DAY – 17 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – AGRICULTURE, Subject-wise Test 16,27, Textbook-wise Test 17 and October 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the messenger RNA: mRNA is a short-lived molecule that degrades easily and does not last long inside cells but has the ability to alter DNA. mRNA vaccines can direct human cells to make a viral spike protein and evoke an immune response without getting exposed to the viral material. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: mRNA acts as a cellular messenger. DNA, which is stored in a cell’s nucleus, encodes the genetic information for making proteins. mRNA transfers a copy of this genetic information outside of the nucleus, to a cell’s cytoplasm, where it is translated into amino acids by ribosomes and then folded into complete proteins. Statement 1 is not correct: mRNA is a short-lived molecule, meaning it degrades easily and does not last long inside cells. There is no risk of an mRNA vaccine changing your DNA because mRNA does not have the ability to alter DNA Statement 2 is correct: By injecting cells with a synthetic mRNA that encodes a viral spike protein, an mRNA vaccine can direct human cells to make a viral spike protein and evoke an immune response without a person ever having been exposed to the viral material. These viral spike proteins, or antigens, normally coat the surface of the virus and are recognized by antibodies and other immune cells that prepare and protect the body against the virus. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and medicine Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: mRNA acts as a cellular messenger. DNA, which is stored in a cell’s nucleus, encodes the genetic information for making proteins. mRNA transfers a copy of this genetic information outside of the nucleus, to a cell’s cytoplasm, where it is translated into amino acids by ribosomes and then folded into complete proteins. Statement 1 is not correct: mRNA is a short-lived molecule, meaning it degrades easily and does not last long inside cells. There is no risk of an mRNA vaccine changing your DNA because mRNA does not have the ability to alter DNA Statement 2 is correct: By injecting cells with a synthetic mRNA that encodes a viral spike protein, an mRNA vaccine can direct human cells to make a viral spike protein and evoke an immune response without a person ever having been exposed to the viral material. These viral spike proteins, or antigens, normally coat the surface of the virus and are recognized by antibodies and other immune cells that prepare and protect the body against the virus. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and medicine Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the messenger RNA:

• mRNA is a short-lived molecule that degrades easily and does not last long inside cells but has the ability to alter DNA.

• mRNA vaccines can direct human cells to make a viral spike protein and evoke an immune response without getting exposed to the viral material.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

mRNA acts as a cellular messenger. DNA, which is stored in a cell’s nucleus, encodes the genetic information for making proteins.

mRNA transfers a copy of this genetic information outside of the nucleus, to a cell’s cytoplasm, where it is translated into amino acids by ribosomes and then folded into complete proteins.

Statement 1 is not correct: mRNA is a short-lived molecule, meaning it degrades easily and does not last long inside cells. There is no risk of an mRNA vaccine changing your DNA because mRNA does not have the ability to alter DNA

Statement 2 is correct: By injecting cells with a synthetic mRNA that encodes a viral spike protein, an mRNA vaccine can direct human cells to make a viral spike protein and evoke an immune response without a person ever having been exposed to the viral material.

These viral spike proteins, or antigens, normally coat the surface of the virus and are recognized by antibodies and other immune cells that prepare and protect the body against the virus.

Trend: Healthcare and medicine

Approach: Applied knowledge

Answer: B

Explanation:

mRNA acts as a cellular messenger. DNA, which is stored in a cell’s nucleus, encodes the genetic information for making proteins.

mRNA transfers a copy of this genetic information outside of the nucleus, to a cell’s cytoplasm, where it is translated into amino acids by ribosomes and then folded into complete proteins.

These viral spike proteins, or antigens, normally coat the surface of the virus and are recognized by antibodies and other immune cells that prepare and protect the body against the virus.

Trend: Healthcare and medicine

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements is correct about the “Basel Convention”? (a) It is the global environmental agreement on hazardous wastes and other wastes. (b) It provides a global platform for the sustainable use of migratory animals. (c) It enforces the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework. (d) It aims to protect the environment from the adverse effects of mercury. Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Rotterdam Convention (formally, the Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade) is a multilateral treaty to promote shared responsibilities in relation to importation of hazardous chemicals. The convention promotes open exchange of information and calls on exporters of hazardous chemicals to use proper labeling, include directions on safe handling, and inform purchasers of any known restrictions or bans. Signatory Nations can decide whether to allow or ban the importation of chemicals listed in the treaty, and exporting countries are obliged to make sure that producers within their jurisdiction comply. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International Conventions/treaties Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Rotterdam Convention (formally, the Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade) is a multilateral treaty to promote shared responsibilities in relation to importation of hazardous chemicals. The convention promotes open exchange of information and calls on exporters of hazardous chemicals to use proper labeling, include directions on safe handling, and inform purchasers of any known restrictions or bans. Signatory Nations can decide whether to allow or ban the importation of chemicals listed in the treaty, and exporting countries are obliged to make sure that producers within their jurisdiction comply. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International Conventions/treaties Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 2. Question

Which one of the following statements is correct about the “Basel Convention”?

• (a) It is the global environmental agreement on hazardous wastes and other wastes.

• (b) It provides a global platform for the sustainable use of migratory animals.

• (c) It enforces the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.

• (d) It aims to protect the environment from the adverse effects of mercury.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The Rotterdam Convention (formally, the Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade) is a multilateral treaty to promote shared responsibilities in relation to importation of hazardous chemicals.

• The convention promotes open exchange of information and calls on exporters of hazardous chemicals to use proper labeling, include directions on safe handling, and inform purchasers of any known restrictions or bans.

• Signatory Nations can decide whether to allow or ban the importation of chemicals listed in the treaty, and exporting countries are obliged to make sure that producers within their jurisdiction comply.

Trend: International Conventions/treaties

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Trend: International Conventions/treaties

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points With reference to Sammakka-Sarakka Jatara, consider the following statements: It is celebrated to commemorate a tribal revolt against the Kakatiya rulers. It symbolizes the traditions and heritage of the Koya tribal people. It is celebrated in Telangana in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Medaram in Telangana’s tribal heartland of Mulugu district, hosts the Sammakka-Sarakka jatara, billed as the country’s biggest tribal fair, to commemorate a tribal revolt led by Sammakka and Saralamma, a mother-daughter duo, against levy of taxes on tribal people during drought conditions by the then Kakatiya rulers in the 12th century. Statement 2 is correct: The fair Sammakka-Sarakka jatara symbolises traditions and heritage of Koya tribal people. Statement 3 is correct: Medaram is a remote place in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, a part of Dandakaranya, the largest surviving forest belt in the Mulugu. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Tribes/national parks Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Medaram in Telangana’s tribal heartland of Mulugu district, hosts the Sammakka-Sarakka jatara, billed as the country’s biggest tribal fair, to commemorate a tribal revolt led by Sammakka and Saralamma, a mother-daughter duo, against levy of taxes on tribal people during drought conditions by the then Kakatiya rulers in the 12th century. Statement 2 is correct: The fair Sammakka-Sarakka jatara symbolises traditions and heritage of Koya tribal people. Statement 3 is correct: Medaram is a remote place in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, a part of Dandakaranya, the largest surviving forest belt in the Mulugu. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Tribes/national parks Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 3. Question

With reference to Sammakka-Sarakka Jatara, consider the following statements:

• It is celebrated to commemorate a tribal revolt against the Kakatiya rulers.

• It symbolizes the traditions and heritage of the Koya tribal people.

• It is celebrated in Telangana in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Medaram in Telangana’s tribal heartland of Mulugu district, hosts the Sammakka-Sarakka jatara, billed as the country’s biggest tribal fair, to commemorate a tribal revolt led by Sammakka and Saralamma, a mother-daughter duo, against levy of taxes on tribal people during drought conditions by the then Kakatiya rulers in the 12th century.

Statement 2 is correct: The fair Sammakka-Sarakka jatara symbolises traditions and heritage of Koya tribal people.

Statement 3 is correct: Medaram is a remote place in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, a part of Dandakaranya, the largest surviving forest belt in the Mulugu.

Trend: Tribes/national parks

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: The fair Sammakka-Sarakka jatara symbolises traditions and heritage of Koya tribal people.

Statement 3 is correct: Medaram is a remote place in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, a part of Dandakaranya, the largest surviving forest belt in the Mulugu.

Trend: Tribes/national parks

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Olive Ridley Turtles: These are the most abundant of all sea turtles inhabiting only the warm waters of the Pacific Ocean. These along with the Kemps ridley turtles are best known for their mass nesting called Arribada. International trade in these turtles are banned under CITES Appendix I and recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world, inhabiting warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans. Statement 2 is correct: These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs. Though found in abundance, their numbers have been declining over the past few years, and the species is recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list. Statement 3 is correct: Though international trade in these turtles and their products is banned under CITES Appendix I, they are still extensively poached for their meat, shell and leather, and their eggs. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: species and their habitat Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world, inhabiting warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans. Statement 2 is correct: These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs. Though found in abundance, their numbers have been declining over the past few years, and the species is recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list. Statement 3 is correct: Though international trade in these turtles and their products is banned under CITES Appendix I, they are still extensively poached for their meat, shell and leather, and their eggs. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: species and their habitat Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Olive Ridley Turtles:

• These are the most abundant of all sea turtles inhabiting only the warm waters of the Pacific Ocean.

• These along with the Kemps ridley turtles are best known for their mass nesting called Arribada.

• International trade in these turtles are banned under CITES Appendix I and recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world, inhabiting warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans.

Statement 2 is correct: These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs.

Though found in abundance, their numbers have been declining over the past few years, and the species is recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list.

Statement 3 is correct: Though international trade in these turtles and their products is banned under CITES Appendix I, they are still extensively poached for their meat, shell and leather, and their eggs.

Trend: species and their habitat

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world, inhabiting warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans.

Though found in abundance, their numbers have been declining over the past few years, and the species is recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list.

Trend: species and their habitat

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points With reference to the Salton Sea, consider the following statements: It is an endorheic rift lake located in South America. It is fed by the New and Alamo Rivers. It lies above a basin off the San Andreas Fault. How many of the statements given above are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Salton Sea is a large, saline, endorheic rift lake that is in Southern California’s Imperial and Coachella valleys (North Amercia). Statement 2 is correct: The sea is fed by the New and Alamo Rivers, which flow into it from the Colorado River in the north. Statement 3 is correct: It lies above a basin off the San Andreas Fault; associated with this fault is a linear belt of hot springs that extends north into Washington state. Source: Geography Trend: Places in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The Salton Sea is a large, saline, endorheic rift lake that is in Southern California’s Imperial and Coachella valleys (North Amercia). Statement 2 is correct: The sea is fed by the New and Alamo Rivers, which flow into it from the Colorado River in the north. Statement 3 is correct: *It lies above a basin off the San Andreas Fault; associated with this fault is a linear belt of hot springs that extends north into Washington state. Source: Geography Trend: Places in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Salton Sea, consider the following statements:

• It is an endorheic rift lake located in South America.

• It is fed by the New and Alamo Rivers.

• It lies above a basin off the San Andreas Fault.

How many of the statements given above are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Salton Sea is a large, saline, endorheic rift lake that is in Southern California’s Imperial and Coachella valleys (North Amercia).

