DAY – 16 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points With reference to critically endangered species in India, which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (a) Caracal - Western Ghats (b) Golden Langur - Palani Hills (c) Hoolock Gibbon - North-East India (d) Lion-tailed macaque – Sundarbans Correct Solution: C While caracals are found in some parts of India, their primary habitats are arid and semi-arid regions, like Rajasthan and Gujarat, and parts of central india. Although there has been reports of sightings within the western ghats, it is not their main habitat. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched Golden langurs are primarily found in Assam and neighbouring areas of Bhutan. The Palani Hills are located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Hoolock gibbons inhabit the tropical evergreen rainforests of North-East India. Specifically, they are found in states like Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Manipur, and Tripura. Their range also extends into parts of Bangladesh and Myanmar. They are arboreal, meaning they primarily live in trees. Habitat loss due to deforestation is a major threat to their survival. They are a critically endangered species. There are western and eastern hoolock gibbons. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. Lion-tailed macaques are endemic to the Western Ghats. The Sundarbans are a mangrove area in the delta of the Ganges, located in West Bengal, India, and Bangladesh. Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched. Incorrect Solution: C While caracals are found in some parts of India, their primary habitats are arid and semi-arid regions, like Rajasthan and Gujarat, and parts of central india. Although there has been reports of sightings within the western ghats, it is not their main habitat. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched Golden langurs are primarily found in Assam and neighbouring areas of Bhutan. The Palani Hills are located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Hoolock gibbons inhabit the tropical evergreen rainforests of North-East India. Specifically, they are found in states like Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Manipur, and Tripura. Their range also extends into parts of Bangladesh and Myanmar. They are arboreal, meaning they primarily live in trees. Habitat loss due to deforestation is a major threat to their survival. They are a critically endangered species. There are western and eastern hoolock gibbons. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. Lion-tailed macaques are endemic to the Western Ghats. The Sundarbans are a mangrove area in the delta of the Ganges, located in West Bengal, India, and Bangladesh. Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

#### 1. Question

With reference to critically endangered species in India, which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

• (a) Caracal - Western Ghats

• (b) Golden Langur - Palani Hills

• (c) Hoolock Gibbon - North-East India

• (d) Lion-tailed macaque – Sundarbans

Solution: C

While caracals are found in some parts of India, their primary habitats are arid and semi-arid regions, like Rajasthan and Gujarat, and parts of central india. Although there has been reports of sightings within the western ghats, it is not their main habitat.

Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched

Golden langurs are primarily found in Assam and neighbouring areas of Bhutan. The Palani Hills are located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu.

Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

• Hoolock gibbons inhabit the tropical evergreen rainforests of North-East India.

• Specifically, they are found in states like Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Manipur, and Tripura.

• Their range also extends into parts of Bangladesh and Myanmar.

• They are arboreal, meaning they primarily live in trees.

• Habitat loss due to deforestation is a major threat to their survival.

• They are a critically endangered species.

• There are western and eastern hoolock gibbons.

Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Lion-tailed macaques are endemic to the Western Ghats. The Sundarbans are a mangrove area in the delta of the Ganges, located in West Bengal, India, and Bangladesh.

Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

Solution: C

Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched

Golden langurs are primarily found in Assam and neighbouring areas of Bhutan. The Palani Hills are located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu.

Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

• Hoolock gibbons inhabit the tropical evergreen rainforests of North-East India.

• Specifically, they are found in states like Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Manipur, and Tripura.

• Their range also extends into parts of Bangladesh and Myanmar.

• They are arboreal, meaning they primarily live in trees.

• Habitat loss due to deforestation is a major threat to their survival.

• They are a critically endangered species.

• There are western and eastern hoolock gibbons.

Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Lion-tailed macaques are endemic to the Western Ghats. The Sundarbans are a mangrove area in the delta of the Ganges, located in West Bengal, India, and Bangladesh.

Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Biological Diversity Act, 2002, mandates prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) for foreign entities to use Indian biological resources. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, includes provisions for declaring Community Reserves but excludes private land ownership in such areas. The Forest Rights Act, 2006, overrides the Indian Forest Act, 1927, in matters of tribal land rights within protected areas. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Biological Diversity Act, 2002, was enacted to conserve biological diversity, ensure equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of biological resources, and manage access to these resources. A core provision of the Act is that foreign individuals, companies, or organizations must obtain prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) before accessing Indian biological resources for research or commercial purposes. This is to ensure that India’s biodiversity is not exploited without proper regulation and that benefits are shared with local communities. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides for the creation of protected areas, including National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Community Reserves. Community Reserves were added as a category to the Act in 2002 to facilitate community participation in wildlife conservation. Crucially, Community Reserves can include private land. The act allows for the inclusion of private land with the consent of the owner. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (Forest Rights Act or FRA), was enacted to recognize and vest forest rights and occupation in forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers who have been residing in such forests for generations. The FRA specifically addresses historical injustices faced by these communities and aims to secure their rights to land and resources. The FRA does override the Indian Forest Act, 1927, in matters relating to the rights of scheduled tribes and other traditional forest dwellers. Specifically, the FRA grants rights that supersede any conflicting provisions in the earlier Indian Forest Act, 1927, regarding tribal land rights within protected areas. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The Biological Diversity Act, 2002, was enacted to conserve biological diversity, ensure equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of biological resources, and manage access to these resources. A core provision of the Act is that foreign individuals, companies, or organizations must obtain prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) before accessing Indian biological resources for research or commercial purposes. This is to ensure that India’s biodiversity is not exploited without proper regulation and that benefits are shared with local communities. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides for the creation of protected areas, including National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Community Reserves. Community Reserves were added as a category to the Act in 2002 to facilitate community participation in wildlife conservation. Crucially, Community Reserves can include private land. The act allows for the inclusion of private land with the consent of the owner. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (Forest Rights Act or FRA), was enacted to recognize and vest forest rights and occupation in forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers who have been residing in such forests for generations. The FRA specifically addresses historical injustices faced by these communities and aims to secure their rights to land and resources. The FRA does override the Indian Forest Act, 1927, in matters relating to the rights of scheduled tribes and other traditional forest dwellers. Specifically, the FRA grants rights that supersede any conflicting provisions in the earlier Indian Forest Act, 1927, regarding tribal land rights within protected areas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Biological Diversity Act, 2002, mandates prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) for foreign entities to use Indian biological resources.

• The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, includes provisions for declaring Community Reserves but excludes private land ownership in such areas.

• The Forest Rights Act, 2006, overrides the Indian Forest Act, 1927, in matters of tribal land rights within protected areas.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The Biological Diversity Act, 2002, was enacted to conserve biological diversity, ensure equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of biological resources, and manage access to these resources.

A core provision of the Act is that foreign individuals, companies, or organizations must obtain prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) before accessing Indian biological resources for research or commercial purposes. This is to ensure that India’s biodiversity is not exploited without proper regulation and that benefits are shared with local communities.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides for the creation of protected areas, including National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Community Reserves. Community Reserves were added as a category to the Act in 2002 to facilitate community participation in wildlife conservation. Crucially, Community Reserves can include private land. The act allows for the inclusion of private land with the consent of the owner.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (Forest Rights Act or FRA), was enacted to recognize and vest forest rights and occupation in forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers who have been residing in such forests for generations.

The FRA specifically addresses historical injustices faced by these communities and aims to secure their rights to land and resources. The FRA does override the Indian Forest Act, 1927, in matters relating to the rights of scheduled tribes and other traditional forest dwellers. Specifically, the FRA grants rights that supersede any conflicting provisions in the earlier Indian Forest Act, 1927, regarding tribal land rights within protected areas.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points With reference to the Montreux Record, which of the following statements is/are correct? It is a register of wetlands under the Ramsar Convention facing ecological threats. Chilika Lake was removed from the Record after successful restoration efforts. No Indian wetland currently features in this Record. Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: B The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance (Ramsar List) where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar Convention. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Chilika Lake in Odisha, India, was placed on the Montreux Record due to ecological degradation. However, through dedicated restoration efforts, its ecological health improved, and it was subsequently removed from the Record. Hence, statement 2 is correct. As of right now, Keoladeo National Park is currently on the Montreux record. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance (Ramsar List) where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar Convention. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Chilika Lake in Odisha, India, was placed on the Montreux Record due to ecological degradation. However, through dedicated restoration efforts, its ecological health improved, and it was subsequently removed from the Record. Hence, statement 2 is correct. As of right now, Keoladeo National Park is currently on the Montreux record. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Montreux Record, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• It is a register of wetlands under the Ramsar Convention facing ecological threats.

• Chilika Lake was removed from the Record after successful restoration efforts.

• No Indian wetland currently features in this Record.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: B

The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance (Ramsar List) where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar Convention.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Chilika Lake in Odisha, India, was placed on the Montreux Record due to ecological degradation. However, through dedicated restoration efforts, its ecological health improved, and it was subsequently removed from the Record.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

As of right now, Keoladeo National Park is currently on the Montreux record.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

As of right now, Keoladeo National Park is currently on the Montreux record.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Which of the following statements is correct regarding the recently discovered “White Hydrogen Deposits”? (a) White hydrogen deposits are a primary source of atmospheric methane, contributing significantly to global warming. (b) The extraction of white hydrogen yields large quantities of solid carbon byproducts, requiring extensive disposal sites. (c) White hydrogen deposits are formed through the direct conversion of nitrogen gas by photosynthetic bacteria within deep-sea vents. (d) White hydrogen deposits offer a potential source of clean energy, with water as the primary byproduct of its combustion. Correct Solution: D White hydrogen” is a term used to describe naturally occurring hydrogen gas found in the Earth’s crust. It’s generating significant interest as a potential clean energy source. It’s naturally produced hydrogen, unlike other forms of hydrogen that require industrial processes. It’s formed through geological processes, often involving reactions between water and certain minerals deep within the Earth. These reactions, particularly “serpentinization,” can generate substantial amounts of hydrogen. Key Characteristics and Potential: Clean Energy Potential: When hydrogen burns, its primary byproduct is water, making it a potentially very clean fuel. This offers the potential to significantly reduce greenhouse gas emissions compared to fossil fuels. Abundance: Early research suggests that white hydrogen deposits may be more abundant than previously thought. If economically extractable, this could be a game-changer for the clean energy sector. Cost-Effectiveness: Naturally occurring hydrogen could potentially be extracted at a lower cost than producing hydrogen through other methods. Challenges and Considerations: Exploration and Extraction: Locating and extracting white hydrogen deposits can be challenging due to the complex geological conditions involved. Techniques for efficient and safe extraction are still being developed. Environmental Concerns: There are concerns about potential hydrogen leaks, which could have unintended environmental consequences. The environmental impact of extraction needs to be carefully assessed. Infrastructure: Developing the infrastructure for transporting and storing hydrogen is a significant undertaking. Recent Developments: Recent discoveries, such as the large deposit found in the Lorraine region of France, have fuelled increased interest in white hydrogen. Research and exploration efforts are ongoing in various parts of the world. Incorrect Solution: D White hydrogen” is a term used to describe naturally occurring hydrogen gas found in the Earth’s crust. It’s generating significant interest as a potential clean energy source. It’s naturally produced hydrogen, unlike other forms of hydrogen that require industrial processes. It’s formed through geological processes, often involving reactions between water and certain minerals deep within the Earth. These reactions, particularly “serpentinization,” can generate substantial amounts of hydrogen. Key Characteristics and Potential: Clean Energy Potential: When hydrogen burns, its primary byproduct is water, making it a potentially very clean fuel. This offers the potential to significantly reduce greenhouse gas emissions compared to fossil fuels. Abundance: Early research suggests that white hydrogen deposits may be more abundant than previously thought. If economically extractable, this could be a game-changer for the clean energy sector. Cost-Effectiveness: Naturally occurring hydrogen could potentially be extracted at a lower cost than producing hydrogen through other methods. Challenges and Considerations: Exploration and Extraction: Locating and extracting white hydrogen deposits can be challenging due to the complex geological conditions involved. Techniques for efficient and safe extraction are still being developed. Environmental Concerns: There are concerns about potential hydrogen leaks, which could have unintended environmental consequences. The environmental impact of extraction needs to be carefully assessed. Infrastructure: Developing the infrastructure for transporting and storing hydrogen is a significant undertaking. Recent Developments: Recent discoveries, such as the large deposit found in the Lorraine region of France, have fuelled increased interest in white hydrogen. Research and exploration efforts are ongoing in various parts of the world.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the recently discovered “White Hydrogen Deposits”?

• (a) White hydrogen deposits are a primary source of atmospheric methane, contributing significantly to global warming.

