DAY – 17 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points In the context of innovative remediation technologies for contaminated sites, arrange the following in descending order of their energy intensity per unit area treated: Thermal desorption Phytoremediation Soil vapor extraction Electrokinetic remediation Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 > 4 > 3 > 2 (b) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 (c) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2 (d) 3 > 1 > 4 > 2 Correct Solution: B Thermal desorption: This method involves heating the contaminated soil to volatilize pollutants, which are then collected and treated. It requires significant energy to heat the soil, making it the most energy-intensive. Soil vapor extraction (SVE): SVE uses vacuum systems to extract volatile contaminants from the soil. While it requires energy for the vacuum pumps and air treatment, it’s generally less energy-intensive than thermal desorption. Electrokinetic remediation: This technique applies a low-intensity direct current to the soil to mobilize contaminants, enabling their extraction. It requires electrical energy, but significantly less than thermal methods. Phytoremediation: This utilizes plants to remove, degrade, or stabilize contaminants. It relies primarily on natural processes and solar energy, making it the least energy-intensive of the listed methods. Therefore, the order from highest to lowest energy intensity is: Thermal desorption Soil vapor extraction Electrokinetic remediation Phytoremediation Incorrect Solution: B Thermal desorption: This method involves heating the contaminated soil to volatilize pollutants, which are then collected and treated. It requires significant energy to heat the soil, making it the most energy-intensive. Soil vapor extraction (SVE): SVE uses vacuum systems to extract volatile contaminants from the soil. While it requires energy for the vacuum pumps and air treatment, it’s generally less energy-intensive than thermal desorption. Electrokinetic remediation: This technique applies a low-intensity direct current to the soil to mobilize contaminants, enabling their extraction. It requires electrical energy, but significantly less than thermal methods. Phytoremediation: This utilizes plants to remove, degrade, or stabilize contaminants. It relies primarily on natural processes and solar energy, making it the least energy-intensive of the listed methods. Therefore, the order from highest to lowest energy intensity is: Thermal desorption Soil vapor extraction Electrokinetic remediation Phytoremediation

#### 1. Question

In the context of innovative remediation technologies for contaminated sites, arrange the following in descending order of their energy intensity per unit area treated:

• Thermal desorption

• Phytoremediation

• Soil vapor extraction

• Electrokinetic remediation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 > 4 > 3 > 2

• (b) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2

• (c) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2

• (d) 3 > 1 > 4 > 2

Solution: B

• Thermal desorption: This method involves heating the contaminated soil to volatilize pollutants, which are then collected and treated. It requires significant energy to heat the soil, making it the most energy-intensive.

• Soil vapor extraction (SVE): SVE uses vacuum systems to extract volatile contaminants from the soil. While it requires energy for the vacuum pumps and air treatment, it’s generally less energy-intensive than thermal desorption.

• Electrokinetic remediation: This technique applies a low-intensity direct current to the soil to mobilize contaminants, enabling their extraction. It requires electrical energy, but significantly less than thermal methods.

• Phytoremediation: This utilizes plants to remove, degrade, or stabilize contaminants. It relies primarily on natural processes and solar energy, making it the least energy-intensive of the listed methods.

Therefore, the order from highest to lowest energy intensity is:

• Thermal desorption

• Soil vapor extraction

• Electrokinetic remediation

• Phytoremediation

Solution: B

Therefore, the order from highest to lowest energy intensity is:

• Thermal desorption

• Soil vapor extraction

• Electrokinetic remediation

• Phytoremediation

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points With reference to air pollution control in India, consider the following statements: The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is implemented only when AQI reaches the ‘severe plus’ category. The Commission for Air Quality Management has jurisdiction limited to Delhi-NCR and adjoining areas. Under the Air Act of 1981, states can designate any area as an “air pollution control area” regardless of existing pollution levels. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B GRAP is implemented in a phased manner, with actions triggered at various AQI levels, not just ‘severe plus’. It starts with ‘poor’ and progresses through ‘very poor’, ‘severe’, and then ‘severe plus’. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas (CAQM) was established to address air pollution specifically in this region. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, empowers state governments to declare any area within their jurisdiction as an “air pollution control area.” Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B GRAP is implemented in a phased manner, with actions triggered at various AQI levels, not just ‘severe plus’. It starts with ‘poor’ and progresses through ‘very poor’, ‘severe’, and then ‘severe plus’. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas (CAQM) was established to address air pollution specifically in this region. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, empowers state governments to declare any area within their jurisdiction as an “air pollution control area.” Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 2. Question

With reference to air pollution control in India, consider the following statements:

• The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is implemented only when AQI reaches the ‘severe plus’ category.

• The Commission for Air Quality Management has jurisdiction limited to Delhi-NCR and adjoining areas.

• Under the Air Act of 1981, states can designate any area as an “air pollution control area” regardless of existing pollution levels.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

GRAP is implemented in a phased manner, with actions triggered at various AQI levels, not just ‘severe plus’. It starts with ‘poor’ and progresses through ‘very poor’, ‘severe’, and then ‘severe plus’.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas (CAQM) was established to address air pollution specifically in this region.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, empowers state governments to declare any area within their jurisdiction as an “air pollution control area.”

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas (CAQM) was established to address air pollution specifically in this region.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, empowers state governments to declare any area within their jurisdiction as an “air pollution control area.”

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points In the context of e-waste management, consider the following statements: The Extended Producer Responsibility targets under E-Waste Management Rules, 2022 are based on the weight of e-waste rather than the number of units. Lithium-ion batteries from electric vehicles are categorized as hazardous waste under the Hazardous Waste Management Rules. Producer Responsibility Organizations (PROs) are legally liable for ensuring the environmentally sound dismantling of e-waste. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C The E-Waste Management Rules, 2022, set EPR targets based on the weight of e-waste collected and processed. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Lithium-ion batteries, especially those from electric vehicles, are considered hazardous waste due to the presence of toxic and flammable materials. Hence, statement 2 is correct. PROs are required to assist producers in fulfilling their EPR obligations, which include ensuring the environmentally sound collection and dismantling of e-waste. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: C The E-Waste Management Rules, 2022, set EPR targets based on the weight of e-waste collected and processed. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Lithium-ion batteries, especially those from electric vehicles, are considered hazardous waste due to the presence of toxic and flammable materials. Hence, statement 2 is correct. PROs are required to assist producers in fulfilling their EPR obligations, which include ensuring the environmentally sound collection and dismantling of e-waste. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 3. Question

In the context of e-waste management, consider the following statements:

• The Extended Producer Responsibility targets under E-Waste Management Rules, 2022 are based on the weight of e-waste rather than the number of units.

• Lithium-ion batteries from electric vehicles are categorized as hazardous waste under the Hazardous Waste Management Rules.

• Producer Responsibility Organizations (PROs) are legally liable for ensuring the environmentally sound dismantling of e-waste.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

The E-Waste Management Rules, 2022, set EPR targets based on the weight of e-waste collected and processed.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Lithium-ion batteries, especially those from electric vehicles, are considered hazardous waste due to the presence of toxic and flammable materials.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

PROs are required to assist producers in fulfilling their EPR obligations, which include ensuring the environmentally sound collection and dismantling of e-waste.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: C

The E-Waste Management Rules, 2022, set EPR targets based on the weight of e-waste collected and processed.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Lithium-ion batteries, especially those from electric vehicles, are considered hazardous waste due to the presence of toxic and flammable materials.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