Statement 2 is correct: The sea is fed by the New and Alamo Rivers, which flow into it from the Colorado River in the north.

Statement 3 is correct: It lies above a basin off the San Andreas Fault; associated with this fault is a linear belt of hot springs that extends north into Washington state.

Trend: Places in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Salton Sea is a large, saline, endorheic rift lake that is in Southern California’s Imperial and Coachella valleys (North Amercia).

Statement 2 is correct: The sea is fed by the New and Alamo Rivers, which flow into it from the Colorado River in the north.

Statement 3 is correct: It lies above a basin off the San Andreas Fault; associated with this fault is a linear belt of hot springs that extends north into Washington state.

Trend: Places in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Lithium: India, recently joined the Minerals Security Partnership led by the US, along with France and the UK. China has the largest lithium reserves followed by Australia. Lithium Triangle is situated in Asia. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: a India, recently joined the Minerals Security Partnership led by the US, along with France and the UK. Hence, statement 1 is correct. India can leverage this position to establish a trilateral strategic partnership and secure a reliable lithium supply chain, boosting its domestic EV manufacturing sector. About Lithium: It is a soft, silvery-white metal. Under standard conditions, it is the lightest metal and the lightest solid element. It is highly reactive and flammable and must be stored in mineral oil. Countries with Largest Reserves: Chile> Australia> Argentina Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Lithium Triangle: Chile, Argentina, Bolivia. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Source: Geography Trend: Important minerals Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a India, recently joined the Minerals Security Partnership led by the US, along with France and the UK. Hence, statement 1 is correct. India can leverage this position to establish a trilateral strategic partnership and secure a reliable lithium supply chain, boosting its domestic EV manufacturing sector. About Lithium: It is a soft, silvery-white metal. Under standard conditions, it is the lightest metal and the lightest solid element. It is highly reactive and flammable and must be stored in mineral oil. Countries with Largest Reserves: Chile> Australia> Argentina Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Lithium Triangle: Chile, Argentina, Bolivia. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Source: Geography Trend: Important minerals Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Lithium:

• India, recently joined the Minerals Security Partnership led by the US, along with France and the UK.

• China has the largest lithium reserves followed by Australia.

• Lithium Triangle is situated in Asia.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

• India, recently joined the Minerals Security Partnership led by the US, along with France and the UK.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• India can leverage this position to establish a trilateral strategic partnership and secure a reliable lithium supply chain, boosting its domestic EV manufacturing sector.

About Lithium:

It is a soft, silvery-white metal. Under standard conditions, it is the lightest metal and the lightest solid element. It is highly reactive and flammable and must be stored in mineral oil.

Countries with Largest Reserves: Chile> Australia> Argentina

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Lithium Triangle: Chile, Argentina, Bolivia.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Trend: Important minerals

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• India, recently joined the Minerals Security Partnership led by the US, along with France and the UK.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• India can leverage this position to establish a trilateral strategic partnership and secure a reliable lithium supply chain, boosting its domestic EV manufacturing sector.

About Lithium:

It is a soft, silvery-white metal. Under standard conditions, it is the lightest metal and the lightest solid element. It is highly reactive and flammable and must be stored in mineral oil.

Countries with Largest Reserves: Chile> Australia> Argentina

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Lithium Triangle: Chile, Argentina, Bolivia.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Trend: Important minerals

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Recently, Duqm port was in news. It is situated in- (a) Yemen (b) Egypt (c) UAE (d) Oman Correct Answer: d NSA visits Oman’s Duqm port where Indian Navy has strategic access to facilitate its presence in Indian Ocean Region. The Port of Duqm is strategically important for India’s maritime strategy in the Indian Ocean. It offers India access to the Gulf of Oman, the Red Sea, the Indian Ocean, and the Arabian Sea. This location is significant as it allows India to counter China’s expanding presence in the region. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Places in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: d NSA visits Oman’s Duqm port where Indian Navy has strategic access to facilitate its presence in Indian Ocean Region. The Port of Duqm is strategically important for India’s maritime strategy in the Indian Ocean. It offers India access to the Gulf of Oman, the Red Sea, the Indian Ocean, and the Arabian Sea. This location is significant as it allows India to counter China’s expanding presence in the region. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Places in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 7. Question

Recently, Duqm port was in news. It is situated in-

NSA visits Oman’s Duqm port where Indian Navy has strategic access to facilitate its presence in Indian Ocean Region.

The Port of Duqm is strategically important for India’s maritime strategy in the Indian Ocean. It offers India access to the Gulf of Oman, the Red Sea, the Indian Ocean, and the Arabian Sea. This location is significant as it allows India to counter China’s expanding presence in the region.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Places in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

NSA visits Oman’s Duqm port where Indian Navy has strategic access to facilitate its presence in Indian Ocean Region.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Places in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the World Investment Report 2023: India and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) were the top recipients. India saw a 10% increase in FDI, making it the largest host country for greenfield project announcements. Singapore was the largest recipient of FDI in the Southeast Asian region. How many of the above statements are *incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: a Recently, UNCTAD released the World Investment Report 2023. Key Findings: India and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) were the top recipients, with a 10% and 5% increase respectively. Asia accounted for over 50% of global FDI. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The FDI growth in developing countries was concentrated in a few large emerging economies, with India, China, Singapore, Hong Kong, and the United Arab Emirates accounting for nearly 80% of FDI flows to the region. India saw a 10% increase in FDI, making it the third-largest host country for greenfield project announcements and the second-largest for international project finance deals. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Singapore was the largest recipient of FDI in the Southeast Asian region. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The report highlights the widening investment deficit in developing countries as they strive to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly in energy, water, and transport infrastructure. Source: Economy Trend: External sector Approach: Statements with superlative terms are generally incorrect in UPSC prelims Incorrect Answer: a Recently, UNCTAD released the World Investment Report 2023. Key Findings: India and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) were the top recipients, with a 10% and 5% increase respectively. Asia accounted for over 50% of global FDI. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The FDI growth in developing countries was concentrated in a few large emerging economies, with India, China, Singapore, Hong Kong, and the United Arab Emirates accounting for nearly 80% of FDI flows to the region. India saw a 10% increase in FDI, making it the third-largest host country for greenfield project announcements and the second-largest for international project finance deals. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Singapore was the largest recipient of FDI in the Southeast Asian region. Hence, statement 3 is correct.* The report highlights the widening investment deficit in developing countries as they strive to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly in energy, water, and transport infrastructure. Source: Economy Trend: External sector Approach: Statements with superlative terms are generally incorrect in UPSC prelims

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the World Investment Report 2023:

• India and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) were the top recipients.

• India saw a 10% increase in FDI, making it the largest host country for greenfield project announcements.

• Singapore was the largest recipient of FDI in the Southeast Asian region.

How many of the above statements are *incorrect*?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Recently, UNCTAD released the World Investment Report 2023.

Key Findings:

• India and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) were the top recipients, with a 10% and 5% increase respectively. Asia accounted for over 50% of global FDI.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The FDI growth in developing countries was concentrated in a few large emerging economies, with India, China, Singapore, Hong Kong, and the United Arab Emirates accounting for nearly 80% of FDI flows to the region.

• India saw a 10% increase in FDI, making it the third-largest host country for greenfield project announcements and the second-largest for international project finance deals.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Singapore was the largest recipient of FDI in the Southeast Asian region.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The report highlights the widening investment deficit in developing countries as they strive to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly in energy, water, and transport infrastructure.

Trend: External sector

Approach: Statements with superlative terms are generally incorrect in UPSC prelims

Recently, UNCTAD released the World Investment Report 2023.

Key Findings:

• India and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) were the top recipients, with a 10% and 5% increase respectively. Asia accounted for over 50% of global FDI.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• India saw a 10% increase in FDI, making it the third-largest host country for greenfield project announcements and the second-largest for international project finance deals.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Singapore was the largest recipient of FDI in the Southeast Asian region.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Trend: External sector

Approach: Statements with superlative terms are generally incorrect in UPSC prelims

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following: Institute of Plasma Research (IPR), Ahmedabad Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru Indian Institute of Technology, Mumbai Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), Indore How many of the above institutes are involved in implementing LIGO-India? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: b LIGO-India, a new gravitational-wave observatory, is set to put India on the research map and contribute to our understanding of the Universe. Currently, there are two LIGO setups in the US, and a third one will be built in the Hingoli district of Maharashtra, India. The facility’s construction is expected to be completed by 2030. LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-wave Observatory) is a physics experiment designed to detect gravitational waves, which are ripples in the fabric of spacetime caused by massive objects in accelerated motion. The LIGO-India project is being led by four institutions in collaboration with LIGO Laboratory operated by Caltech and MIT. Institute of Plasma Research (IPR), Ahmedabad Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), Indore Directorate of Construction, Services & Estate Management (DCSEM), Mumbai Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Initiatives in science and technology Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b LIGO-India, a new gravitational-wave observatory, is set to put India on the research map and contribute to our understanding of the Universe. Currently, there are two LIGO setups in the US, and a third one will be built in the Hingoli district of Maharashtra, India. The facility’s construction is expected to be completed by 2030. LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-wave Observatory) is a physics experiment designed to detect gravitational waves, which are ripples in the fabric of spacetime caused by massive objects in accelerated motion. The LIGO-India project is being led by four institutions in collaboration with LIGO Laboratory operated by Caltech and MIT. Institute of Plasma Research (IPR), Ahmedabad Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), Indore Directorate of Construction, Services & Estate Management (DCSEM), Mumbai Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Initiatives in science and technology Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 9. Question

Consider the following:

• Institute of Plasma Research (IPR), Ahmedabad

• Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru

• Indian Institute of Technology, Mumbai

• Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), Indore

How many of the above institutes are involved in implementing LIGO-India?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

LIGO-India, a new gravitational-wave observatory, is set to put India on the research map and contribute to our understanding of the Universe.

Currently, there are two LIGO setups in the US, and a third one will be built in the Hingoli district of Maharashtra, India. The facility’s construction is expected to be completed by 2030.

LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-wave Observatory) is a physics experiment designed to detect gravitational waves, which are ripples in the fabric of spacetime caused by massive objects in accelerated motion.

The LIGO-India project is being led by four institutions in collaboration with LIGO Laboratory operated by Caltech and MIT.

• Institute of Plasma Research (IPR), Ahmedabad

• Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune

• Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), Indore

• Directorate of Construction, Services & Estate Management (DCSEM), Mumbai

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Initiatives in science and technology

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

LIGO-India, a new gravitational-wave observatory, is set to put India on the research map and contribute to our understanding of the Universe.

Currently, there are two LIGO setups in the US, and a third one will be built in the Hingoli district of Maharashtra, India. The facility’s construction is expected to be completed by 2030.

The LIGO-India project is being led by four institutions in collaboration with LIGO Laboratory operated by Caltech and MIT.