• (b) The extraction of white hydrogen yields large quantities of solid carbon byproducts, requiring extensive disposal sites.

• (c) White hydrogen deposits are formed through the direct conversion of nitrogen gas by photosynthetic bacteria within deep-sea vents.

• (d) White hydrogen deposits offer a potential source of clean energy, with water as the primary byproduct of its combustion.

Solution: D

White hydrogen” is a term used to describe naturally occurring hydrogen gas found in the Earth’s crust. It’s generating significant interest as a potential clean energy source.

• It’s naturally produced hydrogen, unlike other forms of hydrogen that require industrial processes.

• It’s formed through geological processes, often involving reactions between water and certain minerals deep within the Earth.

• These reactions, particularly “serpentinization,” can generate substantial amounts of hydrogen.

Key Characteristics and Potential:

• Clean Energy Potential: When hydrogen burns, its primary byproduct is water, making it a potentially very clean fuel. This offers the potential to significantly reduce greenhouse gas emissions compared to fossil fuels.

• When hydrogen burns, its primary byproduct is water, making it a potentially very clean fuel.

• This offers the potential to significantly reduce greenhouse gas emissions compared to fossil fuels.

• Abundance: Early research suggests that white hydrogen deposits may be more abundant than previously thought. If economically extractable, this could be a game-changer for the clean energy sector.

• Early research suggests that white hydrogen deposits may be more abundant than previously thought.

• If economically extractable, this could be a game-changer for the clean energy sector.

• Cost-Effectiveness: Naturally occurring hydrogen could potentially be extracted at a lower cost than producing hydrogen through other methods.

• Naturally occurring hydrogen could potentially be extracted at a lower cost than producing hydrogen through other methods.

Challenges and Considerations:

• Exploration and Extraction: Locating and extracting white hydrogen deposits can be challenging due to the complex geological conditions involved. Techniques for efficient and safe extraction are still being developed.

• Locating and extracting white hydrogen deposits can be challenging due to the complex geological conditions involved.

• Techniques for efficient and safe extraction are still being developed.

• Environmental Concerns: There are concerns about potential hydrogen leaks, which could have unintended environmental consequences. The environmental impact of extraction needs to be carefully assessed.

• There are concerns about potential hydrogen leaks, which could have unintended environmental consequences.

• The environmental impact of extraction needs to be carefully assessed.

• Infrastructure: Developing the infrastructure for transporting and storing hydrogen is a significant undertaking.

• Developing the infrastructure for transporting and storing hydrogen is a significant undertaking.

Recent Developments:

• Recent discoveries, such as the large deposit found in the Lorraine region of France, have fuelled increased interest in white hydrogen.

• Research and exploration efforts are ongoing in various parts of the world.

Solution: D

White hydrogen” is a term used to describe naturally occurring hydrogen gas found in the Earth’s crust. It’s generating significant interest as a potential clean energy source.

• It’s naturally produced hydrogen, unlike other forms of hydrogen that require industrial processes.

• It’s formed through geological processes, often involving reactions between water and certain minerals deep within the Earth.

• These reactions, particularly “serpentinization,” can generate substantial amounts of hydrogen.

Key Characteristics and Potential:

• When hydrogen burns, its primary byproduct is water, making it a potentially very clean fuel.

• This offers the potential to significantly reduce greenhouse gas emissions compared to fossil fuels.

• Early research suggests that white hydrogen deposits may be more abundant than previously thought.

• If economically extractable, this could be a game-changer for the clean energy sector.

• Cost-Effectiveness: Naturally occurring hydrogen could potentially be extracted at a lower cost than producing hydrogen through other methods.

• Naturally occurring hydrogen could potentially be extracted at a lower cost than producing hydrogen through other methods.

Challenges and Considerations:

• Locating and extracting white hydrogen deposits can be challenging due to the complex geological conditions involved.

• Techniques for efficient and safe extraction are still being developed.

• There are concerns about potential hydrogen leaks, which could have unintended environmental consequences.

• The environmental impact of extraction needs to be carefully assessed.

• Infrastructure: Developing the infrastructure for transporting and storing hydrogen is a significant undertaking.

• Developing the infrastructure for transporting and storing hydrogen is a significant undertaking.

Recent Developments:

• Recent discoveries, such as the large deposit found in the Lorraine region of France, have fuelled increased interest in white hydrogen.

• Research and exploration efforts are ongoing in various parts of the world.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Ramsar Convention: India has the highest number of Ramsar sites in Asia. A wetland must demonstrate international importance for migratory birds to qualify as a Ramsar site. Urban wetlands cannot be designated as Ramsar sites. All tiger reserves with wetland ecosystems automatically qualify as Ramsar sites. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance, especially as Waterfowl Habitat, is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands. Its aim is to halt the worldwide loss of wetlands and to conserve those that remain through wise use and international cooperation. India currently has a very large number of Ramsar sites, and at this time, it does have the highest number in Asia. As of March India has 89 Ramsar sites, making it the country with the highest number in Asia. Hence, statement 1 is correct. While international importance for migratory birds is one criterion for designation, it is not the only one. Wetlands can also qualify based on their importance for other ecological, botanical, hydrological, or limnological factors. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Urban wetlands can and do qualify as Ramsar sites. The convention focuses on the ecological importance of wetlands, regardless of their location. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. While tiger reserves with wetlands can be nominated, they must still meet the Ramsar Convention’s criteria to be designated. Automatic qualification does not occur. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance, especially as Waterfowl Habitat, is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands. Its aim is to halt the worldwide loss of wetlands and to conserve those that remain through wise use and international cooperation. India currently has a very large number of Ramsar sites, and at this time, it does have the highest number in Asia. As of March India has 89 Ramsar sites, making it the country with the highest number in Asia. Hence, statement 1 is correct. While international importance for migratory birds is one criterion for designation, it is not the only one. Wetlands can also qualify based on their importance for other ecological, botanical, hydrological, or limnological factors. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Urban wetlands can and do qualify as Ramsar sites. The convention focuses on the ecological importance of wetlands, regardless of their location. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. While tiger reserves with wetlands can be nominated, they must still meet the Ramsar Convention’s criteria to be designated. Automatic qualification does not occur. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Ramsar Convention:

• India has the highest number of Ramsar sites in Asia.

• A wetland must demonstrate international importance for migratory birds to qualify as a Ramsar site.

• Urban wetlands cannot be designated as Ramsar sites.

• All tiger reserves with wetland ecosystems automatically qualify as Ramsar sites.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

Solution: A

The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance, especially as Waterfowl Habitat, is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands. Its aim is to halt the worldwide loss of wetlands and to conserve those that remain through wise use and international cooperation.

India currently has a very large number of Ramsar sites, and at this time, it does have the highest number in Asia. As of March India has 89 Ramsar sites, making it the country with the highest number in Asia.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

While international importance for migratory birds is one criterion for designation, it is not the only one. Wetlands can also qualify based on their importance for other ecological, botanical, hydrological, or limnological factors.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Urban wetlands can and do qualify as Ramsar sites. The convention focuses on the ecological importance of wetlands, regardless of their location.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

While tiger reserves with wetlands can be nominated, they must still meet the Ramsar Convention’s criteria to be designated. Automatic qualification does not occur.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Urban wetlands can and do qualify as Ramsar sites. The convention focuses on the ecological importance of wetlands, regardless of their location.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

While tiger reserves with wetlands can be nominated, they must still meet the Ramsar Convention’s criteria to be designated. Automatic qualification does not occur.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points The genetic diversity of an organism contributes to biodiversity conservation by: Enabling adaptation to changing environmental conditions Preventing the spread of diseases through resistant varieties Preserving unique traits that may have future ecological significance Maintaining ecosystem stability through functional redundancy Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D Genetic diversity refers to the total number of genetic characteristics in a species’ genetic makeup. It’s crucial for a species’ ability to adapt and survive in changing environments. Genetic diversity provides the raw material for evolution. With a wider range of genes, a population is more likely to have individuals with traits that allow them to survive and reproduce in new or altered environments. Hence, statement 1 is correct. If a population has high genetic diversity, it’s more likely to have individuals with resistance to diseases. This can prevent widespread outbreaks that could devastate a population. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Genetic diversity preserves unique traits that may not be immediately advantageous but could become crucial in the future. These traits could be vital for adaptation to unforeseen environmental changes or for the development of new uses for the species. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Functional redundancy means that multiple species or individuals within a species can perform the same ecological function. Genetic diversity within a species contributes to this redundancy. If one genotype is lost due to environmental change, others can take its place, maintaining ecosystem stability. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution: D Genetic diversity refers to the total number of genetic characteristics in a species’ genetic makeup. It’s crucial for a species’ ability to adapt and survive in changing environments. Genetic diversity provides the raw material for evolution. With a wider range of genes, a population is more likely to have individuals with traits that allow them to survive and reproduce in new or altered environments. Hence, statement 1 is correct. If a population has high genetic diversity, it’s more likely to have individuals with resistance to diseases. This can prevent widespread outbreaks that could devastate a population. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Genetic diversity preserves unique traits that may not be immediately advantageous but could become crucial in the future. These traits could be vital for adaptation to unforeseen environmental changes or for the development of new uses for the species. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Functional redundancy means that multiple species or individuals within a species can perform the same ecological function. Genetic diversity within a species contributes to this redundancy. If one genotype is lost due to environmental change, others can take its place, maintaining ecosystem stability. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

#### 6. Question

The genetic diversity of an organism contributes to biodiversity conservation by:

• Enabling adaptation to changing environmental conditions

• Preventing the spread of diseases through resistant varieties

• Preserving unique traits that may have future ecological significance

• Maintaining ecosystem stability through functional redundancy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

Genetic diversity refers to the total number of genetic characteristics in a species’ genetic makeup. It’s crucial for a species’ ability to adapt and survive in changing environments.

Genetic diversity provides the raw material for evolution. With a wider range of genes, a population is more likely to have individuals with traits that allow them to survive and reproduce in new or altered environments.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

If a population has high genetic diversity, it’s more likely to have individuals with resistance to diseases. This can prevent widespread outbreaks that could devastate a population.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Genetic diversity preserves unique traits that may not be immediately advantageous but could become crucial in the future. These traits could be vital for adaptation to unforeseen environmental changes or for the development of new uses for the species.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Functional redundancy means that multiple species or individuals within a species can perform the same ecological function. Genetic diversity within a species contributes to this redundancy. If one genotype is lost due to environmental change, others can take its place, maintaining ecosystem stability.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Solution: D

Genetic diversity refers to the total number of genetic characteristics in a species’ genetic makeup. It’s crucial for a species’ ability to adapt and survive in changing environments.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

If a population has high genetic diversity, it’s more likely to have individuals with resistance to diseases. This can prevent widespread outbreaks that could devastate a population.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Recently, the term “30 x 30” initiative was seen in news. It refers to: (a) An initiative to restore 30% of degraded ecosystems by 2030 (b) A global target to protect 30% of land and sea areas by 2030 (c) A commitment to reduce biodiversity loss by 30% before 2030 (d) A plan to increase representation of indigenous communities by 30% in conservation governance by 2030 Correct Solution: B The “30 x 30” initiative is a global target that aims to protect at least 30% of the world’s land and ocean areas by 2030. It’s a key component of efforts to address the biodiversity crisis and climate change. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The “30 x 30” initiative is a global target that aims to protect at least 30% of the world’s land and ocean areas by 2030. It’s a key component of efforts to address the biodiversity crisis and climate change. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 7. Question

Recently, the term “30 x 30” initiative was seen in news. It refers to:

• (a) An initiative to restore 30% of degraded ecosystems by 2030

• (b) A global target to protect 30% of land and sea areas by 2030

• (c) A commitment to reduce biodiversity loss by 30% before 2030

• (d) A plan to increase representation of indigenous communities by 30% in conservation governance by 2030

Solution: B

The “30 x 30” initiative is a global target that aims to protect at least 30% of the world’s land and ocean areas by 2030. It’s a key component of efforts to address the biodiversity crisis and climate change.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The “Vulture Action Plan 2025” focuses on: Banning veterinary use of diclofenac. Establishing captive breeding centres. Creating “vulture safe zones” near tiger reserves. Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: D Vulture Action Plan 2025 aims to conserve India’s vulture populations, which have suffered a drastic decline primarily due to the veterinary use of diclofenac, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used in livestock. Banning veterinary use of diclofenac: This is a core element of the plan. Diclofenac is highly toxic to vultures, causing kidney failure. The ban on its veterinary use is crucial for vulture recovery. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Establishing captive breeding centers: Captive breeding is another essential part of the plan. These centers help to breed vultures in controlled environments, increasing their numbers and providing individuals for release into the wild. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Creating “vulture safe zones” near tiger reserves: Creating “vulture safe zones” is also a part of the action plan. These zones aim to provide areas free from diclofenac and other threats, allowing vultures to thrive. While tiger reserves could be a part of those zones, the zones are not exclusive to tiger reserve areas. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: D Vulture Action Plan 2025 aims to conserve India’s vulture populations, which have suffered a drastic decline primarily due to the veterinary use of diclofenac, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used in livestock. Banning veterinary use of diclofenac: This is a core element of the plan. Diclofenac is highly toxic to vultures, causing kidney failure. The ban on its veterinary use is crucial for vulture recovery. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Establishing captive breeding centers: Captive breeding is another essential part of the plan. These centers help to breed vultures in controlled environments, increasing their numbers and providing individuals for release into the wild. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Creating “vulture safe zones” near tiger reserves: Creating “vulture safe zones” is also a part of the action plan. These zones aim to provide areas free from diclofenac and other threats, allowing vultures to thrive. While tiger reserves could be a part of those zones, the zones are not exclusive to tiger reserve areas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 8. Question

The “Vulture Action Plan 2025” focuses on:

• Banning veterinary use of diclofenac.

