DAY – 16 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – AGRICULTURE, Subject-wise Test 5,6,20, Textbook-wise Test 16 and Aug & Sep 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Assertion: The Indian government has launched the Soil Health Card Scheme. Reason: It aims to assess the nutrient status of every farm to increase the use of chemical fertilizers. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false. Correct Solution: C The Indian government did launch the Soil Health Card Scheme. The scheme was initiated to provide a health card to farmers which would carry crop-wise recommendations of nutrients and fertilizers required for the individual farms to help farmers to improve productivity through judicious use of inputs. All soil samples are tested in various soil testing labs across the country to ascertain information on soil health The aim is not to increase the use of chemical fertilizers but to promote balanced and judicious use of fertilizers. The card provides information on the deficit and surplus of specific nutrients in a particular farm’s soil, in addition to advising farmers on the dosages of different fertilizers required for different crops. This helps in curbing the indiscriminate use of fertilizers which can lead to soil degradation, and instead promotes sustainable agriculture. Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/rajnath-singh-announces-soil-health-card-initiative-for-chhattisgarh-farmers/articleshow/108350697.cms Trend: sustainable agriculture Approach: Statement 2 can be eliminated as incorrect as sustainable/conservation agriculture discourages the use of chemical inputs. Incorrect Solution: C The Indian government did launch the Soil Health Card Scheme. The scheme was initiated to provide a health card to farmers which would carry crop-wise recommendations of nutrients and fertilizers required for the individual farms to help farmers to improve productivity through judicious use of inputs. All soil samples are tested in various soil testing labs across the country to ascertain information on soil health The aim is not to increase the use of chemical fertilizers but to promote balanced and judicious use of fertilizers. The card provides information on the deficit and surplus of specific nutrients in a particular farm’s soil, in addition to advising farmers on the dosages of different fertilizers required for different crops. This helps in curbing the indiscriminate use of fertilizers which can lead to soil degradation, and instead promotes sustainable agriculture. Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/rajnath-singh-announces-soil-health-card-initiative-for-chhattisgarh-farmers/articleshow/108350697.cms Trend: sustainable agriculture Approach: Statement 2 can be eliminated as incorrect as sustainable/conservation agriculture discourages the use of chemical inputs.

#### 1. Question

Assertion:

The Indian government has launched the Soil Health Card Scheme.

Reason:

It aims to assess the nutrient status of every farm to increase the use of chemical fertilizers.

• (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

• (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

• (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

• (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Solution: C

The Indian government did launch the Soil Health Card Scheme. The scheme was initiated to provide a health card to farmers which would carry crop-wise recommendations of nutrients and fertilizers required for the individual farms to help farmers to improve productivity through judicious use of inputs. All soil samples are tested in various soil testing labs across the country to ascertain information on soil health

The aim is not to increase the use of chemical fertilizers but to promote balanced and judicious use of fertilizers. The card provides information on the deficit and surplus of specific nutrients in a particular farm’s soil, in addition to advising farmers on the dosages of different fertilizers required for different crops. This helps in curbing the indiscriminate use of fertilizers which can lead to soil degradation, and instead promotes sustainable agriculture.

Trend: sustainable agriculture

Approach: Statement 2 can be eliminated as incorrect as sustainable/conservation agriculture discourages the use of chemical inputs.

Solution: C

Trend: sustainable agriculture

Approach: Statement 2 can be eliminated as incorrect as sustainable/conservation agriculture discourages the use of chemical inputs.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO) under the Essential Commodities Act, 1957: It regulates the import, manufacture, sale, and quality of fertilizers in India. It mandates that all fertilizers must be sold under a generic name. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements given above are correct. Fertilizer (Control) Order, 1985 which is administered by Deptt. of Agriculture Cooperation, Govt. of India has been issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. The FCO lays ,down as to what substances qualify for use as fertilizers in the soil, product-wise specifications, methods for sampling and analysis of fertilizers, procedure for obtaining license/registration as manufacture/dealer in fertilizers and conditions to be fulfilled for trading thereof, etc. The Central Government may, with a view to regulating equitable distribution of fertilisers and making fertilisers available at fair prices, by notification in the Official Gazette, fix the maximum prices or rates at which any fertiliser may be sold by a dealer, manufacturer, importer or a pool handling agency The FCO also mandates that the fertilizers be sold under a generic name, not under a trade name. This is to ensure that the farmers know the actual chemical composition of the fertilizers they are purchasing. The use of generic names helps in standardizing the fertilizers in the market and prevents any deceptive marketing practices that may mislead the consumer about the nature or efficacy of the product. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important legislations Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C Both statements given above are correct. Fertilizer (Control) Order, 1985 which is administered by Deptt. of Agriculture Cooperation, Govt. of India has been issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. The FCO lays ,down as to what substances qualify for use as fertilizers in the soil, product-wise specifications, methods for sampling and analysis of fertilizers, procedure for obtaining license/registration as manufacture/dealer in fertilizers and conditions to be fulfilled for trading thereof, etc. The Central Government may, with a view to regulating equitable distribution of fertilisers and making fertilisers available at fair prices, by notification in the Official Gazette, fix the maximum prices or rates at which any fertiliser may be sold by a dealer, manufacturer, importer or a pool handling agency The FCO also mandates that the fertilizers be sold under a generic name, not under a trade name. This is to ensure that the farmers know the actual chemical composition of the fertilizers they are purchasing. The use of generic names helps in standardizing the fertilizers in the market and prevents any deceptive marketing practices that may mislead the consumer about the nature or efficacy of the product. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important legislations Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO) under the Essential Commodities Act, 1957:

• It regulates the import, manufacture, sale, and quality of fertilizers in India.

• It mandates that all fertilizers must be sold under a generic name.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both statements given above are correct.

Fertilizer (Control) Order, 1985 which is administered by Deptt. of Agriculture Cooperation, Govt. of India has been issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. The FCO lays ,down as to what substances qualify for use as fertilizers in the soil, product-wise specifications, methods for sampling and analysis of fertilizers, procedure for obtaining license/registration as manufacture/dealer in fertilizers and conditions to be fulfilled for trading thereof, etc.

The Central Government may, with a view to regulating equitable distribution of fertilisers and making fertilisers available at fair prices, by notification in the Official Gazette, fix the maximum prices or rates at which any fertiliser may be sold by a dealer, manufacturer, importer or a pool handling agency

The FCO also mandates that the fertilizers be sold under a generic name, not under a trade name. This is to ensure that the farmers know the actual chemical composition of the fertilizers they are purchasing. The use of generic names helps in standardizing the fertilizers in the market and prevents any deceptive marketing practices that may mislead the consumer about the nature or efficacy of the product.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

Both statements given above are correct.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Green manuring is an agricultural practice that primarily contributes to: (a) Controlling weed growth by covering the soil (b) Providing a habitat for beneficial insects (c) Adding organic matter and nutrients to the soil (d) Breaking the life cycle of soil-borne pests Correct Solution: C Green manuring can be defined as a practice of ploughing or turning into the soil, under composed fresh green plant tissue for the purpose of improving fertility status, physical and biological condition of the soil. Characteristic of Green Manuring Crops: Ø Capable of establishing and growing quickly. Ø Tolerant to adverse climatic conditions such as drought, water logging, high and low temperatures etc and tolerant to pests and diseases. Ø Should possess adequate Rhizobium nodulation potential and must be effective nitrogen fixer. Ø Should be capable of growing very fast and capable of accumulating sufficient fixed N in 4-6 weeks. Ø Easy to incorporate and quickly decomposable Source: https://agri-horti.assam.gov.in/sites/default/files/swf_utility_folder/departments/diragri_medhassu_in_oid_4/portlet/level_2/11%28B%29.4.pdf Trend: conservation agriculture Approach: Option which promotes and explains the addition of an organic matter i.e option C. Incorrect Solution: C Green manuring can be defined as a practice of ploughing or turning into the soil, under composed fresh green plant tissue for the purpose of improving fertility status, physical and biological condition of the soil. Characteristic of Green Manuring Crops: Ø Capable of establishing and growing quickly. Ø Tolerant to adverse climatic conditions such as drought, water logging, high and low temperatures etc and tolerant to pests and diseases. Ø Should possess adequate Rhizobium nodulation potential and must be effective nitrogen fixer. Ø Should be capable of growing very fast and capable of accumulating sufficient fixed N in 4-6 weeks. Ø Easy to incorporate and quickly decomposable Source: https://agri-horti.assam.gov.in/sites/default/files/swf_utility_folder/departments/diragri_medhassu_in_oid_4/portlet/level_2/11%28B%29.4.pdf Trend: conservation agriculture Approach: Option which promotes and explains the addition of an organic matter i.e option C.

#### 3. Question

Green manuring is an agricultural practice that primarily contributes to:

• (a) Controlling weed growth by covering the soil

• (b) Providing a habitat for beneficial insects

• (c) Adding organic matter and nutrients to the soil

• (d) Breaking the life cycle of soil-borne pests

Solution: C

Green manuring can be defined as a practice of ploughing or turning into the soil, under composed fresh green plant tissue for the purpose of improving fertility status, physical and biological condition of the soil.

Characteristic of Green Manuring Crops:

Ø Capable of establishing and growing quickly.

Ø Tolerant to adverse climatic conditions such as drought, water logging, high and low temperatures etc and tolerant to pests and diseases.

Ø Should possess adequate Rhizobium nodulation potential and must be effective nitrogen fixer.

Ø Should be capable of growing very fast and capable of accumulating sufficient fixed N in 4-6 weeks.

Ø Easy to incorporate and quickly decomposable

Trend: conservation agriculture

Approach: Option which promotes and explains the addition of an organic matter i.e option C.

Solution: C

Characteristic of Green Manuring Crops:

Ø Capable of establishing and growing quickly.

