A’, Schedule ’B’, Schedule ‘C’ and Schedule ‘D’. Which of the following criteria is/are used for such classification? Investment and paid up capital of the CPSEs National importance of the CPSEs Image of the CPSEs in the market How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Currently, there are different systems of classification for CPSEs. Important among these are : (i) Cognate group-wise classification (ii) Grouping of CPSEs into 4 Schedules, namely A,B,C & D, for purposes of determining the pay scales of Board level executives and (iii) Classification of CPSEs into Navratna, Miniratna I, Miniratna II, etc. for the purpose of delegation of powers. The schedule-based classification system, introduced in the year 1965, was essentially aimed at providing relativity between the compensation structures of Board level executives of CPSEs. The categorization of CPSEs into 4 Schedules, namely A, B, C & D was initially made by a Committee of Secretaries, on the basis of their importance to economy and complexities of problems. After 1967, the categorization of the new CPSEs was being decided by the concerned Administrative Ministry in consultation with DPE/BPE. From 1974, PESB also has been associated with the process. The Department of Public Enterprises has laid down certain criteria for categorization and revision (up gradation) of the schedule of CPSEs. The parameters adopted for this purpose are quantitative factors like investment (paid up capital + long term loans), capital employed (net block + net working capital), net sales, profit, number of employees, number of units, etc. and qualitative factors like national importance, complexities of problems, level of technology, prospects for expansion and diversification of activities and competition from other sectors. In addition, other factors like image of the CPSE (in terms of its share price, MOU ratings, classification as Navratna/Miniratna, ISO 9000/IS 14000 certification), productivity of the PSE (in terms of capacity utilization) and value added per employee are also taken into account. Comparison with other companies in the cognate group and with those under the administrative control of the Ministry / Department concerned is also made as a part of this exercise. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf https://dpe.gov.in/sites/default/files/Chapter_5_Classification_Final_0.pdf trend: Basic concepts Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Currently, there are different systems of classification for CPSEs. Important among these are : (i) Cognate group-wise classification (ii) Grouping of CPSEs into 4 Schedules, namely A,B,C & D, for purposes of determining the pay scales of Board level executives and (iii) Classification of CPSEs into Navratna, Miniratna I, Miniratna II, etc. for the purpose of delegation of powers. The schedule-based classification system, introduced in the year 1965, was essentially aimed at providing relativity between the compensation structures of Board level executives of CPSEs. The categorization of CPSEs into 4 Schedules, namely A, B, C & D was initially made by a Committee of Secretaries, on the basis of their importance to economy and complexities of problems. After 1967, the categorization of the new CPSEs was being decided by the concerned Administrative Ministry in consultation with DPE/BPE. From 1974, PESB also has been associated with the process. The Department of Public Enterprises has laid down certain criteria for categorization and revision (up gradation) of the schedule of CPSEs. The parameters adopted for this purpose are quantitative factors like investment (paid up capital + long term loans), capital employed (net block + net working capital), net sales, profit, number of employees, number of units, etc. and qualitative factors like national importance, complexities of problems, level of technology, prospects for expansion and diversification of activities and competition from other sectors. In addition, other factors like image of the CPSE (in terms of its share price, MOU ratings, classification as Navratna/Miniratna, ISO 9000/IS 14000 certification), productivity of the PSE (in terms of capacity utilization) and value added per employee are also taken into account. Comparison with other companies in the cognate group and with those under the administrative control of the Ministry / Department concerned is also made as a part of this exercise. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf https://dpe.gov.in/sites/default/files/Chapter_5_Classification_Final_0.pdf trend: Basic concepts Approach: applied knowledge

#### 17. Question

All Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) are required to be categorised into four schedules, namely, Schedule ‘A’, Schedule ’B’, Schedule ‘C’ and Schedule ‘D’. Which of the following criteria is/are used for such classification?

• Investment and paid up capital of the CPSEs

• National importance of the CPSEs

• Image of the CPSEs in the market

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: Currently, there are different systems of classification for CPSEs. Important among these are : (i) Cognate group-wise classification (ii) Grouping of CPSEs into 4 Schedules, namely A,B,C & D, for purposes of determining the pay scales of Board level executives and (iii) Classification of CPSEs into Navratna, Miniratna I, Miniratna II, etc. for the purpose of delegation of powers.

The schedule-based classification system, introduced in the year 1965, was essentially aimed at providing relativity between the compensation structures of Board level executives of CPSEs. The categorization of CPSEs into 4 Schedules, namely A, B, C & D was initially made by a Committee of Secretaries, on the basis of their importance to economy and complexities of problems. After 1967, the categorization of the new CPSEs was being decided by the concerned Administrative Ministry in consultation with DPE/BPE.