• Establishing captive breeding centres.

• Creating “vulture safe zones” near tiger reserves.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: D

Vulture Action Plan 2025 aims to conserve India’s vulture populations, which have suffered a drastic decline primarily due to the veterinary use of diclofenac, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used in livestock.

• Banning veterinary use of diclofenac:

This is a core element of the plan. Diclofenac is highly toxic to vultures, causing kidney failure. The ban on its veterinary use is crucial for vulture recovery.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Establishing captive breeding centers:

Captive breeding is another essential part of the plan. These centers help to breed vultures in controlled environments, increasing their numbers and providing individuals for release into the wild.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Creating “vulture safe zones” near tiger reserves:

Creating “vulture safe zones” is also a part of the action plan. These zones aim to provide areas free from diclofenac and other threats, allowing vultures to thrive. While tiger reserves could be a part of those zones, the zones are not exclusive to tiger reserve areas.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: D

• Banning veterinary use of diclofenac:

This is a core element of the plan. Diclofenac is highly toxic to vultures, causing kidney failure. The ban on its veterinary use is crucial for vulture recovery.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Establishing captive breeding centers:

Captive breeding is another essential part of the plan. These centers help to breed vultures in controlled environments, increasing their numbers and providing individuals for release into the wild.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Creating “vulture safe zones” near tiger reserves:

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is constituted under which Act? (a) Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (b) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (c) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 Correct Solution: B The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body in India for regulating and appraising activities involving genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and products. It operates under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, specifically the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989”. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body in India for regulating and appraising activities involving genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and products. It operates under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, specifically the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989”. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 9. Question

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is constituted under which Act?

• (a) Biological Diversity Act, 2002

• (b) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

• (c) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006

• (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Solution: B

• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body in India for regulating and appraising activities involving genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and products.

• It operates under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, specifically the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989”.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body in India for regulating and appraising activities involving genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and products.

• It operates under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points “Voyage of Iguanas” recently in news refers to: (a) A conservation initiative for translocating endangered iguanas to protected islands. (b) The natural migration pattern of marine iguanas in Galapagos. (c) How iguanas travelled from Americas to Fiji Islands. (d) A documentary film on iguana conservation efforts globally. Correct Solution: C The “Voyage of Iguanas” refers to the remarkable and scientifically puzzling journey of how iguanas reached the Fiji Islands in the Pacific Ocean, thousands of kilometres from their native habitats in the Americas. The puzzle: Iguanas are primarily found in the Americas. The presence of iguanas in Fiji, a remote island group in the Pacific, has long perplexed scientists. How did these land-dwelling reptiles traverse such vast stretches of ocean? The research: Scientists have conducted research to understand this phenomenon, exploring various possibilities, including rafting on debris and ancient land bridges. This research is what is being referred to in the news. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Solution: C The “Voyage of Iguanas” refers to the remarkable and scientifically puzzling journey of how iguanas reached the Fiji Islands in the Pacific Ocean, thousands of kilometres from their native habitats in the Americas. The puzzle: Iguanas are primarily found in the Americas. The presence of iguanas in Fiji, a remote island group in the Pacific, has long perplexed scientists. How did these land-dwelling reptiles traverse such vast stretches of ocean? The research: Scientists have conducted research to understand this phenomenon, exploring various possibilities, including rafting on debris and ancient land bridges. This research is what is being referred to in the news. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 10. Question

“Voyage of Iguanas” recently in news refers to:

• (a) A conservation initiative for translocating endangered iguanas to protected islands.

• (b) The natural migration pattern of marine iguanas in Galapagos.

• (c) How iguanas travelled from Americas to Fiji Islands.

• (d) A documentary film on iguana conservation efforts globally.

Solution: C

The “Voyage of Iguanas” refers to the remarkable and scientifically puzzling journey of how iguanas reached the Fiji Islands in the Pacific Ocean, thousands of kilometres from their native habitats in the Americas.

The puzzle:

• Iguanas are primarily found in the Americas.

• The presence of iguanas in Fiji, a remote island group in the Pacific, has long perplexed scientists.

• How did these land-dwelling reptiles traverse such vast stretches of ocean?

The research:

• Scientists have conducted research to understand this phenomenon, exploring various possibilities, including rafting on debris and ancient land bridges.

• This research is what is being referred to in the news.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Solution: C

The puzzle:

• Iguanas are primarily found in the Americas.

• The presence of iguanas in Fiji, a remote island group in the Pacific, has long perplexed scientists.

• How did these land-dwelling reptiles traverse such vast stretches of ocean?

The research:

• Scientists have conducted research to understand this phenomenon, exploring various possibilities, including rafting on debris and ancient land bridges.

• This research is what is being referred to in the news.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Nandankanan Zoological Park: It is a site for successful captive breeding of Gharial and Indian pangolin. It is the only zoo in India to have Patas monkey and Open-billed stork. It is a member of the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Nandankanan Zoological Park is located near Bhubaneswar in Odisha. It is credited for successful captive breeding of endangered gharials; as the birth place for white tiger from normal coloured tigers as well as successful breeding of Indian pangolin, Mouse deer, Malayan giant squirrel, Sloth bear, Himalayan black bear, Indian porcupine, saltwater crocodile, Swamp deer and other animals. Hence statement 1 is correct Nandankanan is the only zoo in India with the credit of having Patas monkey, Eastern Rosella and Open-billed Stork. Hence statement 2 is correct The Nandankanan is the first zoo in India to become a member of the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA). It was founded in 1935 at Basel, Switzerland. WAZA is the umbrella organisation for the World zoo and aquarium community with its headquarter in Barcelona, Spain. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: D Nandankanan Zoological Park is located near Bhubaneswar in Odisha. It is credited for successful captive breeding of endangered gharials; as the birth place for white tiger from normal coloured tigers as well as successful breeding of Indian pangolin, Mouse deer, Malayan giant squirrel, Sloth bear, Himalayan black bear, Indian porcupine, saltwater crocodile, Swamp deer and other animals. Hence statement 1 is correct Nandankanan is the only zoo in India with the credit of having Patas monkey, Eastern Rosella and Open-billed Stork. Hence statement 2 is correct The Nandankanan is the first zoo in India to become a member of the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA). It was founded in 1935 at Basel, Switzerland. WAZA is the umbrella organisation for the World zoo and aquarium community with its headquarter in Barcelona, Spain. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Nandankanan Zoological Park:

• It is a site for successful captive breeding of Gharial and Indian pangolin.

• It is the only zoo in India to have Patas monkey and Open-billed stork.

• It is a member of the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Nandankanan Zoological Park is located near Bhubaneswar in Odisha.

• It is credited for successful captive breeding of endangered gharials; as the birth place for white tiger from normal coloured tigers as well as successful breeding of Indian pangolin, Mouse deer, Malayan giant squirrel, Sloth bear, Himalayan black bear, Indian porcupine, saltwater crocodile, Swamp deer and other animals.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Nandankanan is the only zoo in India with the credit of having Patas monkey, Eastern Rosella and Open-billed Stork.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Nandankanan is the first zoo in India to become a member of the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA).

• It was founded in 1935 at Basel, Switzerland.

• WAZA is the umbrella organisation for the World zoo and aquarium community with its headquarter in Barcelona, Spain.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: D

• Nandankanan Zoological Park is located near Bhubaneswar in Odisha.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Nandankanan is the only zoo in India with the credit of having Patas monkey, Eastern Rosella and Open-billed Stork.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Nandankanan is the first zoo in India to become a member of the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA).

• It was founded in 1935 at Basel, Switzerland.

• WAZA is the umbrella organisation for the World zoo and aquarium community with its headquarter in Barcelona, Spain.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Gibbons inhabit tropical and subtropical forests in Southeast Asia. The Global Gibbon Network is organised by IUCN. The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary is home to India’s only ape and Gibbon species, the Hoolock Gibbons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Gibbons are the smallest and fastest of all apes. They inhabit tropical and subtropical forests in Southeast Asia They have high intelligence, distinct personalities and strong family bonds They are one of the 20 Gibbon species found globally. Hence statement 1 is correct The Global Gibbon Network initiative was organised by the Hainan Institute of National Parks and Eco Foundation Global. It aims to protect and treasure the unique heritage of Asia , specifically the singing Gibbons and their habitats by promoting participatory conservation policies, legislations and actions. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary is an isolated evergreen forest in Assam that was established in 1997 It is home to India’s only ape and Gibbon species- Hoolock Gibbons and the Bengal slow Loris, only nocturnal primate of North Eastern India. The forest’s upper canopy is dominated by hoolong trees, in the middle by nahar trees and the lower by Evergreen shrubs and herbs. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Gibbons are the smallest and fastest of all apes. They inhabit tropical and subtropical forests in Southeast Asia They have high intelligence, distinct personalities and strong family bonds They are one of the 20 Gibbon species found globally. Hence statement 1 is correct The Global Gibbon Network initiative was organised by the Hainan Institute of National Parks and Eco Foundation Global. It aims to protect and treasure the unique heritage of Asia , specifically the singing Gibbons and their habitats by promoting participatory conservation policies, legislations and actions. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary is an isolated evergreen forest in Assam that was established in 1997 It is home to India’s only ape and Gibbon species- Hoolock Gibbons and the Bengal slow Loris, only nocturnal primate of North Eastern India. The forest’s upper canopy is dominated by hoolong trees, in the middle by nahar trees and the lower by Evergreen shrubs and herbs. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Gibbons inhabit tropical and subtropical forests in Southeast Asia.

• The Global Gibbon Network is organised by IUCN.

• The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary is home to India’s only ape and Gibbon species, the Hoolock Gibbons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Gibbons are the smallest and fastest of all apes.

• They inhabit tropical and subtropical forests in Southeast Asia

• They have high intelligence, distinct personalities and strong family bonds

• They are one of the 20 Gibbon species found globally.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Global Gibbon Network initiative was organised by the Hainan Institute of National Parks and Eco Foundation Global.

• It aims to protect and treasure the unique heritage of Asia , specifically the singing Gibbons and their habitats by promoting participatory conservation policies, legislations and actions.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary is an isolated evergreen forest in Assam that was established in 1997

• It is home to India’s only ape and Gibbon species- Hoolock Gibbons and the Bengal slow Loris, only nocturnal primate of North Eastern India.

• The forest’s upper canopy is dominated by hoolong trees, in the middle by nahar trees and the lower by Evergreen shrubs and herbs.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• Gibbons are the smallest and fastest of all apes.

• They inhabit tropical and subtropical forests in Southeast Asia

• They have high intelligence, distinct personalities and strong family bonds

• They are one of the 20 Gibbon species found globally.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Global Gibbon Network initiative was organised by the Hainan Institute of National Parks and Eco Foundation Global.

• It aims to protect and treasure the unique heritage of Asia , specifically the singing Gibbons and their habitats by promoting participatory conservation policies, legislations and actions.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary is an isolated evergreen forest in Assam that was established in 1997

• It is home to India’s only ape and Gibbon species- Hoolock Gibbons and the Bengal slow Loris, only nocturnal primate of North Eastern India.

