DAY – 15 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – AGRICULTURE, Subject-wise Test 12,13,25, Textbook-wise Test 15 and Aug & Sep 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points With reference to National Investigation Agency, consider the following statements: The law under which the agency operates extends to Indian citizens outside India. It can probe offenses under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act. It does not have the power to seize and arrest those involved in any offense. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a central agency mandated to investigate all the offences affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, friendly relations with foreign states. The NIA was constituted in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terror attack in November 2008. The agency came into existence on December 31, 2008, and started its functioning in 2009. Statement 1 is correct: The law under which the agency operates extends to the whole of India and also applies to Indian citizens outside the country. Statement 2 is correct: In September 2020, the Centre empowered the NIA to also probe offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act that are connected to terror cases. Statement 3 is not correct: The agency has the power to search, seize, arrest and prosecute those involved in offences crimes like smuggling of arms, drugs and fake Indian currency and infiltration from across the borders. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important legislations Approach: Statement 3 is improbable. Power to search and seize is very crucial in investigations pertaining to National security. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a central agency mandated to investigate all the offences affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, friendly relations with foreign states. The NIA was constituted in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terror attack in November 2008. The agency came into existence on December 31, 2008, and started its functioning in 2009. Statement 1 is correct: The law under which the agency operates extends to the whole of India and also applies to Indian citizens outside the country. Statement 2 is correct: In September 2020, the Centre empowered the NIA to also probe offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act that are connected to terror cases. Statement 3 is not correct: The agency has the power to search, seize, arrest and prosecute those involved in offences crimes like smuggling of arms, drugs and fake Indian currency and infiltration from across the borders. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important legislations Approach: Statement 3 is improbable. Power to search and seize is very crucial in investigations pertaining to National security.

#### 1. Question

With reference to National Investigation Agency, consider the following statements:

• The law under which the agency operates extends to Indian citizens outside India.

• It can probe offenses under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act.

• It does not have the power to seize and arrest those involved in any offense.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a central agency mandated to investigate all the offences affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, friendly relations with foreign states.

• The NIA was constituted in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terror attack in November 2008. The agency came into existence on December 31, 2008, and started its functioning in 2009.

• Statement 1 is correct: The law under which the agency operates extends to the whole of India and also applies to Indian citizens outside the country.

• Statement 2 is correct: In September 2020, the Centre empowered the NIA to also probe offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act that are connected to terror cases.

• Statement 3 is not correct: The agency has the power to search, seize, arrest and prosecute those involved in offences crimes like smuggling of arms, drugs and fake Indian currency and infiltration from across the borders.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: Statement 3 is improbable. Power to search and seize is very crucial in investigations pertaining to National security.

Answer: B

Explanation:

• The NIA was constituted in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terror attack in November 2008. The agency came into existence on December 31, 2008, and started its functioning in 2009.

• Statement 1 is correct: The law under which the agency operates extends to the whole of India and also applies to Indian citizens outside the country.

• Statement 2 is correct: In September 2020, the Centre empowered the NIA to also probe offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act that are connected to terror cases.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: Statement 3 is improbable. Power to search and seize is very crucial in investigations pertaining to National security.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points With reference to the Corals, consider the following statements: They are marine invertebrates or animals which do not possess a spine. They share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae. They produce reactive oxygen species beneficial for their skeleton. How many of the statements given above are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Corals are marine invertebrates or animals which do not possess a spine. They are the largest living structures on the planet. Each coral is called a polyp and thousands of such polyps live together to form a colony, which grow when polyps multiply to make copies of themselves. Corals are of two types — hard corals and soft corals. Hard corals extract calcium carbonate from seawater to build hard, white coral exoskeletons. Statement 2 is correct: Corals share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae. The algae prepares food for corals through photosynthesis and also gives them their vibrant colouration. Statement 3 is not correct: When exposed to conditions like heat stress, pollution, or high levels of ocean acidity, the zooxanthellae start producing reactive oxygen species not beneficial to the corals. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: Species in news Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Corals are marine invertebrates or animals which do not possess a spine. They are the largest living structures on the planet. Each coral is called a polyp and thousands of such polyps live together to form a colony, which grow when polyps multiply to make copies of themselves. Corals are of two types — hard corals and soft corals. Hard corals extract calcium carbonate from seawater to build hard, white coral exoskeletons. Statement 2 is correct: Corals share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae. The algae prepares food for corals through photosynthesis and also gives them their vibrant colouration. Statement 3 is not correct:* When exposed to conditions like heat stress, pollution, or high levels of ocean acidity, the zooxanthellae start producing reactive oxygen species not beneficial to the corals. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: Species in news Approach: applied knowledge

#### 2. Question

With reference to the Corals, consider the following statements:

• They are marine invertebrates or animals which do not possess a spine.

• They share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae.

• They produce reactive oxygen species beneficial for their skeleton.

How many of the statements given above are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Corals are marine invertebrates or animals which do not possess a spine. They are the largest living structures on the planet.

Each coral is called a polyp and thousands of such polyps live together to form a colony, which grow when polyps multiply to make copies of themselves.

Corals are of two types — hard corals and soft corals. Hard corals extract calcium carbonate from seawater to build hard, white coral exoskeletons.

Statement 2 is correct: Corals share a symbiotic relationship with single-celled algae called zooxanthellae. The algae prepares food for corals through photosynthesis and also gives them their vibrant colouration.