• Institute of Plasma Research (IPR), Ahmedabad

• Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune

• Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), Indore

• Directorate of Construction, Services & Estate Management (DCSEM), Mumbai

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Initiatives in science and technology

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Recently, Artemis Accords was in news. Consider the following statements regarding it: It is a US-led international partnership, introduced in 2020 by NASA, on planetary exploration and research. It is a binding bilateral arrangement. India did not sign the Artemis Accords. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: a India signs the US-led Artemis Accords During the Indian PM’s state visit to the US, India signed the Artemis Accords. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. About the Artemis Accords: They are a US-led international partnership (introduced in 2020 by NASA) – signed by 27 countries till now, including Japan, Australia, the UK, France, and Canada – on planetary exploration and research. Hence, statement 1 is correct. They are a set of 13 principles, closely linked to the 2018 US Artemis Program, which aims to return astronauts to the lunar surface, build a space camp there, and carry out deep space exploration. They are a non-binding bilateral arrangement based on the political understanding of the participating countries. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Space exploration Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a India signs the US-led Artemis Accords During the Indian PM’s state visit to the US, India signed the Artemis Accords. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. About the Artemis Accords: They are a US-led international partnership (introduced in 2020 by NASA) – signed by 27 countries till now, including Japan, Australia, the UK, France, and Canada – on planetary exploration and research. Hence, statement 1 is correct. They are a set of 13 principles, closely linked to the 2018 US Artemis Program, which aims to return astronauts to the lunar surface, build a space camp there, and carry out deep space exploration. They are a non-binding bilateral arrangement based on the political understanding of the participating countries. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Space exploration Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 10. Question

Recently, Artemis Accords was in news. Consider the following statements regarding it:

• It is a US-led international partnership, introduced in 2020 by NASA, on planetary exploration and research.

• It is a binding bilateral arrangement.

• India did not sign the Artemis Accords.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

India signs the US-led Artemis Accords

During the Indian PM’s state visit to the US, India signed the Artemis Accords.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

About the Artemis Accords:

• They are a US-led international partnership (introduced in 2020 by NASA) – signed by 27 countries till now, including Japan, Australia, the UK, France, and Canada – on planetary exploration and research.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• They are a set of 13 principles, closely linked to the 2018 US Artemis Program, which aims to return astronauts to the lunar surface, build a space camp there, and carry out deep space exploration.

• They are a non-binding bilateral arrangement based on the political understanding of the participating countries.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Trend: Space exploration

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

India signs the US-led Artemis Accords

During the Indian PM’s state visit to the US, India signed the Artemis Accords.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

About the Artemis Accords:

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• They are a non-binding bilateral arrangement based on the political understanding of the participating countries.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Trend: Space exploration

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Detritivores break down organic matter mechanically by physically ingesting and breaking it down into smaller particles. Decomposers break down dead organic matter into simpler substances through chemical processes. Both detritivores and decomposers are crucial for the recycling of nutrients in ecosystems. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Detritivores and decomposers both play vital roles in ecosystems by breaking down organic matter, but there are some key differences between the two: Feeding Strategy: Detritivores are organisms that directly feed on dead and decaying organic matter, such as dead plants or animals. They consume this material as a food source. Examples include earthworms, woodlice, and some types of insects. Decomposers, on the other hand, are organisms, usually microbes like bacteria and fungi, that break down dead organic matter into simpler substances through chemical processes. They absorb nutrients from the organic material as they decompose it. Mechanism of Breakdown: Detritivores break down organic matter mechanically by physically ingesting and breaking it down into smaller particles, which are then further decomposed by other organisms or processes. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Decomposers break down organic matter chemically through enzymatic reactions. They secrete enzymes that break down complex organic molecules into simpler forms that can be absorbed and used by the decomposer itself or by other organisms. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Size and Diversity: Detritivores can range from small organisms like insects and worms to larger organisms like scavenging mammals. They contribute to the physical breakdown of organic matter in various habitats. Decomposers are typically microscopic organisms, including bacteria, fungi, and some protists. They are highly diverse and can be found in almost all ecosystems, playing a crucial role in nutrient cycling. Role in Ecosystems: Detritivores help to break down organic matter into smaller particles, which increases the surface area available for decomposers to act upon. They also play a role in nutrient cycling by releasing nutrients locked in organic matter back into the soil. Decomposers are essential for the final breakdown of organic matter into nutrients that can be recycled by producers (plants) in the ecosystem. They are fundamental in the process of decomposition, which releases nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and carbon back into the environment for reuse by living organisms. Both detritivores and decomposers are crucial for the recycling of nutrients in ecosystems. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Detritivores and decomposers both play vital roles in ecosystems by breaking down organic matter, but there are some key differences between the two: Feeding Strategy: Detritivores are organisms that directly feed on dead and decaying organic matter, such as dead plants or animals. They consume this material as a food source. Examples include earthworms, woodlice, and some types of insects. Decomposers, on the other hand, are organisms, usually microbes like bacteria and fungi, that break down dead organic matter into simpler substances through chemical processes. They absorb nutrients from the organic material as they decompose it. Mechanism of Breakdown: Detritivores break down organic matter mechanically by physically ingesting and breaking it down into smaller particles, which are then further decomposed by other organisms or processes. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Decomposers break down organic matter chemically through enzymatic reactions. They secrete enzymes that break down complex organic molecules into simpler forms that can be absorbed and used by the decomposer itself or by other organisms. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Size and Diversity: Detritivores can range from small organisms like insects and worms to larger organisms like scavenging mammals. They contribute to the physical breakdown of organic matter in various habitats. Decomposers are typically microscopic organisms, including bacteria, fungi, and some protists. They are highly diverse and can be found in almost all ecosystems, playing a crucial role in nutrient cycling. Role in Ecosystems: Detritivores help to break down organic matter into smaller particles, which increases the surface area available for decomposers to act upon. They also play a role in nutrient cycling by releasing nutrients locked in organic matter back into the soil. Decomposers are essential for the final breakdown of organic matter into nutrients that can be recycled by producers (plants) in the ecosystem. They are fundamental in the process of decomposition, which releases nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and carbon back into the environment for reuse by living organisms. Both detritivores and decomposers are crucial for the recycling of nutrients in ecosystems. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Detritivores break down organic matter mechanically by physically ingesting and breaking it down into smaller particles.

• Decomposers break down dead organic matter into simpler substances through chemical processes.

• Both detritivores and decomposers are crucial for the recycling of nutrients in ecosystems.

How many of the above given statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Detritivores and decomposers both play vital roles in ecosystems by breaking down organic matter, but there are some key differences between the two:

• Feeding Strategy:

• Detritivores are organisms that directly feed on dead and decaying organic matter, such as dead plants or animals. They consume this material as a food source. Examples include earthworms, woodlice, and some types of insects.

• Decomposers, on the other hand, are organisms, usually microbes like bacteria and fungi, that break down dead organic matter into simpler substances through chemical processes. They absorb nutrients from the organic material as they decompose it.

• Mechanism of Breakdown:

• Detritivores break down organic matter mechanically by physically ingesting and breaking it down into smaller particles, which are then further decomposed by other organisms or processes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Decomposers break down organic matter chemically through enzymatic reactions. They secrete enzymes that break down complex organic molecules into simpler forms that can be absorbed and used by the decomposer itself or by other organisms. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Size and Diversity:

• Detritivores can range from small organisms like insects and worms to larger organisms like scavenging mammals. They contribute to the physical breakdown of organic matter in various habitats.

• Decomposers are typically microscopic organisms, including bacteria, fungi, and some protists. They are highly diverse and can be found in almost all ecosystems, playing a crucial role in nutrient cycling.

• Role in Ecosystems:

• Detritivores help to break down organic matter into smaller particles, which increases the surface area available for decomposers to act upon. They also play a role in nutrient cycling by releasing nutrients locked in organic matter back into the soil.

• Decomposers are essential for the final breakdown of organic matter into nutrients that can be recycled by producers (plants) in the ecosystem. They are fundamental in the process of decomposition, which releases nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and carbon back into the environment for reuse by living organisms.

• Both detritivores and decomposers are crucial for the recycling of nutrients in ecosystems. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Detritivores and decomposers both play vital roles in ecosystems by breaking down organic matter, but there are some key differences between the two:

• Feeding Strategy:

• Mechanism of Breakdown:

• Size and Diversity:

• Detritivores can range from small organisms like insects and worms to larger organisms like scavenging mammals. They contribute to the physical breakdown of organic matter in various habitats.

• Role in Ecosystems:

• Both detritivores and decomposers are crucial for the recycling of nutrients in ecosystems. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Which of the following statements is true regarding the genetic adaptations of fish to polluted water bodies? a) Fish species with higher genetic diversity are less likely to adapt to pollution. b) Genetic adaptations to pollution are always heritable and passed on to offspring. c) The process of genetic adaptation to pollution occurs over several generations. d) Fish species cannot adapt genetically to polluted water bodies. Correct Answer: c Explanation: Genetic adaptations refer to the evolutionary changes in the genetic makeup of a population over successive generations in response to environmental pressures. These adaptations occur through the process of natural selection, where individuals with advantageous genetic traits are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass on their genes to the next generation. Fish species with higher genetic diversity are less likely to adapt to pollution. This statement is not true. In fact, higher genetic diversity often provides a greater pool of genetic variation from which advantageous traits can be selected. Therefore, higher genetic diversity can actually increase the likelihood of adaptation to pollution. Genetic adaptations to pollution are always heritable and passed on to offspring. This statement is not necessarily true. While genetic adaptations to pollution can be heritable, not all adaptations are guaranteed to be passed on to offspring. Additionally, some adaptations may occur through epigenetic mechanisms or behavioural changes that are not strictly genetic. The process of genetic adaptation to pollution occurs over several generations. This statement is generally true. Genetic adaptation typically occurs over multiple generations as advantageous traits are selected for and become more prevalent within a population. It takes time for genetic changes to accumulate and become widespread enough to be considered adaptation. Fish species cannot adapt genetically to polluted water bodies. This statement is not true. Fish species have demonstrated the ability to adapt genetically to polluted environments through mechanisms such as the selection of alleles that confer resistance to pollutants or enhance detoxification processes. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Genetic adaptations refer to the evolutionary changes in the genetic makeup of a population over successive generations in response to environmental pressures. These adaptations occur through the process of natural selection, where individuals with advantageous genetic traits are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass on their genes to the next generation. Fish species with higher genetic diversity are less likely to adapt to pollution. This statement is not true. In fact, higher genetic diversity often provides a greater pool of genetic variation from which advantageous traits can be selected. Therefore, higher genetic diversity can actually increase the likelihood of adaptation to pollution. Genetic adaptations to pollution are always heritable and passed on to offspring. This statement is not necessarily true. While genetic adaptations to pollution can be heritable, not all adaptations are guaranteed to be passed on to offspring. Additionally, some adaptations may occur through epigenetic mechanisms or behavioural changes that are not strictly genetic. The process of genetic adaptation to pollution occurs over several generations. This statement is generally true. Genetic adaptation typically occurs over multiple generations as advantageous traits are selected for and become more prevalent within a population. It takes time for genetic changes to accumulate and become widespread enough to be considered adaptation. Fish species cannot adapt genetically to polluted water bodies. This statement is not true. Fish species have demonstrated the ability to adapt genetically to polluted environments through mechanisms such as the selection of alleles that confer resistance to pollutants or enhance detoxification processes. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 12. Question

Which of the following statements is true regarding the genetic adaptations of fish to polluted water bodies?