• The forest’s upper canopy is dominated by hoolong trees, in the middle by nahar trees and the lower by Evergreen shrubs and herbs.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding Tiger Reserves of India: Tiger Reserve (TR) Location Sanjay Dubri TR Maharashtra Ratapani TR Madhya Pradesh Periyar TR Tamil Nadu How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Sanjay Dubri Tiger Reserve is situated in the Sidhi district of north eastern Madhya Pradesh, bordering Guru Ghasidas National Park in the south; it encompasses Sanjay National Park and Dubri sanctuary along with buffer zones from Sidhi and Shahdol districts. It is home to several species including tigers, leopards sloth bear, nilgai, wild dog, Jungle cats and the Indian python. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Ratapani Tiger Reserve is situated in the Vindhyachal mountain range in Madhya Pradesh. The Kolar River forms its Western boundary while Dahod reservoir and Ratapani reservoir are main water sources within the Reserve. It is home to 56 tigers, 70 leopards, sloth bears, chinkaras, crocodile and the Paradise flycatcher which is the state bird of Madhya Pradesh. It includes the Bhimbetka rock shelter- a UNESCO World Heritage site. Hence pair 2 is correct The Periyar Tiger Reserve is situated in the Idukki and Pathanamthitta districts of Kerala. Periyar and mulaya at the major river flowing through the Reserve It hosts unique medicinal plants as well as is home to several indigenous communities like Malayarayans, Uralis, etc. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Sanjay Dubri Tiger Reserve is situated in the Sidhi district of north eastern Madhya Pradesh, bordering Guru Ghasidas National Park in the south; it encompasses Sanjay National Park and Dubri sanctuary along with buffer zones from Sidhi and Shahdol districts. It is home to several species including tigers, leopards sloth bear, nilgai, wild dog, Jungle cats and the Indian python. Hence pair 1 is incorrect Ratapani Tiger Reserve is situated in the Vindhyachal mountain range in Madhya Pradesh. The Kolar River forms its Western boundary while Dahod reservoir and Ratapani reservoir are main water sources within the Reserve. It is home to 56 tigers, 70 leopards, sloth bears, chinkaras, crocodile and the Paradise flycatcher which is the state bird of Madhya Pradesh. It includes the Bhimbetka rock shelter- a UNESCO World Heritage site. Hence pair 2 is correct The Periyar Tiger Reserve is situated in the Idukki and Pathanamthitta districts of Kerala. Periyar and mulaya at the major river flowing through the Reserve It hosts unique medicinal plants as well as is home to several indigenous communities like Malayarayans, Uralis, etc. Hence pair 3 is incorrect

#### 13. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding Tiger Reserves of India:

Tiger Reserve (TR) | Location

Sanjay Dubri TR | Maharashtra

Ratapani TR | Madhya Pradesh

Periyar TR | Tamil Nadu

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Sanjay Dubri Tiger Reserve is situated in the Sidhi district of north eastern Madhya Pradesh, bordering Guru Ghasidas National Park in the south; it encompasses Sanjay National Park and Dubri sanctuary along with buffer zones from Sidhi and Shahdol districts.

• It is home to several species including tigers, leopards sloth bear, nilgai, wild dog, Jungle cats and the Indian python.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Ratapani Tiger Reserve is situated in the Vindhyachal mountain range in Madhya Pradesh.

• The Kolar River forms its Western boundary while Dahod reservoir and Ratapani reservoir are main water sources within the Reserve.

• It is home to 56 tigers, 70 leopards, sloth bears, chinkaras, crocodile and the Paradise flycatcher which is the state bird of Madhya Pradesh.

• It includes the Bhimbetka rock shelter- a UNESCO World Heritage site.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• The Periyar Tiger Reserve is situated in the Idukki and Pathanamthitta districts of Kerala.

• Periyar and mulaya at the major river flowing through the Reserve

• It hosts unique medicinal plants as well as is home to several indigenous communities like Malayarayans, Uralis, etc.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• It is home to several species including tigers, leopards sloth bear, nilgai, wild dog, Jungle cats and the Indian python.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• Ratapani Tiger Reserve is situated in the Vindhyachal mountain range in Madhya Pradesh.

• The Kolar River forms its Western boundary while Dahod reservoir and Ratapani reservoir are main water sources within the Reserve.

• It is home to 56 tigers, 70 leopards, sloth bears, chinkaras, crocodile and the Paradise flycatcher which is the state bird of Madhya Pradesh.

• It includes the Bhimbetka rock shelter- a UNESCO World Heritage site.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• The Periyar Tiger Reserve is situated in the Idukki and Pathanamthitta districts of Kerala.

• Periyar and mulaya at the major river flowing through the Reserve

• It hosts unique medicinal plants as well as is home to several indigenous communities like Malayarayans, Uralis, etc.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Which of the following is a potential source of Teal carbon? (a) Seagrass beds (b) Sacred groves (c) Volcanic eruptions (d) Non tidal freshwater wetlands Correct Solution: D Teal carbon refers to carbon stored in non tidal freshwater wetlands encompassing carbon sequestered in vegetation, microbial biomass and dissolved in particulate organic matter. India’s first study on Teal carbon was undertaken at Keolado National Park in Rajasthan’s Bharatpur district. The Study has highlighted the significance of wetland conservation to address the challenges of climate adaptation and resilience. The pilot project sought to develop holistic nature-based solutions to address climate change. The concept of Teal carbon is a recent addition to the environmental science pertaining to organic carbon in inland fresh wetlands The study has depicted the potential of Teal carbon as a tool to mitigate climate change if the anthropogenic pollution in the wetlands can be controlled. Though these wetlands play a major role in regulating greenhouse gases, they are vulnerable to degradation from pollution, land use patterns, water extraction and landscape modification. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D Teal carbon refers to carbon stored in non tidal freshwater wetlands encompassing carbon sequestered in vegetation, microbial biomass and dissolved in particulate organic matter. India’s first study on Teal carbon was undertaken at Keolado National Park in Rajasthan’s Bharatpur district. The Study has highlighted the significance of wetland conservation to address the challenges of climate adaptation and resilience. The pilot project sought to develop holistic nature-based solutions to address climate change. The concept of Teal carbon is a recent addition to the environmental science pertaining to organic carbon in inland fresh wetlands The study has depicted the potential of Teal carbon as a tool to mitigate climate change if the anthropogenic pollution in the wetlands can be controlled. Though these wetlands play a major role in regulating greenhouse gases, they are vulnerable to degradation from pollution, land use patterns, water extraction and landscape modification. Hence option D is correct

#### 14. Question

Which of the following is a potential source of Teal carbon?

• (a) Seagrass beds

• (b) Sacred groves

• (c) Volcanic eruptions

• (d) Non tidal freshwater wetlands

Solution: D

• Teal carbon refers to carbon stored in non tidal freshwater wetlands encompassing carbon sequestered in vegetation, microbial biomass and dissolved in particulate organic matter.

• India’s first study on Teal carbon was undertaken at Keolado National Park in Rajasthan’s Bharatpur district.

• The Study has highlighted the significance of wetland conservation to address the challenges of climate adaptation and resilience.

• The pilot project sought to develop holistic nature-based solutions to address climate change.

• The concept of Teal carbon is a recent addition to the environmental science pertaining to organic carbon in inland fresh wetlands

• The study has depicted the potential of Teal carbon as a tool to mitigate climate change if the anthropogenic pollution in the wetlands can be controlled.

• Though these wetlands play a major role in regulating greenhouse gases, they are vulnerable to degradation from pollution, land use patterns, water extraction and landscape modification.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• Teal carbon refers to carbon stored in non tidal freshwater wetlands encompassing carbon sequestered in vegetation, microbial biomass and dissolved in particulate organic matter.

• India’s first study on Teal carbon was undertaken at Keolado National Park in Rajasthan’s Bharatpur district.

• The Study has highlighted the significance of wetland conservation to address the challenges of climate adaptation and resilience.

• The pilot project sought to develop holistic nature-based solutions to address climate change.

• The concept of Teal carbon is a recent addition to the environmental science pertaining to organic carbon in inland fresh wetlands

• The study has depicted the potential of Teal carbon as a tool to mitigate climate change if the anthropogenic pollution in the wetlands can be controlled.

• Though these wetlands play a major role in regulating greenhouse gases, they are vulnerable to degradation from pollution, land use patterns, water extraction and landscape modification.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Kelps are species of photosynthetic brown algae. Kelp forests are restricted to warm waters in the equatorial region. Kelps are keystones species in aquatic ecosystems where they grow. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Kelp is a sub group of autotrophic brown algae. Kelps typically grow in clear cool and nutrient rich water at depth between 2 and 30 m. They require hard Rocky soil, cold water and continuous supply of nutrients to support strong photosynthesis. Hence statement 1 is correct Kelp forests are dense underwater ecosystems found in cool shallow and nutrient rich waters along Rocky shorelines worldwide, particularly in temperate and polar coastal oceans. Some of the largest kelp forests are located along the California and Pacific Northwest coastline up to and including Canada and Alaska. However, they can also grow in lower latitudes, aided by cool water upwelling or in deep water refugia where they are protected by thermocline. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Kelps provide underwater habitats to hundreds of species and have great ecological and economic value; they are referred to as keystone species in aquatic ecosystems. They provide food and shelter for a number of aquatic species. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Kelp is a sub group of autotrophic brown algae. Kelps typically grow in clear cool and nutrient rich water at depth between 2 and 30 m. They require hard Rocky soil, cold water and continuous supply of nutrients to support strong photosynthesis. Hence statement 1 is correct Kelp forests are dense underwater ecosystems found in cool shallow and nutrient rich waters along Rocky shorelines worldwide, particularly in temperate and polar coastal oceans. Some of the largest kelp forests are located along the California and Pacific Northwest coastline up to and including Canada and Alaska. However, they can also grow in lower latitudes, aided by cool water upwelling or in deep water refugia where they are protected by thermocline. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Kelps provide underwater habitats to hundreds of species and have great ecological and economic value; they are referred to as keystone species in aquatic ecosystems. They provide food and shelter for a number of aquatic species. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Kelps are species of photosynthetic brown algae.

• Kelp forests are restricted to warm waters in the equatorial region.

• Kelps are keystones species in aquatic ecosystems where they grow.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Kelp is a sub group of autotrophic brown algae.

• Kelps typically grow in clear cool and nutrient rich water at depth between 2 and 30 m.

• They require hard Rocky soil, cold water and continuous supply of nutrients to support strong photosynthesis.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Kelp forests are dense underwater ecosystems found in cool shallow and nutrient rich waters along Rocky shorelines worldwide, particularly in temperate and polar coastal oceans.

• Some of the largest kelp forests are located along the California and Pacific Northwest coastline up to and including Canada and Alaska.

• However, they can also grow in lower latitudes, aided by cool water upwelling or in deep water refugia where they are protected by thermocline.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Kelps provide underwater habitats to hundreds of species and have great ecological and economic value; they are referred to as keystone species in aquatic ecosystems.

• They provide food and shelter for a number of aquatic species.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• Kelp is a sub group of autotrophic brown algae.

• Kelps typically grow in clear cool and nutrient rich water at depth between 2 and 30 m.

• They require hard Rocky soil, cold water and continuous supply of nutrients to support strong photosynthesis.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Kelp forests are dense underwater ecosystems found in cool shallow and nutrient rich waters along Rocky shorelines worldwide, particularly in temperate and polar coastal oceans.

• Some of the largest kelp forests are located along the California and Pacific Northwest coastline up to and including Canada and Alaska.

• However, they can also grow in lower latitudes, aided by cool water upwelling or in deep water refugia where they are protected by thermocline.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Kelps provide underwater habitats to hundreds of species and have great ecological and economic value; they are referred to as keystone species in aquatic ecosystems.

• They provide food and shelter for a number of aquatic species.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Indian Star Tortoises are endemic to the Indian subcontinent. The Elongated Tortoise is a critically endangered species that inhabits mangrove forests. The Olive Ridley turtle is a carnivorous species whose population is restricted to warm waters of the Indian Ocean. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Indian Star tortoise (so called due to star like patterns on its high dommed shell), is popular in global trade in exotic pets. These are found in a wide variety of habitats including semi arid lowland forests, thorn scrub forests, semi desert and arid grasslands. It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and resides in dry areas of North East (bordering Pakistan), South India and Sri Lanka. Hence statement 1 is correct Elongated tortoise is characterized by a yellowish-brown shell with distinct black blotches at the centre of each scute; It is found in Sal deciduous and Hilly evergreen forests; its distribution ranges from Northern India, Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh in the West through Myanmar, Thailand, north to China and South to peninsular Malaysia. Adjusting population exist in Nagpur plateau in Eastern India it is usually found in foothills of the Himalayas and wetter areas. It is a critically endangered species under IUCN. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Olive Ridley turtles are the second smallest and most abundant sea turtles globally They are found in warm and tropical waters primarily in the Pacific and Indian ocean as well as one area of the Atlantic Ocean The Garimatha beach of Odisha (mouth of Rushikulya river) is the most significant breeding ground for these turtles. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Indian Star tortoise (so called due to star like patterns on its high dommed shell), is popular in global trade in exotic pets. These are found in a wide variety of habitats including semi arid lowland forests, thorn scrub forests, semi desert and arid grasslands. It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and resides in dry areas of North East (bordering Pakistan), South India and Sri Lanka. Hence statement 1 is correct Elongated tortoise is characterized by a yellowish-brown shell with distinct black blotches at the centre of each scute; It is found in Sal deciduous and Hilly evergreen forests; its distribution ranges from Northern India, Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh in the West through Myanmar, Thailand, north to China and South to peninsular Malaysia. Adjusting population exist in Nagpur plateau in Eastern India it is usually found in foothills of the Himalayas and wetter areas. It is a critically endangered species under IUCN. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Olive Ridley turtles are the second smallest and most abundant sea turtles globally They are found in warm and tropical waters primarily in the Pacific and Indian ocean as well as one area of the Atlantic Ocean The Garimatha beach of Odisha (mouth of Rushikulya river) is the most significant breeding ground for these turtles. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Indian Star Tortoises are endemic to the Indian subcontinent.