Statement 3 is not correct: When exposed to conditions like heat stress, pollution, or high levels of ocean acidity, the zooxanthellae start producing reactive oxygen species not beneficial to the corals.

Trend: Species in news

Approach: applied knowledge

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Corals are marine invertebrates or animals which do not possess a spine. They are the largest living structures on the planet.

Each coral is called a polyp and thousands of such polyps live together to form a colony, which grow when polyps multiply to make copies of themselves.

Corals are of two types — hard corals and soft corals. Hard corals extract calcium carbonate from seawater to build hard, white coral exoskeletons.

Trend: Species in news

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points With reference to Participatory Notes, consider the following statements: These are the means through which foreign investors not registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India invest in the Indian capital market. Indian regulators do not support participatory notes because they can cause economic volatility in Indian exchanges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Participatory notes also referred to as P-notes, or PNs, are financial instruments required by investors or hedge funds to invest in Indian securities without having to register with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). P-notes are among the group of investments considered to be Offshore Derivative Investments (ODIs). Statement 2 is correct: Indian regulators are generally not in support of participatory notes because they fear that hedge funds acting through participatory notes will cause economic volatility in India’s exchanges. Source: Indian Economy Trend: Basic concepts Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Participatory notes also referred to as P-notes, or PNs, are financial instruments required by investors or hedge funds to invest in Indian securities without having to register with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). P-notes are among the group of investments considered to be Offshore Derivative Investments (ODIs). Statement 2 is correct: Indian regulators are generally not in support of participatory notes because they fear that hedge funds acting through participatory notes will cause economic volatility in India’s exchanges. Source: Indian Economy Trend: Basic concepts Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 3. Question

With reference to Participatory Notes, consider the following statements:

• These are the means through which foreign investors not registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India invest in the Indian capital market.

• Indian regulators do not support participatory notes because they can cause economic volatility in Indian exchanges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Participatory notes also referred to as P-notes, or PNs, are financial instruments required by investors or hedge funds to invest in Indian securities without having to register with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

P-notes are among the group of investments considered to be Offshore Derivative Investments (ODIs).

Statement 2 is correct: Indian regulators are generally not in support of participatory notes because they fear that hedge funds acting through participatory notes will cause economic volatility in India’s exchanges.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

Answer: C

Explanation:

P-notes are among the group of investments considered to be Offshore Derivative Investments (ODIs).

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to Trachoma, consider the following statements: Itis a disease caused by infection of bacterium. It causes blindness which is irreversible. Its infection becomes more frequent with increasing age. How many of the statements given above are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Trachoma is the leading infectious cause of blindness worldwide. It is caused by an obligate intracellular bacterium called Chlamydia trachomatis. Statement 2 is correct: Blindness from trachoma is irreversible. Statement 3 is not correct: In areas where trachoma is endemic, active (inflammatory) trachoma is common among preschool-aged children, with prevalence rates which can be as high as 60–90%. Infection becomes less frequent and shorter in duration with increasing age. Trachoma is hyperendemic in many of the poorest and most rural areas of Africa, Central and South America, Asia, Australia and the Middle East. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and Diseases Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Trachoma is the leading infectious cause of blindness worldwide. It is caused by an obligate intracellular bacterium called Chlamydia trachomatis. Statement 2 is correct: Blindness from trachoma is irreversible. Statement 3 is not correct:* In areas where trachoma is endemic, active (inflammatory) trachoma is common among preschool-aged children, with prevalence rates which can be as high as 60–90%. Infection becomes less frequent and shorter in duration with increasing age. Trachoma is hyperendemic in many of the poorest and most rural areas of Africa, Central and South America, Asia, Australia and the Middle East. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and Diseases Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 4. Question

With reference to Trachoma, consider the following statements:

• Itis a disease caused by infection of bacterium.

• It causes blindness which is irreversible.

• Its infection becomes more frequent with increasing age.

How many of the statements given above are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Trachoma is the leading infectious cause of blindness worldwide. It is caused by an obligate intracellular bacterium called Chlamydia trachomatis.

Statement 2 is correct: Blindness from trachoma is irreversible.

Statement 3 is not correct: In areas where trachoma is endemic, active (inflammatory) trachoma is common among preschool-aged children, with prevalence rates which can be as high as 60–90%. Infection becomes less frequent and shorter in duration with increasing age.

Trachoma is hyperendemic in many of the poorest and most rural areas of Africa, Central and South America, Asia, Australia and the Middle East.

Trend: Healthcare and Diseases

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Trachoma is the leading infectious cause of blindness worldwide. It is caused by an obligate intracellular bacterium called Chlamydia trachomatis.

Statement 2 is correct: Blindness from trachoma is irreversible.

Trachoma is hyperendemic in many of the poorest and most rural areas of Africa, Central and South America, Asia, Australia and the Middle East.

