DAY – 14 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : POLITY

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India: The Constitution explicitly provides for a multi-member Election Commission All the Election Commissioners enjoy the same constitutional protection against removal as Supreme Court Judges The power to determine the election schedule for both general and by-elections rests exclusively with the Election Commission How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a constitutional body responsible for administering elections to the Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President in India. Article 324(2) of the Indian Constitution states that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. This implies that the Constitution permits both single-member and multi-member Commissions, depending on the President’s discretion. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can be removed from office only through a process similar to that of a Supreme Court judge, requiring a parliamentary impeachment. However, other Election Commissioners can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the CEC, which does not provide them with the same level of protection as Supreme Court judges. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Election Commission has the authority to supervise, direct, and control the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to Parliament and state legislatures, which includes determining the election schedule. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: A The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a constitutional body responsible for administering elections to the Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President in India. Article 324(2) of the Indian Constitution states that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. This implies that the Constitution permits both single-member and multi-member Commissions, depending on the President’s discretion. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can be removed from office only through a process similar to that of a Supreme Court judge, requiring a parliamentary impeachment. However, other Election Commissioners can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the CEC, which does not provide them with the same level of protection as Supreme Court judges. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Election Commission has the authority to supervise, direct, and control the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to Parliament and state legislatures, which includes determining the election schedule. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India:

• The Constitution explicitly provides for a multi-member Election Commission

• All the Election Commissioners enjoy the same constitutional protection against removal as Supreme Court Judges

• The power to determine the election schedule for both general and by-elections rests exclusively with the Election Commission

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a constitutional body responsible for administering elections to the Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President in India.

• Article 324(2) of the Indian Constitution states that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix.

• This implies that the Constitution permits both single-member and multi-member Commissions, depending on the President’s discretion.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can be removed from office only through a process similar to that of a Supreme Court judge, requiring a parliamentary impeachment.

• However, other Election Commissioners can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the CEC, which does not provide them with the same level of protection as Supreme Court judges.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• The Election Commission has the authority to supervise, direct, and control the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to Parliament and state legislatures, which includes determining the election schedule.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: A

• This implies that the Constitution permits both single-member and multi-member Commissions, depending on the President’s discretion.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can be removed from office only through a process similar to that of a Supreme Court judge, requiring a parliamentary impeachment.

• However, other Election Commissioners can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the CEC, which does not provide them with the same level of protection as Supreme Court judges.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is/are *incorrect? The Chairman of the Finance Commission must have experience in public affairs. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the government. The 15th Finance Commission recommended a reduction in the states’ share of the divisible pool. The Finance Commission can suggest measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: A The Finance Commission of India is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. Its primary role is to make recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States, ensuring a fair allocation of financial resources. According to the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, the Chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are advisory in nature and not binding upon the government. The government may accept or reject them. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission recommended decreasing the share of states in the centre’s taxes from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41% for 2020-21. Hence, statement 3 is correct. One of the functions of the Finance Commission is to recommend measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State Hence, statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution: A The Finance Commission of India is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. Its primary role is to make recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States, ensuring a fair allocation of financial resources. According to the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, the Chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are advisory in nature and not binding upon the government. The government may accept or reject them. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission recommended decreasing the share of states in the centre’s taxes from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41% for 2020-21. Hence, statement 3 is correct. One of the functions of the Finance Commission is to recommend measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State Hence, statement 4 is correct.*

#### 2. Question

With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is/are *incorrect*?

• The Chairman of the Finance Commission must have experience in public affairs.

• The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the government.

• The 15th Finance Commission recommended a reduction in the states’ share of the divisible pool.

• The Finance Commission can suggest measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: A

The Finance Commission of India is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. Its primary role is to make recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States, ensuring a fair allocation of financial resources.