Ø Tolerant to adverse climatic conditions such as drought, water logging, high and low temperatures etc and tolerant to pests and diseases.

Ø Should possess adequate Rhizobium nodulation potential and must be effective nitrogen fixer.

Ø Should be capable of growing very fast and capable of accumulating sufficient fixed N in 4-6 weeks.

Ø Easy to incorporate and quickly decomposable

Trend: conservation agriculture

Approach: Option which promotes and explains the addition of an organic matter i.e option C.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about biofertilizers commonly used in Indian agriculture: Rhizobium is utilized primarily for nitrogen fixation in leguminous crops such as pulses and soybean. Azotobacter can be used for nitrogen fixation in non-leguminous crops like wheat and maize. Blue-green algae can be employed as biofertilizers in rice paddy fields. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C All statements are correct. Biofertilizers are living microorganisms that enhance nutrient absorption in plants. They include bacteria, fungi, algae, and actinimycetes. Benefits:- Nitrogen fixation in legumes Phosphate solubilization Organic matter decomposition Increased nutrient availability Yield improvement without soil degradation Types: – Bacterial: Rhizobium, Azospirillum, Azotobacter, Phosphobacteria – Fungal: Mycorrhiza Algal: Blue-green algae, Azolla Actinimycetes: Frankia Common Biofertilizers in India: Rhizobium: Legumes (pulses, groundnut, soybean) Azotobacter: Non-legumes (wheat, sorghum, maize) Azospirillum: Non-legumes (maize, sorghum) Phosphate Solubilizers: All crops Blue-green algae: Rice Mycorrhizae: Trees, crops Source: https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/agri-inputs/bio-inputs/bioinputs-for-nutrient-management/biofertilizers Trend: sustainable agriculture Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C All statements are correct. Biofertilizers are living microorganisms that enhance nutrient absorption in plants. They include bacteria, fungi, algae, and actinimycetes. Benefits:- Nitrogen fixation in legumes Phosphate solubilization Organic matter decomposition Increased nutrient availability Yield improvement without soil degradation Types: – Bacterial: Rhizobium, Azospirillum, Azotobacter, Phosphobacteria – Fungal: Mycorrhiza Algal: Blue-green algae, Azolla Actinimycetes: Frankia Common Biofertilizers in India: Rhizobium: Legumes (pulses, groundnut, soybean) Azotobacter: Non-legumes (wheat, sorghum, maize) Azospirillum: Non-legumes (maize, sorghum) Phosphate Solubilizers: All crops Blue-green algae: Rice Mycorrhizae: Trees, crops Source: https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/agri-inputs/bio-inputs/bioinputs-for-nutrient-management/biofertilizers Trend: sustainable agriculture Approach: applied knowledge

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about biofertilizers commonly used in Indian agriculture:

• Rhizobium is utilized primarily for nitrogen fixation in leguminous crops such as pulses and soybean.

• Azotobacter can be used for nitrogen fixation in non-leguminous crops like wheat and maize.

• Blue-green algae can be employed as biofertilizers in rice paddy fields.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

All statements are correct.

Biofertilizers are living microorganisms that enhance nutrient absorption in plants. They include bacteria, fungi, algae, and actinimycetes.

Benefits:-

• Nitrogen fixation in legumes

• Phosphate solubilization

• Organic matter decomposition

• Increased nutrient availability

• Yield improvement without soil degradation

Types: –

• Bacterial: Rhizobium, Azospirillum, Azotobacter, Phosphobacteria – Fungal: Mycorrhiza

• Algal: Blue-green algae, Azolla

• Actinimycetes: Frankia

Common Biofertilizers in India:

• Rhizobium: Legumes (pulses, groundnut, soybean)

• Azotobacter: Non-legumes (wheat, sorghum, maize)

• Azospirillum: Non-legumes (maize, sorghum)

• Phosphate Solubilizers: All crops

• Blue-green algae: Rice

• Mycorrhizae: Trees, crops

Trend: sustainable agriculture

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: C

All statements are correct.

Biofertilizers are living microorganisms that enhance nutrient absorption in plants. They include bacteria, fungi, algae, and actinimycetes.

Benefits:-

• Nitrogen fixation in legumes

• Phosphate solubilization

• Organic matter decomposition

• Increased nutrient availability

• Yield improvement without soil degradation

Types: –

• Bacterial: Rhizobium, Azospirillum, Azotobacter, Phosphobacteria – Fungal: Mycorrhiza

• Algal: Blue-green algae, Azolla

• Actinimycetes: Frankia

Common Biofertilizers in India:

• Rhizobium: Legumes (pulses, groundnut, soybean)

• Azotobacter: Non-legumes (wheat, sorghum, maize)

• Azospirillum: Non-legumes (maize, sorghum)

• Phosphate Solubilizers: All crops

• Blue-green algae: Rice

• Mycorrhizae: Trees, crops

Trend: sustainable agriculture

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the supply chain of seed in India: The Government of India is involved in the allotment of breeder seed to various state governments and agencies. ICAR institutes and SAUs are responsible for the production of breeder seeds. Certified seeds are distributed directly to farmers without involving any agencies or distributors. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B There are four generally recognized classes of seeds. They are Breeder seed Foundation seed Registered seed Certified seed The basis of seed multiplication of all notified varieties/hybrids is the Nucleus seed. Definition of seed classes Nuclear seed : This is the hundred percent genetically pure seed with physical purity and produced by the original breeder/Institute /State Agriculture University (SAU) from basic nucleus seed stock. A pedigree certificate is issued by the producing breeder. Breeder seed : The progeny of nucleus seed multiplied in large area as per indent of Department of Agriculture and Cooperation (DOAC), Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India, under supervision of plant breeder / institute / SAUs and monitored by a committee consisting of the representatives of state seed certification agency, national / state seed corporations, ICAR nominee and concerned breeder. This is also hundred percent physical and genetic pure seed for production of foundation seed. A golden yellow colour certificate is issued for this category of seed by the producing breeder. Foundation seed : The progeny of breeder seed produced by recognized seed producing agencies in public and private sector, under supervision of seed certification agencies in such a way that its quality is maintained according to prescribed field ad seed standards. A white colour certificate is issued for foundation seed by seed certification agencies. Registered seed : Registered seed shall be the progeny of foundation seed that is so handled as to maintain its genetic identity and purity according to standard specified for the particular crop being certified. A purple colour certificate is issued for this category of seed. Certified seed : The progeny of foundation seed produced by registered seed growers under supervision of seed certification agencies to maintain the seed quality as per minimum seed certification standards. A blue colour certificate is issued by seed certification agency for this category of seed. Labelled Seed : The seed notified under Section 5 of the Seeds Act, 1966, such seed sold in the market has to be labelled as prescribed under Section 6(a) and (b) of the Seeds Act Such seed is called Labelled Seed. The foundation and certified seeds can be multiplied at stage 1 and II, but the reproduction cannot exceed three generations after breeder seed. Difference between certified seed and truthful labeled seed Certified seed Truthful labelled seed Certification is voluntary. Quality guaranteed by certification agency. Truthful labelling is compulsory for notified kind of varieties. Quality guaranteed by producing agency Applicable to notified kinds only Applicable to both notified and released varieties It should satisfy both minimum field and seed standards Tested for physical purity and germination Seed certification officer, seed inspectors can take samples for inspection Seed inspectors alone can take samples for checking the seed quality. Seed Supply chain in India Source: https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/agri-inputs/seeds/classes-of-seeds Trend: Farm inputs Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B There are four generally recognized classes of seeds. They are Breeder seed Foundation seed Registered seed Certified seed The basis of seed multiplication of all notified varieties/hybrids is the Nucleus seed. Definition of seed classes Nuclear seed : This is the hundred percent genetically pure seed with physical purity and produced by the original breeder/Institute /State Agriculture University (SAU) from basic nucleus seed stock. A pedigree certificate is issued by the producing breeder. Breeder seed : The progeny of nucleus seed multiplied in large area as per indent of Department of Agriculture and Cooperation (DOAC), Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India, under supervision of plant breeder / institute / SAUs and monitored by a committee consisting of the representatives of state seed certification agency, national / state seed corporations, ICAR nominee and concerned breeder. This is also hundred percent physical and genetic pure seed for production of foundation seed. A golden yellow colour certificate is issued for this category of seed by the producing breeder. Foundation seed : The progeny of breeder seed produced by recognized seed producing agencies in public and private sector, under supervision of seed certification agencies in such a way that its quality is maintained according to prescribed field ad seed standards. A white colour certificate is issued for foundation seed by seed certification agencies. Registered seed : Registered seed shall be the progeny of foundation seed that is so handled as to maintain its genetic identity and purity according to standard specified for the particular crop being certified. A purple colour certificate is issued for this category of seed. Certified seed : The progeny of foundation seed produced by registered seed growers under supervision of seed certification agencies to maintain the seed quality as per minimum seed certification standards. A blue colour certificate is issued by seed certification agency for this category of seed. Labelled Seed : The seed notified under Section 5 of the Seeds Act, 1966, such seed sold in the market has to be labelled as prescribed under Section 6(a) and (b) of the Seeds Act Such seed is called Labelled Seed. The foundation and certified seeds can be multiplied at stage 1 and II, but the reproduction cannot exceed three generations after breeder seed. Difference between certified seed and truthful labeled seed Certified seed Truthful labelled seed Certification is voluntary. Quality guaranteed by certification agency. Truthful labelling is compulsory for notified kind of varieties. Quality guaranteed by producing agency Applicable to notified kinds only Applicable to both notified and released varieties It should satisfy both minimum field and seed standards Tested for physical purity and germination Seed certification officer, seed inspectors can take samples for inspection Seed inspectors alone can take samples for checking the seed quality. Seed Supply chain in India Source: https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/agri-inputs/seeds/classes-of-seeds Trend: Farm inputs Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the supply chain of seed in India:

• The Government of India is involved in the allotment of breeder seed to various state governments and agencies.