Trend: Healthcare and Diseases

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: In a parliamentary democracy, a government can be in power only if it commands a majority in the directly elected House. Article 75 of the Indian Constitution specifies that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The No confidence motion is used to force a discussion on a certain issue and can be moved only in the Lok Sabha. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: In a parliamentary democracy, a government can be in power only if it commands a majority in the directly elected House. Statement 2 is correct: Article 75(3) of our Constitution embodies this rule by specifying that the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. For testing this collective responsibility, the rules of Lok Sabha provide a particular mechanism a motion of no-confidence. Statement 3 is correct: Any Lok Sabha MP, who can garner the support of 50 colleagues, can, at any point of time, introduce a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. No confidence motion can be used as a strategic tool to force a discussion on a certain topic or issue and can only be moved in the Lok Sabha. Source: Indian Polity Trend: Basic concepts Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: In a parliamentary democracy, a government can be in power only if it commands a majority in the directly elected House. Statement 2 is correct: Article 75(3) of our Constitution embodies this rule by specifying that the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. For testing this collective responsibility, the rules of Lok Sabha provide a particular mechanism a motion of no-confidence. Statement 3 is correct: Any Lok Sabha MP, who can garner the support of 50 colleagues, can, at any point of time, introduce a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. No confidence motion can be used as a strategic tool to force a discussion on a certain topic or issue and can only be moved in the Lok Sabha. Source: Indian Polity Trend: Basic concepts Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• In a parliamentary democracy, a government can be in power only if it commands a majority in the directly elected House.

• Article 75 of the Indian Constitution specifies that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

• The No confidence motion is used to force a discussion on a certain issue and can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: In a parliamentary democracy, a government can be in power only if it commands a majority in the directly elected House.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 75(3) of our Constitution embodies this rule by specifying that the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

For testing this collective responsibility, the rules of Lok Sabha provide a particular mechanism a motion of no-confidence.

Statement 3 is correct: Any Lok Sabha MP, who can garner the support of 50 colleagues, can, at any point of time, introduce a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.

No confidence motion can be used as a strategic tool to force a discussion on a certain topic or issue and can only be moved in the Lok Sabha.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: In a parliamentary democracy, a government can be in power only if it commands a majority in the directly elected House.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 75(3) of our Constitution embodies this rule by specifying that the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

For testing this collective responsibility, the rules of Lok Sabha provide a particular mechanism a motion of no-confidence.

Statement 3 is correct: Any Lok Sabha MP, who can garner the support of 50 colleagues, can, at any point of time, introduce a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.

No confidence motion can be used as a strategic tool to force a discussion on a certain topic or issue and can only be moved in the Lok Sabha.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: factual/knowledge based question

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes conservation tillage? (a) A cultivation practice that leaves the soil undisturbed from harvest to planting except for nutrient injection. (b) A traditional ploughing technique that turns the soil over completely before planting. (c) A modern farming practice that relies on high levels of chemical fertilizers. (d) A method of soil cultivation that prioritizes frequent tillage to control weed growth Correct Solution: A Conservation tillage is any method of soil cultivation that leaves the previous year’s crop residue (such as corn stalks or wheat stubble) on fields before and after planting the next crop to reduce soil erosion and runoff, as well as other benefits such as carbon sequestration. Conventional tillage is the traditional method of farming in which soil is prepared for planting by completely inverting it with a tractor-pulled plough, followed by subsequent additional tillage to smooth the soil surface for crop cultivation. In contrast, conservation tillage is a tillage system that conserves soil, water and energy resources through the reduction of tillage intensity and retention of crop residue. Conservation tillage involves the planting, growing and harvesting of crops with limited disturbance to the soil surface. Tillage of the soil stimulates microbial decomposition of soil organic matter, which results in emissions of CO2 to the atmosphere. Therefore, minimising the amount of tillage promotes sequestration of carbon in the soil. In the last decades advancements in weed control methods and farm machinery now allow many crops to be grown with minimum tillage Source: https://www.ctc-n.org/technologies/conservation-tillage Trend: sustainable agriculture Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: A Conservation tillage is any method of soil cultivation that leaves the previous year’s crop residue (such as corn stalks or wheat stubble) on fields before and after planting the next crop to reduce soil erosion and runoff, as well as other benefits such as carbon sequestration. Conventional tillage is the traditional method of farming in which soil is prepared for planting by completely inverting it with a tractor-pulled plough, followed by subsequent additional tillage to smooth the soil surface for crop cultivation. In contrast, conservation tillage is a tillage system that conserves soil, water and energy resources through the reduction of tillage intensity and retention of crop residue. Conservation tillage involves the planting, growing and harvesting of crops with limited disturbance to the soil surface. Tillage of the soil stimulates microbial decomposition of soil organic matter, which results in emissions of CO2 to the atmosphere. Therefore, minimising the amount of tillage promotes sequestration of carbon in the soil. In the last decades advancements in weed control methods and farm machinery now allow many crops to be grown with minimum tillage Source: https://www.ctc-n.org/technologies/conservation-tillage Trend: sustainable agriculture Approach: applied knowledge

#### 6. Question

Which of the following best describes conservation tillage?

• (a) A cultivation practice that leaves the soil undisturbed from harvest to planting except for nutrient injection.

• (b) A traditional ploughing technique that turns the soil over completely before planting.

• (c) A modern farming practice that relies on high levels of chemical fertilizers.

• (d) A method of soil cultivation that prioritizes frequent tillage to control weed growth

Solution: A

Conservation tillage is any method of soil cultivation that leaves the previous year’s crop residue (such as corn stalks or wheat stubble) on fields before and after planting the next crop to reduce soil erosion and runoff, as well as other benefits such as carbon sequestration.

Conventional tillage is the traditional method of farming in which soil is prepared for planting by completely inverting it with a tractor-pulled plough, followed by subsequent additional tillage to smooth the soil surface for crop cultivation. In contrast, conservation tillage is a tillage system that conserves soil, water and energy resources through the reduction of tillage intensity and retention of crop residue. Conservation tillage involves the planting, growing and harvesting of crops with limited disturbance to the soil surface.