PROs are required to assist producers in fulfilling their EPR obligations, which include ensuring the environmentally sound collection and dismantling of e-waste.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to solid waste management technologies, which of the following statements is/are correct? Plasma pyrolysis is more energy-efficient than conventional incineration for treating biomedical waste. Bio methanation of municipal solid waste produces digestate that can be directly used as compost without further processing. Refuse Derived Fuel (RDF) production from mixed municipal waste requires prior segregation of inert materials. Windrow composting is suitable for high-moisture organic waste with C:N ratios lower than 2:1. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Plasma pyrolysis is a high-temperature process that can handle hazardous waste, but it’s typically more energy-intensive than conventional incineration. While it has advantages in terms of emissions control and volume reduction, energy efficiency is often a challenge. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. While biomethanation produces digestate, it usually requires further processing (e.g., drying, stabilization) before it can be used as compost. Digestate is often quite wet, and the nutrient balance may not be ideal for direct application. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. RDF production involves processing municipal solid waste to create a fuel source. This process necessitates the removal of inert materials (e.g., glass, metal, stones) to enhance the fuel’s quality and combustion efficiency. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Windrow composting works best with organic waste that has a C:N ratio between 25:1 to 30:1. If the C:N ratio is too low, Nitrogen will be lost as ammonia. High moisture waste can be composted, but must be managed properly, and too much moisture can cause anaerobic conditions. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A Plasma pyrolysis is a high-temperature process that can handle hazardous waste, but it’s typically more energy-intensive than conventional incineration. While it has advantages in terms of emissions control and volume reduction, energy efficiency is often a challenge. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. While biomethanation produces digestate, it usually requires further processing (e.g., drying, stabilization) before it can be used as compost. Digestate is often quite wet, and the nutrient balance may not be ideal for direct application. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. RDF production involves processing municipal solid waste to create a fuel source. This process necessitates the removal of inert materials (e.g., glass, metal, stones) to enhance the fuel’s quality and combustion efficiency. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Windrow composting works best with organic waste that has a C:N ratio between 25:1 to 30:1. If the C:N ratio is too low, Nitrogen will be lost as ammonia. High moisture waste can be composted, but must be managed properly, and too much moisture can cause anaerobic conditions. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

#### 4. Question

With reference to solid waste management technologies, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• Plasma pyrolysis is more energy-efficient than conventional incineration for treating biomedical waste.

• Bio methanation of municipal solid waste produces digestate that can be directly used as compost without further processing.

• Refuse Derived Fuel (RDF) production from mixed municipal waste requires prior segregation of inert materials.

• Windrow composting is suitable for high-moisture organic waste with C:N ratios lower than 2:1.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

Plasma pyrolysis is a high-temperature process that can handle hazardous waste, but it’s typically more energy-intensive than conventional incineration. While it has advantages in terms of emissions control and volume reduction, energy efficiency is often a challenge.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

While biomethanation produces digestate, it usually requires further processing (e.g., drying, stabilization) before it can be used as compost. Digestate is often quite wet, and the nutrient balance may not be ideal for direct application.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

RDF production involves processing municipal solid waste to create a fuel source. This process necessitates the removal of inert materials (e.g., glass, metal, stones) to enhance the fuel’s quality and combustion efficiency.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Windrow composting works best with organic waste that has a C:N ratio between 25:1 to 30:1. If the C:N ratio is too low, Nitrogen will be lost as ammonia. High moisture waste can be composted, but must be managed properly, and too much moisture can cause anaerobic conditions.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Pollutant – Primary health impact Hexavalent chromium – Kidney damage Benzene – Leukaemia Methylmercury – Neurodevelopmental disorders PM1 particles – cardiovascular diseases How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D All pairs are correctly matched Hexavalent chromium is known to cause kidney damage, as well as other health issues. Benzene is a known carcinogen, and exposure is strongly linked to leukaemia. Methylmercury is a potent neurotoxin, and exposure, especially during fetal development, can lead to severe neurodevelopmental disorders. Very fine particulate matter such as PM1 can penetrate deep into the lungs and enter the bloodstream, contributing to cardiovascular diseases. Incorrect Solution: D All pairs are correctly matched Hexavalent chromium is known to cause kidney damage, as well as other health issues. Benzene is a known carcinogen, and exposure is strongly linked to leukaemia. Methylmercury is a potent neurotoxin, and exposure, especially during fetal development, can lead to severe neurodevelopmental disorders. Very fine particulate matter such as PM1 can penetrate deep into the lungs and enter the bloodstream, contributing to cardiovascular diseases.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Pollutant – Primary health impact

• Hexavalent chromium – Kidney damage

• Benzene – Leukaemia

• Methylmercury – Neurodevelopmental disorders

• PM1 particles – cardiovascular diseases

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

All pairs are correctly matched

• Hexavalent chromium is known to cause kidney damage, as well as other health issues.

• Benzene is a known carcinogen, and exposure is strongly linked to leukaemia.

• Methylmercury is a potent neurotoxin, and exposure, especially during fetal development, can lead to severe neurodevelopmental disorders.

• Very fine particulate matter such as PM1 can penetrate deep into the lungs and enter the bloodstream, contributing to cardiovascular diseases.

Solution: D

All pairs are correctly matched

• Hexavalent chromium is known to cause kidney damage, as well as other health issues.

• Benzene is a known carcinogen, and exposure is strongly linked to leukaemia.

• Methylmercury is a potent neurotoxin, and exposure, especially during fetal development, can lead to severe neurodevelopmental disorders.

• Very fine particulate matter such as PM1 can penetrate deep into the lungs and enter the bloodstream, contributing to cardiovascular diseases.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Regarding the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), how many of the following statements is/are correct? Once a chemical is listed under Annex A, parties must prohibit its production and use without exceptions. The Convention requires parties to develop national implementation plans within two years of its entry into force. Chemicals can only be added to the Convention’s annexes if they have been in commercial use for at least ten years. India has ratified the Convention but with specific exemptions for DDT use in vector control. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) Annex A lists chemicals for elimination, but it allows for specific exemptions under certain conditions, such as for public health needs. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Stockholm Convention mandates that parties develop and implement national implementation plans (NIPs) to outline how they will meet their obligations under the Convention. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The listing criteria are based on the POPs characteristics of the chemicals, not their duration of commercial use. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. India has ratified the Stockholm Convention and has a specific exemption for the use of DDT for vector control in public health programs. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) Annex A lists chemicals for elimination, but it allows for specific exemptions under certain conditions, such as for public health needs. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Stockholm Convention mandates that parties develop and implement national implementation plans (NIPs) to outline how they will meet their obligations under the Convention. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The listing criteria are based on the POPs characteristics of the chemicals, not their duration of commercial use. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. India has ratified the Stockholm Convention and has a specific exemption for the use of DDT for vector control in public health programs. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

#### 6. Question

Regarding the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), how many of the following statements is/are correct?

• Once a chemical is listed under Annex A, parties must prohibit its production and use without exceptions.

• The Convention requires parties to develop national implementation plans within two years of its entry into force.

• Chemicals can only be added to the Convention’s annexes if they have been in commercial use for at least ten years.

• India has ratified the Convention but with specific exemptions for DDT use in vector control.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)

Annex A lists chemicals for elimination, but it allows for specific exemptions under certain conditions, such as for public health needs.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Stockholm Convention mandates that parties develop and implement national implementation plans (NIPs) to outline how they will meet their obligations under the Convention.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The listing criteria are based on the POPs characteristics of the chemicals, not their duration of commercial use.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

India has ratified the Stockholm Convention and has a specific exemption for the use of DDT for vector control in public health programs.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Solution: B

Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)

Annex A lists chemicals for elimination, but it allows for specific exemptions under certain conditions, such as for public health needs.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Stockholm Convention mandates that parties develop and implement national implementation plans (NIPs) to outline how they will meet their obligations under the Convention.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The listing criteria are based on the POPs characteristics of the chemicals, not their duration of commercial use.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

India has ratified the Stockholm Convention and has a specific exemption for the use of DDT for vector control in public health programs.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Regarding emergent pollution management technologies, which of the following statements is correct? (a) Nanomaterials have been developed as efficient tools for coastal oil spill cleanup (b) Electric wind technology has proven ineffective in fighting wildfire-related pollution (c) Specialized sponges for stormwater pollution have been banned due to microplastic generation (d) Bio-remediation has replaced all chemical methods for treating industrial wastewater Correct Solution: A Nanomaterials, such as nanoscale sorbents and catalysts, have shown promise in enhancing the efficiency of oil spill cleanup by improving oil removal and degradation. Hence, statement 1 is correct. While still in development, electric wind technology is being explored as a potential method to direct and disperse smoke and particulate matter from wildfires. It is not proven ineffective. While microplastic generation is a concern with some materials, specialized sponges are being developed and used for stormwater pollution control. There is not a general ban. While bioremediation is a valuable and increasingly used technology, it has not replaced all chemical treatment methods. Chemical methods are still widely used, often in conjunction with biological approaches, to address specific pollutants Incorrect Solution: A Nanomaterials, such as nanoscale sorbents and catalysts, have shown promise in enhancing the efficiency of oil spill cleanup by improving oil removal and degradation. Hence, statement 1 is correct. While still in development, electric wind technology is being explored as a potential method to direct and disperse smoke and particulate matter from wildfires. It is not proven ineffective. While microplastic generation is a concern with some materials, specialized sponges are being developed and used for stormwater pollution control. There is not a general ban. While bioremediation is a valuable and increasingly used technology, it has not replaced all chemical treatment methods. Chemical methods are still widely used, often in conjunction with biological approaches, to address specific pollutants