• ICAR institutes and SAUs are responsible for the production of breeder seeds.

• Certified seeds are distributed directly to farmers without involving any agencies or distributors.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

There are four generally recognized classes of seeds. They are

• Breeder seed

• Foundation seed

• Registered seed

• Certified seed

The basis of seed multiplication of all notified varieties/hybrids is the Nucleus seed.

Definition of seed classes

Nuclear seed : This is the hundred percent genetically pure seed with physical purity and produced by the original breeder/Institute /State Agriculture University (SAU) from basic nucleus seed stock. A pedigree certificate is issued by the producing breeder.

Breeder seed : The progeny of nucleus seed multiplied in large area as per indent of Department of Agriculture and Cooperation (DOAC), Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India, under supervision of plant breeder / institute / SAUs and monitored by a committee consisting of the representatives of state seed certification agency, national / state seed corporations, ICAR nominee and concerned breeder. This is also hundred percent physical and genetic pure seed for production of foundation seed. A golden yellow colour certificate is issued for this category of seed by the producing breeder.

Foundation seed : The progeny of breeder seed produced by recognized seed producing agencies in public and private sector, under supervision of seed certification agencies in such a way that its quality is maintained according to prescribed field ad seed standards. A white colour certificate is issued for foundation seed by seed certification agencies.

Registered seed : Registered seed shall be the progeny of foundation seed that is so handled as to maintain its genetic identity and purity according to standard specified for the particular crop being certified. A purple colour certificate is issued for this category of seed.

Certified seed : The progeny of foundation seed produced by registered seed growers under supervision of seed certification agencies to maintain the seed quality as per minimum seed certification standards. A blue colour certificate is issued by seed certification agency for this category of seed.

Labelled Seed : The seed notified under Section 5 of the Seeds Act, 1966, such seed sold in the market has to be labelled as prescribed under Section 6(a) and (b) of the Seeds Act Such seed is called Labelled Seed.

The foundation and certified seeds can be multiplied at stage 1 and II, but the reproduction cannot exceed three generations after breeder seed.

Difference between certified seed and truthful labeled seed

Certified seed | Truthful labelled seed

Certification is voluntary. Quality guaranteed by certification agency. | Truthful labelling is compulsory for notified kind of varieties. Quality guaranteed by producing agency

Applicable to notified kinds only | Applicable to both notified and released varieties

It should satisfy both minimum field and seed standards | Tested for physical purity and germination

Seed certification officer, seed inspectors can take samples for inspection | Seed inspectors alone can take samples for checking the seed quality.

Seed Supply chain in India

Trend: Farm inputs

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

There are four generally recognized classes of seeds. They are

• Breeder seed

• Foundation seed

• Registered seed

• Certified seed

The basis of seed multiplication of all notified varieties/hybrids is the Nucleus seed.

Definition of seed classes

The foundation and certified seeds can be multiplied at stage 1 and II, but the reproduction cannot exceed three generations after breeder seed.

Difference between certified seed and truthful labeled seed

Certified seed | Truthful labelled seed

Certification is voluntary. Quality guaranteed by certification agency. | Truthful labelling is compulsory for notified kind of varieties. Quality guaranteed by producing agency

Applicable to notified kinds only | Applicable to both notified and released varieties

It should satisfy both minimum field and seed standards | Tested for physical purity and germination

Seed certification officer, seed inspectors can take samples for inspection | Seed inspectors alone can take samples for checking the seed quality.

Seed Supply chain in India

Trend: Farm inputs

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points How many of the following statements accurately describes the biocontrol mechanisms used by Actinomycetes against plant pathogens? Actinomycetes produce Antifungal Peptides (AFPs) that disrupt fungal cell structures. They synthesize antibiotics targeting bacterial protein and DNA synthesis. Streptomyces species among Actinomycetes generate nematicidal compounds. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C All the statements are correct. Actinomycetes, a group of soil-dwelling microorganisms, exhibit remarkable biocontrol capabilities against plant pathogens like fungi, bacteria, and nematodes. Antifungal Peptides (AFPs): Actinomycetes release AFPs that combat fungi by hindering cell wall synthesis, disrupting membranes, and targeting intracellular structures such as mitochondria. Antibiotics: Actinomycetes produce antibiotics that have specific antibacterial activity against plant pathogens. These antibiotics target essential cellular processes such as protein and DNA synthesis. Nematicidal Metabolites : Actinomycetes synthesize a range of nematicidal metabolites that effectively control nematodes. Streptomyces species are particularly known for producing such metabolites. Actinomycetes are valuable biocontrol agents that offer a sustainable approach to manage plant pathogens. Their production of antifungal peptides, antibiotics, and nematicidal metabolites reduces the need for chemical methods and promotes sustainable agriculture. Source: https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/agri-inputs/bio-inputs/actinomycetes/actinomycetes-for-effective-management-of-plant-diseases-and-nematodes Trend: Basic concepts Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C All the statements are correct. Actinomycetes, a group of soil-dwelling microorganisms, exhibit remarkable biocontrol capabilities against plant pathogens like fungi, bacteria, and nematodes. Antifungal Peptides (AFPs): Actinomycetes release AFPs that combat fungi by hindering cell wall synthesis, disrupting membranes, and targeting intracellular structures such as mitochondria. Antibiotics: Actinomycetes produce antibiotics that have specific antibacterial activity against plant pathogens. These antibiotics target essential cellular processes such as protein and DNA synthesis. Nematicidal Metabolites : Actinomycetes synthesize a range of nematicidal metabolites that effectively control nematodes. Streptomyces species are particularly known for producing such metabolites. Actinomycetes are valuable biocontrol agents that offer a sustainable approach to manage plant pathogens. Their production of antifungal peptides, antibiotics, and nematicidal metabolites reduces the need for chemical methods and promotes sustainable agriculture. Source: https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/agri-inputs/bio-inputs/actinomycetes/actinomycetes-for-effective-management-of-plant-diseases-and-nematodes Trend: Basic concepts Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 6. Question

How many of the following statements accurately describes the biocontrol mechanisms used by Actinomycetes against plant pathogens?

• Actinomycetes produce Antifungal Peptides (AFPs) that disrupt fungal cell structures.

• They synthesize antibiotics targeting bacterial protein and DNA synthesis.

• Streptomyces species among Actinomycetes generate nematicidal compounds.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

All the statements are correct.

Actinomycetes, a group of soil-dwelling microorganisms, exhibit remarkable biocontrol capabilities against plant pathogens like fungi, bacteria, and nematodes.

Antifungal Peptides (AFPs): Actinomycetes release AFPs that combat fungi by hindering cell wall synthesis, disrupting membranes, and targeting intracellular structures such as mitochondria.

Antibiotics: Actinomycetes produce antibiotics that have specific antibacterial activity against plant pathogens. These antibiotics target essential cellular processes such as protein and DNA synthesis.

Nematicidal Metabolites : Actinomycetes synthesize a range of nematicidal metabolites that effectively control nematodes. Streptomyces species are particularly known for producing such metabolites.

Actinomycetes are valuable biocontrol agents that offer a sustainable approach to manage plant pathogens. Their production of antifungal peptides, antibiotics, and nematicidal metabolites reduces the need for chemical methods and promotes sustainable agriculture.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

All the statements are correct.

Actinomycetes, a group of soil-dwelling microorganisms, exhibit remarkable biocontrol capabilities against plant pathogens like fungi, bacteria, and nematodes.

Antifungal Peptides (AFPs): Actinomycetes release AFPs that combat fungi by hindering cell wall synthesis, disrupting membranes, and targeting intracellular structures such as mitochondria.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points What is the primary benefit of using Sulphur Coated Urea (SCU) in agriculture over traditional urea? (a) SCU requires a higher consumption rate than traditional urea. (b) SCU enhances nitrogen adsorption by plants compared to traditional urea. (c) SCU decreases the nitrogen content in the soil compared to traditional urea. (d) SCU is cheaper per bag before subsidy compared to traditional urea. Correct Solution: B To encourage the use of alternative fertilizers, the government has introduced Sulphur Coated Urea (SCU), also known as Urea Gold, due to its yellowish-gold colour. SCU is a slow-release fertilizer made by coating urea granules with sulphur, which regulates nitrogen availability for plant growth and improves plant growth by providing sulphur. Benefits of SCU: – 25% reduction in urea consumption – Enhances nitrogen adsorption by 40% – Improves plant growth, quality, and seed yield, especially for oilseeds India’s Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited (RCF) has developed SCU in-house to meet Fertilizer Control Order (FCO) specifications. While urea costs over Rs. 2,000 per bag, it is subsidized to Rs. 266. SCU is also likely to be subsidized, with a 40 kg bag estimated to be sold for Rs. 400-500 Source: https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/agri-inputs/inorganic-inputs/sulphur-coated-urea Trend: Farm inputs Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: B To encourage the use of alternative fertilizers, the government has introduced Sulphur Coated Urea (SCU), also known as Urea Gold, due to its yellowish-gold colour. SCU is a slow-release fertilizer made by coating urea granules with sulphur, which regulates nitrogen availability for plant growth and improves plant growth by providing sulphur. Benefits of SCU: – 25% reduction in urea consumption – Enhances nitrogen adsorption by 40% – Improves plant growth, quality, and seed yield, especially for oilseeds India’s Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited (RCF) has developed SCU in-house to meet Fertilizer Control Order (FCO) specifications. While urea costs over Rs. 2,000 per bag, it is subsidized to Rs. 266. SCU is also likely to be subsidized, with a 40 kg bag estimated to be sold for Rs. 400-500 Source: https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/agri-inputs/inorganic-inputs/sulphur-coated-urea Trend: Farm inputs Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 7. Question

What is the primary benefit of using Sulphur Coated Urea (SCU) in agriculture over traditional urea?