Tillage of the soil stimulates microbial decomposition of soil organic matter, which results in emissions of CO2 to the atmosphere. Therefore, minimising the amount of tillage promotes sequestration of carbon in the soil. In the last decades advancements in weed control methods and farm machinery now allow many crops to be grown with minimum tillage

Trend: sustainable agriculture

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: A

Trend: sustainable agriculture

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points In biodynamic farming, the use of prepared compost and field sprays made from fermented herbal and mineral preparations is primarily intended to: (a) Increase the pH level of the soil for specific crop requirements. (b) Replace the need for mechanical ploughing and tilling. (c) Enhance the soil structure and stimulate plant growth. (d) Attract beneficial insects and increase pollination. Correct Solution: C Biodynamic is a combination of two Greek words: “bios,” which means life, and “dynamos,” which means energy. In biodynamic agriculture (BDA), the farm is considered an autonomous and living organism that interacts with the environment to build healthy and living soil and produce healthy and nutritious food. It stresses spirituality and follows a calendar for planting and sowing crops dependent on the moon and stars’ position. Biodynamic farming first originated in the context of anthroposophy. It was developed by Rudolf Steiner in 1924 at Koberwitz as part of a series of lectures for farmers: “Spiritual Foundations for a Renewal of Agriculture: A Series of Lectures.” The biodynamic farming system mainly works on the relationship between plant growth and cosmic rhythms and emphasizes the importance of maintaining sustainable soil fertility. For instance, some biodynamic practices considered biodynamic pillars are the lunar and cultural calendar synchronization, and the use of preparations (for crops and/or compost) made from medicinal plants, cow dung, quartz, and living animals on the farm. Biodynamic farming uses various compost preparations, which include fermented herbal and mineral substances, to enhance soil quality and stimulate plant growth. These preparations are intended to invigorate the soil and increase its ability to support healthy plant development. Source: https://www.ceew.in/publications/sustainable-agriculture-india/biodynamic-farming Trend: sustainable agriculture Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C Biodynamic is a combination of two Greek words: “bios,” which means life, and “dynamos,” which means energy. In biodynamic agriculture (BDA), the farm is considered an autonomous and living organism that interacts with the environment to build healthy and living soil and produce healthy and nutritious food. It stresses spirituality and follows a calendar for planting and sowing crops dependent on the moon and stars’ position. Biodynamic farming first originated in the context of anthroposophy. It was developed by Rudolf Steiner in 1924 at Koberwitz as part of a series of lectures for farmers: “Spiritual Foundations for a Renewal of Agriculture: A Series of Lectures.” The biodynamic farming system mainly works on the relationship between plant growth and cosmic rhythms and emphasizes the importance of maintaining sustainable soil fertility. For instance, some biodynamic practices considered biodynamic pillars are the lunar and cultural calendar synchronization, and the use of preparations (for crops and/or compost) made from medicinal plants, cow dung, quartz, and living animals on the farm. Biodynamic farming uses various compost preparations, which include fermented herbal and mineral substances, to enhance soil quality and stimulate plant growth. These preparations are intended to invigorate the soil and increase its ability to support healthy plant development. Source: https://www.ceew.in/publications/sustainable-agriculture-india/biodynamic-farming Trend: sustainable agriculture Approach: applied knowledge

#### 7. Question

In biodynamic farming, the use of prepared compost and field sprays made from fermented herbal and mineral preparations is primarily intended to:

• (a) Increase the pH level of the soil for specific crop requirements.

• (b) Replace the need for mechanical ploughing and tilling.

• (c) Enhance the soil structure and stimulate plant growth.

• (d) Attract beneficial insects and increase pollination.

Solution: C

Biodynamic is a combination of two Greek words: “bios,” which means life, and “dynamos,” which means energy. In biodynamic agriculture (BDA), the farm is considered an autonomous and living organism that interacts with the environment to build healthy and living soil and produce healthy and nutritious food. It stresses spirituality and follows a calendar for planting and sowing crops dependent on the moon and stars’ position. Biodynamic farming first originated in the context of anthroposophy. It was developed by Rudolf Steiner in 1924 at Koberwitz as part of a series of lectures for farmers: “Spiritual Foundations for a Renewal of Agriculture: A Series of Lectures.”

The biodynamic farming system mainly works on the relationship between plant growth and cosmic rhythms and emphasizes the importance of maintaining sustainable soil fertility. For instance, some biodynamic practices considered biodynamic pillars are the lunar and cultural calendar synchronization, and the use of preparations (for crops and/or compost) made from medicinal plants, cow dung, quartz, and living animals on the farm.

Biodynamic farming uses various compost preparations, which include fermented herbal and mineral substances, to enhance soil quality and stimulate plant growth. These preparations are intended to invigorate the soil and increase its ability to support healthy plant development.