According to the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, the Chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The recommendations of the Finance Commission are advisory in nature and not binding upon the government. The government may accept or reject them.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The 15th Finance Commission recommended decreasing the share of states in the centre’s taxes from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41% for 2020-21.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

One of the functions of the Finance Commission is to recommend measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Solution: A

According to the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, the Chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The recommendations of the Finance Commission are advisory in nature and not binding upon the government. The government may accept or reject them.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The 15th Finance Commission recommended decreasing the share of states in the centre’s taxes from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41% for 2020-21.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

One of the functions of the Finance Commission is to recommend measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points The appointment of which of the following constitutional functionaries is not specifically mentioned in the Constitution of India? (a) Attorney General of India (b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (c) Solicitor General of India (d) Chairperson of the UPSC Correct Solution: C The Constitution of India explicitly outlines the appointment process for several key constitutional functionaries to ensure transparency and maintain the balance of power. Attorney General of India: Article 76(1) of the Constitution specifically mentions that the President shall appoint a person qualified to be a Supreme Court judge as the Attorney General of India. Comptroller and Auditor General of India: Article 148(1) clearly states that the CAG shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal Solicitor General of India: The Constitution does not explicitly mention the appointment of the Solicitor General. This position is not a constitutional post but a statutory one. Article 316(1) of the Constitution specifies that the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission shall be appointed by the President. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Solution: C The Constitution of India explicitly outlines the appointment process for several key constitutional functionaries to ensure transparency and maintain the balance of power. Attorney General of India: Article 76(1) of the Constitution specifically mentions that the President shall appoint a person qualified to be a Supreme Court judge as the Attorney General of India. Comptroller and Auditor General of India: Article 148(1) clearly states that the CAG shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal Solicitor General of India: The Constitution does not explicitly mention the appointment of the Solicitor General. This position is not a constitutional post but a statutory one. Article 316(1) of the Constitution specifies that the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission shall be appointed by the President. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 3. Question

The appointment of which of the following constitutional functionaries is not specifically mentioned in the Constitution of India?

• (a) Attorney General of India

• (b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

• (c) Solicitor General of India

• (d) Chairperson of the UPSC

Solution: C

The Constitution of India explicitly outlines the appointment process for several key constitutional functionaries to ensure transparency and maintain the balance of power.

Attorney General of India: Article 76(1) of the Constitution specifically mentions that the President shall appoint a person qualified to be a Supreme Court judge as the Attorney General of India.

Comptroller and Auditor General of India: Article 148(1) clearly states that the CAG shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal

Solicitor General of India: The Constitution does not explicitly mention the appointment of the Solicitor General. This position is not a constitutional post but a statutory one.

Article 316(1) of the Constitution specifies that the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission shall be appointed by the President.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Solution: C

The Constitution of India explicitly outlines the appointment process for several key constitutional functionaries to ensure transparency and maintain the balance of power.

Attorney General of India: Article 76(1) of the Constitution specifically mentions that the President shall appoint a person qualified to be a Supreme Court judge as the Attorney General of India.

Comptroller and Auditor General of India: Article 148(1) clearly states that the CAG shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal

Solicitor General of India: The Constitution does not explicitly mention the appointment of the Solicitor General. This position is not a constitutional post but a statutory one.

Article 316(1) of the Constitution specifies that the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission shall be appointed by the President.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India: The CAG has the authority to audit all receipts and expenditures of autonomous bodies substantially financed by the government. The Reports of the CAG relating to the accounts of the Union are submitted directly to the Parliament. The Constitution provides for the CAG to perform such duties as may be prescribed by Parliament. The CAG has the constitutional mandate to audit private companies engaged in public-private partnership projects. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: A The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is a constitutional authority established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. The CAG is responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditures of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG has the authority to audit autonomous bodies substantially financed by the government. This is specified under Sections 14 and 15 of the CAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The CAG submits audit reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the President, who then places them before both Houses of Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Article 149 of the Indian Constitution stipulates that the CAG shall perform duties and exercise powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and the States as prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The CAG does not have a constitutional mandate to audit private companies engaged in public-private partnership (PPP) projects. However, there have been discussions and proposals to amend the CAG’s powers to include auditing PPP projects, but such amendments have not been enacted. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is a constitutional authority established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. The CAG is responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditures of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG has the authority to audit autonomous bodies substantially financed by the government. This is specified under Sections 14 and 15 of the CAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The CAG submits audit reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the President, who then places them before both Houses of Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Article 149 of the Indian Constitution stipulates that the CAG shall perform duties and exercise powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and the States as prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The CAG does not have a constitutional mandate to audit private companies engaged in public-private partnership (PPP) projects. However, there have been discussions and proposals to amend the CAG’s powers to include auditing PPP projects, but such amendments have not been enacted. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:

• The CAG has the authority to audit all receipts and expenditures of autonomous bodies substantially financed by the government.