• (a) SCU requires a higher consumption rate than traditional urea.

• (b) SCU enhances nitrogen adsorption by plants compared to traditional urea.

• (c) SCU decreases the nitrogen content in the soil compared to traditional urea.

• (d) SCU is cheaper per bag before subsidy compared to traditional urea.

Solution: B

To encourage the use of alternative fertilizers, the government has introduced Sulphur Coated Urea (SCU), also known as Urea Gold, due to its yellowish-gold colour.

SCU is a slow-release fertilizer made by coating urea granules with sulphur, which regulates nitrogen availability for plant growth and improves plant growth by providing sulphur.

Benefits of SCU:

– 25% reduction in urea consumption

– Enhances nitrogen adsorption by 40%

– Improves plant growth, quality, and seed yield, especially for oilseeds

India’s Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited (RCF) has developed SCU in-house to meet Fertilizer Control Order (FCO) specifications.

While urea costs over Rs. 2,000 per bag, it is subsidized to Rs. 266.

SCU is also likely to be subsidized, with a 40 kg bag estimated to be sold for Rs. 400-500

Trend: Farm inputs

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: B

To encourage the use of alternative fertilizers, the government has introduced Sulphur Coated Urea (SCU), also known as Urea Gold, due to its yellowish-gold colour.

SCU is a slow-release fertilizer made by coating urea granules with sulphur, which regulates nitrogen availability for plant growth and improves plant growth by providing sulphur.

Benefits of SCU:

– 25% reduction in urea consumption

– Enhances nitrogen adsorption by 40%

– Improves plant growth, quality, and seed yield, especially for oilseeds

India’s Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited (RCF) has developed SCU in-house to meet Fertilizer Control Order (FCO) specifications.

While urea costs over Rs. 2,000 per bag, it is subsidized to Rs. 266.

SCU is also likely to be subsidized, with a 40 kg bag estimated to be sold for Rs. 400-500

Trend: Farm inputs

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The ‘Per Drop More Crop’ initiative is part of which government scheme aimed at promoting water conservation in irrigation? (a) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) (b) Jal Shakti Abhiyan (c) National Water Mission (d) Har Khet Ko Pani Correct Solution: A Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: A Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 8. Question

The ‘Per Drop More Crop’ initiative is part of which government scheme aimed at promoting water conservation in irrigation?

• (a) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)

• (b) Jal Shakti Abhiyan

• (c) National Water Mission

• (d) Har Khet Ko Pani

Solution: A

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: A

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following: Assertion: Drip irrigation increases the yield of crops. Reason: Drip irrigation supplies water directly to the base of the plant, minimizing evaporation losses. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. (d) Assertion is false and Reason are true. Correct Solution: A Drip irrigation is known to be a highly efficient form of irrigation that allows farmers to use water sparingly while ensuring that plants receive the moisture they need to grow effectively. This efficient water use promotes healthier plant growth and can lead to increased yields compared to more traditional forms of irrigation. Drip irrigation delivers water directly to the soil around the roots of the plants. This targeted watering minimizes evaporation because less water is lost to the air than with traditional irrigation methods, such as sprinklers, where water is sprayed through the air onto the plants. With drip irrigation, water is also less likely to run off since it is applied directly where it’s needed, rather than over a broad area where it may not reach the roots effectively. The minimized evaporation and reduced runoff lead to more water being available to the plant, which can absorb nutrients more effectively, thus improving crop yield. Source: Agriculture Trend: sustainable agriculture practices Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: A Drip irrigation is known to be a highly efficient form of irrigation that allows farmers to use water sparingly while ensuring that plants receive the moisture they need to grow effectively. This efficient water use promotes healthier plant growth and can lead to increased yields compared to more traditional forms of irrigation. Drip irrigation delivers water directly to the soil around the roots of the plants. This targeted watering minimizes evaporation because less water is lost to the air than with traditional irrigation methods, such as sprinklers, where water is sprayed through the air onto the plants. With drip irrigation, water is also less likely to run off since it is applied directly where it’s needed, rather than over a broad area where it may not reach the roots effectively. The minimized evaporation and reduced runoff lead to more water being available to the plant, which can absorb nutrients more effectively, thus improving crop yield. Source: Agriculture Trend: sustainable agriculture practices Approach: applied knowledge

#### 9. Question

Consider the following:

Assertion: Drip irrigation increases the yield of crops.

Reason: Drip irrigation supplies water directly to the base of the plant, minimizing evaporation losses.

• (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

• (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

• (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

• (d) Assertion is false and Reason are true.

Solution: A

Drip irrigation is known to be a highly efficient form of irrigation that allows farmers to use water sparingly while ensuring that plants receive the moisture they need to grow effectively. This efficient water use promotes healthier plant growth and can lead to increased yields compared to more traditional forms of irrigation.

Drip irrigation delivers water directly to the soil around the roots of the plants. This targeted watering minimizes evaporation because less water is lost to the air than with traditional irrigation methods, such as sprinklers, where water is sprayed through the air onto the plants. With drip irrigation, water is also less likely to run off since it is applied directly where it’s needed, rather than over a broad area where it may not reach the roots effectively. The minimized evaporation and reduced runoff lead to more water being available to the plant, which can absorb nutrients more effectively, thus improving crop yield.

Trend: sustainable agriculture practices

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: A

Trend: sustainable agriculture practices

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Insecticides Act of 1968: It regulates the import, manufacture, sale, transport, distribution, and use of insecticides with a view to prevent risk to human beings or animals. It empowers the Central Government to prohibit the manufacture or sale of an insecticide deemed harmful to animals or crops. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both the statements are correct. The Insecticides Act of 1968 was enacted to regulate the import, manufacture, sale, transport, distribution, and use of insecticides in India, with the primary objective of preventing undue risk to humans and animals. The Act sets forth provisions for the registration of insecticides, aiming to ensure that insecticides meet specified standards of quality and are safe to use. The Central Insecticides Board and Registration Committee (CIBRC) operates under this Act to oversee the regulation of insecticides. The Insecticides Act also gives the Central Government the authority to prohibit the manufacture, sale, or distribution of any insecticide. If an insecticide is found to be dangerous to human beings or animals, or if it is deemed to cause unwarranted risk to the environment, the government has the power to remove it from the market or restrict its use. This is an essential measure for safeguarding public and animal health, as well as preserving the integrity of ecosystems. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important legislations Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C Both the statements are correct. The Insecticides Act of 1968 was enacted to regulate the import, manufacture, sale, transport, distribution, and use of insecticides in India, with the primary objective of preventing undue risk to humans and animals. The Act sets forth provisions for the registration of insecticides, aiming to ensure that insecticides meet specified standards of quality and are safe to use. The Central Insecticides Board and Registration Committee (CIBRC) operates under this Act to oversee the regulation of insecticides. The Insecticides Act also gives the Central Government the authority to prohibit the manufacture, sale, or distribution of any insecticide. If an insecticide is found to be dangerous to human beings or animals, or if it is deemed to cause unwarranted risk to the environment, the government has the power to remove it from the market or restrict its use. This is an essential measure for safeguarding public and animal health, as well as preserving the integrity of ecosystems. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important legislations Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the Insecticides Act of 1968:

• It regulates the import, manufacture, sale, transport, distribution, and use of insecticides with a view to prevent risk to human beings or animals.

• It empowers the Central Government to prohibit the manufacture or sale of an insecticide deemed harmful to animals or crops.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

The Insecticides Act of 1968 was enacted to regulate the import, manufacture, sale, transport, distribution, and use of insecticides in India, with the primary objective of preventing undue risk to humans and animals. The Act sets forth provisions for the registration of insecticides, aiming to ensure that insecticides meet specified standards of quality and are safe to use. The Central Insecticides Board and Registration Committee (CIBRC) operates under this Act to oversee the regulation of insecticides.

The Insecticides Act also gives the Central Government the authority to prohibit the manufacture, sale, or distribution of any insecticide. If an insecticide is found to be dangerous to human beings or animals, or if it is deemed to cause unwarranted risk to the environment, the government has the power to remove it from the market or restrict its use. This is an essential measure for safeguarding public and animal health, as well as preserving the integrity of ecosystems.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Which one of the following is *not a goal of the National Seed Policy of India? (a) To boost seed replacement rates for various crops. (b) To provide quality seeds at affordable prices. (c) To ensure the supply of genetically modified seeds. (d) To enhance the production of seed spices. Correct Solution: C The main objectives of the National Seed Policy, 2002 are to ensure the availability of quality seeds to farmers, to boost seed replacement rates for various crops to enhance yields, to make seeds available at affordable prices to the farming community, and to support the seed production and distribution system to make high-yielding varieties more accessible. The policy is focused on strengthening the seeds sector and increasing the agricultural productivity of various crops including food grains, oilseeds, and horticultural crops. It also emphasizes the importance of research and development in producing high-quality seed spices, which are vital to the agricultural economy and export potential. Source: https://seednet.gov.in/PDFFILES/National%20Seed%20Policy,%202002.pdf Trend: Important Legislations Approach: GM crops or seeds need approval of GEAC. Hence, they have much restricted usage. Incorrect Solution: C The main objectives of the National Seed Policy, 2002 are to ensure the availability of quality seeds to farmers, to boost seed replacement rates for various* crops to enhance yields, to make seeds available at affordable prices to the farming community, and to support the seed production and distribution system to make high-yielding varieties more accessible. The policy is focused on strengthening the seeds sector and increasing the agricultural productivity of various crops including food grains, oilseeds, and horticultural crops. It also emphasizes the importance of research and development in producing high-quality seed spices, which are vital to the agricultural economy and export potential. Source: https://seednet.gov.in/PDFFILES/National%20Seed%20Policy,%202002.pdf Trend: Important Legislations Approach: GM crops or seeds need approval of GEAC. Hence, they have much restricted usage.