Trend: sustainable agriculture

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: C

Trend: sustainable agriculture

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following: Assertion (A): Contour ploughing is a recommended practice in sustainable hillside farming. Reasoning (R): It creates natural water channels that accelerate water runoff and reduce the potential for soil erosion. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, and R is true. Correct Solution: C Contour farming or ploughing is the practice of ploughing and/or planting along a contour, i.e., across the slope (horizontal) rather than up and down (vertical). Furrows are ploughed perpendicular rather than parallel to the slope. Contour farming tends to be treated as synonymous with terrace farming; however, contour farming follows the natural shape of the slope without altering it, whereas terrace farming builds walls and alters the shape of the slope to produce flat areas that provide a catchment for water and to check erosion (Stakeholders consulted at DoA, Himachal Pradesh). In geographical terms, contour is an imaginary line joining the same elevation. In the hills farming is generally done by constructing terraces across the slope by providing a gentle gradient so that moistures and soil conservation is maintain and excess runoff water is safely disposed of. While contour bunding is a soil conservation structure created along the contours to control soil erosion. Source: https://www.ceew.in/publications/sustainable-agriculture-india/contour-farming Trend: sustainable agriculture Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: C Contour farming or ploughing is the practice of ploughing and/or planting along a contour, i.e., across the slope (horizontal) rather than up and down (vertical). Furrows are ploughed perpendicular rather than parallel to the slope. Contour farming tends to be treated as synonymous with terrace farming; however, contour farming follows the natural shape of the slope without altering it, whereas terrace farming builds walls and alters the shape of the slope to produce flat areas that provide a catchment for water and to check erosion (Stakeholders consulted at DoA, Himachal Pradesh). In geographical terms, contour is an imaginary line joining the same elevation. In the hills farming is generally done by constructing terraces across the slope by providing a gentle gradient so that moistures and soil conservation is maintain and excess runoff water is safely disposed of. While contour bunding is a soil conservation structure created along the contours to control soil erosion. Source: https://www.ceew.in/publications/sustainable-agriculture-india/contour-farming Trend: sustainable agriculture Approach: applied knowledge

#### 8. Question

Consider the following:

Assertion (A): Contour ploughing is a recommended practice in sustainable hillside farming.

Reasoning (R): It creates natural water channels that accelerate water runoff and reduce the potential for soil erosion.

• (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

• (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

• (c) A is true, but R is false.

• (d) A is false, and R is true.

Solution: C

Contour farming or ploughing is the practice of ploughing and/or planting along a contour, i.e., across the slope (horizontal) rather than up and down (vertical). Furrows are ploughed perpendicular rather than parallel to the slope. Contour farming tends to be treated as synonymous with terrace farming; however, contour farming follows the natural shape of the slope without altering it, whereas terrace farming builds walls and alters the shape of the slope to produce flat areas that provide a catchment for water and to check erosion (Stakeholders consulted at DoA, Himachal Pradesh).

In geographical terms, contour is an imaginary line joining the same elevation. In the hills farming is generally done by constructing terraces across the slope by providing a gentle gradient so that moistures and soil conservation is maintain and excess runoff water is safely disposed of. While contour bunding is a soil conservation structure created along the contours to control soil erosion.

Trend: sustainable agriculture

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: C

Trend: sustainable agriculture

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about cover cropping and mulching: Cover crops can be used to fix nitrogen in the soil, reducing the need for chemical fertilizers. Mulching involves applying a layer of material to the surface of the soil to conserve moisture and improve fertility. Both cover cropping and mulching are known to contribute to the thermal insulation of the soil. One of the major limitations of the organic mulching is that, it increases soil temperature drastically. How many statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Cover crops are crops planted to cover the Con rather than to be harvested. They can be rotated along with other crops or intercropped and also when regular crops are not being grown, with the aim of controlling erosion and adding organic matter to the soil, supplying nitrogen, controlling weeds, and fighting insects/pests. Cover crops can be grown with plantation crops or rotated with cash crops and they can be annual, biennial, or perennial, as well as leguminous or non-leguminous. Few of the cover crops (pulses) can be grown as a short duration catch crops to shield the farmers economically during times of drought. Mulching is the practice of covering the soil surface with organic materials (plant residues, straw, hay, groundnut hulls, leat and compost, peat, wood products, sawdust, and animal manure), or synthetic materials (paper, polyethylene, wax-coated papers, aluminium, steel foils, and asphalt spray emulsions, etc.) with an aim to conserve soil moisture, avoid runoff and increase soil productivity. Trash farming, where the crop residues are cut, chopped, and mixed into the ground, is also a form of mulching. Certain cover crops, like legumes, are used to fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The benefits of mulching for soil health are also extensively documented, and include erosion control, and regulating soil temperature, along with moisture retention and weed suppression. Organic mulches are known to reduce the soil temperature by almost 1-6 degrees Celsius at 10 cm depth. Grass mulch applied at 6t/ha reduced the mean maximum soil temperature and evapotranspiration. Other than temperature control, mulching improves soil structure, and when applied at an early stage, it reduces the need to use herbicides due to reduced weed growth. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Source: https://www.ceew.in/publications/sustainable-agriculture-india/cover-crops-mulching Trend: Sustainable agriculture Approach: Statement 4 can be eliminated as it suggests an extreme possibility (“drastically”) Incorrect Solution: C Cover crops are crops planted to cover the Con rather than to be harvested. They can be rotated along with other crops or intercropped and also when regular crops are not being grown, with the aim of controlling erosion and adding organic matter to the soil, supplying nitrogen, controlling weeds, and fighting insects/pests. Cover crops can be grown with plantation crops or rotated with cash crops and they can be annual, biennial, or perennial, as well as leguminous or non-leguminous. Few of the cover crops (pulses) can be grown as a short duration catch crops to shield the farmers economically during times of drought. Mulching is the practice of covering the soil surface with organic materials (plant residues, straw, hay, groundnut hulls, leat and compost, peat, wood products, sawdust, and animal manure), or synthetic materials (paper, polyethylene, wax-coated papers, aluminium, steel foils, and asphalt spray emulsions, etc.) with an aim to conserve soil moisture, avoid runoff and increase soil productivity. Trash farming, where the crop residues are cut, chopped, and mixed into the ground, is also a form of mulching. Certain cover crops, like legumes, are used to fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The benefits of mulching for soil health are also extensively documented, and include erosion control, and regulating soil temperature, along with moisture retention and weed suppression. Organic mulches are known to reduce the soil temperature by almost 1-6 degrees Celsius at 10 cm depth. Grass mulch applied at 6t/ha reduced the mean maximum soil temperature and evapotranspiration. Other than temperature control, mulching improves soil structure, and when applied at an early stage, it reduces the need to use herbicides due to reduced weed growth. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Source: https://www.ceew.in/publications/sustainable-agriculture-india/cover-crops-mulching Trend: Sustainable agriculture Approach: Statement 4 can be eliminated as it suggests an extreme possibility (“drastically”)