• The Reports of the CAG relating to the accounts of the Union are submitted directly to the Parliament.

• The Constitution provides for the CAG to perform such duties as may be prescribed by Parliament.

• The CAG has the constitutional mandate to audit private companies engaged in public-private partnership projects.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: A

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is a constitutional authority established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. The CAG is responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditures of the Government of India and the state governments, including those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government.

The CAG has the authority to audit autonomous bodies substantially financed by the government. This is specified under Sections 14 and 15 of the CAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The CAG submits audit reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the President, who then places them before both Houses of Parliament.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Article 149 of the Indian Constitution stipulates that the CAG shall perform duties and exercise powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and the States as prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The CAG does not have a constitutional mandate to audit private companies engaged in public-private partnership (PPP) projects. However, there have been discussions and proposals to amend the CAG’s powers to include auditing PPP projects, but such amendments have not been enacted.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The CAG submits audit reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the President, who then places them before both Houses of Parliament.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points In the context of the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), how many of the following statements is/are correct? The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act granted constitutional status to the NCBC The NCBC has the power to hear complaints and deprivations regarding OBC rights The advice of the NCBC is binding on the Central Government for inclusion in or exclusion from the OBC list States cannot maintain their separate OBC lists after the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is a constitutional body established to safeguard the interests of socially and educationally backward classes in India. The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2018 conferred constitutional status on the NCBC by introducing Article 338B into the Indian Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct. As per Article 338B(5)(b), the NCBC is empowered to inquire into specific complaints concerning the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The NCBC examines requests for inclusion or exclusion of communities in the OBC list and tenders’ advice to the Central Government. However, this advice is not binding; the final decision rests with the government. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Initially, the 102nd Amendment led to ambiguity regarding the powers of states to identify OBCs. However, the 105th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2021 clarified and restored the authority of state governments to maintain their own OBC lists. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is a constitutional body established to safeguard the interests of socially and educationally backward classes in India. The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2018 conferred constitutional status on the NCBC by introducing Article 338B into the Indian Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct. As per Article 338B(5)(b), the NCBC is empowered to inquire into specific complaints concerning the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The NCBC examines requests for inclusion or exclusion of communities in the OBC list and tenders’ advice to the Central Government. However, this advice is not binding; the final decision rests with the government. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Initially, the 102nd Amendment led to ambiguity regarding the powers of states to identify OBCs. However, the 105th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2021 clarified and restored the authority of state governments to maintain their own OBC lists. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

#### 5. Question

In the context of the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), how many of the following statements is/are correct?

• The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act granted constitutional status to the NCBC

• The NCBC has the power to hear complaints and deprivations regarding OBC rights

• The advice of the NCBC is binding on the Central Government for inclusion in or exclusion from the OBC list

• States cannot maintain their separate OBC lists after the 102nd Constitutional Amendment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is a constitutional body established to safeguard the interests of socially and educationally backward classes in India.

The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2018 conferred constitutional status on the NCBC by introducing Article 338B into the Indian Constitution.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

As per Article 338B(5)(b), the NCBC is empowered to inquire into specific complaints concerning the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The NCBC examines requests for inclusion or exclusion of communities in the OBC list and tenders’ advice to the Central Government. However, this advice is not binding; the final decision rests with the government.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Initially, the 102nd Amendment led to ambiguity regarding the powers of states to identify OBCs. However, the 105th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2021 clarified and restored the authority of state governments to maintain their own OBC lists.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution: B

The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is a constitutional body established to safeguard the interests of socially and educationally backward classes in India.