#### 7. Question

Regarding emergent pollution management technologies, which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) Nanomaterials have been developed as efficient tools for coastal oil spill cleanup

• (b) Electric wind technology has proven ineffective in fighting wildfire-related pollution

• (c) Specialized sponges for stormwater pollution have been banned due to microplastic generation

• (d) Bio-remediation has replaced all chemical methods for treating industrial wastewater

Solution: A

Nanomaterials, such as nanoscale sorbents and catalysts, have shown promise in enhancing the efficiency of oil spill cleanup by improving oil removal and degradation.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

While still in development, electric wind technology is being explored as a potential method to direct and disperse smoke and particulate matter from wildfires. It is not proven ineffective.

While microplastic generation is a concern with some materials, specialized sponges are being developed and used for stormwater pollution control. There is not a general ban.

While bioremediation is a valuable and increasingly used technology, it has not replaced all chemical treatment methods. Chemical methods are still widely used, often in conjunction with biological approaches, to address specific pollutants

Solution: A

Nanomaterials, such as nanoscale sorbents and catalysts, have shown promise in enhancing the efficiency of oil spill cleanup by improving oil removal and degradation.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

While still in development, electric wind technology is being explored as a potential method to direct and disperse smoke and particulate matter from wildfires. It is not proven ineffective.

While microplastic generation is a concern with some materials, specialized sponges are being developed and used for stormwater pollution control. There is not a general ban.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points With respect to air pollution control technologies, consider the following statements: Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) is more effective in removing NOx emissions from industrial sources than Selective Non-Catalytic Reduction (SNCR). Fabric filters achieve higher particulate removal efficiency than electrostatic precipitators for sub-micron particles. Activated carbon injection systems primarily target mercury and dioxin emissions. Flue Gas Desulfurization using wet scrubbers can achieve over 95% sulphur dioxide removal but generates significant wastewater. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D SCR generally achieves higher NOx removal efficiencies than SNCR due to the use of a catalyst, which allows the reaction to occur at lower temperatures and with greater effectiveness. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Fabric filters (baghouses) are highly effective at removing fine particles, including sub-micron particles, and often achieve higher removal efficiencies than electrostatic precipitators, especially for those very fine particles. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Activated carbon injection is a common method for removing mercury and dioxins from flue gas streams. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Wet scrubbers are very effective at removing sulphur dioxide, but they generate a substantial amount of wastewater that requires further treatment. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution: D SCR generally achieves higher NOx removal efficiencies than SNCR due to the use of a catalyst, which allows the reaction to occur at lower temperatures and with greater effectiveness. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Fabric filters (baghouses) are highly effective at removing fine particles, including sub-micron particles, and often achieve higher removal efficiencies than electrostatic precipitators, especially for those very fine particles. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Activated carbon injection is a common method for removing mercury and dioxins from flue gas streams. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Wet scrubbers are very effective at removing sulphur dioxide, but they generate a substantial amount of wastewater that requires further treatment. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

#### 8. Question

With respect to air pollution control technologies, consider the following statements:

• Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) is more effective in removing NOx emissions from industrial sources than Selective Non-Catalytic Reduction (SNCR).

• Fabric filters achieve higher particulate removal efficiency than electrostatic precipitators for sub-micron particles.

• Activated carbon injection systems primarily target mercury and dioxin emissions.

• Flue Gas Desulfurization using wet scrubbers can achieve over 95% sulphur dioxide removal but generates significant wastewater.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

SCR generally achieves higher NOx removal efficiencies than SNCR due to the use of a catalyst, which allows the reaction to occur at lower temperatures and with greater effectiveness.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Fabric filters (baghouses) are highly effective at removing fine particles, including sub-micron particles, and often achieve higher removal efficiencies than electrostatic precipitators, especially for those very fine particles.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Activated carbon injection is a common method for removing mercury and dioxins from flue gas streams.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Wet scrubbers are very effective at removing sulphur dioxide, but they generate a substantial amount of wastewater that requires further treatment.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Solution: D

SCR generally achieves higher NOx removal efficiencies than SNCR due to the use of a catalyst, which allows the reaction to occur at lower temperatures and with greater effectiveness.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Activated carbon injection is a common method for removing mercury and dioxins from flue gas streams.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Wet scrubbers are very effective at removing sulphur dioxide, but they generate a substantial amount of wastewater that requires further treatment.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points The global call to action “Stop polluting the air we breathe – prevent diseases and save lives” mentioned in news recently is associated with: (a) An initiative launched by 47 million health professionals worldwide before the Second Global Conference on Air Pollution and Health (b) A mandatory protocol adopted under the Paris Agreement for reducing air pollution (c) A legal petition filed by environmental activists in the International Court of Justice (d) A resolution passed by the UN General Assembly declaring air pollution a global emergency Correct Solution: A In an unprecedented show of unity, more than 47 million health professionals, patients, advocates, representatives from civil society organizations, and individuals worldwide have signed a resounding call for urgent action to reduce air pollution and to protect people’s health from its devastating impacts. Air pollution is one of the biggest environmental threats to human health and a major contributor to climate change. Around 7 million people die from air pollution each year, mainly from respiratory and cardiovascular diseases. This global call to action, spearheaded by the World Health Organization (WHO) and international health organizations will be presented at the Second Global Conference on Air Pollution and Health, set to take place in Cartagena, Colombia, on 25–27 March 2025. “Forty-seven million people from the health community have issued a clarion call for urgent, bold, science-driven action on air pollution, and their voices must be heard,” said Dr Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus, WHO Director-General. “Around the world, WHO is supporting countries to implement evidence-based tools to address air pollution and prevent the disease it causes. At the second WHO Conference on Air Pollution and Health in Cartagena, we hope to see concrete commitments from countries to implement those tools and save lives.” Incorrect Solution: A In an unprecedented show of unity, more than 47 million health professionals, patients, advocates, representatives from civil society organizations, and individuals worldwide have signed a resounding call for urgent action to reduce air pollution and to protect people’s health from its devastating impacts. Air pollution is one of the biggest environmental threats to human health and a major contributor to climate change. Around 7 million people die from air pollution each year, mainly from respiratory and cardiovascular diseases. This global call to action, spearheaded by the World Health Organization (WHO) and international health organizations will be presented at the Second Global Conference on Air Pollution and Health, set to take place in Cartagena, Colombia, on 25–27 March 2025. “Forty-seven million people from the health community have issued a clarion call for urgent, bold, science-driven action on air pollution, and their voices must be heard,” said Dr Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus, WHO Director-General. “Around the world, WHO is supporting countries to implement evidence-based tools to address air pollution and prevent the disease it causes. At the second WHO Conference on Air Pollution and Health in Cartagena, we hope to see concrete commitments from countries to implement those tools and save lives.”

#### 9. Question

The global call to action “Stop polluting the air we breathe – prevent diseases and save lives” mentioned in news recently is associated with:

• (a) An initiative launched by 47 million health professionals worldwide before the Second Global Conference on Air Pollution and Health

• (b) A mandatory protocol adopted under the Paris Agreement for reducing air pollution

• (c) A legal petition filed by environmental activists in the International Court of Justice

• (d) A resolution passed by the UN General Assembly declaring air pollution a global emergency

Solution: A

In an unprecedented show of unity, more than 47 million health professionals, patients, advocates, representatives from civil society organizations, and individuals worldwide have signed a resounding call for urgent action to reduce air pollution and to protect people’s health from its devastating impacts.

Air pollution is one of the biggest environmental threats to human health and a major contributor to climate change. Around 7 million people die from air pollution each year, mainly from respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

This global call to action, spearheaded by the World Health Organization (WHO) and international health organizations will be presented at the Second Global Conference on Air Pollution and Health, set to take place in Cartagena, Colombia, on 25–27 March 2025.