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about cover cropping and mulching:

• Cover crops can be used to fix nitrogen in the soil, reducing the need for chemical fertilizers.

• Mulching involves applying a layer of material to the surface of the soil to conserve moisture and improve fertility.

• Both cover cropping and mulching are known to contribute to the thermal insulation of the soil.

• One of the major limitations of the organic mulching is that, it increases soil temperature drastically.

How many statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Cover crops are crops planted to cover the Con rather than to be harvested. They can be rotated along with other crops or intercropped and also when regular crops are not being grown, with the aim of controlling erosion and adding organic matter to the soil, supplying nitrogen, controlling weeds, and fighting insects/pests. Cover crops can be grown with plantation crops or rotated with cash crops and they can be annual, biennial, or perennial, as well as leguminous or non-leguminous. Few of the cover crops (pulses) can be grown as a short duration catch crops to shield the farmers economically during times of drought.

Mulching is the practice of covering the soil surface with organic materials (plant residues, straw, hay, groundnut hulls, leat and compost, peat, wood products, sawdust, and animal manure), or synthetic materials (paper, polyethylene, wax-coated papers, aluminium, steel foils, and asphalt spray emulsions, etc.) with an aim to conserve soil moisture, avoid runoff and increase soil productivity. Trash farming, where the crop residues are cut, chopped, and mixed into the ground, is also a form of mulching.

Certain cover crops, like legumes, are used to fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The benefits of mulching for soil health are also extensively documented, and include erosion control, and regulating soil temperature, along with moisture retention and weed suppression. Organic mulches are known to reduce the soil temperature by almost 1-6 degrees Celsius at 10 cm depth. Grass mulch applied at 6t/ha reduced the mean maximum soil temperature and evapotranspiration. Other than temperature control, mulching improves soil structure, and when applied at an early stage, it reduces the need to use herbicides due to reduced weed growth.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Trend: Sustainable agriculture

Approach: Statement 4 can be eliminated as it suggests an extreme possibility (“drastically”)

Solution: C

Certain cover crops, like legumes, are used to fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Trend: Sustainable agriculture

Approach: Statement 4 can be eliminated as it suggests an extreme possibility (“drastically”)

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Floating farming, an ancient form of hydroponics, is primarily utilized in regions with: (a) High altitude mountainous terrains. (b) Deep forest ecosystems. (c) Arid deserts with minimal water sources. (d) Waterlogged or flood-prone areas. Correct Solution: D Floating farming is a way of producing food in areas that are waterlogged for long periods. It is mainly aimed at adapting cultivation to increased or prolonged flooding. The system uses floating beds of rotting vegetation that act as compost for crop growth. The beds can float on the water’s surface, thus creating agricultural land areas in a wet area. The practice increases the nutrient value of the soil as the floating bed ingredients (a mixture of dry leaves of leguminous plants, soil, a mixture of silt, vermicompost, compost/farmyard manure, chopped water hyacinth leaves, dried cow-dung) are used as compost after harvesting the vegetables on land for agriculture. These materials can also be used as fertilizer during the dry season. These floating gardens help in increasing soil nutrients as nitrogen, potassium, and phosphorus are abundant in the beds. Therefore, there is almost no need for fertilizer input. Source: https://www.ceew.in/publications/sustainable-agriculture-india/floating-farming Trend: Sustainable agriculture Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: D Floating farming is a way of producing food in areas that are waterlogged for long periods. It is mainly aimed at adapting cultivation to increased or prolonged flooding. The system uses floating beds of rotting vegetation that act as compost for crop growth. The beds can float on the water’s surface, thus creating agricultural land areas in a wet area. The practice increases the nutrient value of the soil as the floating bed ingredients (a mixture of dry leaves of leguminous plants, soil, a mixture of silt, vermicompost, compost/farmyard manure, chopped water hyacinth leaves, dried cow-dung) are used as compost after harvesting the vegetables on land for agriculture. These materials can also be used as fertilizer during the dry season. These floating gardens help in increasing soil nutrients as nitrogen, potassium, and phosphorus are abundant in the beds. Therefore, there is almost no need for fertilizer input. Source: https://www.ceew.in/publications/sustainable-agriculture-india/floating-farming Trend: Sustainable agriculture Approach: applied knowledge

#### 10. Question

Floating farming, an ancient form of hydroponics, is primarily utilized in regions with:

• (a) High altitude mountainous terrains.

• (b) Deep forest ecosystems.

• (c) Arid deserts with minimal water sources.

• (d) Waterlogged or flood-prone areas.