The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2018 conferred constitutional status on the NCBC by introducing Article 338B into the Indian Constitution.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

As per Article 338B(5)(b), the NCBC is empowered to inquire into specific complaints concerning the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points With reference to the Attorney General of India, consider the following statements: The Attorney General has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament The Attorney General can be removed by impeachment like a Supreme Court Judge The Attorney General cannot advise a private party against the Government of India The term of office of the Attorney General is fixed for 6 years How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The Attorney General of India (AGI) serves as the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and is its principal advocate before the Supreme Court. Established under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution, the AGI holds a position of significant responsibility in the country’s legal framework. Article 88 of the Constitution grants the AGI the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament or their joint sittings and any committee of Parliament of which they may be a member, but without the right to vote. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The AGI holds office during the pleasure of the President, meaning they can be removed by the President at any time. The Constitution does not prescribe a specific procedure or grounds for removal, and there is no provision for impeachment similar to that of a Supreme Court Judge. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. While the AGI is not debarred from private legal practice, they are restricted from advising or holding briefs against the Government of India. This ensures that there is no conflict of interest in their duties. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The Constitution does not fix a specific term for the AGI. They hold office during the pleasure of the President, and their tenure is not explicitly defined. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B The Attorney General of India (AGI) serves as the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and is its principal advocate before the Supreme Court. Established under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution, the AGI holds a position of significant responsibility in the country’s legal framework. Article 88 of the Constitution grants the AGI the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament or their joint sittings and any committee of Parliament of which they may be a member, but without the right to vote. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The AGI holds office during the pleasure of the President, meaning they can be removed by the President at any time. The Constitution does not prescribe a specific procedure or grounds for removal, and there is no provision for impeachment similar to that of a Supreme Court Judge. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. While the AGI is not debarred from private legal practice, they are restricted from advising or holding briefs against the Government of India. This ensures that there is no conflict of interest in their duties. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The Constitution does not fix a specific term for the AGI. They hold office during the pleasure of the President, and their tenure is not explicitly defined. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the Attorney General of India, consider the following statements:

• The Attorney General has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament

• The Attorney General can be removed by impeachment like a Supreme Court Judge

• The Attorney General cannot advise a private party against the Government of India

• The term of office of the Attorney General is fixed for 6 years

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

The Attorney General of India (AGI) serves as the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and is its principal advocate before the Supreme Court.

• Established under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution, the AGI holds a position of significant responsibility in the country’s legal framework.

• Article 88 of the Constitution grants the AGI the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament or their joint sittings and any committee of Parliament of which they may be a member, but without the right to vote.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The AGI holds office during the pleasure of the President, meaning they can be removed by the President at any time. The Constitution does not prescribe a specific procedure or grounds for removal, and there is no provision for impeachment similar to that of a Supreme Court Judge.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

While the AGI is not debarred from private legal practice, they are restricted from advising or holding briefs against the Government of India. This ensures that there is no conflict of interest in their duties.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The Constitution does not fix a specific term for the AGI. They hold office during the pleasure of the President, and their tenure is not explicitly defined.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution: B

The Attorney General of India (AGI) serves as the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and is its principal advocate before the Supreme Court.

• Established under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution, the AGI holds a position of significant responsibility in the country’s legal framework.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The Constitution does not fix a specific term for the AGI. They hold office during the pleasure of the President, and their tenure is not explicitly defined.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points In the context of constitutional bodies in India, consider the following statements: The salaries and allowances of all heads of constitutional bodies are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India Members of constitutional bodies are ineligible for further government employment after their tenure Parliament can amend the provisions related to any constitutional body through a simple majority How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Constitutional bodies in India are institutions established by the Constitution to uphold democratic principles and ensure proper governance. While the salaries and allowances of some constitutional office holders, such as the President, the Judges of the Supreme Court, and the Comptroller and Auditor General, are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, this is not uniformly applicable to all heads of constitutional bodies. Example: Election commission of India Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Ineligibility for further government employment after tenure is not a uniform rule for all constitutional bodies. For example, members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) are ineligible for further employment under the government after their tenure. However, this restriction does not apply to all constitutional bodies. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Amendments to provisions related to constitutional bodies typically require a constitutional amendment, which necessitates a special majority in Parliament. Some amendments may also require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures, depending on the nature of the amendment. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: D Constitutional bodies in India are institutions established by the Constitution to uphold democratic principles and ensure proper governance. While the salaries and allowances of some constitutional office holders, such as the President, the Judges of the Supreme Court, and the Comptroller and Auditor General, are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, this is not uniformly applicable to all heads of constitutional bodies. Example: Election commission of India Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Ineligibility for further government employment after tenure is not a uniform rule for all constitutional bodies. For example, members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) are ineligible for further employment under the government after their tenure. However, this restriction does not apply to all constitutional bodies. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Amendments to provisions related to constitutional bodies typically require a constitutional amendment, which necessitates a special majority in Parliament. Some amendments may also require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures, depending on the nature of the amendment. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 7. Question