• a) Fish species with higher genetic diversity are less likely to adapt to pollution.

• b) Genetic adaptations to pollution are always heritable and passed on to offspring.

• c) The process of genetic adaptation to pollution occurs over several generations.

• d) Fish species cannot adapt genetically to polluted water bodies.

Explanation:

• Genetic adaptations refer to the evolutionary changes in the genetic makeup of a population over successive generations in response to environmental pressures. These adaptations occur through the process of natural selection, where individuals with advantageous genetic traits are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass on their genes to the next generation.

• Fish species with higher genetic diversity are less likely to adapt to pollution. This statement is not true. In fact, higher genetic diversity often provides a greater pool of genetic variation from which advantageous traits can be selected. Therefore, higher genetic diversity can actually increase the likelihood of adaptation to pollution.

• Genetic adaptations to pollution are always heritable and passed on to offspring. This statement is not necessarily true. While genetic adaptations to pollution can be heritable, not all adaptations are guaranteed to be passed on to offspring. Additionally, some adaptations may occur through epigenetic mechanisms or behavioural changes that are not strictly genetic.

• The process of genetic adaptation to pollution occurs over several generations. This statement is generally true. Genetic adaptation typically occurs over multiple generations as advantageous traits are selected for and become more prevalent within a population. It takes time for genetic changes to accumulate and become widespread enough to be considered adaptation.

• Fish species cannot adapt genetically to polluted water bodies. This statement is not true. Fish species have demonstrated the ability to adapt genetically to polluted environments through mechanisms such as the selection of alleles that confer resistance to pollutants or enhance detoxification processes.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following: Tigers Elephants Pandas Coyotes How many of above given organisms are considered as ‘niche specialists’? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Niche Specialist: A niche specialist is a species that is highly adapted to a specific set of environmental conditions and resources within its habitat. These species typically have narrow ecological niches, meaning they have specific dietary, habitat, and behavioural requirements. They are highly specialized to exploit particular resources efficiently, often at the expense of being less adaptable to changes in environmental conditions. Niche specialists may have limited tolerance for habitat disturbance or changes in resource availability, making them more vulnerable to extinction if their specific niche is compromised. Examples: Tigers, elephants, Pandas etc. Niche Generalist: A niche generalist, on the other hand, is a species that can thrive in a wide range of environmental conditions and exploit various resources within its habitat. These species typically have broad ecological niches, meaning they have flexible dietary, habitat, and behavioural requirements. They are adaptable and versatile, able to adjust their behaviours and resource use based on changes in environmental conditions. Niche generalists may have a broader tolerance for habitat disturbance and changes in resource availability, allowing them to persist in diverse ecosystems and habitats. They are often more resilient to environmental changes and disturbances compared to niche specialists. Coyotes (Canis latrans) are successful niche generalists. Originally native to deserts, these omnivorous opportunists are able to adapt to almost all habitats at many different successional stages, and altitudes up to around 9800 ft. Their diets are highly varied, primarily consisting of rats, mice, ground squirrels and carrion, they also feed on snakes, birds, tortoises, fruit, nuts and grass; they eat almost anything they can find and they cause big problems to farmers by hunting sheep and domestic fowl. They can hunt by digging out prey, or ambushing and stalking, and can reach speeds of up to 40mph. They are also able to hunt solitarily, in pairs or in small packs. They are very tolerant of human activities and so have managed to integrate within urban areas, feeding from human waste. Because coyotes are able to adapt their niche quickly to changes in their environment, their populations are ever increasing, often to the detriment of other species, whose niche they exploit, and causing competition. Other examples: Raccoons, common rats, black bears etc. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Niche Specialist: A niche specialist is a species that is highly adapted to a specific set of environmental conditions and resources within its habitat. These species typically have narrow ecological niches, meaning they have specific dietary, habitat, and behavioural requirements. They are highly specialized to exploit particular resources efficiently, often at the expense of being less adaptable to changes in environmental conditions. Niche specialists may have limited tolerance for habitat disturbance or changes in resource availability, making them more vulnerable to extinction if their specific niche is compromised. Examples: Tigers, elephants, Pandas etc. Niche Generalist: A niche generalist, on the other hand, is a species that can thrive in a wide range of environmental conditions and exploit various resources within its habitat. These species typically have broad ecological niches, meaning they have flexible dietary, habitat, and behavioural requirements. They are adaptable and versatile, able to adjust their behaviours and resource use based on changes in environmental conditions. Niche generalists may have a broader tolerance for habitat disturbance and changes in resource availability, allowing them to persist in diverse ecosystems and habitats. They are often more resilient to environmental changes and disturbances compared to niche specialists. Coyotes (Canis latrans) are successful niche generalists. Originally native to deserts, these omnivorous opportunists are able to adapt to almost all habitats at many different successional stages, and altitudes up to around 9800 ft. Their diets are highly varied, primarily consisting of rats, mice, ground squirrels and carrion, they also feed on snakes, birds, tortoises, fruit, nuts and grass; they eat almost anything they can find and they cause big problems to farmers by hunting sheep and domestic fowl. They can hunt by digging out prey, or ambushing and stalking, and can reach speeds of up to 40mph. They are also able to hunt solitarily, in pairs or in small packs. They are very tolerant of human activities and so have managed to integrate within urban areas, feeding from human waste. Because coyotes are able to adapt their niche quickly to changes in their environment, their populations are ever increasing, often to the detriment of other species, whose niche they exploit, and causing competition. Other examples: Raccoons, common rats, black bears etc. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 13. Question

Consider the following:

How many of above given organisms are considered as ‘niche specialists’?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Niche Specialist: A niche specialist is a species that is highly adapted to a specific set of environmental conditions and resources within its habitat. These species typically have narrow ecological niches, meaning they have specific dietary, habitat, and behavioural requirements. They are highly specialized to exploit particular resources efficiently, often at the expense of being less adaptable to changes in environmental conditions. Niche specialists may have limited tolerance for habitat disturbance or changes in resource availability, making them more vulnerable to extinction if their specific niche is compromised.

• Examples: Tigers, elephants, Pandas etc.

• Niche Generalist: A niche generalist, on the other hand, is a species that can thrive in a wide range of environmental conditions and exploit various resources within its habitat. These species typically have broad ecological niches, meaning they have flexible dietary, habitat, and behavioural requirements. They are adaptable and versatile, able to adjust their behaviours and resource use based on changes in environmental conditions. Niche generalists may have a broader tolerance for habitat disturbance and changes in resource availability, allowing them to persist in diverse ecosystems and habitats. They are often more resilient to environmental changes and disturbances compared to niche specialists.

• Coyotes (Canis latrans) are successful niche generalists. Originally native to deserts, these omnivorous opportunists are able to adapt to almost all habitats at many different successional stages, and altitudes up to around 9800 ft.

• Their diets are highly varied, primarily consisting of rats, mice, ground squirrels and carrion, they also feed on snakes, birds, tortoises, fruit, nuts and grass; they eat almost anything they can find and they cause big problems to farmers by hunting sheep and domestic fowl. They can hunt by digging out prey, or ambushing and stalking, and can reach speeds of up to 40mph. They are also able to hunt solitarily, in pairs or in small packs. They are very tolerant of human activities and so have managed to integrate within urban areas, feeding from human waste.

• Because coyotes are able to adapt their niche quickly to changes in their environment, their populations are ever increasing, often to the detriment of other species, whose niche they exploit, and causing competition.

• Other examples: Raccoons, common rats, black bears etc.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Examples: Tigers, elephants, Pandas etc.

• Other examples: Raccoons, common rats, black bears etc.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Which one of the following terms describes a gradual change in environmental conditions across two distinct ecosystems? a) Ecotone b) Ecocline c) Home range d) Biotope Correct Answer: b Explanation: An “ecocline” is a term used to describe a gradual change or gradient in environmental conditions across a geographic area or habitat. Ecoclines can occur over relatively short distances or extend across larger geographic regions, reflecting the gradual changes in environmental conditions influenced by factors such as topography, climate, and geological features. They often play a significant role in shaping the distribution and abundance of plant and animal species, as organisms adapt to the specific environmental conditions present along the gradient. For example, a mountain slope may exhibit an ecocline in temperature and vegetation composition as one moves from the base to the summit. Unlike an “ecotone,” which refers to a sharp transition between two distinct ecosystems or habitats, an ecocline represents a more subtle and continuous variation in environmental factors, such as temperature, moisture, altitude, or soil composition. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: An “ecocline” is a term used to describe a gradual change or gradient in environmental conditions across a geographic area or habitat. Ecoclines can occur over relatively short distances or extend across larger geographic regions, reflecting the gradual changes in environmental conditions influenced by factors such as topography, climate, and geological features. They often play a significant role in shaping the distribution and abundance of plant and animal species, as organisms adapt to the specific environmental conditions present along the gradient. For example, a mountain slope may exhibit an ecocline in temperature and vegetation composition as one moves from the base to the summit. Unlike an “ecotone,” which refers to a sharp transition between two distinct ecosystems or habitats, an ecocline represents a more subtle and continuous variation in environmental factors, such as temperature, moisture, altitude, or soil composition. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 14. Question

Which one of the following terms describes a gradual change in environmental conditions across two distinct ecosystems?

• a) Ecotone

• b) Ecocline

• c) Home range

• d) Biotope

Explanation:

• An “ecocline” is a term used to describe a gradual change or gradient in environmental conditions across a geographic area or habitat.

• Ecoclines can occur over relatively short distances or extend across larger geographic regions, reflecting the gradual changes in environmental conditions influenced by factors such as topography, climate, and geological features. They often play a significant role in shaping the distribution and abundance of plant and animal species, as organisms adapt to the specific environmental conditions present along the gradient.

• For example, a mountain slope may exhibit an ecocline in temperature and vegetation composition as one moves from the base to the summit.

• Unlike an “ecotone,” which refers to a sharp transition between two distinct ecosystems or habitats, an ecocline represents a more subtle and continuous variation in environmental factors, such as temperature, moisture, altitude, or soil composition.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• An “ecocline” is a term used to describe a gradual change or gradient in environmental conditions across a geographic area or habitat.