“Forty-seven million people from the health community have issued a clarion call for urgent, bold, science-driven action on air pollution, and their voices must be heard,” said Dr Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus, WHO Director-General. “Around the world, WHO is supporting countries to implement evidence-based tools to address air pollution and prevent the disease it causes. At the second WHO Conference on Air Pollution and Health in Cartagena, we hope to see concrete commitments from countries to implement those tools and save lives.”

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points In the context of ozone layer depletion, the ‘Chapman cycle’ refers to: (a) Natural ozone formation and degradation process (b) Industrial CFC breakdown mechanisms (c) Polar stratospheric cloud formation (d) UV radiation measurement methodology Correct Solution: A The “Chapman cycle” refers to the set of natural reactions in the stratosphere that describe the formation and destruction of ozone. Specifically, it explains how ultraviolet (UV) radiation interacts with oxygen molecules to create and maintain the ozone layer. Key Processes: The Chapman cycle involves photochemical reactions where UV radiation from the sun splits oxygen molecules (O2) into individual oxygen atoms (O). These oxygen atoms then combine with other oxygen molecules to form ozone (O3). Ozone itself can also be broken down by UV radiation, and it can react with oxygen atoms to form oxygen molecules. Significance: This cycle is fundamental to understanding the natural balance of ozone in the stratosphere. It helps explain how the ozone layer absorbs harmful UV radiation, protecting life on Earth. Incorrect Solution: A The “Chapman cycle” refers to the set of natural reactions in the stratosphere that describe the formation and destruction of ozone. Specifically, it explains how ultraviolet (UV) radiation interacts with oxygen molecules to create and maintain the ozone layer. Key Processes: The Chapman cycle involves photochemical reactions where UV radiation from the sun splits oxygen molecules (O2) into individual oxygen atoms (O). These oxygen atoms then combine with other oxygen molecules to form ozone (O3). Ozone itself can also be broken down by UV radiation, and it can react with oxygen atoms to form oxygen molecules. Significance: This cycle is fundamental to understanding the natural balance of ozone in the stratosphere. It helps explain how the ozone layer absorbs harmful UV radiation, protecting life on Earth.

#### 10. Question

In the context of ozone layer depletion, the ‘Chapman cycle’ refers to:

• (a) Natural ozone formation and degradation process

• (b) Industrial CFC breakdown mechanisms

• (c) Polar stratospheric cloud formation

• (d) UV radiation measurement methodology

Solution: A

The “Chapman cycle” refers to the set of natural reactions in the stratosphere that describe the formation and destruction of ozone. Specifically, it explains how ultraviolet (UV) radiation interacts with oxygen molecules to create and maintain the ozone layer.

• Key Processes: The Chapman cycle involves photochemical reactions where UV radiation from the sun splits oxygen molecules (O2) into individual oxygen atoms (O). These oxygen atoms then combine with other oxygen molecules to form ozone (O3). Ozone itself can also be broken down by UV radiation, and it can react with oxygen atoms to form oxygen molecules.

• The Chapman cycle involves photochemical reactions where UV radiation from the sun splits oxygen molecules (O2) into individual oxygen atoms (O).

• These oxygen atoms then combine with other oxygen molecules to form ozone (O3).

• Ozone itself can also be broken down by UV radiation, and it can react with oxygen atoms to form oxygen molecules.

• Significance: This cycle is fundamental to understanding the natural balance of ozone in the stratosphere. It helps explain how the ozone layer absorbs harmful UV radiation, protecting life on Earth.

• This cycle is fundamental to understanding the natural balance of ozone in the stratosphere.

• It helps explain how the ozone layer absorbs harmful UV radiation, protecting life on Earth.

Solution: A

• The Chapman cycle involves photochemical reactions where UV radiation from the sun splits oxygen molecules (O2) into individual oxygen atoms (O).

• These oxygen atoms then combine with other oxygen molecules to form ozone (O3).

• Ozone itself can also be broken down by UV radiation, and it can react with oxygen atoms to form oxygen molecules.

• This cycle is fundamental to understanding the natural balance of ozone in the stratosphere.

• It helps explain how the ozone layer absorbs harmful UV radiation, protecting life on Earth.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) are organic compounds that resistant to be degraded through biological, chemical and photolytic processes. POPs have the tendency to accumulate in the fatty acids in human body. The Stockholm Convention seeks to restrict production of all intentionally produced industrial chemicals and pesticides that are categorised as POPs. Aceclofenac is banned in India under the Stockholm Convention. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Persistent organic pollutants are also known as forever chemicals. They are organic compounds that are resistant to environmental degradation through chemical, biological and photolytic processes. They are characterized by their persistence in the environment and less solubility in water. Hence statement 1 is correct People and animals are exposed to POPs is mostly through their diet, occupationally or while growing in the womb. These pollutants have a tendency to bioaccumulate in fatty acids in living organisms. Exposure to these can lead to cancer, allergies and hypersensitivity, damage to Central and peripheral nervous system, diseases of the immune system, reproductive disorders and interference with normal infant and child development. Hence statement 2 is correct The Stockholm Convention is a global Treaty to protect human health and environment from these pollutants. It was opened for signature in Stockholm, Sweden in 2001 and became effective in 2004. POPs are listed in various Annexes to the convention after thorough scientific research, deliberation and negotiations among member countries. It aims to eliminate or reduce release of these pollutants as well as clean up old stockpiles and equipments containing POPs. Initially 12 persistent organic pollutants have been recognised as causing adverse effects on human and Ecosystem which can be placed in three categories viz. Pesticides, Industrial Chemicals and By-products. Hence statement 3 is correct At present several chemicals are covered under the Stockholm convention of which use of DDT is restricted in India Use of DDT is banned for agriculture; it is produced in a restricted manner for use in vector control only as India has obtained exemption for use of DDT for vector control. Aceclofenac is not listed as a banned chemical under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic pollutants. Hence statement 4 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C Persistent organic pollutants are also known as forever chemicals. They are organic compounds that are resistant to environmental degradation through chemical, biological and photolytic processes. They are characterized by their persistence in the environment and less solubility in water. Hence statement 1 is correct People and animals are exposed to POPs is mostly through their diet, occupationally or while growing in the womb. These pollutants have a tendency to bioaccumulate in fatty acids in living organisms. Exposure to these can lead to cancer, allergies and hypersensitivity, damage to Central and peripheral nervous system, diseases of the immune system, reproductive disorders and interference with normal infant and child development. Hence statement 2 is correct The Stockholm Convention is a global Treaty to protect human health and environment from these pollutants. It was opened for signature in Stockholm, Sweden in 2001 and became effective in 2004. POPs are listed in various Annexes to the convention after thorough scientific research, deliberation and negotiations among member countries. It aims to eliminate or reduce release of these pollutants as well as clean up old stockpiles and equipments containing POPs. Initially 12 persistent organic pollutants have been recognised as causing adverse effects on human and Ecosystem which can be placed in three categories viz. Pesticides, Industrial Chemicals and By-products. Hence statement 3 is correct At present several chemicals are covered under the Stockholm convention of which use of DDT is restricted in India Use of DDT is banned for agriculture; it is produced in a restricted manner for use in vector control only as India has obtained exemption for use of DDT for vector control. Aceclofenac is not listed as a banned chemical under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic pollutants. Hence statement 4 is incorrect

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) are organic compounds that resistant to be degraded through biological, chemical and photolytic processes.

• POPs have the tendency to accumulate in the fatty acids in human body.

• The Stockholm Convention seeks to restrict production of all intentionally produced industrial chemicals and pesticides that are categorised as POPs.

• Aceclofenac is banned in India under the Stockholm Convention.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Persistent organic pollutants are also known as forever chemicals.

• They are organic compounds that are resistant to environmental degradation through chemical, biological and photolytic processes.

• They are characterized by their persistence in the environment and less solubility in water.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• People and animals are exposed to POPs is mostly through their diet, occupationally or while growing in the womb.

• These pollutants have a tendency to bioaccumulate in fatty acids in living organisms.