From 1974, PESB also has been associated with the process. The Department of Public Enterprises has laid down certain criteria for categorization and revision (up gradation) of the schedule of CPSEs.

The parameters adopted for this purpose are quantitative factors like investment (paid up capital + long term loans), capital employed (net block + net working capital), net sales, profit, number of employees, number of units, etc. and qualitative factors like national importance, complexities of problems, level of technology, prospects for expansion and diversification of activities and competition from other sectors.

In addition, other factors like image of the CPSE (in terms of its share price, MOU ratings, classification as Navratna/Miniratna, ISO 9000/IS 14000 certification), productivity of the PSE (in terms of capacity utilization) and value added per employee are also taken into account. Comparison with other companies in the cognate group and with those under the administrative control of the Ministry / Department concerned is also made as a part of this exercise.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

https://dpe.gov.in/sites/default/files/Chapter_5_Classification_Final_0.pdf

trend: Basic concepts

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: c)

From 1974, PESB also has been associated with the process. The Department of Public Enterprises has laid down certain criteria for categorization and revision (up gradation) of the schedule of CPSEs.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

https://dpe.gov.in/sites/default/files/Chapter_5_Classification_Final_0.pdf

trend: Basic concepts

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Palm oil is the most widely used vegetable oil in the world and is found in a majority of all packaged products in supermarkets. Major oil palm-growing states in India include Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala, which account for nearly all of the total production of palm oil in India. Currently, India is fully self-sufficient in production of palm oil and imports only a small fraction of its total needs. The Indian government aims to triple palm oil production by 2030 as a part of the National Mission on Edible Oils – Oil Palm (NMEO-OP). How many of the statements above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: b) Justification: Palm oil is an edible vegetable oil that comes from the fruit of the oil palm tree. It’s the most widely used vegetable oil in the world and is found in about 60% of all packaged products in supermarkets. Palm oil is used in Food manufacturing, Beauty products, Biofuel, and Cookies. Major oil palm-growing states in India include Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Kerala, which account for 98% of total production. Currently, India imports around 14 million tonnes of edible oil, which is likely to reach a record 17 million tonnes in the current oil year due to falling global prices. The Indian government aims to triple palm oil production by 2030 as part of the national oil palm mission. This initiative is in response to the projected increase in domestic edible oil consumption from 24 million tonnes to 30 million tonnes by 2030. Despite these efforts, India’s import dependence on edible oils is expected to continue due to rising consumption. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Questions on import of vegetable oil and palm tree has been asked previously in UPSC prelims Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Palm oil is an edible vegetable oil that comes from the fruit of the oil palm tree. It’s the most widely used vegetable oil in the world and is found in about 60% of all packaged products in supermarkets. Palm oil is used in Food manufacturing, Beauty products, Biofuel, and Cookies. Major oil palm-growing states in India include Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Kerala, which account for 98% of total production. Currently, India imports around 14 million tonnes of edible oil, which is likely to reach a record 17 million tonnes in the current oil year due to falling global prices. The Indian government aims to triple palm oil production by 2030 as part of the national oil palm mission. This initiative is in response to the projected increase in domestic edible oil consumption from 24 million tonnes to 30 million tonnes by 2030. Despite these efforts, India’s import dependence on edible oils is expected to continue due to rising consumption. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Questions on import of vegetable oil and palm tree has been asked previously in UPSC prelims Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Palm oil is the most widely used vegetable oil in the world and is found in a majority of all packaged products in supermarkets.

• Major oil palm-growing states in India include Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala, which account for nearly all of the total production of palm oil in India.

• Currently, India is fully self-sufficient in production of palm oil and imports only a small fraction of its total needs.

• The Indian government aims to triple palm oil production by 2030 as a part of the National Mission on Edible Oils – Oil Palm (NMEO-OP).

How many of the statements above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: b)

Justification: Palm oil is an edible vegetable oil that comes from the fruit of the oil palm tree. It’s the most widely used vegetable oil in the world and is found in about 60% of all packaged products in supermarkets.

• Palm oil is used in Food manufacturing, Beauty products, Biofuel, and Cookies.

Major oil palm-growing states in India include Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Kerala, which account for 98% of total production.

• Currently, India imports around 14 million tonnes of edible oil, which is likely to reach a record 17 million tonnes in the current oil year due to falling global prices.

The Indian government aims to triple palm oil production by 2030 as part of the national oil palm mission.

• This initiative is in response to the projected increase in domestic edible oil consumption from 24 million tonnes to 30 million tonnes by 2030.

• Despite these efforts, India’s import dependence on edible oils is expected to continue due to rising consumption.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Questions on import of vegetable oil and palm tree has been asked previously in UPSC prelims