• For example, a mountain slope may exhibit an ecocline in temperature and vegetation composition as one moves from the base to the summit.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: It is unusual for a large number of organisms to be present at the top of an ecological pyramid. Statement –II: Apex predators, occupying the top of the ecological pyramid have smaller population sizes compared to organisms at lower trophic levels. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: b Explanation: It is unusual for a large number of organisms to be present at the top of an ecological pyramid due to several factors related to energy transfer, population dynamics, and ecological interactions. Ecological pyramids depict the flow of energy or biomass through different trophic levels in an ecosystem, with producers at the base and apex predators at the top. Due to the inefficiency of energy transfer between trophic levels, there is typically a decrease in the amount of available energy as one moves up the food chain. This limited energy availability constrains the carrying capacity of apex predator populations, preventing the accumulation of a large number of individuals at the top of the pyramid. Therefore, it is unusual for a large number of organisms to be present at the top of an ecological pyramid. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Apex predators, such as lions, tigers, and sharks, occupying the top of the ecological pyramid, often have smaller population sizes compared to organisms at lower trophic levels. This is due to factors such as increased competition for food and territory, lower reproductive rates, and susceptibility to environmental fluctuations and disease. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. However, statement 2 dose not correctly explain statement 1. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: It is unusual for a large number of organisms to be present at the top of an ecological pyramid due to several factors related to energy transfer, population dynamics, and ecological interactions. Ecological pyramids depict the flow of energy or biomass through different trophic levels in an ecosystem, with producers at the base and apex predators at the top. Due to the inefficiency of energy transfer between trophic levels, there is typically a decrease in the amount of available energy as one moves up the food chain. This limited energy availability constrains the carrying capacity of apex predator populations, preventing the accumulation of a large number of individuals at the top of the pyramid. Therefore, it is unusual for a large number of organisms to be present at the top of an ecological pyramid. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Apex predators, such as lions, tigers, and sharks, occupying the top of the ecological pyramid, often have smaller population sizes compared to organisms at lower trophic levels. This is due to factors such as increased competition for food and territory, lower reproductive rates, and susceptibility to environmental fluctuations and disease. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. However, statement 2 dose not correctly explain statement 1. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

It is unusual for a large number of organisms to be present at the top of an ecological pyramid.

Statement –II:

Apex predators, occupying the top of the ecological pyramid have smaller population sizes compared to organisms at lower trophic levels.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

• It is unusual for a large number of organisms to be present at the top of an ecological pyramid due to several factors related to energy transfer, population dynamics, and ecological interactions.

• Ecological pyramids depict the flow of energy or biomass through different trophic levels in an ecosystem, with producers at the base and apex predators at the top. Due to the inefficiency of energy transfer between trophic levels, there is typically a decrease in the amount of available energy as one moves up the food chain.

• This limited energy availability constrains the carrying capacity of apex predator populations, preventing the accumulation of a large number of individuals at the top of the pyramid. Therefore, it is unusual for a large number of organisms to be present at the top of an ecological pyramid. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Apex predators, such as lions, tigers, and sharks, occupying the top of the ecological pyramid, often have smaller population sizes compared to organisms at lower trophic levels. This is due to factors such as increased competition for food and territory, lower reproductive rates, and susceptibility to environmental fluctuations and disease. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. However, statement 2 dose not correctly explain statement 1.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. However, statement 2 dose not correctly explain statement 1.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Bio-magnification is most likely to occur: In a shallow lake with abundant vegetation In an ecosystem with a high level of pollution In a food chain where top predators consume large quantities of prey In an area with high levels of precipitation. How many of the above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: b Explanation: Bio magnification is also called Bio amplification. It is simply the increase in concentration of a substance in a food chain or food web. In the process of bio magnification, where pollutants accumulate and become more concentrated as they move up the food chain. The level of bio magnification would increase as the trophic level increases and would be highest for topmost trophic level. It is because certain harmful substances, usually ones not found in nature but introduced by man, may get into plants and/or animals. These poisonous substances may not be broken down in the body or excreted easily, efficiently and quickly. Instead, they accumulate in the tissues, and as the living organism eats more, the concentration of these substances increases and they pass from one trophic level to the next. The maximum concentration is accumulated at the top carnivores. In a shallow lake with abundant vegetation: Bio magnification is less likely to occur in this scenario. Shallow lakes with abundant vegetation often act as natural filters, trapping pollutants and reducing their concentration in the water. Additionally, the presence of abundant vegetation can support a diverse array of organisms, leading to a more balanced food web where bio magnification is less pronounced. In an ecosystem with a high level of pollution: This scenario is highly conducive to bio magnification. In ecosystems with high levels of pollution, contaminants such as heavy metals, pesticides, or industrial chemicals enter the environment and accumulate in organisms. As these pollutants move up the food chain, they become increasingly concentrated in the tissues of organisms at higher trophic levels, leading to bio magnification. In a food chain where top predators consume large quantities of prey: This scenario is also likely to result in bio magnification. When top predators consume large quantities of prey, they accumulate the pollutants stored in the tissues of their prey. Since pollutants are not efficiently metabolized or excreted, their concentration increases as they move up the food chain. Consequently, top predators tend to have the highest concentrations of pollutants, leading to bio magnification. In an area with high levels of precipitation: While high levels of precipitation may result in increased runoff and leaching of pollutants from the environment into water bodies, bio magnification is not directly linked to precipitation levels alone. The occurrence of bio magnification depends more on the presence of pollutants in the food chain and the feeding habits of organisms. Therefore, while precipitation may contribute to pollution, it does not necessarily lead to bio magnification on its own. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Bio magnification is also called Bio amplification. It is simply the increase in concentration of a substance in a food chain or food web. In the process of bio magnification, where pollutants accumulate and become more concentrated as they move up the food chain. The level of bio magnification would increase as the trophic level increases and would be highest for topmost trophic level. It is because certain harmful substances, usually ones not found in nature but introduced by man, may get into plants and/or animals. These poisonous substances may not be broken down in the body or excreted easily, efficiently and quickly. Instead, they accumulate in the tissues, and as the living organism eats more, the concentration of these substances increases and they pass from one trophic level to the next. The maximum concentration is accumulated at the top carnivores. In a shallow lake with abundant vegetation: Bio magnification is less likely to occur in this scenario. Shallow lakes with abundant vegetation often act as natural filters, trapping pollutants and reducing their concentration in the water. Additionally, the presence of abundant vegetation can support a diverse array of organisms, leading to a more balanced food web where bio magnification is less pronounced. In an ecosystem with a high level of pollution: This scenario is highly conducive to bio magnification. In ecosystems with high levels of pollution, contaminants such as heavy metals, pesticides, or industrial chemicals enter the environment and accumulate in organisms. As these pollutants move up the food chain, they become increasingly concentrated in the tissues of organisms at higher trophic levels, leading to bio magnification. In a food chain where top predators consume large quantities of prey: This scenario is also likely to result in bio magnification. When top predators consume large quantities of prey, they accumulate the pollutants stored in the tissues of their prey. Since pollutants are not efficiently metabolized or excreted, their concentration increases as they move up the food chain. Consequently, top predators tend to have the highest concentrations of pollutants, leading to bio magnification. In an area with high levels of precipitation: While high levels of precipitation may result in increased runoff and leaching of pollutants from the environment into water bodies, bio magnification is not directly linked to precipitation levels alone. The occurrence of bio magnification depends more on the presence of pollutants in the food chain and the feeding habits of organisms. Therefore, while precipitation may contribute to pollution, it does not necessarily lead to bio magnification on its own. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 16. Question

Bio-magnification is most likely to occur:

• In a shallow lake with abundant vegetation

• In an ecosystem with a high level of pollution

• In a food chain where top predators consume large quantities of prey

• In an area with high levels of precipitation.

How many of the above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Explanation:

• Bio magnification is also called Bio amplification. It is simply the increase in concentration of a substance in a food chain or food web. In the process of bio magnification, where pollutants accumulate and become more concentrated as they move up the food chain.

• The level of bio magnification would increase as the trophic level increases and would be highest for topmost trophic level. It is because certain harmful substances, usually ones not found in nature but introduced by man, may get into plants and/or animals. These poisonous substances may not be broken down in the body or excreted easily, efficiently and quickly. Instead, they accumulate in the tissues, and as the living organism eats more, the concentration of these substances increases and they pass from one trophic level to the next. The maximum concentration is accumulated at the top carnivores.

• In a shallow lake with abundant vegetation: Bio magnification is less likely to occur in this scenario. Shallow lakes with abundant vegetation often act as natural filters, trapping pollutants and reducing their concentration in the water. Additionally, the presence of abundant vegetation can support a diverse array of organisms, leading to a more balanced food web where bio magnification is less pronounced.

• In an ecosystem with a high level of pollution: This scenario is highly conducive to bio magnification. In ecosystems with high levels of pollution, contaminants such as heavy metals, pesticides, or industrial chemicals enter the environment and accumulate in organisms. As these pollutants move up the food chain, they become increasingly concentrated in the tissues of organisms at higher trophic levels, leading to bio magnification.

• In a food chain where top predators consume large quantities of prey: This scenario is also likely to result in bio magnification. When top predators consume large quantities of prey, they accumulate the pollutants stored in the tissues of their prey. Since pollutants are not efficiently metabolized or excreted, their concentration increases as they move up the food chain. Consequently, top predators tend to have the highest concentrations of pollutants, leading to bio magnification.

• In an area with high levels of precipitation: While high levels of precipitation may result in increased runoff and leaching of pollutants from the environment into water bodies, bio magnification is not directly linked to precipitation levels alone. The occurrence of bio magnification depends more on the presence of pollutants in the food chain and the feeding habits of organisms. Therefore, while precipitation may contribute to pollution, it does not necessarily lead to bio magnification on its own.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points What characteristic of pollutants is/are essential for their bioaccumulation in organisms? Soluble in water Long-lived and mobile Biologically active Select the correct answer from the options given below: a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Bioaccumulation refers to the increase in concentration of a pollutant in an organism. It usually occurs when an organism ingests a particular substance at a faster rate than it can metabolize or excrete. For bioaccumulation to occur: The pollutant must be long-lived: Pollutants must be persistent in the environment, meaning they do not readily break down or degrade over time. Persistent pollutants have a longer residence time in ecosystems, allowing them to accumulate in organisms over time. Mobile: Pollutants must be mobile and available for uptake by organisms. They may be present in air, water, or soil and must have the ability to move through the environment and enter the food chain. Soluble in fats: Pollutants should be lipophilic, meaning they are soluble in fats or lipids. Lipophilic pollutants tend to accumulate in the fatty tissues of organisms rather than being excreted, leading to their bioaccumulation in higher trophic levels. If the pollutant is soluble in water, it will be excreted by the organism. Biologically active: Biologically active pollutants may have chemical structures that are resistant to metabolism or breakdown by the organism’s metabolic pathways. This resistance to metabolism allows the pollutants to persist in the organism’s tissues for longer periods, leading to their accumulation over time. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Bioaccumulation refers to the increase in concentration of a pollutant in an organism. It usually occurs when an organism ingests a particular substance at a faster rate than it can metabolize or excrete. For bioaccumulation to occur: The pollutant must be long-lived: Pollutants must be persistent in the environment, meaning they do not readily break down or degrade over time. Persistent pollutants have a longer residence time in ecosystems, allowing them to accumulate in organisms over time. Mobile: Pollutants must be mobile and available for uptake by organisms. They may be present in air, water, or soil and must have the ability to move through the environment and enter the food chain. Soluble in fats: Pollutants should be lipophilic, meaning they are soluble in fats or lipids. Lipophilic pollutants tend to accumulate in the fatty tissues of organisms rather than being excreted, leading to their bioaccumulation in higher trophic levels. If the pollutant is soluble in water, it will be excreted by the organism. Biologically active: Biologically active pollutants may have chemical structures that are resistant to metabolism or breakdown by the organism’s metabolic pathways. This resistance to metabolism allows the pollutants to persist in the organism’s tissues for longer periods, leading to their accumulation over time. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 17. Question

What characteristic of pollutants is/are essential for their bioaccumulation in organisms?