In the context of constitutional bodies in India, consider the following statements:

• The salaries and allowances of all heads of constitutional bodies are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India

• Members of constitutional bodies are ineligible for further government employment after their tenure

• Parliament can amend the provisions related to any constitutional body through a simple majority

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

Constitutional bodies in India are institutions established by the Constitution to uphold democratic principles and ensure proper governance.

While the salaries and allowances of some constitutional office holders, such as the President, the Judges of the Supreme Court, and the Comptroller and Auditor General, are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, this is not uniformly applicable to all heads of constitutional bodies.

Example: Election commission of India

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Ineligibility for further government employment after tenure is not a uniform rule for all constitutional bodies. For example, members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) are ineligible for further employment under the government after their tenure. However, this restriction does not apply to all constitutional bodies.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Amendments to provisions related to constitutional bodies typically require a constitutional amendment, which necessitates a special majority in Parliament. Some amendments may also require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures, depending on the nature of the amendment.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: D

Constitutional bodies in India are institutions established by the Constitution to uphold democratic principles and ensure proper governance.

Example: Election commission of India

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points The ‘Institutions of Eminence’ scheme, which was in news recently, relates to the functioning of which of the following bodies? (a) University Grants Commission (b) Union Public Service Commission (c) Finance Commission (d) NITI Aayog Correct Solution: A The ‘Institutions of Eminence’ (IoE) scheme is an initiative by the Government of India aimed at empowering higher educational institutions to achieve world-class status. This scheme was introduced by the University Grants Commission (UGC) in 2017, following the announcement in the 2016 Union Budget. Incorrect Solution: A The ‘Institutions of Eminence’ (IoE) scheme is an initiative by the Government of India aimed at empowering higher educational institutions to achieve world-class status. This scheme was introduced by the University Grants Commission (UGC) in 2017, following the announcement in the 2016 Union Budget.

#### 8. Question

The ‘Institutions of Eminence’ scheme, which was in news recently, relates to the functioning of which of the following bodies?

• (a) University Grants Commission

• (b) Union Public Service Commission

• (c) Finance Commission

• (d) NITI Aayog

Solution: A

The ‘Institutions of Eminence’ (IoE) scheme is an initiative by the Government of India aimed at empowering higher educational institutions to achieve world-class status. This scheme was introduced by the University Grants Commission (UGC) in 2017, following the announcement in the 2016 Union Budget.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points How many of the following employees are not covered by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)? Members of the defence forces Officers and servants of the Supreme Court Civilian employees of defence services Secretarial staff of the Parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, to adjudicate disputes and complaints regarding the recruitment and service conditions of public servants covered by the Act. However, certain categories of employees are explicitly excluded from its jurisdiction: Members of the Defence Forces: Personnel serving in the naval, military, and air forces are excluded from CAT’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Officers and Servants of the Supreme Court: Employees of the Supreme Court are not within the purview of CAT. Hence, statement 2 is correct Civilian Employees of Defence Services: Civilian staff working in defence services are covered under CAT’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect Secretarial Staff of the Parliament: Staff working in the secretariats of either House of Parliament are excluded from CAT’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 4 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, to adjudicate disputes and complaints regarding the recruitment and service conditions of public servants covered by the Act. However, certain categories of employees are explicitly excluded from its jurisdiction: Members of the Defence Forces: Personnel serving in the naval, military, and air forces are excluded from CAT’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Officers and Servants of the Supreme Court: Employees of the Supreme Court are not within the purview of CAT. Hence, statement 2 is correct Civilian Employees of Defence Services: Civilian staff working in defence services are covered under CAT’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect Secretarial Staff of the Parliament: Staff working in the secretariats of either House of Parliament are excluded from CAT’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 4 is correct

#### 9. Question

How many of the following employees are not covered by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?