Solution: D

Floating farming is a way of producing food in areas that are waterlogged for long periods. It is mainly aimed at adapting cultivation to increased or prolonged flooding. The system uses floating beds of rotting vegetation that act as compost for crop growth. The beds can float on the water’s surface, thus creating agricultural land areas in a wet area.

The practice increases the nutrient value of the soil as the floating bed ingredients (a mixture of dry leaves of leguminous plants, soil, a mixture of silt, vermicompost, compost/farmyard manure, chopped water hyacinth leaves, dried cow-dung) are used as compost after harvesting the vegetables on land for agriculture. These materials can also be used as fertilizer during the dry season. These floating gardens help in increasing soil nutrients as nitrogen, potassium, and phosphorus are abundant in the beds. Therefore, there is almost no need for fertilizer input.

Trend: Sustainable agriculture

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: D

Trend: Sustainable agriculture

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points With reference to the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPVFR) act, consider the following statements: The PPVFR act provides for the implementation of ‘Agreement on Agriculture’ (AoA) of the WTO. Farmers are entitled to sell branded seed of a variety protected under this Act. If a protected variety of seed provided by a company to the farmers underperforms, than the farmers are entitled to get compensation. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act (PPVFRA), 2001, introduced intellectual property protection in Indian agriculture. In order to provide for the establishment of an effective system for the protection of plant varieties, the rights of farmers and plant breeders and to encourage the development of new varieties of plants, the of India enacted “The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001” adopting sui generis system. The legislation recognizes the contributions of both commercial plant breeders and farmers in plant breeding activity and also provides to implement TRIPs agreement of WTO in a way that supports the specific socio-economic interests of all the stakeholders including private, public sectors and research institutions, as well as resource-constrained farmers. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Rights under the Act: Breeders’ Rights: Breeders will have exclusive rights to produce, sell, market, distribute, import or export the protected variety. Breeder can appoint agent/ licensee and may exercise for civil remedy in case of infringement of rights. Researchers’ Rights: Researcher can use any of the registered variety under the Act for conducting experiment or research. This includes the use of a variety as an initial source of variety for the purpose of developing another variety but repeated use needs prior permission of the registered breeder. Farmers’ Rights: A farmer who has evolved or developed a new variety is entitled for registration and protection in like manner as a breeder of a variety; Farmers variety can also be registered as an extant variety; A farmer can save, use, sow, re-sow, exchange, share or sell his farm produce including seed of a variety protected under the PPV&FR Act, 2001 in the same manner as he was entitled before the coming into force of this Act. However, farmers are not entitled to sell branded seed of a variety protected under this Act. Farmers can use saved seed from a crop cultivated in their own. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Farmers are eligible for recognition and rewards for the conservation of Plant Genetic Resources of land races and wild relatives of economic plants; There is also a provision for compensation to the farmers for non-performance of variety under Section 39 (2) of the Act, 2001. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Farmer shall not be liable to pay any fee in any proceeding before the Authority or Registrar or the Tribunal or the High Court under the Act. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Agriculture Trend: Important legislations Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act (PPVFRA), 2001, introduced intellectual property protection in Indian agriculture. In order to provide for the establishment of an effective system for the protection of plant varieties, the rights of farmers and plant breeders and to encourage the development of new varieties of plants, the of India enacted “The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001” adopting sui generis system. The legislation recognizes the contributions of both commercial plant breeders and farmers in plant breeding activity and also provides to implement TRIPs agreement of WTO in a way that supports the specific socio-economic interests of all the stakeholders including private, public sectors and research institutions, as well as resource-constrained farmers. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Rights under the Act: Breeders’ Rights: Breeders will have exclusive rights to produce, sell, market, distribute, import or export the protected variety. Breeder can appoint agent/ licensee and may exercise for civil remedy in case of infringement of rights. Researchers’ Rights: Researcher can use any of the registered variety under the Act for conducting experiment or research. This includes the use of a variety as an initial source of variety for the purpose of developing another variety but repeated use needs prior permission of the registered breeder. Farmers’ Rights: A farmer who has evolved or developed a new variety is entitled for registration and protection in like manner as a breeder of a variety; Farmers variety can also be registered as an extant variety; A farmer can save, use, sow, re-sow, exchange, share or sell his farm produce including seed of a variety protected under the PPV&FR Act, 2001 in the same manner as he was entitled before the coming into force of this Act. However, farmers are not entitled to sell branded seed of a variety protected under this Act. Farmers can use saved seed from a crop cultivated in their own. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Farmers are eligible for recognition and rewards for the conservation of Plant Genetic Resources of land races and wild relatives of economic plants; There is also a provision for compensation to the farmers for non-performance of variety under Section 39 (2) of the Act, 2001. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Farmer shall not be liable to pay any fee in any proceeding before the Authority or Registrar or the Tribunal or the High Court under the Act. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Agriculture Trend: Important legislations Approach: applied knowledge

#### 11. Question

With reference to the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPVFR) act, consider the following statements:

• The PPVFR act provides for the implementation of ‘Agreement on Agriculture’ (AoA) of the WTO.

• Farmers are entitled to sell branded seed of a variety protected under this Act.

• If a protected variety of seed provided by a company to the farmers underperforms, than the farmers are entitled to get compensation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act (PPVFRA), 2001, introduced intellectual property protection in Indian agriculture.

• In order to provide for the establishment of an effective system for the protection of plant varieties, the rights of farmers and plant breeders and to encourage the development of new varieties of plants, the of India enacted “The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001” adopting sui generis system.