#### 11. Question

Which one of the following is *not* a goal of the National Seed Policy of India?

• (a) To boost seed replacement rates for various crops.

• (b) To provide quality seeds at affordable prices.

• (c) To ensure the supply of genetically modified seeds.

• (d) To enhance the production of seed spices.

Solution: C

The main objectives of the National Seed Policy, 2002 are to ensure the availability of quality seeds to farmers, to boost seed replacement rates for various crops to enhance yields, to make seeds available at affordable prices to the farming community, and to support the seed production and distribution system to make high-yielding varieties more accessible.

The policy is focused on strengthening the seeds sector and increasing the agricultural productivity of various crops including food grains, oilseeds, and horticultural crops. It also emphasizes the importance of research and development in producing high-quality seed spices, which are vital to the agricultural economy and export potential.

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: GM crops or seeds need approval of GEAC. Hence, they have much restricted usage.

Solution: C

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: GM crops or seeds need approval of GEAC. Hence, they have much restricted usage.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following: Assertion: The use of neonicotinoid pesticides has been scrutinized for its potential environmental impact. Reason: Neonicotinoids are known to have no impact on the population of non-target species such as bees. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. (d) Assertion is false and Reason is true. Correct Solution: C Neonicotinoids, which are a class of neuro-active insecticides chemically similar to nicotine, have been under intense scrutiny and regulatory review due to their potential environmental impact, particularly concerning their effects on bee populations. There is a growing body of scientific evidence suggesting that neonicotinoids can have adverse effects on bees, which are non-target species, leading to concerns about their role in bee population declines. These concerns have prompted regulatory bodies in various countries, including the European Union, to restrict or ban the use of certain neonicotinoids to protect pollinator health. Source: https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/B9780323960021000092 Trend: sustainable agriculture Approach: Considering statement 1 to be true, it is highly improbable that neonicotinoid will have “no impact” on a species. Bees are also considered as indicator species. Incorrect Solution: C Neonicotinoids, which are a class of neuro-active insecticides chemically similar to nicotine, have been under intense scrutiny and regulatory review due to their potential environmental impact, particularly concerning their effects on bee populations. There is a growing body of scientific evidence suggesting that neonicotinoids can have adverse effects on bees, which are non-target species, leading to concerns about their role in bee population declines. These concerns have prompted regulatory bodies in various countries, including the European Union, to restrict or ban the use of certain neonicotinoids to protect pollinator health. Source: https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/B9780323960021000092 Trend: sustainable agriculture Approach: Considering statement 1 to be true, it is highly improbable that neonicotinoid will have “no impact” on a species. Bees are also considered as indicator species.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following:

Assertion: The use of neonicotinoid pesticides has been scrutinized for its potential environmental impact.

Reason: Neonicotinoids are known to have no impact on the population of non-target species such as bees.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

• (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

• (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

• (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

• (d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.

Solution: C

Neonicotinoids, which are a class of neuro-active insecticides chemically similar to nicotine, have been under intense scrutiny and regulatory review due to their potential environmental impact, particularly concerning their effects on bee populations.

There is a growing body of scientific evidence suggesting that neonicotinoids can have adverse effects on bees, which are non-target species, leading to concerns about their role in bee population declines. These concerns have prompted regulatory bodies in various countries, including the European Union, to restrict or ban the use of certain neonicotinoids to protect pollinator health.

Trend: sustainable agriculture

Approach: Considering statement 1 to be true, it is highly improbable that neonicotinoid will have “no impact” on a species. Bees are also considered as indicator species.

Solution: C

Trend: sustainable agriculture

Approach: Considering statement 1 to be true, it is highly improbable that neonicotinoid will have “no impact” on a species. Bees are also considered as indicator species.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points What is the primary objective of the Seed Village Concept as initiated in India? (a) To incentivize farmers for the commercial production of vegetables. (b) To provide training to farmers for the production of notified seed varieties. (c) To ensure that high-yielding varieties of seeds are available at subsidized rates. (d) To promote organic seed production and certification at the village level. Correct Solution: B The Seed Village Concept is a program aimed at enhancing the availability of quality seeds in agricultural production. It involves training farmers in the production of their own seeds of notified varieties. Under this concept, farmers are encouraged and trained to produce seeds of various crops with required standards and make them available to other farmers. The approach ensures that good quality seeds of improved varieties are available to the farmers on time and at an affordable cost. The program may also involve the distribution of foundation seeds to the farmers, but the primary aim is to train them in seed production techniques for notified varieties. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Question on seed certification, seed village have been previously asked in UPSC prelims Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: B The Seed Village Concept is a program aimed at enhancing the availability of quality seeds in agricultural production. It involves training farmers in the production of their own seeds of notified varieties. Under this concept, farmers are encouraged and trained to produce seeds of various crops with required standards and make them available to other farmers. The approach ensures that good quality seeds of improved varieties are available to the farmers on time and at an affordable cost. The program may also involve the distribution of foundation seeds to the farmers, but the primary aim is to train them in seed production techniques for notified varieties. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Question on seed certification, seed village have been previously asked in UPSC prelims Approach: applied knowledge

#### 13. Question

What is the primary objective of the Seed Village Concept as initiated in India?

• (a) To incentivize farmers for the commercial production of vegetables.

• (b) To provide training to farmers for the production of notified seed varieties.

• (c) To ensure that high-yielding varieties of seeds are available at subsidized rates.

• (d) To promote organic seed production and certification at the village level.

Solution: B

The Seed Village Concept is a program aimed at enhancing the availability of quality seeds in agricultural production. It involves training farmers in the production of their own seeds of notified varieties. Under this concept, farmers are encouraged and trained to produce seeds of various crops with required standards and make them available to other farmers. The approach ensures that good quality seeds of improved varieties are available to the farmers on time and at an affordable cost. The program may also involve the distribution of foundation seeds to the farmers, but the primary aim is to train them in seed production techniques for notified varieties.

Trend: Question on seed certification, seed village have been previously asked in UPSC prelims

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: B

Trend: Question on seed certification, seed village have been previously asked in UPSC prelims

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the advantages of using drones in agriculture Drones enable precise crop spraying, reducing the amount of chemicals that reach the surrounding environment. Geo-fencing through drones helps to monitor and secure agricultural land from unauthorized access. Drones can be used to manage livestock by monitoring their movements and well-being. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C All the statements are correct. Drones are increasingly being used for various tasks in farming, including precise application of pesticides and fertilizers (crop spraying), monitoring boundaries and resources (geo-fencing), and keeping an eye on the health and location of livestock (livestock management), among other uses such as weather monitoring, plantation, and soil analysis. These technologies contribute to the modernization and transformation of agriculture by increasing efficiency, reducing costs, and minimizing environmental impact. Source: Agriculture Trend: Precision agriculture/farm technology Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C All the statements are correct. Drones are increasingly being used for various tasks in farming, including precise application of pesticides and fertilizers (crop spraying), monitoring boundaries and resources (geo-fencing), and keeping an eye on the health and location of livestock (livestock management), among other uses such as weather monitoring, plantation, and soil analysis. These technologies contribute to the modernization and transformation of agriculture by increasing efficiency, reducing costs, and minimizing environmental impact. Source: Agriculture Trend: Precision agriculture/farm technology Approach: applied knowledge

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the advantages of using drones in agriculture

• Drones enable precise crop spraying, reducing the amount of chemicals that reach the surrounding environment.

• Geo-fencing through drones helps to monitor and secure agricultural land from unauthorized access.

• Drones can be used to manage livestock by monitoring their movements and well-being.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

All the statements are correct.

Drones are increasingly being used for various tasks in farming, including precise application of pesticides and fertilizers (crop spraying), monitoring boundaries and resources (geo-fencing), and keeping an eye on the health and location of livestock (livestock management), among other uses such as weather monitoring, plantation, and soil analysis. These technologies contribute to the modernization and transformation of agriculture by increasing efficiency, reducing costs, and minimizing environmental impact.

Trend: Precision agriculture/farm technology

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: C

All the statements are correct.

Trend: Precision agriculture/farm technology

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points What is “ShreeAnna” promoted for in the context of Indian agriculture according to the government initiative? (a) To increase the use of genetically modified crops. (b) To advance the cultivation of water-intensive crops. (c) To promote the cultivation and consumption of gluten-free superfoods (d) To reduce the cultivation of indigenous and sustainable food grains. Correct Solution: C Source: Current Affairs Trend: Nutrition/agroecological benefits of millets Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C Source: Current Affairs Trend: Nutrition/agroecological benefits of millets Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 15. Question

What is “ShreeAnna” promoted for in the context of Indian agriculture according to the government initiative?

• (a) To increase the use of genetically modified crops.

• (b) To advance the cultivation of water-intensive crops.

• (c) To promote the cultivation and consumption of gluten-free superfoods

• (d) To reduce the cultivation of indigenous and sustainable food grains.