• Soluble in water

• Long-lived and mobile

• Biologically active

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Bioaccumulation refers to the increase in concentration of a pollutant in an organism. It usually occurs when an organism ingests a particular substance at a faster rate than it can metabolize or excrete.

• For bioaccumulation to occur:

• The pollutant must be long-lived: Pollutants must be persistent in the environment, meaning they do not readily break down or degrade over time. Persistent pollutants have a longer residence time in ecosystems, allowing them to accumulate in organisms over time.

• Mobile: Pollutants must be mobile and available for uptake by organisms. They may be present in air, water, or soil and must have the ability to move through the environment and enter the food chain.

• Soluble in fats: Pollutants should be lipophilic, meaning they are soluble in fats or lipids. Lipophilic pollutants tend to accumulate in the fatty tissues of organisms rather than being excreted, leading to their bioaccumulation in higher trophic levels. If the pollutant is soluble in water, it will be excreted by the organism.

• Biologically active: Biologically active pollutants may have chemical structures that are resistant to metabolism or breakdown by the organism’s metabolic pathways. This resistance to metabolism allows the pollutants to persist in the organism’s tissues for longer periods, leading to their accumulation over time.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• For bioaccumulation to occur:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Elephants, with their large size and weight, can harm small rodents and other ground-dwelling animals by trampling their burrows or habitats while moving through their territory. This is an example of: a) Commensalism b) Amensalism c) Competition d) Predation Correct Answer: b Explanation: Amensalism is a type of negative relationship between two organisms where one organism is harmed while the other is unaffected. For example; Elephants, with their large size and weight, can unintentionally harm small rodents and other ground-dwelling animals by trampling their burrows or habitats while moving through their territory. The rodents are negatively impacted by the disturbance caused by the elephants, while the elephants remain unaffected. In Commensalism one of the species benefits while the other is neither harmed nor benefited. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Amensalism is a type of negative relationship between two organisms where one organism is harmed while the other is unaffected. For example; Elephants, with their large size and weight, can unintentionally harm small rodents and other ground-dwelling animals by trampling their burrows or habitats while moving through their territory. The rodents are negatively impacted by the disturbance caused by the elephants, while the elephants remain unaffected. In Commensalism one of the species benefits while the other is neither harmed nor benefited. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 18. Question

Elephants, with their large size and weight, can harm small rodents and other ground-dwelling animals by trampling their burrows or habitats while moving through their territory. This is an example of:

• a) Commensalism

• b) Amensalism

• c) Competition

• d) Predation

Explanation:

• Amensalism is a type of negative relationship between two organisms where one organism is harmed while the other is unaffected.

• For example; Elephants, with their large size and weight, can unintentionally harm small rodents and other ground-dwelling animals by trampling their burrows or habitats while moving through their territory. The rodents are negatively impacted by the disturbance caused by the elephants, while the elephants remain unaffected.

• In Commensalism one of the species benefits while the other is neither harmed nor benefited.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Amensalism is a type of negative relationship between two organisms where one organism is harmed while the other is unaffected.

• In Commensalism one of the species benefits while the other is neither harmed nor benefited.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following: A new landmass emerging out of the ocean due to volcanic eruption. A barren land after forest fire Sand dunes in a desert Area of glacial retreat In how many of the above does primary succession takes place? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Primary succession refers to the process of ecological succession that occurs in an area where no previous community existed, such as newly formed land or areas that have been completely devoid of life. Primary succession takes place over a bare or unoccupied area such as rocks outcrop, newly formed deltas and sand dunes, emerging volcano islands and lava flows as well as glacial moraines (muddy area exposed by a retreating glacier) where no community has existed previously. The plants that invade first bare land, where soil is initially absent are called pioneer species. The assemblage of pioneer plants is collectively called pioneer community. Examples of primary succession: Volcanic Islands: When a volcano erupts underwater, it creates new landmasses in the form of volcanic islands. The initial stages of colonization on these islands involve the establishment of pioneer species such as algae, lichens, and mosses. Over time, these pioneer species contribute to soil formation through their decomposition, eventually paving the way for the colonization of other plant species. Sand Dunes: Coastal sand dunes are constantly shifting landscapes shaped by wind and waves. In areas where sand dunes are formed, primary succession begins with the colonization of pioneer species such as beach grasses, lichens, and mosses. These species help stabilize the sand dunes and trap sand particles, creating a more hospitable environment for the establishment of other plant species and eventually leading to the development of diverse dune ecosystems. Glacial Retreat: As glaciers retreat due to climate change or other factors, they leave behind bare rock surfaces devoid of soil and vegetation. Over time, pioneer species such as lichens and mosses colonize these barren landscapes, gradually breaking down the rock and contributing to soil formation. Eventually, more complex plant communities, including grasses, shrubs, and trees, establish themselves in the area. Rocky Outcrops: Barren rocky outcrops, such as those found in mountainous regions or arid environments, provide opportunities for primary succession to occur. Pioneer species such as lichens and mosses colonize the exposed rock surfaces, gradually breaking down the rock and contributing to soil formation. Over time, more complex plant communities establish themselves, transforming the rocky outcrops into diverse ecosystems capable of supporting a variety of plant and animal life. Secondary succession refers to the process of ecological succession that occurs in an area where an existing community has been partially or completely destroyed, but the soil remains intact. Forest Fires leads to secondary succession. After a forest fire, the soil remains intact, allowing for the regeneration of plant life. Pioneer species such as grasses, herbs, and shrubs quickly colonize the burned area. Over time, these early colonizers create suitable conditions for the establishment of more shade-tolerant species, such as small trees and saplings. Eventually, the forest undergoes succession, with larger trees replacing the initial colonizers, leading to the restoration of a mature forest ecosystem. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Primary succession refers to the process of ecological succession that occurs in an area where no previous community existed, such as newly formed land or areas that have been completely devoid of life. Primary succession takes place over a bare or unoccupied area such as rocks outcrop, newly formed deltas and sand dunes, emerging volcano islands and lava flows as well as glacial moraines (muddy area exposed by a retreating glacier) where no community has existed previously. The plants that invade first bare land, where soil is initially absent are called pioneer species. The assemblage of pioneer plants is collectively called pioneer community. Examples of primary succession: Volcanic Islands: When a volcano erupts underwater, it creates new landmasses in the form of volcanic islands. The initial stages of colonization on these islands involve the establishment of pioneer species such as algae, lichens, and mosses. Over time, these pioneer species contribute to soil formation through their decomposition, eventually paving the way for the colonization of other plant species. Sand Dunes: Coastal sand dunes are constantly shifting landscapes shaped by wind and waves. In areas where sand dunes are formed, primary succession begins with the colonization of pioneer species such as beach grasses, lichens, and mosses. These species help stabilize the sand dunes and trap sand particles, creating a more hospitable environment for the establishment of other plant species and eventually leading to the development of diverse dune ecosystems. Glacial Retreat: As glaciers retreat due to climate change or other factors, they leave behind bare rock surfaces devoid of soil and vegetation. Over time, pioneer species such as lichens and mosses colonize these barren landscapes, gradually breaking down the rock and contributing to soil formation. Eventually, more complex plant communities, including grasses, shrubs, and trees, establish themselves in the area. Rocky Outcrops: Barren rocky outcrops, such as those found in mountainous regions or arid environments, provide opportunities for primary succession to occur. Pioneer species such as lichens and mosses colonize the exposed rock surfaces, gradually breaking down the rock and contributing to soil formation. Over time, more complex plant communities establish themselves, transforming the rocky outcrops into diverse ecosystems capable of supporting a variety of plant and animal life. Secondary succession refers to the process of ecological succession that occurs in an area where an existing community has been partially or completely destroyed, but the soil remains intact. Forest Fires leads to secondary succession. After a forest fire, the soil remains intact, allowing for the regeneration of plant life. Pioneer species such as grasses, herbs, and shrubs quickly colonize the burned area. Over time, these early colonizers create suitable conditions for the establishment of more shade-tolerant species, such as small trees and saplings. Eventually, the forest undergoes succession, with larger trees replacing the initial colonizers, leading to the restoration of a mature forest ecosystem. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 19. Question

Consider the following:

• A new landmass emerging out of the ocean due to volcanic eruption.

• A barren land after forest fire

• Sand dunes in a desert

• Area of glacial retreat

In how many of the above does primary succession takes place?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Explanation:

• Primary succession refers to the process of ecological succession that occurs in an area where no previous community existed, such as newly formed land or areas that have been completely devoid of life.

• Primary succession takes place over a bare or unoccupied area such as rocks outcrop, newly formed deltas and sand dunes, emerging volcano islands and lava flows as well as glacial moraines (muddy area exposed by a retreating glacier) where no community has existed previously.

• The plants that invade first bare land, where soil is initially absent are called pioneer species. The assemblage of pioneer plants is collectively called pioneer community.

• Examples of primary succession:

• Volcanic Islands: When a volcano erupts underwater, it creates new landmasses in the form of volcanic islands. The initial stages of colonization on these islands involve the establishment of pioneer species such as algae, lichens, and mosses. Over time, these pioneer species contribute to soil formation through their decomposition, eventually paving the way for the colonization of other plant species.

• Sand Dunes: Coastal sand dunes are constantly shifting landscapes shaped by wind and waves. In areas where sand dunes are formed, primary succession begins with the colonization of pioneer species such as beach grasses, lichens, and mosses. These species help stabilize the sand dunes and trap sand particles, creating a more hospitable environment for the establishment of other plant species and eventually leading to the development of diverse dune ecosystems.

• Glacial Retreat: As glaciers retreat due to climate change or other factors, they leave behind bare rock surfaces devoid of soil and vegetation. Over time, pioneer species such as lichens and mosses colonize these barren landscapes, gradually breaking down the rock and contributing to soil formation. Eventually, more complex plant communities, including grasses, shrubs, and trees, establish themselves in the area.

• Rocky Outcrops: Barren rocky outcrops, such as those found in mountainous regions or arid environments, provide opportunities for primary succession to occur. Pioneer species such as lichens and mosses colonize the exposed rock surfaces, gradually breaking down the rock and contributing to soil formation. Over time, more complex plant communities establish themselves, transforming the rocky outcrops into diverse ecosystems capable of supporting a variety of plant and animal life.

• Secondary succession refers to the process of ecological succession that occurs in an area where an existing community has been partially or completely destroyed, but the soil remains intact.

• Forest Fires leads to secondary succession. After a forest fire, the soil remains intact, allowing for the regeneration of plant life. Pioneer species such as grasses, herbs, and shrubs quickly colonize the burned area. Over time, these early colonizers create suitable conditions for the establishment of more shade-tolerant species, such as small trees and saplings. Eventually, the forest undergoes succession, with larger trees replacing the initial colonizers, leading to the restoration of a mature forest ecosystem.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• The plants that invade first bare land, where soil is initially absent are called pioneer species. The assemblage of pioneer plants is collectively called pioneer community.