• Exposure to these can lead to cancer, allergies and hypersensitivity, damage to Central and peripheral nervous system, diseases of the immune system, reproductive disorders and interference with normal infant and child development.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Stockholm Convention is a global Treaty to protect human health and environment from these pollutants.

• It was opened for signature in Stockholm, Sweden in 2001 and became effective in 2004.

• POPs are listed in various Annexes to the convention after thorough scientific research, deliberation and negotiations among member countries.

• It aims to eliminate or reduce release of these pollutants as well as clean up old stockpiles and equipments containing POPs.

• Initially 12 persistent organic pollutants have been recognised as causing adverse effects on human and Ecosystem which can be placed in three categories viz. Pesticides, Industrial Chemicals and By-products.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• At present several chemicals are covered under the Stockholm convention of which use of DDT is restricted in India

• Use of DDT is banned for agriculture; it is produced in a restricted manner for use in vector control only as India has obtained exemption for use of DDT for vector control.

• Aceclofenac is not listed as a banned chemical under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic pollutants.

Hence statement 4 is incorrect

Solution: C

• Persistent organic pollutants are also known as forever chemicals.

• They are organic compounds that are resistant to environmental degradation through chemical, biological and photolytic processes.

• They are characterized by their persistence in the environment and less solubility in water.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• People and animals are exposed to POPs is mostly through their diet, occupationally or while growing in the womb.

• These pollutants have a tendency to bioaccumulate in fatty acids in living organisms.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Stockholm Convention is a global Treaty to protect human health and environment from these pollutants.

• It was opened for signature in Stockholm, Sweden in 2001 and became effective in 2004.

• POPs are listed in various Annexes to the convention after thorough scientific research, deliberation and negotiations among member countries.

• It aims to eliminate or reduce release of these pollutants as well as clean up old stockpiles and equipments containing POPs.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• At present several chemicals are covered under the Stockholm convention of which use of DDT is restricted in India

• Use of DDT is banned for agriculture; it is produced in a restricted manner for use in vector control only as India has obtained exemption for use of DDT for vector control.

• Aceclofenac is not listed as a banned chemical under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic pollutants.

Hence statement 4 is incorrect

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Business for Land (B4L) Initiative, recently in news, has been launched by: (a) UNCCD (b) Global Environment Facility (c) Rainforest Alliance (d) UNEP Correct Solution: A The Business for Land Initiative has been launched by United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) at the 2024 World Economic Forum meet It is UNCCD’s main initiative to engage private sector in sustainable land and water management it helps companies and Financial Institutions manage risk and seas opportunities type to land degradation and drought. B4L aims to restore 1.5 billion hectares of Land by 2030, contributing to Land Degradation Neutrality- a global commitment to achieve Net zero Land degradation by 2030 as well as enhancing drought resilience. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution: A The Business for Land Initiative has been launched by United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) at the 2024 World Economic Forum meet It is UNCCD’s main initiative to engage private sector in sustainable land and water management it helps companies and Financial Institutions manage risk and seas opportunities type to land degradation and drought. B4L aims to restore 1.5 billion hectares of Land by 2030, contributing to Land Degradation Neutrality- a global commitment to achieve Net zero Land degradation by 2030 as well as enhancing drought resilience. Hence option A is correct

#### 12. Question

Business for Land (B4L) Initiative, recently in news, has been launched by:

• (b) Global Environment Facility

• (c) Rainforest Alliance

Solution: A

• The Business for Land Initiative has been launched by United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) at the 2024 World Economic Forum meet

• It is UNCCD’s main initiative to engage private sector in sustainable land and water management it helps companies and Financial Institutions manage risk and seas opportunities type to land degradation and drought.

• B4L aims to restore 1.5 billion hectares of Land by 2030, contributing to Land Degradation Neutrality- a global commitment to achieve Net zero Land degradation by 2030 as well as enhancing drought resilience.

Hence option A is correct

Solution: A

• The Business for Land Initiative has been launched by United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) at the 2024 World Economic Forum meet

Hence option A is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the term ‘*Tropicalisation’? (a) Increase in major air pollutants over the Tropical region, being directly related to increase in population (b) A sudden increase in Biodiversity in tropical forests (c) Growth of species of plants in tropics that were originally non-native to the region (d) Movement of tropical species in the ocean towards the poles Correct Solution: D Climate change is causing a significant Global phenomenon known as Tropicalisation where tropical species in the oceans are moving towards the poles while temperate species are retreating. This mass movement of marine life is driven by rising sea temperatures and Marine heat waves due to climate change The trend is observed in areas with strong currents, away from the equator leading to consequences for ecosystem, biodiversity and potential impact on the global economy The socio-economic impacts vary by region influencing Global fisheries, carbon storage and tourism. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D Climate change is causing a significant Global phenomenon known as Tropicalisation where tropical species in the oceans are moving towards the poles while temperate species are retreating. This mass movement of marine life is driven by rising sea temperatures and Marine heat waves due to climate change The trend is observed in areas with strong currents, away from the equator leading to consequences for ecosystem, biodiversity and potential impact on the global economy The socio-economic impacts vary by region influencing Global fisheries, carbon storage and tourism. Hence option D is correct *

#### 13. Question

Which of the following best describes the term ‘*Tropicalisation’*?

• (a) Increase in major air pollutants over the Tropical region, being directly related to increase in population

• (b) A sudden increase in Biodiversity in tropical forests

• (c) Growth of species of plants in tropics that were originally non-native to the region

• (d) Movement of tropical species in the ocean towards the poles

Solution: D

• Climate change is causing a significant Global phenomenon known as Tropicalisation where tropical species in the oceans are moving towards the poles while temperate species are retreating.

• This mass movement of marine life is driven by rising sea temperatures and Marine heat waves due to climate change

• The trend is observed in areas with strong currents, away from the equator leading to consequences for ecosystem, biodiversity and potential impact on the global economy

• The socio-economic impacts vary by region influencing Global fisheries, carbon storage and tourism.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• Climate change is causing a significant Global phenomenon known as Tropicalisation where tropical species in the oceans are moving towards the poles while temperate species are retreating.

• This mass movement of marine life is driven by rising sea temperatures and Marine heat waves due to climate change

• The trend is observed in areas with strong currents, away from the equator leading to consequences for ecosystem, biodiversity and potential impact on the global economy

• The socio-economic impacts vary by region influencing Global fisheries, carbon storage and tourism.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following: Rotting vegetation Oil Refineries Volcanic eruption How many of the above are potent sources of acid rain formation? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Acid rain occurs when Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents The sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides react with water, oxygen and other chemicals to form sulphuric and nitric acid which then mix with water and other materials before falling to the ground. While small portions of Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides that cause acid rain come from natural sources like rotting vegetation, volcanic eruptions, most of it comes from burning of fossil fuels. The major sources of Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere include burning of fossil fuels to generate electricity; two-thirds of Sulphur dioxide and one- fourth of Nitrogen oxide in the atmosphere come from electric power generators, vehicles and heavy equipment manufacturing, oil refineries and other industries. Winds can blow Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides over long distance and thus acid rain is a problem for everyone and not just those who live close to sources of formation. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D Acid rain occurs when Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents The sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides react with water, oxygen and other chemicals to form sulphuric and nitric acid which then mix with water and other materials before falling to the ground. While small portions of Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides that cause acid rain come from natural sources like rotting vegetation, volcanic eruptions, most of it comes from burning of fossil fuels. The major sources of Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere include burning of fossil fuels to generate electricity; two-thirds of Sulphur dioxide and one- fourth of Nitrogen oxide in the atmosphere come from electric power generators, vehicles and heavy equipment manufacturing, oil refineries and other industries. Winds can blow Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides over long distance and thus acid rain is a problem for everyone and not just those who live close to sources of formation. Hence option D is correct

#### 14. Question

Consider the following:

• Rotting vegetation

• Oil Refineries

• Volcanic eruption

How many of the above are potent sources of acid rain formation?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Acid rain occurs when Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents

• The sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides react with water, oxygen and other chemicals to form sulphuric and nitric acid which then mix with water and other materials before falling to the ground.

• While small portions of Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides that cause acid rain come from natural sources like rotting vegetation, volcanic eruptions, most of it comes from burning of fossil fuels.