Solution: C

Trend: Nutrition/agroecological benefits of millets

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

Trend: Nutrition/agroecological benefits of millets

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Every block in a Blockchain- Provides an unalterable document of the history of every transaction. Does not require digital signatures among the transacting participants. Is distinguished through a unique code which is a string of numbers. Brings transparency as the information once written cannot be erased. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: C Explanation: Every block in a blockchain is a record of transactions and the more of the latter, the longer the chain. Statement 1 is correct: Just as worthless paper transforms into valuable currency with the signature of the RBI governor, blocks are great because they provide an unalterable document of the history of every transaction. In the context of currency, it stores the place, time, value (rupee, for example) and location of a purchase. Statement 2 is not correct: There is minimal identifying information and every block is linked to a unique ‘digital signature’ of the transacting participants. Statement 3 is correct: Every block is distinguished from another through a unique code which is a string of numbers. When you use your debit or credit card to make a transaction, VISA or Mastercard employ their technology to verify your bank account, connect with banks and process a transaction. Statement 4 is correct: It supports tracking the provenance of information at every step when the information is registered to the system. Additionally, once a piece of information is written, it cannot be erased or denied later on. Source: Science and technology Trend: Blockchain technology Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Every block in a blockchain is a record of transactions and the more of the latter, the longer the chain. Statement 1 is correct: Just as worthless paper transforms into valuable currency with the signature of the RBI governor, blocks are great because they provide an unalterable document of the history of every transaction. In the context of currency, it stores the place, time, value (rupee, for example) and location of a purchase. Statement 2 is not correct: There is minimal identifying information and every block is linked to a unique ‘digital signature’ of the transacting participants. Statement 3 is correct: Every block is distinguished from another through a unique code which is a string of numbers. When you use your debit or credit card to make a transaction, VISA or Mastercard employ their technology to verify your bank account, connect with banks and process a transaction. Statement 4 is correct: It supports tracking the provenance of information at every step when the information is registered to the system. Additionally, once a piece of information is written, it cannot be erased or denied later on. Source: Science and technology Trend: Blockchain technology Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

Every block in a Blockchain-

• Provides an unalterable document of the history of every transaction.

• Does not require digital signatures among the transacting participants.

• Is distinguished through a unique code which is a string of numbers.

• Brings transparency as the information once written cannot be erased.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: C

Explanation:

Every block in a blockchain is a record of transactions and the more of the latter, the longer the chain.

Statement 1 is correct: Just as worthless paper transforms into valuable currency with the signature of the RBI governor, blocks are great because they provide an unalterable document of the history of every transaction.

In the context of currency, it stores the place, time, value (rupee, for example) and location of a purchase.

Statement 2 is not correct: There is minimal identifying information and every block is linked to a unique ‘digital signature’ of the transacting participants.

Statement 3 is correct: Every block is distinguished from another through a unique code which is a string of numbers.

When you use your debit or credit card to make a transaction, VISA or Mastercard employ their technology to verify your bank account, connect with banks and process a transaction.

Statement 4 is correct: It supports tracking the provenance of information at every step when the information is registered to the system. Additionally, once a piece of information is written, it cannot be erased or denied later on.

Trend: Blockchain technology

Approach: Applied knowledge

Answer: C

Explanation:

Every block in a blockchain is a record of transactions and the more of the latter, the longer the chain.

In the context of currency, it stores the place, time, value (rupee, for example) and location of a purchase.

Statement 2 is not correct: There is minimal identifying information and every block is linked to a unique ‘digital signature’ of the transacting participants.

Statement 3 is correct: Every block is distinguished from another through a unique code which is a string of numbers.

When you use your debit or credit card to make a transaction, VISA or Mastercard employ their technology to verify your bank account, connect with banks and process a transaction.

Trend: Blockchain technology

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: A part of electricity generated at power plants is lost during transmission because the cables that carry the current have electrical resistance. The superconductors whose conducting abilities can be explained by the Bardeen-Cooper-Schrieffer theory can transport an electric current with zero loss. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: A portion of the electricity generated at every power plant is lost during transmission because the wires and cables that carry the current have electrical resistance. We can mitigate this to a large extent if we use a material that does not resist the flow of current. Physicists discovered such materials and are called superconductors. Superconductors can exhibit truly quantum phenomena that have the potential to enable revolutionary technologies, including enabling efficient quantum computers. All the materials we know to be superconductors become that way in special circumstances; outside those circumstances, they resist the flow of current. Statement 2 is correct: Conventional superconductors (i.e., those whose superconducting abilities can be explained by the Bardeen-Cooper-Schrieffer theory) are distinguished by four features, one of which has implications for industrial, research, and diagnostic applications that are impossible to overstate: they can transport an electric current with zero loss. Source: Science and technology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: A portion of the electricity generated at every power plant is lost during transmission because the wires and cables that carry the current have electrical resistance. We can mitigate this to a large extent if we use a material that does not resist the flow of current. Physicists discovered such materials and are called superconductors. Superconductors can exhibit truly quantum phenomena that have the potential to enable revolutionary technologies, including enabling efficient quantum computers. All the materials we know to be superconductors become that way in special circumstances; outside those circumstances, they resist the flow of current. Statement 2 is correct: Conventional superconductors (i.e., those whose superconducting abilities can be explained by the Bardeen-Cooper-Schrieffer theory) are distinguished by four features, one of which has implications for industrial, research, and diagnostic applications that are impossible to overstate: they can transport an electric current with zero loss. Source: Science and technology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• A part of electricity generated at power plants is lost during transmission because the cables that carry the current have electrical resistance.

• The superconductors whose conducting abilities can be explained by the Bardeen-Cooper-Schrieffer theory can transport an electric current with zero loss.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: A portion of the electricity generated at every power plant is lost during transmission because the wires and cables that carry the current have electrical resistance.

We can mitigate this to a large extent if we use a material that does not resist the flow of current. Physicists discovered such materials and are called superconductors.

Superconductors can exhibit truly quantum phenomena that have the potential to enable revolutionary technologies, including enabling efficient quantum computers.

All the materials we know to be superconductors become that way in special circumstances; outside those circumstances, they resist the flow of current.

Statement 2 is correct: Conventional superconductors (i.e., those whose superconducting abilities can be explained by the Bardeen-Cooper-Schrieffer theory) are distinguished by four features, one of which has implications for industrial, research, and diagnostic applications that are impossible to overstate: they can transport an electric current with zero loss.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: A portion of the electricity generated at every power plant is lost during transmission because the wires and cables that carry the current have electrical resistance.

We can mitigate this to a large extent if we use a material that does not resist the flow of current. Physicists discovered such materials and are called superconductors.

Superconductors can exhibit truly quantum phenomena that have the potential to enable revolutionary technologies, including enabling efficient quantum computers.

All the materials we know to be superconductors become that way in special circumstances; outside those circumstances, they resist the flow of current.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Himalayan Wolf is a prominent lupine predator found exclusively across the Ladakh Plateau. The Himalayan vulture is a winter migrant to the Indian plains and a resident of the high Himalayas. Both the Himalayan Wolf and Himalayan Vulture are categorised as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Himalayan Wolf (Canis lupus chanco), a prominent lupine predator found across the Himalayas (Sikkim, Uttarakhand and ladakh) the taxonomic status of which was a puzzle till late, has been assessed for the first time in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)’s Red List. The animal has been categorised as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List. Categorised as ‘near threatened’ on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of threatened species, the Himalayan vulture is a common winter migrant to the Indian plains, and a resident of the high Himalayas. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important species and their habitat Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The Himalayan Wolf (Canis lupus chanco), a prominent lupine predator found across the Himalayas (Sikkim, Uttarakhand and ladakh) the taxonomic status of which was a puzzle till late, has been assessed for the first time in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)’s Red List. The animal has been categorised as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List. Categorised as ‘near threatened’ on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of threatened species, the Himalayan vulture is a common winter migrant to the Indian plains, and a resident of the high Himalayas. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Important species and their habitat Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Himalayan Wolf is a prominent lupine predator found exclusively across the Ladakh Plateau.

• The Himalayan vulture is a winter migrant to the Indian plains and a resident of the high Himalayas.

• Both the Himalayan Wolf and Himalayan Vulture are categorised as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The Himalayan Wolf (Canis lupus chanco), a prominent lupine predator found across the Himalayas (Sikkim, Uttarakhand and ladakh) the taxonomic status of which was a puzzle till late, has been assessed for the first time in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)’s Red List. The animal has been categorised as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List.

Categorised as ‘near threatened’ on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of threatened species, the Himalayan vulture is a common winter migrant to the Indian plains, and a resident of the high Himalayas.

Trend: Important species and their habitat

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Trend: Important species and their habitat

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points With reference to the Similipal Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements: It lies on the South Eastern corner of the Deccan Peninsula. It consists of the tropical Semi-evergreen Forests in the entire region. It forms the largest watershed of northern Chhattisgarh. It harbours the only population of melanistic tigers in the world. How many of the statements given above are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Similipal Tiger Reserve lies on the South Eastern corner of Deccan Peninsula in the Mayurbhanj District of Odisha, is one of the largest tracts of contiguous forest with immeasurable ecosystem service values. Similipal comes under Deccan Peninsular Bio-geographic Zone, Chhotanagpur Province and Mahanadian Region. The vast terrain of Similipal harbours a unique blend of Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats and Sub-Himalayan plant species. Statement 2 is not correct: Forest is predominantly moist mixed deciduous forest with tropical semi-evergreen forest in areas with suitable microclimatic conditions and sporadic patches of dry deciduous forests and grasslands. Statement 3 is not correct: It forms the largest watershed of northern Odisha. Statement 4 is correct: It holds the highest tiger (Panthera tigris) population in Odisha, and harbours the only population of melanistic tigers in the world. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Rivers- drainage pattern/National Parks/Important species and their habitat Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Similipal Tiger Reserve lies on the South Eastern corner of Deccan Peninsula in the Mayurbhanj District of Odisha, is one of the largest tracts of contiguous forest with immeasurable ecosystem service values. Similipal comes under Deccan Peninsular Bio-geographic Zone, Chhotanagpur Province and Mahanadian Region. The vast terrain of Similipal harbours a unique blend of Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats and Sub-Himalayan plant species. Statement 2 is not correct: Forest is predominantly moist mixed deciduous forest with tropical semi-evergreen forest in areas with suitable microclimatic conditions and sporadic patches of dry deciduous forests and grasslands. Statement 3 is not correct: It forms the largest watershed of northern Odisha. Statement 4 is correct:* It holds the highest tiger (Panthera tigris) population in Odisha, and harbours the only population of melanistic tigers in the world. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: Rivers- drainage pattern/National Parks/Important species and their habitat Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 19. Question

With reference to the Similipal Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:

• It lies on the South Eastern corner of the Deccan Peninsula.