• Examples of primary succession:

• Secondary succession refers to the process of ecological succession that occurs in an area where an existing community has been partially or completely destroyed, but the soil remains intact.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the term ‘trophic Cascading’? a) Small changes that take place in the body of a single organism over short periods, to overcome small problems due to changes in the surrounding. b) An ecological phenomenon triggered by the addition or removal of top predators and reciprocal changes in the population of the prey. c) A process by which the structure of a biological community evolves over time. d) The ways in which an element moves between its several biotic and abiotic forms. Correct Answer: b Explanation: Trophic cascading refers to the indirect effects of changes in the population size or behaviour of organisms at one trophic level on the populations or dynamics of organisms at other trophic levels within an ecosystem. These effects can propagate up or down the food chain, influencing the structure and functioning of entire ecosystems. Trophic cascades occur when changes in the abundance or behaviour of organisms at one trophic level lead to subsequent changes in the abundance or behaviour of organisms at other trophic levels. These effects can result from direct interactions, such as predation or competition, as well as indirect interactions mediated by species interactions, habitat modification, or ecosystem processes. Examples: A classic example of trophic cascading involves predators controlling herbivore populations, which in turn influence plant abundance and community composition. For instance, an increase in the population of top predators like wolves can lead to a decrease in the population of herbivores like deer. This reduction in herbivore abundance can alleviate grazing pressure on vegetation, promoting the growth of plant species favoured by herbivores. As a result, plant diversity and abundance may increase, with cascading effects on other trophic levels, such as insects and small mammals that depend on these plants for food and habitat. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Trophic cascading refers to the indirect effects of changes in the population size or behaviour of organisms at one trophic level on the populations or dynamics of organisms at other trophic levels within an ecosystem. These effects can propagate up or down the food chain, influencing the structure and functioning of entire ecosystems. Trophic cascades occur when changes in the abundance or behaviour of organisms at one trophic level lead to subsequent changes in the abundance or behaviour of organisms at other trophic levels. These effects can result from direct interactions, such as predation or competition, as well as indirect interactions mediated by species interactions, habitat modification, or ecosystem processes. Examples: A classic example of trophic cascading involves predators controlling herbivore populations, which in turn influence plant abundance and community composition. For instance, an increase in the population of top predators like wolves can lead to a decrease in the population of herbivores like deer. This reduction in herbivore abundance can alleviate grazing pressure on vegetation, promoting the growth of plant species favoured by herbivores. As a result, plant diversity and abundance may increase, with cascading effects on other trophic levels, such as insects and small mammals that depend on these plants for food and habitat. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 20. Question

Which of the following best describes the term ‘trophic Cascading’?

• a) Small changes that take place in the body of a single organism over short periods, to overcome small problems due to changes in the surrounding.

• b) An ecological phenomenon triggered by the addition or removal of top predators and reciprocal changes in the population of the prey.

• c) A process by which the structure of a biological community evolves over time.

• d) The ways in which an element moves between its several biotic and abiotic forms.

Explanation:

• Trophic cascading refers to the indirect effects of changes in the population size or behaviour of organisms at one trophic level on the populations or dynamics of organisms at other trophic levels within an ecosystem. These effects can propagate up or down the food chain, influencing the structure and functioning of entire ecosystems.

• Trophic cascades occur when changes in the abundance or behaviour of organisms at one trophic level lead to subsequent changes in the abundance or behaviour of organisms at other trophic levels.

• These effects can result from direct interactions, such as predation or competition, as well as indirect interactions mediated by species interactions, habitat modification, or ecosystem processes.

• Examples: A classic example of trophic cascading involves predators controlling herbivore populations, which in turn influence plant abundance and community composition. For instance, an increase in the population of top predators like wolves can lead to a decrease in the population of herbivores like deer. This reduction in herbivore abundance can alleviate grazing pressure on vegetation, promoting the growth of plant species favoured by herbivores. As a result, plant diversity and abundance may increase, with cascading effects on other trophic levels, such as insects and small mammals that depend on these plants for food and habitat.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points The Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006, is the governing legal instrument to grant green clearance for the establishment or expansion of an industry on the basis of the expected environmental impact of the project. It primarily categorises projects, for clearance purposes, based on which of these criteria? Magnitude of their scale Impact on natural and artificial resources Community-driven or private Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: a) Learning: The EIA Notification 2006 essentially attempted to de- centralise power to the State Government. For this purpose, the rules categorize the projects into two categories – A and B, on the basis of the magnitude of their scale and impact on the natural and artificial resources. Under this Notification, the environmental clearance process undergoes four stages, namely, screening, scoping, public consultation, and appraisal stages. With further amendments, including in 2020, the EIA Notification underwent several changes with some features meeting the objectives and some diluting the purpose. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important legislations Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: a) Learning: The EIA Notification 2006 essentially attempted to de- centralise power to the State Government. For this purpose, the rules categorize the projects into two categories – A and B, on the basis of the magnitude of their scale and impact on the natural and artificial resources. Under this Notification, the environmental clearance process undergoes four stages, namely, screening, scoping, public consultation, and appraisal stages. With further amendments, including in 2020, the EIA Notification underwent several changes with some features meeting the objectives and some diluting the purpose. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important legislations Approach: applied knowledge

#### 21. Question

The Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006, is the governing legal instrument to grant green clearance for the establishment or expansion of an industry on the basis of the expected environmental impact of the project. It primarily categorises projects, for clearance purposes, based on which of these criteria?

• Magnitude of their scale

• Impact on natural and artificial resources

• Community-driven or private

Which of the above is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

Learning: The EIA Notification 2006 essentially attempted to de- centralise power to the State Government.

• For this purpose, the rules categorize the projects into two categories – A and B, on the basis of the magnitude of their scale and impact on the natural and artificial resources.

• Under this Notification, the environmental clearance process undergoes four stages, namely, screening, scoping, public consultation, and appraisal stages.

• With further amendments, including in 2020, the EIA Notification underwent several changes with some features meeting the objectives and some diluting the purpose.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: a)

Learning: The EIA Notification 2006 essentially attempted to de- centralise power to the State Government.

• For this purpose, the rules categorize the projects into two categories – A and B, on the basis of the magnitude of their scale and impact on the natural and artificial resources.

• Under this Notification, the environmental clearance process undergoes four stages, namely, screening, scoping, public consultation, and appraisal stages.

• With further amendments, including in 2020, the EIA Notification underwent several changes with some features meeting the objectives and some diluting the purpose.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Gondwana Coal Fields are predominantly found in which of these regions of India? a) Eastern India b) Northern India c) North-eastern India d) Southern tip of the Indian Peninsula Correct Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Distribution of hydrocarbons Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Distribution of hydrocarbons Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 22. Question

Gondwana Coal Fields are predominantly found in which of these regions of India?

• a) Eastern India

• b) Northern India

• c) North-eastern India

• d) Southern tip of the Indian Peninsula

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Distribution of hydrocarbons

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Distribution of hydrocarbons

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) involves injecting tiny reflecting particles into the upper atmosphere to cool the earth. Marine cloud brightening (MCB) uses sea salt to stimulate cloud formation over the ocean, which can help reflect sunlight in the region. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Global warming/climate change Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Global warming/climate change Approach: applied knowledge

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) involves injecting tiny reflecting particles into the upper atmosphere to cool the earth.

• Marine cloud brightening (MCB) uses sea salt to stimulate cloud formation over the ocean, which can help reflect sunlight in the region.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Global warming/climate change

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Global warming/climate change

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following about IN-SPACe. It acts as the primary single-point interface between Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It was launched, as an agency under the Department of Space, Government of India, to provide a level playing field for private companies to use Indian space infrastructure. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Justification: IN-SPACe is India’s single-window autonomous agency under the Department of Space, responsible for promoting and authorizing various space activities for non-governmental entities (NGEs). It was launched in 2020 to provide a level playing field for private companies to use Indian space infrastructure. It acts as a single-point interface between Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), and everyone who wants to participate in space-related activities or use India’s space resources. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: National Bodies/institutions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: IN-SPACe is India’s single-window autonomous agency under the Department of Space, responsible for promoting and authorizing various space activities for non-governmental entities (NGEs). It was launched in 2020 to provide a level playing field for private companies to use Indian space infrastructure. It acts as a single-point interface between Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), and everyone who wants to participate in space-related activities or use India’s space resources. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: National Bodies/institutions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 24. Question

Consider the following about IN-SPACe.

• It acts as the primary single-point interface between Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

• It was launched, as an agency under the Department of Space, Government of India, to provide a level playing field for private companies to use Indian space infrastructure.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Justification: IN-SPACe is India’s single-window autonomous agency under the Department of Space, responsible for promoting and authorizing various space activities for non-governmental entities (NGEs).

It was launched in 2020 to provide a level playing field for private companies to use Indian space infrastructure.

It acts as a single-point interface between Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), and everyone who wants to participate in space-related activities or use India’s space resources.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: National Bodies/institutions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: b)

It was launched in 2020 to provide a level playing field for private companies to use Indian space infrastructure.

It acts as a single-point interface between Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), and everyone who wants to participate in space-related activities or use India’s space resources.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: National Bodies/institutions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of these international instruments have a bearing on Geographical Indication Tag? Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: GIs are covered under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property. Governed by the WTO’s Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). In India, the GI tag is regulated by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999. o Administered by the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trade Marks, who is also the Registrar of Geographical Indications. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: International conventions/treaties Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: GIs are covered under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property. Governed by the WTO’s Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). In India, the GI tag is regulated by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999. o Administered by the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trade Marks, who is also the Registrar of Geographical Indications. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: International conventions/treaties Approach: applied knowledge

#### 25. Question

Which of these international instruments have a bearing on Geographical Indication Tag?

• Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property

• Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: GIs are covered under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property.

• Governed by the WTO’s Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).

• In India, the GI tag is regulated by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.

o Administered by the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trade Marks, who is also the Registrar of Geographical Indications.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: International conventions/treaties

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: c)

Justification: GIs are covered under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property.

• Governed by the WTO’s Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).

• In India, the GI tag is regulated by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.

o Administered by the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trade Marks, who is also the Registrar of Geographical Indications.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: International conventions/treaties

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points The marked price of a Pant and a T-Shirt are in the ratio of 2 : 3. The shopkeeper gives 40% discount on the Pant. If the total discount on the Pant and the T-Shirt is 40% the discount offered on the T-Shirt is A. 28 (1/3) % B. 18 (2/3)% C. 26 (2/3) % D. None of these Correct Answer D) none of these Let the marked price of the pant be Rs. 200. Then marked price of T-Shirt will be Rs. 300. Discounted price of Pant = 200 × 60/100 = Rs. 120 Let the discounted price of T- Shirt be x. According to the question, 120 + x =( 60 /100) × (200 + 300) or, 120 + x = 300 or, x = 180 Discounted offered on the T – Shirt = ( 300 – 180)/300 × 100 = 40% Note: If overall discount is 40% and discount on one part is also 40% then naturally the discount on the second part is also 40%. Hence, option (D) is correct. Incorrect Answer D) none of these Let the marked price of the pant be Rs. 200. Then marked price of T-Shirt will be Rs. 300. Discounted price of Pant = 200 × 60/100 = Rs. 120 Let the discounted price of T- Shirt be x. According to the question, 120 + x =( 60 /100) × (200 + 300) or, 120 + x = 300 or, x = 180 Discounted offered on the T – Shirt = ( 300 – 180)/300 × 100 = 40% Note: If overall discount is 40% and discount on one part is also 40% then naturally the discount on the second part is also 40%. Hence, option (D) is correct.