• The Elongated Tortoise is a critically endangered species that inhabits mangrove forests.

• The Olive Ridley turtle is a carnivorous species whose population is restricted to warm waters of the Indian Ocean.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Indian Star tortoise (so called due to star like patterns on its high dommed shell), is popular in global trade in exotic pets.

• These are found in a wide variety of habitats including semi arid lowland forests, thorn scrub forests, semi desert and arid grasslands.

• It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and resides in dry areas of North East (bordering Pakistan), South India and Sri Lanka.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Elongated tortoise is characterized by a yellowish-brown shell with distinct black blotches at the centre of each scute;

• It is found in Sal deciduous and Hilly evergreen forests; its distribution ranges from Northern India, Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh in the West through Myanmar, Thailand, north to China and South to peninsular Malaysia.

• Adjusting population exist in Nagpur plateau in Eastern India it is usually found in foothills of the Himalayas and wetter areas.

• It is a critically endangered species under IUCN.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Olive Ridley turtles are the second smallest and most abundant sea turtles globally

• They are found in warm and tropical waters primarily in the Pacific and Indian ocean as well as one area of the Atlantic Ocean

• The Garimatha beach of Odisha (mouth of Rushikulya river) is the most significant breeding ground for these turtles.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Indian Star tortoise (so called due to star like patterns on its high dommed shell), is popular in global trade in exotic pets.

• These are found in a wide variety of habitats including semi arid lowland forests, thorn scrub forests, semi desert and arid grasslands.

• It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and resides in dry areas of North East (bordering Pakistan), South India and Sri Lanka.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Elongated tortoise is characterized by a yellowish-brown shell with distinct black blotches at the centre of each scute;

• Adjusting population exist in Nagpur plateau in Eastern India it is usually found in foothills of the Himalayas and wetter areas.

• It is a critically endangered species under IUCN.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Olive Ridley turtles are the second smallest and most abundant sea turtles globally

• They are found in warm and tropical waters primarily in the Pacific and Indian ocean as well as one area of the Atlantic Ocean

• The Garimatha beach of Odisha (mouth of Rushikulya river) is the most significant breeding ground for these turtles.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following organisms: Octopus Cuttlefish Jellyfish How many of the above are categorised as Cephalopods? Statement – II: Energy flow always decreases successively up the trophic level. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 only Correct Solution: B Cephalopods form a class of marine, ocean dwelling intelligent vertebrates that include octopus, Cuttlefish, Nautilus and squid. They are abroad class of Molluscs; these are soft bodied invertebrates often enclosed partly or fully in a calcium carbonate shell ; they have two eyes and at least eight arms. Most Cephalopods are colour blind and exhibit visual camouflage. They can open and close tiny sacs just below their skin that contain coloured pigments and reflectors revealing specific colours. They use Jet propulsion expelling water from their mantle cavity to propel themselves through the water. They mostly have blue coloured blood due to presence of copper based hemocyanin, which is highly effective in cold, low oxygen environments. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct Jellyfishes are not Cephalopods They belong to the phylum Cnidaria while Cephalopods are part of phylum Mollusca. Hence option 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B Cephalopods form a class of marine, ocean dwelling intelligent vertebrates that include octopus, Cuttlefish, Nautilus and squid. They are abroad class of Molluscs; these are soft bodied invertebrates often enclosed partly or fully in a calcium carbonate shell ; they have two eyes and at least eight arms. Most Cephalopods are colour blind and exhibit visual camouflage. They can open and close tiny sacs just below their skin that contain coloured pigments and reflectors revealing specific colours. They use Jet propulsion expelling water from their mantle cavity to propel themselves through the water. They mostly have blue coloured blood due to presence of copper based hemocyanin, which is highly effective in cold, low oxygen environments. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct Jellyfishes are not Cephalopods They belong to the phylum Cnidaria while Cephalopods are part of phylum Mollusca. Hence option 3 is incorrect

#### 17. Question

Consider the following organisms:

• Cuttlefish

How many of the above are categorised as Cephalopods?

Statement – II:

Energy flow always decreases successively up the trophic level.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 2 only

Solution: B

• Cephalopods form a class of marine, ocean dwelling intelligent vertebrates that include octopus, Cuttlefish, Nautilus and squid.

• They are abroad class of Molluscs; these are soft bodied invertebrates often enclosed partly or fully in a calcium carbonate shell ; they have two eyes and at least eight arms.

• Most Cephalopods are colour blind and exhibit visual camouflage. They can open and close tiny sacs just below their skin that contain coloured pigments and reflectors revealing specific colours.

• They use Jet propulsion expelling water from their mantle cavity to propel themselves through the water.

• They mostly have blue coloured blood due to presence of copper based hemocyanin, which is highly effective in cold, low oxygen environments.

Hence options 1 and 2 are correct

• Jellyfishes are not Cephalopods

• They belong to the phylum Cnidaria while Cephalopods are part of phylum Mollusca.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• Cephalopods form a class of marine, ocean dwelling intelligent vertebrates that include octopus, Cuttlefish, Nautilus and squid.

• They are abroad class of Molluscs; these are soft bodied invertebrates often enclosed partly or fully in a calcium carbonate shell ; they have two eyes and at least eight arms.

• Most Cephalopods are colour blind and exhibit visual camouflage. They can open and close tiny sacs just below their skin that contain coloured pigments and reflectors revealing specific colours.

• They use Jet propulsion expelling water from their mantle cavity to propel themselves through the water.

• They mostly have blue coloured blood due to presence of copper based hemocyanin, which is highly effective in cold, low oxygen environments.

Hence options 1 and 2 are correct

• Jellyfishes are not Cephalopods

• They belong to the phylum Cnidaria while Cephalopods are part of phylum Mollusca.

Hence option 3 is incorrect

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: Species richness in oceans decreases from the equator towards the poles. Statement – II: Generally, species richness has a positive correlation with primary productivity of oceans. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: B The latitudinal gradient holds true for marine ecosystems, where tropical and subtropical oceans near the equator have higher species richness. (Hence Statement 1 is correct) As we move toward the poles, species diversity declines due to harsher conditions, lower temperatures, and seasonal variations. Generally, species richness has a positive correlation with primary productivity in oceans. Areas with higher primary productivity (the rate at which producers like phytoplankton create organic matter) tend to support more complex food webs and a greater diversity of life. More energy at the base of the ecosystem can sustain a larger and more diverse community at higher trophic levels. Hence both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I Incorrect Solution: B The latitudinal gradient holds true for marine ecosystems, where tropical and subtropical oceans near the equator have higher species richness. (Hence Statement 1 is correct) As we move toward the poles, species diversity declines due to harsher conditions, lower temperatures, and seasonal variations. Generally, species richness has a positive correlation with primary productivity in oceans. Areas with higher primary productivity (the rate at which producers like phytoplankton create organic matter) tend to support more complex food webs and a greater diversity of life. More energy at the base of the ecosystem can sustain a larger and more diverse community at higher trophic levels. Hence both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I:

Species richness in oceans decreases from the equator towards the poles.

Statement – II:

Generally, species richness has a positive correlation with primary productivity of oceans.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: B

• The latitudinal gradient holds true for marine ecosystems, where tropical and subtropical oceans near the equator have higher species richness. (Hence Statement 1 is correct)

• As we move toward the poles, species diversity declines due to harsher conditions, lower temperatures, and seasonal variations.

• Generally, species richness has a positive correlation with primary productivity in oceans.

• Areas with higher primary productivity (the rate at which producers like phytoplankton create organic matter) tend to support more complex food webs and a greater diversity of life.

• More energy at the base of the ecosystem can sustain a larger and more diverse community at higher trophic levels.

Hence both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

Solution: B

• The latitudinal gradient holds true for marine ecosystems, where tropical and subtropical oceans near the equator have higher species richness. (Hence Statement 1 is correct)

• As we move toward the poles, species diversity declines due to harsher conditions, lower temperatures, and seasonal variations.

• Generally, species richness has a positive correlation with primary productivity in oceans.

• Areas with higher primary productivity (the rate at which producers like phytoplankton create organic matter) tend to support more complex food webs and a greater diversity of life.

• More energy at the base of the ecosystem can sustain a larger and more diverse community at higher trophic levels.

Hence both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Fishing cat is a nocturnal animal. Fishing cat is endemic to the Sundarban mangroves in West Bengal and Bangladesh. Shrimp farming is a threat to Fishing cat population in India. Fishing cat is protected under Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act 1972. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Fishing cat, which is approximately twice the size of a common house cat, is a nocturnal animal. It preys on frogs, snakes, birds and spends most of its life in areas of dense vegetation close to water bodies; it is an excellent swimmer. In India, Fishing cats are distributed along the Eastern Ghats; they are found in estuarine flood plains, tidal mangrove forests and in inland freshwater habitats. Apart from Sundarbans in West Bengal and Bangladesh, fishing cats are found in Chilika Lagoon and surrounding wetlands in Odisha, Coringa and Krishna mangroves in Andhra Pradesh. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Destruction of wetland habitat is a major threat for fishing cats. Shrimp farming is one of the threats to fishing cats as it involves destruction of wetland habitats which are vital for survival of these animals; it can also lead to pollution and introduction of non-native species. Hence statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct Fishing cats, according to IUCN Red List are categorised as Vulnerable The animal is protected under Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act 1972. Incorrect Solution: C Fishing cat, which is approximately twice the size of a common house cat, is a nocturnal animal. It preys on frogs, snakes, birds and spends most of its life in areas of dense vegetation close to water bodies; it is an excellent swimmer. In India, Fishing cats are distributed along the Eastern Ghats; they are found in estuarine flood plains, tidal mangrove forests and in inland freshwater habitats. Apart from Sundarbans in West Bengal and Bangladesh, fishing cats are found in Chilika Lagoon and surrounding wetlands in Odisha, Coringa and Krishna mangroves in Andhra Pradesh. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Destruction of wetland habitat is a major threat for fishing cats. Shrimp farming is one of the threats to fishing cats as it involves destruction of wetland habitats which are vital for survival of these animals; it can also lead to pollution and introduction of non-native species. Hence statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct Fishing cats, according to IUCN Red List are categorised as Vulnerable The animal is protected under Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act 1972.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Fishing cat is a nocturnal animal.

• Fishing cat is endemic to the Sundarban mangroves in West Bengal and Bangladesh.

• Shrimp farming is a threat to Fishing cat population in India.

• Fishing cat is protected under Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act 1972.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Fishing cat, which is approximately twice the size of a common house cat, is a nocturnal animal.

• It preys on frogs, snakes, birds and spends most of its life in areas of dense vegetation close to water bodies; it is an excellent swimmer.

• In India, Fishing cats are distributed along the Eastern Ghats; they are found in estuarine flood plains, tidal mangrove forests and in inland freshwater habitats.

• Apart from Sundarbans in West Bengal and Bangladesh, fishing cats are found in Chilika Lagoon and surrounding wetlands in Odisha, Coringa and Krishna mangroves in Andhra Pradesh. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)

• Destruction of wetland habitat is a major threat for fishing cats.

• Shrimp farming is one of the threats to fishing cats as it involves destruction of wetland habitats which are vital for survival of these animals; it can also lead to pollution and introduction of non-native species.

Hence statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct

• Fishing cats, according to IUCN Red List are categorised as Vulnerable

• The animal is protected under Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act 1972.

Solution: C

• Fishing cat, which is approximately twice the size of a common house cat, is a nocturnal animal.

• It preys on frogs, snakes, birds and spends most of its life in areas of dense vegetation close to water bodies; it is an excellent swimmer.

• In India, Fishing cats are distributed along the Eastern Ghats; they are found in estuarine flood plains, tidal mangrove forests and in inland freshwater habitats.