• The major sources of Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere include burning of fossil fuels to generate electricity; two-thirds of Sulphur dioxide and one- fourth of Nitrogen oxide in the atmosphere come from electric power generators, vehicles and heavy equipment manufacturing, oil refineries and other industries.

• Winds can blow Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides over long distance and thus acid rain is a problem for everyone and not just those who live close to sources of formation.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• Acid rain occurs when Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents

• The sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides react with water, oxygen and other chemicals to form sulphuric and nitric acid which then mix with water and other materials before falling to the ground.

• Winds can blow Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides over long distance and thus acid rain is a problem for everyone and not just those who live close to sources of formation.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Award Presented By Global Environmental Citizen Award IUCN Goldman Environmental Prize FAO Champions of the Earth UNEP How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Global Environmental Citizen Award is created by Harvard Medical School Centre for Health and the Global Environment. It is given annually in recognition of an individual’s work to restore and protect the global environment. Hence pair 1 is incorrect The Goldman Environmental Prize was created in 1989 by philanthropist Richard and Rhoda Goldman; it is often called the Green Nobel. It recognises grassroots environmental heroes from the World’s six inhabited continental regions- Asia, Africa, Europe, Island and Island Nations, North America, South and Central America. It recognises individuals for sustained and significant efforts to protect and enhance the natural environment often at great personal risks. It views grassroot leaders as those involved in local efforts where positive change is created through community or citizen participation. Hence pair 2 is incorrect The Champions of the Earth Award is presented by United Nations Environment Programme. Since 2005, the award honours individuals and organisations working on innovative and sustainable solutions to address the triple planetary crisis of climate change, nature and biodiversity loss, and pollution and waste. Hence pair 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: A The Global Environmental Citizen Award is created by Harvard Medical School Centre for Health and the Global Environment. It is given annually in recognition of an individual’s work to restore and protect the global environment. Hence pair 1 is incorrect The Goldman Environmental Prize was created in 1989 by philanthropist Richard and Rhoda Goldman; it is often called the Green Nobel. It recognises grassroots environmental heroes from the World’s six inhabited continental regions- Asia, Africa, Europe, Island and Island Nations, North America, South and Central America. It recognises individuals for sustained and significant efforts to protect and enhance the natural environment often at great personal risks. It views grassroot leaders as those involved in local efforts where positive change is created through community or citizen participation. Hence pair 2 is incorrect The Champions of the Earth Award is presented by United Nations Environment Programme. Since 2005, the award honours individuals and organisations working on innovative and sustainable solutions to address the triple planetary crisis of climate change, nature and biodiversity loss, and pollution and waste. Hence pair 3 is correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Award | Presented By

Global Environmental Citizen Award | IUCN

Goldman Environmental Prize | FAO

Champions of the Earth | UNEP

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Global Environmental Citizen Award is created by Harvard Medical School Centre for Health and the Global Environment.

• It is given annually in recognition of an individual’s work to restore and protect the global environment.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• The Goldman Environmental Prize was created in 1989 by philanthropist Richard and Rhoda Goldman; it is often called the Green Nobel.

• It recognises grassroots environmental heroes from the World’s six inhabited continental regions- Asia, Africa, Europe, Island and Island Nations, North America, South and Central America.

• It recognises individuals for sustained and significant efforts to protect and enhance the natural environment often at great personal risks.

• It views grassroot leaders as those involved in local efforts where positive change is created through community or citizen participation.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• The Champions of the Earth Award is presented by United Nations Environment Programme.

• Since 2005, the award honours individuals and organisations working on innovative and sustainable solutions to address the triple planetary crisis of climate change, nature and biodiversity loss, and pollution and waste.

Hence pair 3 is correct

Solution: A

• The Global Environmental Citizen Award is created by Harvard Medical School Centre for Health and the Global Environment.

• It is given annually in recognition of an individual’s work to restore and protect the global environment.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• The Goldman Environmental Prize was created in 1989 by philanthropist Richard and Rhoda Goldman; it is often called the Green Nobel.

• It recognises grassroots environmental heroes from the World’s six inhabited continental regions- Asia, Africa, Europe, Island and Island Nations, North America, South and Central America.

• It recognises individuals for sustained and significant efforts to protect and enhance the natural environment often at great personal risks.

• It views grassroot leaders as those involved in local efforts where positive change is created through community or citizen participation.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• The Champions of the Earth Award is presented by United Nations Environment Programme.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Photochemical smog in urban areas results in ozone formation. London smog results from burning of sulphur containing fossil fuels. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Photochemical smog also known as Los Angeles smog, occurs most commonly in urban areas having large number of automobiles which emit nitrogen oxide. This type of somg forms when primary pollutants such as nitrogen oxides and organic compounds react together in presence of Sunlight, forming ozone, a secondary pollutant. The resultant smog causes a brown coloration of the atmosphere with reduced visibility, damage of plants and respiratory distress for humans. Hence statement 1 is correct London smog also known as Sulphurous smog, is characterized by high concentration of sulphur oxides primarily Sulphur dioxide that results from burning of sulphur containing fossil fuels like coal. It occurs when fossil fuels are burnt releasing sulphur oxides into the atmosphere. Presence of suspended particulate matter and dampness in the air can increase formation of this type of smog. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Photochemical smog also known as Los Angeles smog, occurs most commonly in urban areas having large number of automobiles which emit nitrogen oxide. This type of somg forms when primary pollutants such as nitrogen oxides and organic compounds react together in presence of Sunlight, forming ozone, a secondary pollutant. The resultant smog causes a brown coloration of the atmosphere with reduced visibility, damage of plants and respiratory distress for humans. Hence statement 1 is correct London smog also known as Sulphurous smog, is characterized by high concentration of sulphur oxides primarily Sulphur dioxide that results from burning of sulphur containing fossil fuels like coal. It occurs when fossil fuels are burnt releasing sulphur oxides into the atmosphere. Presence of suspended particulate matter and dampness in the air can increase formation of this type of smog. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Photochemical smog in urban areas results in ozone formation.

• London smog results from burning of sulphur containing fossil fuels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Photochemical smog also known as Los Angeles smog, occurs most commonly in urban areas having large number of automobiles which emit nitrogen oxide.

• This type of somg forms when primary pollutants such as nitrogen oxides and organic compounds react together in presence of Sunlight, forming ozone, a secondary pollutant.

• The resultant smog causes a brown coloration of the atmosphere with reduced visibility, damage of plants and respiratory distress for humans.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• London smog also known as Sulphurous smog, is characterized by high concentration of sulphur oxides primarily Sulphur dioxide that results from burning of sulphur containing fossil fuels like coal.

• It occurs when fossil fuels are burnt releasing sulphur oxides into the atmosphere.

• Presence of suspended particulate matter and dampness in the air can increase formation of this type of smog.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: C

• Photochemical smog also known as Los Angeles smog, occurs most commonly in urban areas having large number of automobiles which emit nitrogen oxide.

• This type of somg forms when primary pollutants such as nitrogen oxides and organic compounds react together in presence of Sunlight, forming ozone, a secondary pollutant.

• The resultant smog causes a brown coloration of the atmosphere with reduced visibility, damage of plants and respiratory distress for humans.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• It occurs when fossil fuels are burnt releasing sulphur oxides into the atmosphere.