• Members of the defence forces

• Officers and servants of the Supreme Court

• Civilian employees of defence services

• Secretarial staff of the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, to adjudicate disputes and complaints regarding the recruitment and service conditions of public servants covered by the Act. However, certain categories of employees are explicitly excluded from its jurisdiction:

• Members of the Defence Forces: Personnel serving in the naval, military, and air forces are excluded from CAT’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Officers and Servants of the Supreme Court: Employees of the Supreme Court are not within the purview of CAT. Hence, statement 2 is correct

• Civilian Employees of Defence Services: Civilian staff working in defence services are covered under CAT’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect

• Secretarial Staff of the Parliament: Staff working in the secretariats of either House of Parliament are excluded from CAT’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 4 is correct

Solution: C

• Members of the Defence Forces: Personnel serving in the naval, military, and air forces are excluded from CAT’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Officers and Servants of the Supreme Court: Employees of the Supreme Court are not within the purview of CAT. Hence, statement 2 is correct

• Civilian Employees of Defence Services: Civilian staff working in defence services are covered under CAT’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect

• Secretarial Staff of the Parliament: Staff working in the secretariats of either House of Parliament are excluded from CAT’s jurisdiction. Hence, statement 4 is correct

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points With reference to the Special officer for linguistic minorities, consider the following statements: The procedure for removal of Special officer for linguistic minorities is provided in the Constitution. The reports of Special officer for linguistic minorities are placed before the Parliament by the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is a constitutional position established under Article 350B of the Indian Constitution to safeguard the interests of linguistic minorities. The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions, or procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. As per Article 350B (2), the Special Officer reports to the President on matters relating to safeguards for linguistic minorities. The President then causes these reports to be laid before each House of Parliament and sent to the governments of the states concerned. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is a constitutional position established under Article 350B of the Indian Constitution to safeguard the interests of linguistic minorities. The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions, or procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. As per Article 350B (2), the Special Officer reports to the President on matters relating to safeguards for linguistic minorities. The President then causes these reports to be laid before each House of Parliament and sent to the governments of the states concerned. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the Special officer for linguistic minorities, consider the following statements:

• The procedure for removal of Special officer for linguistic minorities is provided in the Constitution.

• The reports of Special officer for linguistic minorities are placed before the Parliament by the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is a constitutional position established under Article 350B of the Indian Constitution to safeguard the interests of linguistic minorities.

The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions, or procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

As per Article 350B (2), the Special Officer reports to the President on matters relating to safeguards for linguistic minorities. The President then causes these reports to be laid before each House of Parliament and sent to the governments of the states concerned.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution: B

The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is a constitutional position established under Article 350B of the Indian Constitution to safeguard the interests of linguistic minorities.

The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions, or procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The National Commission for Women (NCW) was set up under the mandate of the UN Women, of which India is a member. NCW is empowered to suo moto enquire into complaints regarding deprivation of women’s rights. All the members of NCW are nominated by the central government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A The UN Women was set up by the United Nations General Assembly in 2010 to promote gender equality and rights of women globally. The committee on status of women in India set up by the government of India in 1974 recommended constitution of a national Commission for Women to fulfill the surveillance functions and facilitate redressal of grievances and accelerates socio economic development of women. The Commission, set up in 1992, is an autonomous body established by the National Commission for Women Act 1990. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Commission is mandated to look into complaints and take suo moto notice of matters relating to: Deprivation of women’s rights Non implementation of laws enacted to provide protection to women Non-compliance of policy decisions aimed at mitigating hardships and ensuring welfare of women. Hence statement 2 is correct NCW is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson, five members and a member secretary All of them are nominated by the central government (Ministry of Women and Child Development). Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: A The UN Women was set up by the United Nations General Assembly in 2010 to promote gender equality and rights of women globally. The committee on status of women in India set up by the government of India in 1974 recommended constitution of a national Commission for Women to fulfill the surveillance functions and facilitate redressal of grievances and accelerates socio economic development of women. The Commission, set up in 1992, is an autonomous body established by the National Commission for Women Act 1990. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Commission is mandated to look into complaints and take suo moto notice of matters relating to: Deprivation of women’s rights Non implementation of laws enacted to provide protection to women Non-compliance of policy decisions aimed at mitigating hardships and ensuring welfare of women. Hence statement 2 is correct NCW is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson, five members and a member secretary All of them are nominated by the central government (Ministry of Women and Child Development). Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The National Commission for Women (NCW) was set up under the mandate of the UN Women, of which India is a member.