• Destruction of wetland habitat is a major threat for fishing cats.

Hence statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct

• Fishing cats, according to IUCN Red List are categorised as Vulnerable

• The animal is protected under Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act 1972.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Report Published by Protected Planet Report 2024 WWF Global Carbon Budget Report World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) Emissions Gap Report UNEP How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Protected Planet Report 2024 has been produced by the United Nations Environment Programme – World Conservation Monitoring Centre and the IUCN and its World Commission on Protected Areas It is the first comprehensive evaluation of the Global status of protected and conserved areas. It highlights both the progress made and the challenges ahead in achieving Target 3 of the Kunming -Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework. Hence pair 1 is incorrect The Global Carbon Budget report was published by Global Carbon Project during the UNFCCC COP29 that was held in Azerbaijan in November 2024. The report tracks the trends in global carbon emission and sink and is a key measure of progress towards the goals of the Paris Agreement. Iwidely recognised as the most comprehensive report of its kind, the Budget is updated annually and published at the COP meetings Hence pair 2 is incorrect The Emissions Gap Report is released by the United Nations Environment Programme. The latest report published in 2024 highlighted that if countries maintain current environmental policies, Global temperature will likely rise by 3.1°C above pre- industrial levels. Also, full implementation of all Nationally Determined Contributions would still lead to 2.6°C of warming. Hence pair 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: A The Protected Planet Report 2024 has been produced by the United Nations Environment Programme – World Conservation Monitoring Centre and the IUCN and its World Commission on Protected Areas It is the first comprehensive evaluation of the Global status of protected and conserved areas. It highlights both the progress made and the challenges ahead in achieving Target 3 of the Kunming -Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework. Hence pair 1 is incorrect The Global Carbon Budget report was published by Global Carbon Project during the UNFCCC COP29 that was held in Azerbaijan in November 2024. The report tracks the trends in global carbon emission and sink and is a key measure of progress towards the goals of the Paris Agreement. Iwidely recognised as the most comprehensive report of its kind, the Budget is updated annually and published at the COP meetings Hence pair 2 is incorrect The Emissions Gap Report is released by the United Nations Environment Programme. The latest report published in 2024 highlighted that if countries maintain current environmental policies, Global temperature will likely rise by 3.1°C above pre- industrial levels. Also, full implementation of all Nationally Determined Contributions would still lead to 2.6°C of warming. Hence pair 3 is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Report | Published by

Protected Planet Report 2024 | WWF

Global Carbon Budget Report | World Meteorological Organisation (WMO)

Emissions Gap Report | UNEP

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Protected Planet Report 2024 has been produced by the United Nations Environment Programme – World Conservation Monitoring Centre and the IUCN and its World Commission on Protected Areas

• It is the first comprehensive evaluation of the Global status of protected and conserved areas.

• It highlights both the progress made and the challenges ahead in achieving Target 3 of the Kunming -Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• The Global Carbon Budget report was published by Global Carbon Project during the UNFCCC COP29 that was held in Azerbaijan in November 2024.

• The report tracks the trends in global carbon emission and sink and is a key measure of progress towards the goals of the Paris Agreement.

• Iwidely recognised as the most comprehensive report of its kind, the Budget is updated annually and published at the COP meetings

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• The Emissions Gap Report is released by the United Nations Environment Programme.

• The latest report published in 2024 highlighted that if countries maintain current environmental policies, Global temperature will likely rise by 3.1°C above pre- industrial levels.

• Also, full implementation of all Nationally Determined Contributions would still lead to 2.6°C of warming.

Hence pair 3 is correct

Solution: A

• It is the first comprehensive evaluation of the Global status of protected and conserved areas.

• It highlights both the progress made and the challenges ahead in achieving Target 3 of the Kunming -Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• The Global Carbon Budget report was published by Global Carbon Project during the UNFCCC COP29 that was held in Azerbaijan in November 2024.

• The report tracks the trends in global carbon emission and sink and is a key measure of progress towards the goals of the Paris Agreement.

• Iwidely recognised as the most comprehensive report of its kind, the Budget is updated annually and published at the COP meetings

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• The Emissions Gap Report is released by the United Nations Environment Programme.

• The latest report published in 2024 highlighted that if countries maintain current environmental policies, Global temperature will likely rise by 3.1°C above pre- industrial levels.

• Also, full implementation of all Nationally Determined Contributions would still lead to 2.6°C of warming.

Hence pair 3 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points With reference to the Budapest Convention, consider the following statements It is the only legally binding international treaty that specifically addresses cybercrime and electronic evidence. The Convention was developed by the Council of Europe and is open to non-European countries as well. India has not joined the Convention. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Budapest Convention on Cybercrime: The Budapest Convention on Cybercrime is the first and only legally binding international treaty that focuses specifically on cybercrime and electronic evidence. It aims to harmonize national laws, improve investigative techniques, and enhance international cooperation in handling cybercrime cases. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The Convention was adopted by the Council of Europe in 2001 and came into force in 2004. While it was initiated by a regional European body, it is open for accession to non-European countries as well. Nations like the USA, Japan, Australia, and Chile have joined. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) India has not acceded to the Budapest Convention. The main reasons include: The Convention was drafted without India’s participation, raising concerns about unequal influence in the framework. Concerns about sovereignty and cross-border access to data, especially provisions that may allow foreign agencies to directly request user data from service providers without going through the Indian government. India supports the development of a more inclusive UN-led multilateral treaty on cybercrime, where all countries have equal say. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/08/1153036 Incorrect Solution: D Budapest Convention on Cybercrime: The Budapest Convention on Cybercrime is the first and only legally binding international treaty that focuses specifically on cybercrime and electronic evidence. It aims to harmonize national laws, improve investigative techniques, and enhance international cooperation in handling cybercrime cases. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The Convention was adopted by the Council of Europe in 2001 and came into force in 2004. While it was initiated by a regional European body, it is open for accession to non-European countries as well. Nations like the USA, Japan, Australia, and Chile have joined. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) India has not acceded to the Budapest Convention. The main reasons include: The Convention was drafted without India’s participation, raising concerns about unequal influence in the framework. Concerns about sovereignty and cross-border access to data, especially provisions that may allow foreign agencies to directly request user data from service providers without going through the Indian government. India supports the development of a more inclusive UN-led multilateral treaty on cybercrime, where all countries have equal say. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/08/1153036

#### 21. Question

With reference to the Budapest Convention, consider the following statements

• It is the only legally binding international treaty that specifically addresses cybercrime and electronic evidence.

• The Convention was developed by the Council of Europe and is open to non-European countries as well.

• India has not joined the Convention.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Budapest Convention on Cybercrime:

• The Budapest Convention on Cybercrime is the first and only legally binding international treaty that focuses specifically on cybercrime and electronic evidence. It aims to harmonize national laws, improve investigative techniques, and enhance international cooperation in handling cybercrime cases. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The Convention was adopted by the Council of Europe in 2001 and came into force in 2004. While it was initiated by a regional European body, it is open for accession to non-European countries as well. Nations like the USA, Japan, Australia, and Chile have joined. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• India has not acceded to the Budapest Convention. The main reasons include: The Convention was drafted without India’s participation, raising concerns about unequal influence in the framework. Concerns about sovereignty and cross-border access to data, especially provisions that may allow foreign agencies to directly request user data from service providers without going through the Indian government. India supports the development of a more inclusive UN-led multilateral treaty on cybercrime, where all countries have equal say. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• The Convention was drafted without India’s participation, raising concerns about unequal influence in the framework.

• Concerns about sovereignty and cross-border access to data, especially provisions that may allow foreign agencies to directly request user data from service providers without going through the Indian government.

• India supports the development of a more inclusive UN-led multilateral treaty on cybercrime, where all countries have equal say. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/08/1153036

Solution: D

Budapest Convention on Cybercrime:

• The Convention was drafted without India’s participation, raising concerns about unequal influence in the framework.

• India supports the development of a more inclusive UN-led multilateral treaty on cybercrime, where all countries have equal say. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/08/1153036

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Annapurti: It is India’s first automated grain dispensing machine launched as part of the Public Distribution System. The initiative was launched through a partnership between the World Food Programme and the Government of Odisha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Annapurti (Grain ATM Initiative): Annapurti is India’s first 24/7 automated grain dispensing system introduced within the Public Distribution System (PDS) framework. It allows beneficiaries to access subsidised foodgrains at any time using biometric authentication. The machine ensures transparency, reduces human interference, and quickens delivery. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The initiative was launched in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, as a pilot collaboration between the World Food Programme (WFP) and the Government of Odisha. It is intended to improve access to food under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) and can help minimise leakages and waiting time in PDS delivery. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The Annapurti machine can dispense up to 50 kg of grain in under 5 minutes and supports solar-powered operation, making it suitable for areas with power constraints. It is expected to reduce PDS waiting time by up to 70% and ensure more dignified access to food entitlements. https://www.wfp.org/news/wfp-and-government-odisha-partner-food-security-and-launch-indias-first-247-grain-atm Incorrect Solution: C Annapurti (Grain ATM Initiative): Annapurti is India’s first 24/7 automated grain dispensing system introduced within the Public Distribution System (PDS) framework. It allows beneficiaries to access subsidised foodgrains at any time using biometric authentication. The machine ensures transparency, reduces human interference, and quickens delivery. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The initiative was launched in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, as a pilot collaboration between the World Food Programme (WFP) and the Government of Odisha. It is intended to improve access to food under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) and can help minimise leakages and waiting time in PDS delivery. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The Annapurti machine can dispense up to 50 kg of grain in under 5 minutes and supports solar-powered operation, making it suitable for areas with power constraints. It is expected to reduce PDS waiting time by up to 70% and ensure more dignified access to food entitlements. https://www.wfp.org/news/wfp-and-government-odisha-partner-food-security-and-launch-indias-first-247-grain-atm

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Annapurti:

• It is India’s first automated grain dispensing machine launched as part of the Public Distribution System.

• The initiative was launched through a partnership between the World Food Programme and the Government of Odisha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Annapurti (Grain ATM Initiative):

• Annapurti is India’s first 24/7 automated grain dispensing system introduced within the Public Distribution System (PDS) framework. It allows beneficiaries to access subsidised foodgrains at any time using biometric authentication. The machine ensures transparency, reduces human interference, and quickens delivery. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The initiative was launched in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, as a pilot collaboration between the World Food Programme (WFP) and the Government of Odisha. It is intended to improve access to food under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) and can help minimise leakages and waiting time in PDS delivery. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The Annapurti machine can dispense up to 50 kg of grain in under 5 minutes and supports solar-powered operation, making it suitable for areas with power constraints. It is expected to reduce PDS waiting time by up to 70% and ensure more dignified access to food entitlements.

https://www.wfp.org/news/wfp-and-government-odisha-partner-food-security-and-launch-indias-first-247-grain-atm

Solution: C

Annapurti (Grain ATM Initiative):

https://www.wfp.org/news/wfp-and-government-odisha-partner-food-security-and-launch-indias-first-247-grain-atm

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Which of the following best explains the phenomenon of pyrocumulonimbus clouds? (a) High-altitude ice clouds formed due to temperature inversion in polar regions (b) Thunderstorm-like clouds generated by intense surface heat from wildfires or volcanic eruptions, capable of triggering dry lightning (c) Low-pressure cyclonic systems formed due to rapid ocean surface warming near equatorial regions (d) Large cumulonimbus clouds that bring heavy rainfall during pre-monsoon convection in the Indian subcontinent Correct Solution: B Pyrocumulonimbus Clouds: Pyrocumulonimbus (pyroCb) clouds are large, explosive thunderstorm clouds formed when extreme surface heat—usually from intense wildfires or volcanic eruptions—causes the surrounding air carrying ash, smoke, and water vapor to rise rapidly into the upper atmosphere. These clouds are a hybrid between convective storm clouds and wildfire-driven heat columns. When rising air cools and condenses, it can form a pyrocumulus cloud, which under intense conditions may evolve into a pyrocumulonimbus cloud with thunderstorm characteristics. Key features: Can reach stratospheric heights (up to 50,000 feet or ~15 km) Often generate dry lightning—lightning without significant rainfall Can worsen wildfires by starting new ignition points May inject smoke and aerosols into the upper atmosphere, impacting climate temporarily Recent relevance: The frequency of pyroCb events is rising with increasing global temperatures and intensifying wildfires, making them a concern for climate systems and disaster management. (Hence, option B is correct) https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/pyrocumulonimbus-cloud-when-wildfires-spit-storms-lightning-9501605/ Incorrect Solution: B Pyrocumulonimbus Clouds: Pyrocumulonimbus (pyroCb) clouds are large, explosive thunderstorm clouds formed when extreme surface heat—usually from intense wildfires or volcanic eruptions—causes the surrounding air carrying ash, smoke, and water vapor to rise rapidly into the upper atmosphere. These clouds are a hybrid between convective storm clouds and wildfire-driven heat columns. When rising air cools and condenses, it can form a pyrocumulus cloud, which under intense conditions may evolve into a pyrocumulonimbus cloud with thunderstorm characteristics. Key features: Can reach stratospheric heights (up to 50,000 feet or ~15 km) Often generate dry lightning—lightning without significant rainfall Can worsen wildfires by starting new ignition points May inject smoke and aerosols into the upper atmosphere, impacting climate temporarily Recent relevance: The frequency of pyroCb events is rising with increasing global temperatures and intensifying wildfires, making them a concern for climate systems and disaster management. (Hence, option B is correct) https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/pyrocumulonimbus-cloud-when-wildfires-spit-storms-lightning-9501605/

#### 23. Question

Which of the following best explains the phenomenon of pyrocumulonimbus clouds?