• It consists of the tropical Semi-evergreen Forests in the entire region.

• It forms the largest watershed of northern Chhattisgarh.

• It harbours the only population of melanistic tigers in the world.

How many of the statements given above are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Similipal Tiger Reserve lies on the South Eastern corner of Deccan Peninsula in the Mayurbhanj District of Odisha, is one of the largest tracts of contiguous forest with immeasurable ecosystem service values.

Similipal comes under Deccan Peninsular Bio-geographic Zone, Chhotanagpur Province and Mahanadian Region.

The vast terrain of Similipal harbours a unique blend of Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats and Sub-Himalayan plant species.

Statement 2 is not correct: Forest is predominantly moist mixed deciduous forest with tropical semi-evergreen forest in areas with suitable microclimatic conditions and sporadic patches of dry deciduous forests and grasslands.

Statement 3 is not correct: It forms the largest watershed of northern Odisha.

Statement 4 is correct: It holds the highest tiger (Panthera tigris) population in Odisha, and harbours the only population of melanistic tigers in the world.

Trend: Rivers- drainage pattern/National Parks/Important species and their habitat

Approach: Applied knowledge

Answer: B

Explanation:

Similipal comes under Deccan Peninsular Bio-geographic Zone, Chhotanagpur Province and Mahanadian Region.

The vast terrain of Similipal harbours a unique blend of Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats and Sub-Himalayan plant species.

Statement 3 is not correct: It forms the largest watershed of northern Odisha.

Statement 4 is correct: It holds the highest tiger (Panthera tigris) population in Odisha, and harbours the only population of melanistic tigers in the world.

Trend: Rivers- drainage pattern/National Parks/Important species and their habitat

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points With reference to Ethiopia, consider the following statements: It is entirely located in the Eastern Hemisphere of the Earth. It is a landlocked country bordered by six countries. It contains the disputed Darfur Region within its territory. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Ethiopia is a country in East Africa in the Northern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth. Statement 2 is correct: It is a landlocked country bordered by six countries. These are Eritrea, Djibouti, Somalia, Kenya, South Sudan, and Sudan to the north, northeast, east, south, west, and northwest respectively. Statement 3 is not correct: Oromia Region is the largest major subdivision of Ethiopia by area. Addis Ababa, the national capital, is the most populous one. Darfur region is a hostile region of Sudan. Source: Geography Trend: Places in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Ethiopia is a country in East Africa in the Northern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth. Statement 2 is correct: It is a landlocked country bordered by six countries. These are Eritrea, Djibouti, Somalia, Kenya, South Sudan, and Sudan to the north, northeast, east, south, west, and northwest respectively. Statement 3 is not correct: Oromia Region is the largest major subdivision of Ethiopia by area. Addis Ababa, the national capital, is the most populous one. Darfur region is a hostile region of Sudan. Source: Geography Trend: Places in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 20. Question

With reference to Ethiopia, consider the following statements:

• It is entirely located in the Eastern Hemisphere of the Earth.

• It is a landlocked country bordered by six countries.

• It contains the disputed Darfur Region within its territory.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Ethiopia is a country in East Africa in the Northern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth.

Statement 2 is correct: It is a landlocked country bordered by six countries. These are Eritrea, Djibouti, Somalia, Kenya, South Sudan, and Sudan to the north, northeast, east, south, west, and northwest respectively.

Statement 3 is not correct: Oromia Region is the largest major subdivision of Ethiopia by area. Addis Ababa, the national capital, is the most populous one.

Darfur region is a hostile region of Sudan.

Trend: Places in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Ethiopia is a country in East Africa in the Northern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth.

Statement 3 is not correct: Oromia Region is the largest major subdivision of Ethiopia by area. Addis Ababa, the national capital, is the most populous one.

Darfur region is a hostile region of Sudan.

Trend: Places in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Which of these microbes are smaller and less complex in their construction and physiology compared to unicellular microorganisms, and contain only one type of nucleic acid —either DNA or RNA — never both? a) Bacteria b) Viruses c) Protozoa d) Archaea Correct Solution: b) Justification: Viruses are smaller and simpler in construction than unicellular microorganisms, and they contain only one type of nucleic acid—either DNA or RNA—never both. As viruses have no ribosomes, mitochondria, or other organelles, they are completely dependent on their cellular hosts for energy production and protein synthesis. They replicate only within cells of the host that they infect. Unlike any other microorganism, many viruses can, in suitable cells, reproduce themselves from their genome, a single nucleic acid molecule, that is, their nucleic acid alone is infectious. Outside a susceptible cell, the virus particle like a bacterial spore is metabolically inert; on the other hand, when replicating in a cell, it exhibits all the characteristics of life. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Viruses are smaller and simpler in construction than unicellular microorganisms, and they contain only one type of nucleic acid—either DNA or RNA—never both. As viruses have no ribosomes, mitochondria, or other organelles, they are completely dependent on their cellular hosts for energy production and protein synthesis. They replicate only within cells of the host that they infect. Unlike any other microorganism, many viruses can, in suitable cells, reproduce themselves from their genome, a single nucleic acid molecule, that is, their nucleic acid alone is infectious. Outside a susceptible cell, the virus particle like a bacterial spore is metabolically inert; on the other hand, when replicating in a cell, it exhibits all the characteristics of life. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 21. Question

Which of these microbes are smaller and less complex in their construction and physiology compared to unicellular microorganisms, and contain only one type of nucleic acid —either DNA or RNA — never both?

• a) Bacteria

• b) Viruses

• c) Protozoa

• d) Archaea

Solution: b)

Justification: Viruses are smaller and simpler in construction than unicellular microorganisms, and they contain only one type of nucleic acid—either DNA or RNA—never both. As viruses have no ribosomes, mitochondria, or other organelles, they are completely dependent on their cellular hosts for energy production and protein synthesis. They replicate only within cells of the host that they infect.

Unlike any other microorganism, many viruses can, in suitable cells, reproduce themselves from their genome, a single nucleic acid molecule, that is, their nucleic acid alone is infectious. Outside a susceptible cell, the virus particle like a bacterial spore is metabolically inert; on the other hand, when replicating in a cell, it exhibits all the characteristics of life.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: b)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are limitations of using mRNA vaccines? They need to be stored at ultra-low temperatures. They cannot adapt quickly to address emerging variants as an entirely new vaccine is to be developed for each variant. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 22. Question

Which of the following is/are limitations of using mRNA vaccines?

• They need to be stored at ultra-low temperatures.

• They cannot adapt quickly to address emerging variants as an entirely new vaccine is to be developed for each variant.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Attosecond pulses can be used for : studying electron movement within molecules investigating properties of nanoscale materials enhancing the speed of microprocessors How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Electron dynamics occur on the attosecond timescale, which is a billionth of a billionth of a second (1×10^(−18) of a second), much faster than femtoseconds (a millionth of a billionth of a second) associated with atomic movements. Until the 1980s, scientists could produce femtosecond pulses, but technology limitations prevented shorter pulses. However, studying electrons required even shorter pulses. In 2001, Pierre Agostini and his research group successfully generated and examined a series of 250-attosecond light pulses. This achievement marked a significant breakthrough, al- lowing for the execution of rapid experiments in the field of attosecond physics. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Electron dynamics occur on the attosecond timescale, which is a billionth of a billionth of a second (1×10^(−18) of a second), much faster than femtoseconds (a millionth of a billionth of a second) associated with atomic movements. Until the 1980s, scientists could produce femtosecond pulses, but technology limitations prevented shorter pulses. However, studying electrons required even shorter pulses. In 2001, Pierre Agostini and his research group successfully generated and examined a series of 250-attosecond light pulses. This achievement marked a significant breakthrough, al- lowing for the execution of rapid experiments in the field of attosecond physics. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 23. Question

Attosecond pulses can be used for :

• studying electron movement within molecules

• investigating properties of nanoscale materials

• enhancing the speed of microprocessors

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: Electron dynamics occur on the attosecond timescale, which is a billionth of a billionth of a second (1×10^(−18) of a second), much faster than femtoseconds (a millionth of a billionth of a second) associated with atomic movements.

Until the 1980s, scientists could produce femtosecond pulses, but technology limitations prevented shorter pulses. However, studying electrons required even shorter pulses.

In 2001, Pierre Agostini and his research group successfully generated and examined a series of 250-attosecond light pulses. This achievement marked a significant breakthrough, al- lowing for the execution of rapid experiments in the field of attosecond physics.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Until the 1980s, scientists could produce femtosecond pulses, but technology limitations prevented shorter pulses. However, studying electrons required even shorter pulses.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Quantum dots have unique optical properties due to their smaller size compared to bulk materials their atomic structure which is different from all bulk materials Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Justification: Quantum dots are tiny particles, just a few nanometers in size, with unique optical properties due to their small size. While their atomic structure is the same as bulk materials, quantum dots’ properties can be altered by adjusting their size. At the nanoscale, these particles exhibit size-dependent characteristics influenced by quantum forces, which differ from macroscopic physics governed by gravity. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Quantum dots are tiny particles, just a few nanometers in size, with unique optical properties due to their small size. While their atomic structure is the same as bulk materials, quantum dots’ properties can be altered by adjusting their size. At the nanoscale, these particles exhibit size-dependent characteristics influenced by quantum forces, which differ from macroscopic physics governed by gravity. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 24. Question

Quantum dots have unique optical properties due to

• their smaller size compared to bulk materials

• their atomic structure which is different from all bulk materials

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Justification: Quantum dots are tiny particles, just a few nanometers in size, with unique optical properties due to their small size. While their atomic structure is the same as bulk materials, quantum dots’ properties can be altered by adjusting their size. At the nanoscale, these particles exhibit size-dependent characteristics influenced by quantum forces, which differ from macroscopic physics governed by gravity.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: a)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of these concerns have been raised against solar geoengineering? If used to cool tropical zones, it could lead to temperature increases around the poles, accelerating the melting of sea ice and permafrost. It may affect monsoon patterns in different regions, even potentially disrupting local weather systems. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Learning: Solar geoengineering, also referred to as solar radiation management (SRM) describes a set of proposed approaches to reflect sunlight (back to space) to rapidly cool the Earth. Within solar geoengineering, researchers are considering two main approaches. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Learning: Solar geoengineering, also referred to as solar radiation management (SRM) describes a set of proposed approaches to reflect sunlight (back to space) to rapidly cool the Earth. Within solar geoengineering, researchers are considering two main approaches. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 25. Question

Which of these concerns have been raised against solar geoengineering?