• NCW is empowered to suo moto enquire into complaints regarding deprivation of women’s rights.

• All the members of NCW are nominated by the central government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• The UN Women was set up by the United Nations General Assembly in 2010 to promote gender equality and rights of women globally.

• The committee on status of women in India set up by the government of India in 1974 recommended constitution of a national Commission for Women to fulfill the surveillance functions and facilitate redressal of grievances and accelerates socio economic development of women.

• The Commission, set up in 1992, is an autonomous body established by the National Commission for Women Act 1990.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

The Commission is mandated to look into complaints and take suo moto notice of matters relating to:

• Deprivation of women’s rights

• Non implementation of laws enacted to provide protection to women

• Non-compliance of policy decisions aimed at mitigating hardships and ensuring welfare of women.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• NCW is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson, five members and a member secretary

• All of them are nominated by the central government (Ministry of Women and Child Development).

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: A

• The UN Women was set up by the United Nations General Assembly in 2010 to promote gender equality and rights of women globally.

• The Commission, set up in 1992, is an autonomous body established by the National Commission for Women Act 1990.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

The Commission is mandated to look into complaints and take suo moto notice of matters relating to:

• Deprivation of women’s rights

• Non implementation of laws enacted to provide protection to women

• Non-compliance of policy decisions aimed at mitigating hardships and ensuring welfare of women.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• NCW is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson, five members and a member secretary

• All of them are nominated by the central government (Ministry of Women and Child Development).

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following: Chairman of National Commission for Scheduled Castes Chairman of National Development Council Chairman of National Commission for Protection of Child Rights Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities How many of the above serve as ex- officio members of the National Human Rights Commission? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The National Human Rights Commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson and five members The chairperson should be a retired Chief Justice of India or a judge of the supreme court and the members should be a serving or retired judge of the supreme court or serving or retired chief justice of a High Court and 3 persons (minimum one should be woman) having knowledge or practical experience regarding human rights. In addition to these full-time members, the NHRC has 7 ex-officio members – The Chairpersons of the – National Commission for Minorities National Commission for SCs National Commission for STs National Commission for Women National Commission for BCs National Commission for Protection of Child Rights Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B The National Human Rights Commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson and five members The chairperson should be a retired Chief Justice of India or a judge of the supreme court and the members should be a serving or retired judge of the supreme court or serving or retired chief justice of a High Court and 3 persons (minimum one should be woman) having knowledge or practical experience regarding human rights. In addition to these full-time members, the NHRC has 7 ex-officio members – The Chairpersons of the – National Commission for Minorities National Commission for SCs National Commission for STs National Commission for Women National Commission for BCs National Commission for Protection of Child Rights Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities Hence option B is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following:

• Chairman of National Commission for Scheduled Castes

• Chairman of National Development Council

• Chairman of National Commission for Protection of Child Rights

• Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

How many of the above serve as ex- officio members of the National Human Rights Commission?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• The National Human Rights Commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson and five members

• The chairperson should be a retired Chief Justice of India or a judge of the supreme court and the members should be a serving or retired judge of the supreme court or serving or retired chief justice of a High Court and 3 persons (minimum one should be woman) having knowledge or practical experience regarding human rights.

• In addition to these full-time members, the NHRC has 7 ex-officio members –

The Chairpersons of the –

• National Commission for Minorities

• National Commission for SCs

• National Commission for STs

• National Commission for Women

• National Commission for BCs

• National Commission for Protection of Child Rights

• Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• The National Human Rights Commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson and five members