#### 26. Question

The marked price of a Pant and a T-Shirt are in the ratio of 2 : 3. The shopkeeper gives 40% discount on the Pant. If the total discount on the Pant and the T-Shirt is 40% the discount offered on the T-Shirt is

• A. 28 (1/3) %

• B. 18 (2/3)%

• C. 26 (2/3) %

• D. None of these

Answer D) none of these

Let the marked price of the pant be Rs. 200.

Then marked price of T-Shirt will be Rs. 300. Discounted price of Pant = 200 × 60/100 = Rs. 120

Let the discounted price of T- Shirt be x. According to the question, 120 + x

=( 60 /100) × (200 + 300)

or, 120 + x = 300 or, x = 180

Discounted offered on the T – Shirt = ( 300 – 180)/300 × 100 = 40%

Note: If overall discount is 40% and discount on one part is also 40% then naturally the discount on the second part is also 40%.

Hence, option (D) is correct.

Answer D) none of these

Let the marked price of the pant be Rs. 200.

Then marked price of T-Shirt will be Rs. 300. Discounted price of Pant = 200 × 60/100 = Rs. 120

Let the discounted price of T- Shirt be x. According to the question, 120 + x

=( 60 /100) × (200 + 300)

or, 120 + x = 300 or, x = 180

Discounted offered on the T – Shirt = ( 300 – 180)/300 × 100 = 40%

Note: If overall discount is 40% and discount on one part is also 40% then naturally the discount on the second part is also 40%.

Hence, option (D) is correct.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points A merchant buys 80 articles, each at Rs. 40. He sells n of them at a profit of n% and the remaining at a profit of (100 – n)%. What is the minimum profit the merchant could have made on this trade? a) Rs. 2160 b) Rs. 1420 c) Rs. 1580 d) Rs. 2210 Correct Answer C) Rs.1580 Form the equation and you are through. CP = 80 × 40 Profit from the n objects = n% × 40 × n. Profit from the remaining objects = (100 – n)% × 40 × (80 – n). We need to find the minimum possible value of n% × 40 × n + (100 – n)% × 40 × (80 – n). Or, we need to find the minimum possible value of n2 + (100 – n) (80 – n). Minimum of n2 + n2 – 180n + 8000 Minimum of n2 – 90n + 4000 Minimum of n2 – 90n + 2025 – 2025 + 4000 We add and subtract 2025 to this expression in order to crate an expression that can be expressed as a perfect square. This approach is termed as the “Completion of Squares” approach. We keep revisiting this in multiple chapters. Minimum of n2 – 90n + 2025 + 1975 = (n – 45) 2 + 1975 This reaches minimum when n = 45. When n = 45, the minimum profit made 45% × 40 × 45 + 55% × 40 × 35 18 × 45 + 22 × 35 = 810 + 770 = 1580 Hence, the answer is Rs. 1580. Incorrect Answer C) Rs.1580 Form the equation and you are through. CP = 80 × 40 Profit from the n objects = n% × 40 × n. Profit from the remaining objects = (100 – n)% × 40 × (80 – n). We need to find the minimum possible value of n% × 40 × n + (100 – n)% × 40 × (80 – n). Or, we need to find the minimum possible value of n2 + (100 – n) (80 – n). Minimum of n2 + n2 – 180n + 8000 Minimum of n2 – 90n + 4000 Minimum of n2 – 90n + 2025 – 2025 + 4000 We add and subtract 2025 to this expression in order to crate an expression that can be expressed as a perfect square. This approach is termed as the “Completion of Squares” approach. We keep revisiting this in multiple chapters. Minimum of n2 – 90n + 2025 + 1975 = (n – 45) 2 + 1975 This reaches minimum when n = 45. When n = 45, the minimum profit made 45% × 40 × 45 + 55% × 40 × 35 18 × 45 + 22 × 35 = 810 + 770 = 1580 Hence, the answer is Rs. 1580.

#### 27. Question

A merchant buys 80 articles, each at Rs. 40. He sells n of them at a profit of n% and the remaining at a profit of (100 – n)%. What is the minimum profit the merchant could have made on this trade?

• a) Rs. 2160

• b) Rs. 1420

• c) Rs. 1580

• d) Rs. 2210

Answer C) Rs.1580

Form the equation and you are through.

CP = 80 × 40

Profit from the n objects = n% × 40 × n.

Profit from the remaining objects = (100 – n)% × 40 × (80 – n).

We need to find the minimum possible value of n% × 40 × n + (100 – n)% × 40 × (80 – n).

Or, we need to find the minimum possible value of n2 + (100 – n) (80 – n).

Minimum of n2 + n2 – 180n + 8000

Minimum of n2 – 90n + 4000

Minimum of n2 – 90n + 2025 – 2025 + 4000

We add and subtract 2025 to this expression in order to crate an expression that can be expressed as a perfect square.

This approach is termed as the “Completion of Squares” approach. We keep revisiting this in multiple chapters.

Minimum of n2 – 90n + 2025 + 1975 = (n – 45) 2 + 1975

This reaches minimum when n = 45.

When n = 45, the minimum profit made

45% × 40 × 45 + 55% × 40 × 35

18 × 45 + 22 × 35 = 810 + 770 = 1580

Hence, the answer is Rs. 1580.

Answer C) Rs.1580

Form the equation and you are through.

CP = 80 × 40

Profit from the n objects = n% × 40 × n.

Profit from the remaining objects = (100 – n)% × 40 × (80 – n).

We need to find the minimum possible value of n% × 40 × n + (100 – n)% × 40 × (80 – n).

Or, we need to find the minimum possible value of n2 + (100 – n) (80 – n).

Minimum of n2 + n2 – 180n + 8000

Minimum of n2 – 90n + 4000

Minimum of n2 – 90n + 2025 – 2025 + 4000

We add and subtract 2025 to this expression in order to crate an expression that can be expressed as a perfect square.

This approach is termed as the “Completion of Squares” approach. We keep revisiting this in multiple chapters.

Minimum of n2 – 90n + 2025 + 1975 = (n – 45) 2 + 1975

This reaches minimum when n = 45.

When n = 45, the minimum profit made

45% × 40 × 45 + 55% × 40 × 35

18 × 45 + 22 × 35 = 810 + 770 = 1580

Hence, the answer is Rs. 1580.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Abhi and Dairya started a business investing Rs. 22,500 and Rs. 35,000 respectively. Out of a total profit of Rs. 13,800, Dairya’s share is : A) 8400 B) 8200 C) 8100 D) 8000 Correct Answer: A) 8400 Explanation: Ratio of their shares = 22500 : 35000 = 9 : 14. Dairya’s share = Rs. (13800 14/23) = Rs. 8400. Incorrect Answer: A) 8400 Explanation: Ratio of their shares = 22500 : 35000 = 9 : 14. Dairya’s share = Rs. (13800 14/23) = Rs. 8400.

#### 28. Question

Abhi and Dairya started a business investing Rs. 22,500 and Rs. 35,000 respectively. Out of a total profit of Rs. 13,800, Dairya’s share is :

Answer: A) 8400

Explanation:

Ratio of their shares = 22500 : 35000 = 9 : 14.

Dairya’s share = Rs. (13800 * 14/23) = Rs. 8400.

Answer: A) 8400

Explanation:

Ratio of their shares = 22500 : 35000 = 9 : 14.

Dairya’s share = Rs. (13800 * 14/23) = Rs. 8400.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Evil, according to Arendt, becomes banal when it acquires an unthinking and systematic character. Evil becomes banal when ordinary people participate in it, build distance from it and justify it, in countless ways. There are no moral conundrums or revulsions. Evil does not even look like evil, it becomes faceless. Which of the following is the best explanation of the above passage? a) There are no evil people, only evil acts b) True evil is difficult to identify c) Evil becomes banal when people perform evil acts without critical reasoning d) Ordinary people participating in evil acts is much more dangerous Correct Solution: C A is wrong as the statement is completely unrelated to the passage. Same goes for Statement B. D is extraneous to the passage. Banality of Evil is the central concept being talked about in the passage which refers to the normalization of evil, when it becomes a part of system and people perform evil acts in the absence of critical reasoning. Hence C. Incorrect Solution: C A is wrong as the statement is completely unrelated to the passage. Same goes for Statement B. D is extraneous to the passage. Banality of Evil is the central concept being talked about in the passage which refers to the normalization of evil, when it becomes a part of system and people perform evil acts in the absence of critical reasoning. Hence C.

#### 29. Question

Evil, according to Arendt, becomes banal when it acquires an unthinking and systematic character. Evil becomes banal when ordinary people participate in it, build distance from it and justify it, in countless ways. There are no moral conundrums or revulsions. Evil does not even look like evil, it becomes faceless.

Which of the following is the best explanation of the above passage?

• a) There are no evil people, only evil acts

• b) True evil is difficult to identify

• c) Evil becomes banal when people perform evil acts without critical reasoning

• d) Ordinary people participating in evil acts is much more dangerous

Solution: C

A is wrong as the statement is completely unrelated to the passage. Same goes for Statement B. D is extraneous to the passage. Banality of Evil is the central concept being talked about in the passage which refers to the normalization of evil, when it becomes a part of system and people perform evil acts in the absence of critical reasoning. Hence C.

Solution: C

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points If ‘right to life’ is accepted to be a concrete doctrine, then providing adequate social security — defined as supporting the people against the risks and costs of sickness, unemployment, old age, accident, maternity and disability – cannot be outside the government’s top priorities. Without that help, human life turns miserable, and the right to life – guaranteed by Article 21 of our Constitution, by the directive principles of state policy enshrined in it, and by international mandates like the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights becomes an empty slogan; ornamental in nature, useful only for nations to brag about their magnanimity. Which of the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage? a) Constitutional safeguard to right to life is a necessary and sufficient condition to ensure social security b) Without direct government support, rights lose their meaning c) International covenants do not hold much value in domestic policy making d) Nations are not worried about implementation of fundamental rights Correct Solution: B The passage conveys the message that rights guaranteed in constitution and international covenants are merely ornamental in nature if the government of the day is not serious about implementing them. Hence B. Incorrect Solution: B The passage conveys the message that rights guaranteed in constitution and international covenants are merely ornamental in nature if the government of the day is not serious about implementing them. Hence B.

#### 30. Question

If ‘right to life’ is accepted to be a concrete doctrine, then providing adequate social security — defined as supporting the people against the risks and costs of sickness, unemployment, old age, accident, maternity and disability – cannot be outside the government’s top priorities. Without that help, human life turns miserable, and the right to life – guaranteed by Article 21 of our Constitution, by the directive principles of state policy enshrined in it, and by international mandates like the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights becomes an empty slogan; ornamental in nature, useful only for nations to brag about their magnanimity.

Which of the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage?

• a) Constitutional safeguard to right to life is a necessary and sufficient condition to ensure social security

• b) Without direct government support, rights lose their meaning

• c) International covenants do not hold much value in domestic policy making

• d) Nations are not worried about implementation of fundamental rights

Solution: B

The passage conveys the message that rights guaranteed in constitution and international covenants are merely ornamental in nature if the government of the day is not serious about implementing them. Hence B.