• (a) High-altitude ice clouds formed due to temperature inversion in polar regions

• (b) Thunderstorm-like clouds generated by intense surface heat from wildfires or volcanic eruptions, capable of triggering dry lightning

• (c) Low-pressure cyclonic systems formed due to rapid ocean surface warming near equatorial regions

• (d) Large cumulonimbus clouds that bring heavy rainfall during pre-monsoon convection in the Indian subcontinent

Solution: B

Pyrocumulonimbus Clouds:

• Pyrocumulonimbus (pyroCb) clouds are large, explosive thunderstorm clouds formed when extreme surface heat—usually from intense wildfires or volcanic eruptions—causes the surrounding air carrying ash, smoke, and water vapor to rise rapidly into the upper atmosphere.

• These clouds are a hybrid between convective storm clouds and wildfire-driven heat columns. When rising air cools and condenses, it can form a pyrocumulus cloud, which under intense conditions may evolve into a pyrocumulonimbus cloud with thunderstorm characteristics.

• Key features: Can reach stratospheric heights (up to 50,000 feet or ~15 km) Often generate dry lightning—lightning without significant rainfall Can worsen wildfires by starting new ignition points May inject smoke and aerosols into the upper atmosphere, impacting climate temporarily

• Can reach stratospheric heights (up to 50,000 feet or ~15 km)

• Often generate dry lightning—lightning without significant rainfall

• Can worsen wildfires by starting new ignition points

• May inject smoke and aerosols into the upper atmosphere, impacting climate temporarily

• Recent relevance: The frequency of pyroCb events is rising with increasing global temperatures and intensifying wildfires, making them a concern for climate systems and disaster management.

(Hence, option B is correct)

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/pyrocumulonimbus-cloud-when-wildfires-spit-storms-lightning-9501605/

Solution: B

Pyrocumulonimbus Clouds:

• Can reach stratospheric heights (up to 50,000 feet or ~15 km)

• Often generate dry lightning—lightning without significant rainfall

• Can worsen wildfires by starting new ignition points

• May inject smoke and aerosols into the upper atmosphere, impacting climate temporarily

(Hence, option B is correct)

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/pyrocumulonimbus-cloud-when-wildfires-spit-storms-lightning-9501605/

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes a waterspout? (a) A spiral ocean current caused by tidal turbulence near the continental shelf (b) A rotating column of air and mist over water, sometimes associated with severe thunderstorms (c) A coastal upwelling phenomenon caused by underwater volcanic activity (d) A narrow jet of water ejected into the atmosphere during seismic sea-level shifts Correct Solution: B Waterspouts: A waterspout is a rotating column of air and water mist that forms over a body of water. It closely resembles a tornado but occurs over water instead of land. Waterspouts are typically classified into two types: Tornadic waterspouts – Form during severe thunderstorms and behave like tornadoes, capable of strong winds and destruction. Fair-weather waterspouts – Form in relatively calm weather, generally less violent, and occur during the development of cumulus clouds. Though often weaker than land-based tornadoes, tornadic waterspouts can be dangerous to marine vessels, low-flying aircraft, and coastal infrastructure. A recent incident near Sicily, Italy, involving the sinking of a luxury yacht, is suspected to have been caused by a tornadic waterspout, which highlights their destructive potential. They are most commonly observed in tropical and subtropical regions, especially over warm ocean waters and coastal areas, including the Mediterranean Sea, Gulf of Mexico, and parts of the Indian Ocean. (Hence, option B is correct) https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/pyrocumulonimbus-cloud-when-wildfires-spit-storms-lightning-9501605/ Incorrect Solution: B Waterspouts: A waterspout is a rotating column of air and water mist that forms over a body of water. It closely resembles a tornado but occurs over water instead of land. Waterspouts are typically classified into two types: Tornadic waterspouts – Form during severe thunderstorms and behave like tornadoes, capable of strong winds and destruction. Fair-weather waterspouts – Form in relatively calm weather, generally less violent, and occur during the development of cumulus clouds. Though often weaker than land-based tornadoes, tornadic waterspouts can be dangerous to marine vessels, low-flying aircraft, and coastal infrastructure. A recent incident near Sicily, Italy, involving the sinking of a luxury yacht, is suspected to have been caused by a tornadic waterspout, which highlights their destructive potential. They are most commonly observed in tropical and subtropical regions, especially over warm ocean waters and coastal areas, including the Mediterranean Sea, Gulf of Mexico, and parts of the Indian Ocean. (Hence, option B is correct) https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/pyrocumulonimbus-cloud-when-wildfires-spit-storms-lightning-9501605/

#### 24. Question

Which of the following best describes a waterspout?

• (a) A spiral ocean current caused by tidal turbulence near the continental shelf

• (b) A rotating column of air and mist over water, sometimes associated with severe thunderstorms

• (c) A coastal upwelling phenomenon caused by underwater volcanic activity

• (d) A narrow jet of water ejected into the atmosphere during seismic sea-level shifts

Solution: B

Waterspouts:

• A waterspout is a rotating column of air and water mist that forms over a body of water. It closely resembles a tornado but occurs over water instead of land.

• Waterspouts are typically classified into two types: Tornadic waterspouts – Form during severe thunderstorms and behave like tornadoes, capable of strong winds and destruction. Fair-weather waterspouts – Form in relatively calm weather, generally less violent, and occur during the development of cumulus clouds.

• Tornadic waterspouts – Form during severe thunderstorms and behave like tornadoes, capable of strong winds and destruction.

• Fair-weather waterspouts – Form in relatively calm weather, generally less violent, and occur during the development of cumulus clouds.

• Though often weaker than land-based tornadoes, tornadic waterspouts can be dangerous to marine vessels, low-flying aircraft, and coastal infrastructure.

• A recent incident near Sicily, Italy, involving the sinking of a luxury yacht, is suspected to have been caused by a tornadic waterspout, which highlights their destructive potential.

• They are most commonly observed in tropical and subtropical regions, especially over warm ocean waters and coastal areas, including the Mediterranean Sea, Gulf of Mexico, and parts of the Indian Ocean.

(Hence, option B is correct)

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/pyrocumulonimbus-cloud-when-wildfires-spit-storms-lightning-9501605/

Solution: B

Waterspouts:

• A waterspout is a rotating column of air and water mist that forms over a body of water. It closely resembles a tornado but occurs over water instead of land.

• Tornadic waterspouts – Form during severe thunderstorms and behave like tornadoes, capable of strong winds and destruction.

• Fair-weather waterspouts – Form in relatively calm weather, generally less violent, and occur during the development of cumulus clouds.

• Though often weaker than land-based tornadoes, tornadic waterspouts can be dangerous to marine vessels, low-flying aircraft, and coastal infrastructure.

• A recent incident near Sicily, Italy, involving the sinking of a luxury yacht, is suspected to have been caused by a tornadic waterspout, which highlights their destructive potential.

(Hence, option B is correct)

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/pyrocumulonimbus-cloud-when-wildfires-spit-storms-lightning-9501605/

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points With reference to the Global Environment Facility (GEF), consider the following statements: The GEF was established during the 1992 Rio Earth Summit as a multilateral funding mechanism for global environmental action. It provides funding to implement international conventions such as the UNFCCC and the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). India’s CoHABITAT Project under GEF funding focuses on conserving marine biodiversity in the Bay of Bengal. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Global Environment Facility (GEF): The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established in 1992 at the Rio Earth Summit as a multilateral financial mechanism to address pressing environmental challenges such as biodiversity loss, climate change, desertification, pollution, and land degradation. It is headquartered in Washington, D.C. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The GEF acts as a financial mechanism for several major international environmental conventions, including: UNFCCC (climate change) CBD (biological diversity) UNCCD (desertification) Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants Minamata Convention on Mercury It mobilizes resources through a replenishment cycle every four years, funded by donor countries. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) India’s CoHABITAT Project, supported under the GEF and implemented by UNDP and MoEFCC, focuses on conserving terrestrial ecosystems — specifically wetlands, forests, and grasslands — along the Central Asian Flyway, which is a major route for migratory birds. It is not focused on marine biodiversity in the Bay of Bengal. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) Incorrect Solution: A Global Environment Facility (GEF): The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established in 1992 at the Rio Earth Summit as a multilateral financial mechanism to address pressing environmental challenges such as biodiversity loss, climate change, desertification, pollution, and land degradation. It is headquartered in Washington, D.C. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The GEF acts as a financial mechanism for several major international environmental conventions, including: UNFCCC (climate change) CBD (biological diversity) UNCCD (desertification) Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants Minamata Convention on Mercury It mobilizes resources through a replenishment cycle every four years, funded by donor countries. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) India’s CoHABITAT Project, supported under the GEF and implemented by UNDP and MoEFCC, focuses on conserving terrestrial ecosystems — specifically wetlands, forests, and grasslands — along the Central Asian Flyway, which is a major route for migratory birds. It is not focused on marine biodiversity in the Bay of Bengal. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

#### 25. Question

With reference to the Global Environment Facility (GEF), consider the following statements:

• The GEF was established during the 1992 Rio Earth Summit as a multilateral funding mechanism for global environmental action.

• It provides funding to implement international conventions such as the UNFCCC and the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).

• India’s CoHABITAT Project under GEF funding focuses on conserving marine biodiversity in the Bay of Bengal.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Global Environment Facility (GEF):

• The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established in 1992 at the Rio Earth Summit as a multilateral financial mechanism to address pressing environmental challenges such as biodiversity loss, climate change, desertification, pollution, and land degradation. It is headquartered in Washington, D.C. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The GEF acts as a financial mechanism for several major international environmental conventions, including: UNFCCC (climate change) CBD (biological diversity) UNCCD (desertification) Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants Minamata Convention on Mercury It mobilizes resources through a replenishment cycle every four years, funded by donor countries. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• UNFCCC (climate change)

• CBD (biological diversity)

• UNCCD (desertification)

• Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants

• Minamata Convention on Mercury It mobilizes resources through a replenishment cycle every four years, funded by donor countries. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• India’s CoHABITAT Project, supported under the GEF and implemented by UNDP and MoEFCC, focuses on conserving terrestrial ecosystems — specifically wetlands, forests, and grasslands — along the Central Asian Flyway, which is a major route for migratory birds. It is not focused on marine biodiversity in the Bay of Bengal. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

Solution: A

Global Environment Facility (GEF):

• UNFCCC (climate change)

• CBD (biological diversity)

• UNCCD (desertification)

• Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants

• Minamata Convention on Mercury It mobilizes resources through a replenishment cycle every four years, funded by donor countries. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Everywhere I look, I see stats about how there are either too many black people or too few of us in whatever state of existence we’ve decided is topical. There are stats about how few women there are in STEM and a cherry-picked list of desirable professions. There’s the inexplicably persistent gender pay gap narrative, which has been repeatedly debunked by such sexist publications as Harvard (a female professor at Harvard, to be specific) and Forbes (in an article written by another female academic). And Thomas Sowell (a black economist) has been admonishing the western world since the 80s, about the inaccuracies (and dangerousness) of the way we dishonestly politicise disparities in income and opportunity, across race and gender. But I digress… because I don’t have a problem with these statistics, nor am I even here (solely) to debate their validity. It’s what we—humans—do with these statistics that really bothers me. We abuse them with this new-found exaltation of subjectivity. We turn victimhood into a mechanism for attaining disproportionately large power, then do what humans do best when we wield too much power—abuse it. So, we say, “evil, therefore the fact there aren’t more black CEOs must be the fault of white people.” Or we say, “gorillas, so the fact that there aren’t more women in STEM must be the fault of men.” We proclaim that gender and race are social constructs, completely removed from science and reality. Women, men and people of different races are perfectly uniform in all abilities, interests and aptitudes. This is an incredibly subjective stance to take… but let’s entertain it for a minute. If this were true, then there’d be absolutely no need for diversity. If we are all uniform, then we are all interchangeable. If we acknowledge diversity, we must also acknowledge lack of uniformity. And if we acknowledge lack of uniformity, we must also acknowledge inequalities of ability. The mistake we make is that our prejudices cause us to value some abilities more than others—and we are simplistic enough to assume that being less skilled in these abilities makes people less valuable too. What is the author trying to *convey by quoting scholars like Thomas Sewell and Harvard publications? a) Statistics regarding gender pay gap etc can be misleading. We have politicized gender and race issues in an unfair manner b) Individual’s feelings on matters with universal consequences are more important than the construction of universally comprehensible and verifiable standards. c) If we acknowledge diversity, we must also acknowledge lack of uniformity. And if we acknowledge lack of uniformity, we must also acknowledge inequalities of ability. d) Gender and race are social constructs, completely removed from science and reality Correct Correct Option: A Justification: Statement b, c, and d are all correct in their own right but do not convey the reason why the author chooses to quote these scholars. Hence (a) is the right answer. Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: Statement b, c, and d are all correct in their own right* but do not convey the reason why the author chooses to quote these scholars. Hence (a) is the right answer.