• The legislation recognizes the contributions of both commercial plant breeders and farmers in plant breeding activity and also provides to implement TRIPs agreement of WTO in a way that supports the specific socio-economic interests of all the stakeholders including private, public sectors and research institutions, as well as resource-constrained farmers. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Rights under the Act:

• Breeders’ Rights: Breeders will have exclusive rights to produce, sell, market, distribute, import or export the protected variety. Breeder can appoint agent/ licensee and may exercise for civil remedy in case of infringement of rights.

• Researchers’ Rights: Researcher can use any of the registered variety under the Act for conducting experiment or research. This includes the use of a variety as an initial source of variety for the purpose of developing another variety but repeated use needs prior permission of the registered breeder.

• Farmers’ Rights:

• A farmer who has evolved or developed a new variety is entitled for registration and protection in like manner as a breeder of a variety;

• Farmers variety can also be registered as an extant variety;

• A farmer can save, use, sow, re-sow, exchange, share or sell his farm produce including seed of a variety protected under the PPV&FR Act, 2001 in the same manner as he was entitled before the coming into force of this Act. However, farmers are not entitled to sell branded seed of a variety protected under this Act. Farmers can use saved seed from a crop cultivated in their own. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Farmers are eligible for recognition and rewards for the conservation of Plant Genetic Resources of land races and wild relatives of economic plants;

• There is also a provision for compensation to the farmers for non-performance of variety under Section 39 (2) of the Act, 2001. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Farmer shall not be liable to pay any fee in any proceeding before the Authority or Registrar or the Tribunal or the High Court under the Act.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: applied knowledge

Explanation:

• The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act (PPVFRA), 2001, introduced intellectual property protection in Indian agriculture.

• Rights under the Act:

• Farmers’ Rights:

• A farmer who has evolved or developed a new variety is entitled for registration and protection in like manner as a breeder of a variety;

• Farmers variety can also be registered as an extant variety;

• Farmers are eligible for recognition and rewards for the conservation of Plant Genetic Resources of land races and wild relatives of economic plants;

• There is also a provision for compensation to the farmers for non-performance of variety under Section 39 (2) of the Act, 2001. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Farmer shall not be liable to pay any fee in any proceeding before the Authority or Registrar or the Tribunal or the High Court under the Act.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Important legislations

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points With reference to Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Authority, consider the following statements: It is a statutory body under the Department of Agriculture. It maintains the National Gene Bank. Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is the ex-officio chairman of the authority. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Authority is a statutory body created by an act of Parliament. It works under the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Hence, statement 1 is correct. General Functions of the Authority: Registration of new plant varieties, essentially derived varieties (EDV), extant varieties; Developing DUS (Distinctiveness, Uniformity and Stability) test guidelines for new plant species; Developing characterization and documentation of varieties registered; Compulsory cataloguing facilities for all variety of plants; Documentation, indexing and cataloguing of farmers’ varieties; Recognizing and rewarding farmers, community of farmers, particularly tribal and rural community engaged in conservation and improvement; Preservation of plant genetic resources of economic plants and their wild relatives; Maintenance of the National Register of Plant Varieties and Maintenance of National Gene Bank. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Structure: The Chairperson is the Chief Executive of the Authority. Trilochan Mohapatra is the chairperson of the authority. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Besides the Chairperson, the Authority has 15 members, as notified by the Government of India (GOI). Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Agriculture Trend: Important legislations Approach: factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Authority is a statutory body created by an act of Parliament. It works under the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Hence, statement 1 is correct. General Functions of the Authority: Registration of new plant varieties, essentially derived varieties (EDV), extant varieties; Developing DUS (Distinctiveness, Uniformity and Stability) test guidelines for new plant species; Developing characterization and documentation of varieties registered; Compulsory cataloguing facilities for all variety of plants; Documentation, indexing and cataloguing of farmers’ varieties; Recognizing and rewarding farmers, community of farmers, particularly tribal and rural community engaged in conservation and improvement; Preservation of plant genetic resources of economic plants and their wild relatives; Maintenance of the National Register of Plant Varieties and Maintenance of National Gene Bank. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Structure: The Chairperson is the Chief Executive of the Authority. Trilochan Mohapatra is the chairperson of the authority. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Besides the Chairperson, the Authority has 15 members, as notified by the Government of India (GOI). Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Agriculture Trend: Important legislations Approach: factual/knowledge based question

#### 12. Question

With reference to Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Authority, consider the following statements:

• It is a statutory body under the Department of Agriculture.

• It maintains the National Gene Bank.

• Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is the ex-officio chairman of the authority.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

• Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Authority is a statutory body created by an act of Parliament. It works under the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• General Functions of the Authority:

• Registration of new plant varieties, essentially derived varieties (EDV), extant varieties;

• Developing DUS (Distinctiveness, Uniformity and Stability) test guidelines for new plant species;

• Developing characterization and documentation of varieties registered;

• Compulsory cataloguing facilities for all variety of plants;

• Documentation, indexing and cataloguing of farmers’ varieties;

• Recognizing and rewarding farmers, community of farmers, particularly tribal and rural community engaged in conservation and improvement;

• Preservation of plant genetic resources of economic plants and their wild relatives;

• Maintenance of the National Register of Plant Varieties and

• Maintenance of National Gene Bank. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Structure:

• The Chairperson is the Chief Executive of the Authority. Trilochan Mohapatra is the chairperson of the authority. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Besides the Chairperson, the Authority has 15 members, as notified by the Government of India (GOI).