• Presence of suspended particulate matter and dampness in the air can increase formation of this type of smog.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) was created under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change to serve the Paris Agreement. Under the Global Environment Facility strategy for 2022-26, the SCCF supports adaptation needs of Small Island developing States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Special Climate Change Fund, one of world’s first multilateral climate adaptation finance instruments was created in 2001 Conference of Parties to the United Nation Framework Convention on Climate Change to help vulnerable nations in addressing the negative impacts of climate change. It is managed by the Global Environment Facility and operates in parallel with another similar fund- the Least developed Countries Fund. The Paris Agreement was adopted much later in 2015. While the SCCF’s objectives align with the broader goals of addressing climate change, including those emphasized in the Paris Agreement, its origin predates the Paris Agreement. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The GEF’s climate change adaptation strategy for the 2022-2026 period focuses SCCF support in the following priority areas: Supporting the adaptation needs of Small Island Developing States (SIDS)– the states of the Caribbean African and Indian Ocean and the Pacific are among the most vulnerable countries of the world due to a range of climatic and non-climatic factors. Strengthening technology transfer, Innovation and private sector engagement– the fund facilitates creation of strong, climate resiliant economies and communities by helping countries address several issues related to climate. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Special Climate Change Fund, one of world’s first multilateral climate adaptation finance instruments was created in 2001 Conference of Parties to the United Nation Framework Convention on Climate Change to help vulnerable nations in addressing the negative impacts of climate change. It is managed by the Global Environment Facility and operates in parallel with another similar fund- the Least developed Countries Fund. The Paris Agreement was adopted much later in 2015. While the SCCF’s objectives align with the broader goals of addressing climate change, including those emphasized in the Paris Agreement, its origin predates the Paris Agreement. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The GEF’s climate change adaptation strategy for the 2022-2026 period focuses SCCF support in the following priority areas: Supporting the adaptation needs of Small Island Developing States (SIDS)– the states of the Caribbean African and Indian Ocean and the Pacific are among the most vulnerable countries of the world due to a range of climatic and non-climatic factors. Strengthening technology transfer, Innovation and private sector engagement– the fund facilitates creation of strong, climate resiliant economies and communities by helping countries address several issues related to climate. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) was created under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change to serve the Paris Agreement.

• Under the Global Environment Facility strategy for 2022-26, the SCCF supports adaptation needs of Small Island developing States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Special Climate Change Fund, one of world’s first multilateral climate adaptation finance instruments was created in 2001 Conference of Parties to the United Nation Framework Convention on Climate Change to help vulnerable nations in addressing the negative impacts of climate change.

• It is managed by the Global Environment Facility and operates in parallel with another similar fund- the Least developed Countries Fund.

• The Paris Agreement was adopted much later in 2015.

• While the SCCF’s objectives align with the broader goals of addressing climate change, including those emphasized in the Paris Agreement, its origin predates the Paris Agreement.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

The GEF’s climate change adaptation strategy for the 2022-2026 period focuses SCCF support in the following priority areas:

• Supporting the adaptation needs of Small Island Developing States (SIDS)– the states of the Caribbean African and Indian Ocean and the Pacific are among the most vulnerable countries of the world due to a range of climatic and non-climatic factors.

• Strengthening technology transfer, Innovation and private sector engagement– the fund facilitates creation of strong, climate resiliant economies and communities by helping countries address several issues related to climate.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• It is managed by the Global Environment Facility and operates in parallel with another similar fund- the Least developed Countries Fund.

• The Paris Agreement was adopted much later in 2015.

• While the SCCF’s objectives align with the broader goals of addressing climate change, including those emphasized in the Paris Agreement, its origin predates the Paris Agreement.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

The GEF’s climate change adaptation strategy for the 2022-2026 period focuses SCCF support in the following priority areas:

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Biocovers are porous material layers, often composed of waste materials spread over an entire land field area. Biocovers provide condition for methanotropic bacteria to act as biofilters for controlling methane emissions. Biocovers always lead to top soil erosion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Biocovers are porous material layers typically spread over an entire landfill area They are often waste materials such as diverse compost, mechanically, biologically treated waste, dewatered sewage sludge or yard waste. The fine fraction material recovered from landfill mining is used to construct biocover system. Hence statement 1 is correct Biocover is actually a type of methane oxidation system that utilises the fine fraction material from landfill mining to effectively control methane emissions These are porous material layers laid directly on top of a landfill which is then covered by an oxidizing layer of mature compost It provides optimal conditions for methanotropic or methane utilising bacteria to thrive and act as biofilters- hence controlling methane emissions by converting methane to carbon dioxide. Hence statement 2 is correct Biocovers provide a site for methane oxidation- removal of an importance greenhouse gas by converting it to carbon dioxide. Biocovers do not lead to soil erosion. It might be helpful in reduction of topsoil erosion by providing a cover. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Biocovers are porous material layers typically spread over an entire landfill area They are often waste materials such as diverse compost, mechanically, biologically treated waste, dewatered sewage sludge or yard waste. The fine fraction material recovered from landfill mining is used to construct biocover system. Hence statement 1 is correct Biocover is actually a type of methane oxidation system that utilises the fine fraction material from landfill mining to effectively control methane emissions These are porous material layers laid directly on top of a landfill which is then covered by an oxidizing layer of mature compost It provides optimal conditions for methanotropic or methane utilising bacteria to thrive and act as biofilters- hence controlling methane emissions by converting methane to carbon dioxide. Hence statement 2 is correct Biocovers provide a site for methane oxidation- removal of an importance greenhouse gas by converting it to carbon dioxide. Biocovers do not lead to soil erosion. It might be helpful in reduction of topsoil erosion by providing a cover. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Biocovers are porous material layers, often composed of waste materials spread over an entire land field area.

• Biocovers provide condition for methanotropic bacteria to act as biofilters for controlling methane emissions.

• Biocovers always lead to top soil erosion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Biocovers are porous material layers typically spread over an entire landfill area

• They are often waste materials such as diverse compost, mechanically, biologically treated waste, dewatered sewage sludge or yard waste.

• The fine fraction material recovered from landfill mining is used to construct biocover system.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Biocover is actually a type of methane oxidation system that utilises the fine fraction material from landfill mining to effectively control methane emissions

• These are porous material layers laid directly on top of a landfill which is then covered by an oxidizing layer of mature compost

• It provides optimal conditions for methanotropic or methane utilising bacteria to thrive and act as biofilters- hence controlling methane emissions by converting methane to carbon dioxide.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Biocovers provide a site for methane oxidation- removal of an importance greenhouse gas by converting it to carbon dioxide.

• Biocovers do not lead to soil erosion. It might be helpful in reduction of topsoil erosion by providing a cover.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Biocovers are porous material layers typically spread over an entire landfill area

• They are often waste materials such as diverse compost, mechanically, biologically treated waste, dewatered sewage sludge or yard waste.

• The fine fraction material recovered from landfill mining is used to construct biocover system.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Biocover is actually a type of methane oxidation system that utilises the fine fraction material from landfill mining to effectively control methane emissions

• These are porous material layers laid directly on top of a landfill which is then covered by an oxidizing layer of mature compost

• It provides optimal conditions for methanotropic or methane utilising bacteria to thrive and act as biofilters- hence controlling methane emissions by converting methane to carbon dioxide.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Biocovers provide a site for methane oxidation- removal of an importance greenhouse gas by converting it to carbon dioxide.

• Biocovers do not lead to soil erosion. It might be helpful in reduction of topsoil erosion by providing a cover.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Manganese is an essential trace mineral for human body. The permissible limit for Manganese in potable water is fixed by World Health Organisation. Overexposure to Manganese can lead to neurological disorders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Manganese is an essential trace mineral that the human body needs in small amount for several functions including bone health, metabolism and antioxidant activity. It is classified as an essential nutrient; that is, the body needs it but cannot produce it and hence it must be obtained from diet or through supplements. Hence statement 1 is correct Manganese is essential for human body but in large amounts it is dangerous for human health. The permissible limit for manganese in drinking water is 100 microgram/lit as recommended by WHO. Hence statement 2 is correct Over exposure to manganese can cause emotional instability, difficulty in movement and other neurological disorders. Chronic exposure is linked to cancer. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: D Manganese is an essential trace mineral that the human body needs in small amount for several functions including bone health, metabolism and antioxidant activity. It is classified as an essential nutrient; that is, the body needs it but cannot produce it and hence it must be obtained from diet or through supplements. Hence statement 1 is correct Manganese is essential for human body but in large amounts it is dangerous for human health. The permissible limit for manganese in drinking water is 100 microgram/lit as recommended by WHO. Hence statement 2 is correct Over exposure to manganese can cause emotional instability, difficulty in movement and other neurological disorders. Chronic exposure is linked to cancer. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Manganese is an essential trace mineral for human body.

• The permissible limit for Manganese in potable water is fixed by World Health Organisation.

• Overexposure to Manganese can lead to neurological disorders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Manganese is an essential trace mineral that the human body needs in small amount for several functions including bone health, metabolism and antioxidant activity.

• It is classified as an essential nutrient; that is, the body needs it but cannot produce it and hence it must be obtained from diet or through supplements.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Manganese is essential for human body but in large amounts it is dangerous for human health.