• If used to cool tropical zones, it could lead to temperature increases around the poles, accelerating the melting of sea ice and permafrost.

• It may affect monsoon patterns in different regions, even potentially disrupting local weather systems.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Learning: Solar geoengineering, also referred to as solar radiation management (SRM) describes a set of proposed approaches to reflect sunlight (back to space) to rapidly cool the Earth. Within solar geoengineering, researchers are considering two main approaches.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Several problems bedevil green GDP, however. One is that nature does not come prepackaged in units like cars, houses, and bread. Even worse, green GDP requires measurement of the benefits arising from public goods provided by nature for which there are no market indicators of value. So what should green GDP count? For environmentalists, well-being provided by nature is as important as well-being provided by market consumption. Societies should be able to see how market consumption affects the consumption of public goods like beautiful views, clean air, and clean water. After all, consuming fewer manufactured products now in order to ensure more access to natural goods and services later may be in society’s best interest. Another reason to measure green GDP is that environmentalists want to track the provision of nature’s benefits over time, either to hold governments accountable or to compare their environmental conditions with those of another country. The author seems to argue, A. In favour of philosophizing value of non-economic realms of life B. Against statistical tools that measure cost of degradation wrongly C. In favour of people participation and public speech to secure accountable green governance D. Against wishing away green accounting due it difficulties in doing it Correct Answer: D Clearly the intention of author in passage are two: Why green accounting is challenging? How important value of nature is? So just because it is tough to do we cant wish away doing it. So D is answer. Incorrect Answer: D Clearly the intention of author in passage are two: Why green accounting is challenging? How important value of nature is? So just because it is tough to do we cant wish away doing it. So D is answer.

#### 26. Question

Several problems bedevil green GDP, however. One is that nature does not come prepackaged in units like cars, houses, and bread. Even worse, green GDP requires measurement of the benefits arising from public goods provided by nature for which there are no market indicators of value. So what should green GDP count? For environmentalists, well-being provided by nature is as important as well-being provided by market consumption. Societies should be able to see how market consumption affects the consumption of public goods like beautiful views, clean air, and clean water. After all, consuming fewer manufactured products now in order to ensure more access to natural goods and services later may be in society’s best interest. Another reason to measure green GDP is that environmentalists want to track the provision of nature’s benefits over time, either to hold governments accountable or to compare their environmental conditions with those of another country.

The author seems to argue,

• A. In favour of philosophizing value of non-economic realms of life

• B. Against statistical tools that measure cost of degradation wrongly

• C. In favour of people participation and public speech to secure accountable green governance

• D. Against wishing away green accounting due it difficulties in doing it

Clearly the intention of author in passage are two:

• Why green accounting is challenging?

• How important value of nature is?

So just because it is tough to do we cant wish away doing it. So D is answer.

Clearly the intention of author in passage are two:

• Why green accounting is challenging?

• How important value of nature is?

So just because it is tough to do we cant wish away doing it. So D is answer.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Several problems bedevil green GDP, however. One is that nature does not come prepackaged in units like cars, houses, and bread. Even worse, green GDP requires measurement of the benefits arising from public goods provided by nature for which there are no market indicators of value. So what should green GDP count? For environmentalists, well-being provided by nature is as important as well-being provided by market consumption. Societies should be able to see how market consumption affects the consumption of public goods like beautiful views, clean air, and clean water. After all, consuming fewer manufactured products now in order to ensure more access to natural goods and services later may be in society’s best interest. Another reason to measure green GDP is that environmentalists want to track the provision of nature’s benefits over time, either to hold governments accountable or to compare their environmental conditions with those of another country. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Economists have not previously integrated principles from accounting economics with those from environmental economics. The benefits of nature are too important and too large to be left off the table of national accounting. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2. Correct Answer: C The passage as highlighted concerns the problems in green accounting so 1 can be assumed. The second section tells about noble value of ecology so 2 can be assumed. Thus C is the answer. Incorrect Answer: C The passage as highlighted concerns the problems in green accounting so 1 can be assumed. The second section tells about noble value of ecology so 2 can be assumed. Thus C is the answer.

#### 27. Question

On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:

• Economists have not previously integrated principles from accounting economics with those from environmental economics.

• The benefits of nature are too important and too large to be left off the table of national accounting.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2.

The passage as highlighted concerns the problems in green accounting so 1 can be assumed.

The second section tells about noble value of ecology so 2 can be assumed.

Thus C is the answer.

The passage as highlighted concerns the problems in green accounting so 1 can be assumed.

The second section tells about noble value of ecology so 2 can be assumed.

Thus C is the answer.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Fresh fruits contains 60% of water and dry fruits contain 20% of water. How much dry fruit can be obtained from 100 kg of fresh fruits ? A. 35 B. 37 C. 40 D. 50 Correct Answer: Option D) 50 Explanation: Quantity of pulb in 100 kg of fresh fruit = (100 – 60) of 100 = 40 kg Quantity of dry fruit be x kg (100 – 20 ) % of x = 40 (80/100) x = 40 X = (40 × 100) / 80 = 50 Incorrect Answer: Option D) 50 Explanation: Quantity of pulb in 100 kg of fresh fruit = (100 – 60) of 100 = 40 kg Quantity of dry fruit be x kg (100 – 20 ) % of x = 40 (80/100) x = 40 X = (40 × 100) / 80 = 50

#### 28. Question

Fresh fruits contains 60% of water and dry fruits contain 20% of water. How much dry fruit can be obtained from 100 kg of fresh fruits ?

Answer: Option D) 50

Explanation:

Quantity of pulb in 100 kg of fresh fruit = (100 – 60) of 100 = 40 kg

Quantity of dry fruit be x kg

(100 – 20 ) % of x = 40

(80/100) x = 40

X = (40 × 100) / 80 = 50

Answer: Option D) 50

Explanation:

Quantity of pulb in 100 kg of fresh fruit = (100 – 60) of 100 = 40 kg

Quantity of dry fruit be x kg

(100 – 20 ) % of x = 40

(80/100) x = 40

X = (40 × 100) / 80 = 50

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points What is R’s share of profit in a joint venture? Q started business investing Rs. 80,000. R joined him after 3 months. III. P joined after 4 months with a capital of Rs. 1,20,000 and got Rs. 6000 as his share profit. a) All I, II and III b) I and III only c) II and III only d) Even with all I, II and III, the answer cannot be arrived at Correct Answer: Option D) Even with all I, II and III, the answer cannot be arrived at Explanation: From I, II and III, we get P : Q : R = (120000 x 8) : (80000 x 12) : (x x 9). Since R’s investment is not given, the above ratio cannot be give. Given data is inadequate. Incorrect Answer: Option D) Even with all I, II and III, the answer cannot be arrived at Explanation: From I, II and III, we get P : Q : R = (120000 x 8) : (80000 x 12) : (x x 9). Since R’s investment is not given, the above ratio cannot be give. Given data is inadequate.

#### 29. Question

What is R’s share of profit in a joint venture?

• Q started business investing Rs. 80,000.

• R joined him after 3 months.

III. P joined after 4 months with a capital of Rs. 1,20,000 and got Rs. 6000 as his share profit.

• a) All I, II and III

• b) I and III only

• c) II and III only

• d) Even with all I, II and III, the answer cannot be arrived at

Answer: Option D) Even with all I, II and III, the answer cannot be arrived at

Explanation:

From I, II and III, we get P : Q : R = (120000 x 8) : (80000 x 12) : (x x 9).

Since R’s investment is not given, the above ratio cannot be give.

Given data is inadequate.

Answer: Option D) Even with all I, II and III, the answer cannot be arrived at

Explanation:

From I, II and III, we get P : Q : R = (120000 x 8) : (80000 x 12) : (x x 9).

Since R’s investment is not given, the above ratio cannot be give.

Given data is inadequate.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points 40% of the students like Mathematics, 50% like English and 10% like both Mathematics and English. What % of the students like neither English nor Mathematics? (a) 25% (b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 60% Correct Correct Answer: C) 20% Explanation: n(M or E) = n(M) + n(E) – n(M and E) n(M or E) = 40+50-10 = 80 so % of the students who like neither English nor Mathematics = 100 – 80 = 20% Incorrect Correct Answer: C) 20% Explanation: n(M or E) = n(M) + n(E) – n(M and E) n(M or E) = 40+50-10 = 80 so % of the students who like neither English nor Mathematics = 100 – 80 = 20%

#### 30. Question

40% of the students like Mathematics, 50% like English and 10% like both Mathematics and English. What % of the students like neither English nor Mathematics?

Correct Answer: C) 20%

Explanation:

n(M or E) = n(M) + n(E) – n(M and E)

n(M or E) = 40+50-10 = 80

so % of the students who like neither English nor Mathematics

= 100 – 80 = 20%

Correct Answer: C) 20%

Explanation:

n(M or E) = n(M) + n(E) – n(M and E)

n(M or E) = 40+50-10 = 80

so % of the students who like neither English nor Mathematics

= 100 – 80 = 20%

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