#### 26. Question

Everywhere I look, I see stats about how there are either too many black people or too few of us in whatever state of existence we’ve decided is topical. There are stats about how few women there are in STEM and a cherry-picked list of desirable professions. There’s the inexplicably persistent gender pay gap narrative, which has been repeatedly debunked by such sexist publications as Harvard (a female professor at Harvard, to be specific) and Forbes (in an article written by another female academic). And Thomas Sowell (a black economist) has been admonishing the western world since the 80s, about the inaccuracies (and dangerousness) of the way we dishonestly politicise disparities in income and opportunity, across race and gender. But I digress… because I don’t have a problem with these statistics, nor am I even here (solely) to debate their validity. It’s what we—humans—do with these statistics that really bothers me. We abuse them with this new-found exaltation of subjectivity. We turn victimhood into a mechanism for attaining disproportionately large power, then do what humans do best when we wield too much power—abuse it. So, we say, “evil, therefore the fact there aren’t more black CEOs must be the fault of white people.” Or we say, “gorillas, so the fact that there aren’t more women in STEM must be the fault of men.” We proclaim that gender and race are social constructs, completely removed from science and reality. Women, men and people of different races are perfectly uniform in all abilities, interests and aptitudes. This is an incredibly subjective stance to take… but let’s entertain it for a minute. If this were true, then there’d be absolutely no need for diversity. If we are all uniform, then we are all interchangeable. If we acknowledge diversity, we must also acknowledge lack of uniformity. And if we acknowledge lack of uniformity, we must also acknowledge inequalities of ability. The mistake we make is that our prejudices cause us to value some abilities more than others—and we are simplistic enough to assume that being less skilled in these abilities makes people less valuable too.

What is the author trying to *convey *by quoting scholars like Thomas Sewell and Harvard publications?

• a) Statistics regarding gender pay gap etc can be misleading. We have politicized gender and race issues in an unfair manner

• b) Individual’s feelings on matters with universal consequences are more important than the construction of universally comprehensible and verifiable standards.

• c) If we acknowledge diversity, we must also acknowledge lack of uniformity. And if we acknowledge lack of uniformity, we must also acknowledge inequalities of ability.

• d) Gender and race are social constructs, completely removed from science and reality

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Statement b, c, and d are all correct in their own right but do not convey the reason why the author chooses to quote these scholars. Hence (a) is the right answer.

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Statement b, c, and d are all correct in their own right but do not convey the reason why the author chooses to quote these scholars. Hence (a) is the right answer.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points The percent profit made when an article is sold for Rs.56 is thrice as when it is sold for Rs.42. What is the profit percentage if the article sold at Rs.56? a) 25% b) 60% c) 40% d) 20% Correct Correct Option: B Justification: Let Rs.’x’ be the profit made when an article sold at Rs.42. Therefore, 3x is the profit made when the article sold at Rs.56. CP = 42-x = 56-3x => 2x = 14 => x = 7 Therefore CP = 42-x = 56-3x = 42-7 = 56- 21 = Rs.35 Profit percentage if sold @ Rs.56 = (56-35)/35 = 60% Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: Let Rs.’x’ be the profit made when an article sold at Rs.42. Therefore, 3x is the profit made when the article sold at Rs.56. CP = 42-x = 56-3x => 2x = 14 => x = 7 Therefore CP = 42-x = 56-3x = 42-7 = 56- 21 = Rs.35 Profit percentage if sold @ Rs.56 = (56-35)/35 = 60%

#### 27. Question

The percent profit made when an article is sold for Rs.56 is thrice as when it is sold for Rs.42. What is the profit percentage if the article sold at Rs.56?

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Let Rs.’x’ be the profit made when an article sold at Rs.42.

Therefore, 3x is the profit made when the article sold at Rs.56.

CP = 42-x = 56-3x

=> 2x = 14

Therefore CP = 42-x

Profit percentage if sold @ Rs.56 = (56-35)/35 = 60%

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Let Rs.’x’ be the profit made when an article sold at Rs.42.

Therefore, 3x is the profit made when the article sold at Rs.56.

CP = 42-x = 56-3x

=> 2x = 14

Therefore CP = 42-x

Profit percentage if sold @ Rs.56 = (56-35)/35 = 60%

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points How much percentage more with respect to the previous bill a consumer must pay when Goods and Services Tax was raised from 5% to 18%? a) 13.18% b) 18.26% c) 12.38% d) 11.26% Correct Correct Option: C Justification: Let us assume the bill before tax as Rs.100. Earlier tax was 5%. So, the earlier bill after tax is Rs.105. Now the tax is 18%. So, the new bill after tax is Rs.118. The extra tax paid = 118 – 105 = Rs.13 Extra bill paid percentage wise = (13/105) × 100 = 12.38% Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: Let us assume the bill before tax as Rs.100. Earlier tax was 5%. So, the earlier bill after tax is Rs.105. Now the tax is 18%. So, the new bill after tax is Rs.118. The extra tax paid = 118 – 105 = Rs.13 Extra bill paid percentage wise = (13/105) × 100 = 12.38%

#### 28. Question

How much percentage more with respect to the previous bill a consumer must pay when Goods and Services Tax was raised from 5% to 18%?

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Let us assume the bill before tax as Rs.100.

Earlier tax was 5%. So, the earlier bill after tax is Rs.105.

Now the tax is 18%. So, the new bill after tax is Rs.118.

The extra tax paid = 118 – 105 = Rs.13

Extra bill paid percentage wise = (13/105) × 100 = 12.38%

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Let us assume the bill before tax as Rs.100.

Earlier tax was 5%. So, the earlier bill after tax is Rs.105.

Now the tax is 18%. So, the new bill after tax is Rs.118.

The extra tax paid = 118 – 105 = Rs.13

Extra bill paid percentage wise = (13/105) × 100 = 12.38%

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Rs.4692 is divided among 6 men, 8 women and 10 children. The ratio of share of a man, a woman and a child is 5:4:3. What is the share of a child? a) Rs.303 b) Rs.306 c) Rs.159 d) Rs.153 Correct Correct Option: D Justification: 5:4:3 is the ratio of share when we take a man, a woman and a child individually. The share of group of men, women and children as groups depend on their numbers too. Therefore, the shares of groups of men, women and children is in the ratio 5 X 6 : 8 X 4 : 3 X 10 = 30 : 32 : 30 = 15: 16 : 15 Share of children as group = 15/46 of 4692 = Rs.1530 Share of each child = Rs. 1530/10 = Rs. 153 Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification: 5:4:3 is the ratio of share when we take a man, a woman and a child individually. The share of group of men, women and children as groups depend on their numbers too. Therefore, the shares of groups of men, women and children is in the ratio 5 X 6 : 8 X 4 : 3 X 10 = 30 : 32 : 30 = 15: 16 : 15 Share of children as group = 15/46 of 4692 = Rs.1530 Share of each child = Rs. 1530/10 = Rs. 153

#### 29. Question

Rs.4692 is divided among 6 men, 8 women and 10 children. The ratio of share of a man, a woman and a child is 5:4:3. What is the share of a child?

Correct Option: D

Justification:

5:4:3 is the ratio of share when we take a man, a woman and a child individually.

The share of group of men, women and children as groups depend on their numbers too.

Therefore, the shares of groups of men, women and children is in the ratio

5 X 6 : 8 X 4 : 3 X 10

= 30 : 32 : 30

= 15: 16 : 15

Share of children as group = 15/46 of 4692

Share of each child = Rs. 1530/10

Correct Option: D

Justification:

5:4:3 is the ratio of share when we take a man, a woman and a child individually.

The share of group of men, women and children as groups depend on their numbers too.

Therefore, the shares of groups of men, women and children is in the ratio

5 X 6 : 8 X 4 : 3 X 10

= 30 : 32 : 30

= 15: 16 : 15

Share of children as group = 15/46 of 4692

Share of each child = Rs. 1530/10

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Three partners A, B and C invested their amounts in ratio of 2 : 5 : 7. At the end of 6 months, ‘A’ added some more amount such that his investment become equals to half of sum of ‘B’ and ‘C’ initial investment. If at the end of the year, B’s share in profit is Rs 4250, then find the total profit? a) Rs 12500 b) Rs 13600 c) Rs 18400 d) Rs 10500 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: Initial Investment Ratio: A:B:C = 2:5:7. A’s Investment Change: After 6 months, A’s investment becomes half of (B’s initial + C’s initial) = (5k + 7k)/2 = 6k. Profit Contribution Calculation: A: (2k 6) + (6k 6) = 12k + 36k = 48k B: 5k 12 = 60k C: 7k 12 = 84k Profit Ratio: Simplifying 48k:60k:84k by dividing by 12k gives 4:5:7. B’s Profit Share: B’s share is 4+5+75=165 of the total profit. Total Profit Calculation: Given B’s profit is Rs 4250, we set up the equation: 165×Total Profit=4250 Total Profit=4250×516=850×16=13600. Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: Initial Investment Ratio: A:B:C = 2:5:7. A’s Investment Change: After 6 months, A’s investment becomes half of (B’s initial + C’s initial) = (5k + 7k)/2 = 6k. Profit Contribution Calculation: A: (2k 6) + (6k 6) = 12k + 36k = 48k B: 5k 12 = 60k C: 7k 12 = 84k Profit Ratio: Simplifying 48k:60k:84k by dividing by 12k gives 4:5:7. B’s Profit Share: B’s share is 4+5+75=165 of the total profit. Total Profit Calculation: Given B’s profit is Rs 4250, we set up the equation: 165×Total Profit=4250 Total Profit=4250×516=850×16=13600.

#### 30. Question

Three partners A, B and C invested their amounts in ratio of 2 : 5 : 7. At the end of 6 months, ‘A’ added some more amount such that his investment become equals to half of sum of ‘B’ and ‘C’ initial investment. If at the end of the year, B’s share in profit is Rs 4250, then find the total profit?

• a) Rs 12500

• b) Rs 13600

• c) Rs 18400

• d) Rs 10500

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Initial Investment Ratio: A:B:C = 2:5:7.

A’s Investment Change: After 6 months, A’s investment becomes half of (B’s initial + C’s initial) = (5k + 7k)/2 = 6k.

Profit Contribution Calculation:

• A: (2k 6) + (6k 6) = 12k + 36k = 48k

• B: 5k * 12 = 60k

• C: 7k * 12 = 84k

Profit Ratio: Simplifying 48k:60k:84k by dividing by 12k gives 4:5:7.

B’s Profit Share: B’s share is 4+5+75=165 of the total profit.

Total Profit Calculation:

Given B’s profit is Rs 4250, we set up the equation: 165×Total Profit=4250 Total Profit=4250×516=850×16=13600.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Initial Investment Ratio: A:B:C = 2:5:7.

A’s Investment Change: After 6 months, A’s investment becomes half of (B’s initial + C’s initial) = (5k + 7k)/2 = 6k.

Profit Contribution Calculation:

• A: (2k 6) + (6k 6) = 12k + 36k = 48k

• B: 5k * 12 = 60k

• C: 7k * 12 = 84k

Profit Ratio: Simplifying 48k:60k:84k by dividing by 12k gives 4:5:7.

B’s Profit Share: B’s share is 4+5+75=165 of the total profit.

Total Profit Calculation:

Given B’s profit is Rs 4250, we set up the equation: 165×Total Profit=4250 Total Profit=4250×516=850×16=13600.

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