• The permissible limit for manganese in drinking water is 100 microgram/lit as recommended by WHO.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Over exposure to manganese can cause emotional instability, difficulty in movement and other neurological disorders.

• Chronic exposure is linked to cancer.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: D

• Manganese is an essential trace mineral that the human body needs in small amount for several functions including bone health, metabolism and antioxidant activity.

• It is classified as an essential nutrient; that is, the body needs it but cannot produce it and hence it must be obtained from diet or through supplements.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Manganese is essential for human body but in large amounts it is dangerous for human health.

• The permissible limit for manganese in drinking water is 100 microgram/lit as recommended by WHO.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Over exposure to manganese can cause emotional instability, difficulty in movement and other neurological disorders.

• Chronic exposure is linked to cancer.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following pollutants: Ammonia Carbon dioxide Sulfur dioxide Lead Carbon monoxide How many of the above are considered for calculating the National Air Quality Index in India? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: C Air Quality Index monitors eight major air pollutants in the atmosphere: Particulate matter (PM10) Particulate matter (PM 2.5) Nitrogen dioxide Sulphur Dioxide Carbon monoxide Ozone Ammonia Lead National Air Quality Index was launched in 2014 with outline- ‘one number- one colour- one description’ for the common man to judge air quality within his vicinity. It has six categories of air quality, these are- good, satisfactory, moderately polluted, poor, very poor and severe. Each of these categories is decided based on ambient concentration values of air pollutants and their likely impacts. It has been developed by Central Pollution Control Board in consultation with IIT Kanpur and an expert group comprising Medical and air quality professionals. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C Air Quality Index monitors eight major air pollutants in the atmosphere: Particulate matter (PM10) Particulate matter (PM 2.5) Nitrogen dioxide Sulphur Dioxide Carbon monoxide Ozone Ammonia Lead National Air Quality Index was launched in 2014 with outline- ‘one number- one colour- one description’ for the common man to judge air quality within his vicinity. It has six categories of air quality, these are- good, satisfactory, moderately polluted, poor, very poor and severe. Each of these categories is decided based on ambient concentration values of air pollutants and their likely impacts. It has been developed by Central Pollution Control Board in consultation with IIT Kanpur and an expert group comprising Medical and air quality professionals. Hence option C is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following pollutants:

• Carbon dioxide

• Sulfur dioxide

• Carbon monoxide

How many of the above are considered for calculating the National Air Quality Index in India?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: C

Air Quality Index monitors eight major air pollutants in the atmosphere:

• Particulate matter (PM10)

• Particulate matter (PM 2.5)

• Nitrogen dioxide

• Sulphur Dioxide

• Carbon monoxide

National Air Quality Index was launched in 2014 with outline- ‘one number- one colour- one description’ for the common man to judge air quality within his vicinity.

It has six categories of air quality, these are- good, satisfactory, moderately polluted, poor, very poor and severe. Each of these categories is decided based on ambient concentration values of air pollutants and their likely impacts.

It has been developed by Central Pollution Control Board in consultation with IIT Kanpur and an expert group comprising Medical and air quality professionals.

Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

Air Quality Index monitors eight major air pollutants in the atmosphere:

• Particulate matter (PM10)

• Particulate matter (PM 2.5)

• Nitrogen dioxide

• Sulphur Dioxide

• Carbon monoxide

National Air Quality Index was launched in 2014 with outline- ‘one number- one colour- one description’ for the common man to judge air quality within his vicinity.

It has been developed by Central Pollution Control Board in consultation with IIT Kanpur and an expert group comprising Medical and air quality professionals.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Anticipatory bail was under Section 438, CrPC but is now governed by Section 482 of the BNSS (2023), retaining similar provisions for non-bailable offenses. Statement-II: Anticipatory bail can only be granted by the Sessions Court and not by the High Court. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Anticipatory Bail: Anticipatory Bail is governed under Section 438 of the CrPC, which allows individuals to apply for bail before arrest if they fear being arrested for a non-bailable offense. (Hence, Statement I is correct) Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (2023) has further reformed anticipatory bail provisions, strengthening protections against wrongful arrest while maintaining justice. Application for Anticipatory Bail can be made to either the Sessions Court or High Court, depending on the jurisdiction where the offense is alleged to have occurred. (Hence, Statement II is incorrect) as anticipatory bail can be granted by both Sessions Courts and High Courts, not just by the Sessions Court. Anticipatory Bail is a discretionary provision used by courts to prevent arbitrary or malicious arrest based on false accusations or personal enmity. Limitations: Anticipatory bail is not granted automatically and depends on the nature of the offense and facts of the case. Courts discretionarily deny anticipatory bail for serious offenses such as terrorism or organized crime. The court evaluates the likelihood of the accused fleeing or tampering with evidence before granting anticipatory bail. Supreme Court Rulings: The Supreme Court of India holds that anticipatory bail is a preventive measure and not a substitute for regular bail. The court retains discretion to grant or deny anticipatory bail based on justice and fairness https://indianexpress.com/article/india/sc-st-act-applicable-intention-humiliate-supreme-court-9529733/ Incorrect Solution: C Anticipatory Bail: Anticipatory Bail is governed under Section 438 of the CrPC, which allows individuals to apply for bail before arrest if they fear being arrested for a non-bailable offense. (Hence, Statement I is correct) Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (2023) has further reformed anticipatory bail provisions, strengthening protections against wrongful arrest while maintaining justice. Application for Anticipatory Bail can be made to either the Sessions Court or High Court, depending on the jurisdiction where the offense is alleged to have occurred. (Hence, Statement II is incorrect) as anticipatory bail can be granted by both Sessions Courts and High Courts, not just by the Sessions Court. Anticipatory Bail is a discretionary provision used by courts to prevent arbitrary or malicious arrest based on false accusations or personal enmity. Limitations: Anticipatory bail is not granted automatically and depends on the nature of the offense and facts of the case. Courts discretionarily deny anticipatory bail for serious offenses such as terrorism or organized crime. The court evaluates the likelihood of the accused fleeing or tampering with evidence before granting anticipatory bail. Supreme Court Rulings: The Supreme Court of India holds that anticipatory bail is a preventive measure and not a substitute for regular bail. The court retains discretion to grant or deny anticipatory bail based on justice and fairness https://indianexpress.com/article/india/sc-st-act-applicable-intention-humiliate-supreme-court-9529733/

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Anticipatory bail was under Section 438, CrPC but is now governed by Section 482 of the BNSS (2023), retaining similar provisions for non-bailable offenses.

Statement-II:

Anticipatory bail can only be granted by the Sessions Court and not by the High Court.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Anticipatory Bail:

• Anticipatory Bail is governed under Section 438 of the CrPC, which allows individuals to apply for bail before arrest if they fear being arrested for a non-bailable offense.

(Hence, Statement I is correct)

• Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (2023) has further reformed anticipatory bail provisions, strengthening protections against wrongful arrest while maintaining justice.

• Application for Anticipatory Bail can be made to either the Sessions Court or High Court, depending on the jurisdiction where the offense is alleged to have occurred.

(Hence, Statement II is incorrect) as anticipatory bail can be granted by both Sessions Courts and High Courts, not just by the Sessions Court.

• Anticipatory Bail is a discretionary provision used by courts to prevent arbitrary or malicious arrest based on false accusations or personal enmity.

• Limitations: Anticipatory bail is not granted automatically and depends on the nature of the offense and facts of the case. Courts discretionarily deny anticipatory bail for serious offenses such as terrorism or organized crime.

• Anticipatory bail is not granted automatically and depends on the nature of the offense and facts of the case.

• Courts discretionarily deny anticipatory bail for serious offenses such as terrorism or organized crime.

• The court evaluates the likelihood of the accused fleeing or tampering with evidence before granting anticipatory bail.

• Supreme Court Rulings: The Supreme Court of India holds that anticipatory bail is a preventive measure and not a substitute for regular bail. The court retains discretion to grant or deny anticipatory bail based on justice and fairness

• The Supreme Court of India holds that anticipatory bail is a preventive measure and not a substitute for regular bail.

• The court retains discretion to grant or deny anticipatory bail based on justice and fairness

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/sc-st-act-applicable-intention-humiliate-supreme-court-9529733/