• In addition to these full-time members, the NHRC has 7 ex-officio members –

The Chairpersons of the –

• National Commission for Minorities

• National Commission for SCs

• National Commission for STs

• National Commission for Women

• National Commission for BCs

• National Commission for Protection of Child Rights

• Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities

Hence option B is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Bar Council of India (BCI): It is a statutory and autonomous body. The members are nominated from judges of High Courts. The Chief Justice of India is the ex-officio chairman of BCI. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Bar Council of India was established under the Advocates Act 1961 enacted by the Parliament; hence it is a statutory body. It is an autonomous body and works under the Department of Legal Affairs of the Union Ministry of Law and Justice. Hence statement 1 is correct The BCI consists of elected members as well as ex-officio members. They are as follows – One member elected by each State Bar Council from amongst its members The Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India are the ex-officio members. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The BCI shall have a Chairman and Vice Chairman; they are elected by the Council from amongst its members. They hold office for a period of 2 years. The term of office of a member of the BCI elected by a State Bar Council shall be for the period for which the member holds office as a member of that SBC. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The Bar Council of India was established under the Advocates Act 1961 enacted by the Parliament; hence it is a statutory body. It is an autonomous body and works under the Department of Legal Affairs of the Union Ministry of Law and Justice. Hence statement 1 is correct The BCI consists of elected members as well as ex-officio members. They are as follows – One member elected by each State Bar Council from amongst its members The Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India are the ex-officio members. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The BCI shall have a Chairman and Vice Chairman; they are elected by the Council from amongst its members. They hold office for a period of 2 years. The term of office of a member of the BCI elected by a State Bar Council shall be for the period for which the member holds office as a member of that SBC. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Bar Council of India (BCI):

• It is a statutory and autonomous body.

• The members are nominated from judges of High Courts.

• The Chief Justice of India is the ex-officio chairman of BCI.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Bar Council of India was established under the Advocates Act 1961 enacted by the Parliament; hence it is a statutory body.

• It is an autonomous body and works under the Department of Legal Affairs of the Union Ministry of Law and Justice.

Hence statement 1 is correct

The BCI consists of elected members as well as ex-officio members. They are as follows –

• One member elected by each State Bar Council from amongst its members

• The Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India are the ex-officio members.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The BCI shall have a Chairman and Vice Chairman; they are elected by the Council from amongst its members.

• They hold office for a period of 2 years.

• The term of office of a member of the BCI elected by a State Bar Council shall be for the period for which the member holds office as a member of that SBC.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The Bar Council of India was established under the Advocates Act 1961 enacted by the Parliament; hence it is a statutory body.

• It is an autonomous body and works under the Department of Legal Affairs of the Union Ministry of Law and Justice.

Hence statement 1 is correct

The BCI consists of elected members as well as ex-officio members. They are as follows –

• One member elected by each State Bar Council from amongst its members

• The Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India are the ex-officio members.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The BCI shall have a Chairman and Vice Chairman; they are elected by the Council from amongst its members.

• They hold office for a period of 2 years.

• The term of office of a member of the BCI elected by a State Bar Council shall be for the period for which the member holds office as a member of that SBC.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: The National Commission for Minorities became a statutory body under the National Commission for Minorities Act 1992. Statement – II: The National Commission for Minorities Act 1992 for the first term defined the term ‘minority’ and empowered the President to notify communities to be included under it. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: C In 1978 the Government of India through an executive resolution set up a Minorities Commission to safeguard interests of Minorities in the country. Later, it was felt that the Minorities Commission be given statutory status, so that it may infuse confidence among the minorities about the working and effectiveness of the Commission. With the enactment of the National Commission for Minorities act 1992, the Minorities Commission became a statutory body and was renamed as the National Commission for Minorities. Hence statement 1 is correct The National Commission for Minorities Act 1992 does not define the term minority. But the act enables the central government to notify minorities for the purposes of the act accordingly the centre in 1993 notified 5 religious communities – Muslims, Christians, Buddhists, Zoroastrians, Sikhs as minority communities. In 2014 the Jaina community was added to the list by notification issued by the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C In 1978 the Government of India through an executive resolution set up a Minorities Commission to safeguard interests of Minorities in the country. Later, it was felt that the Minorities Commission be given statutory status, so that it may infuse confidence among the minorities about the working and effectiveness of the Commission. With the enactment of the National Commission for Minorities act 1992, the Minorities Commission became a statutory body and was renamed as the National Commission for Minorities. Hence statement 1 is correct The National Commission for Minorities Act 1992 does not define the term minority. But the act enables the central government to notify minorities for the purposes of the act accordingly the centre in 1993 notified 5 religious communities – Muslims, Christians, Buddhists, Zoroastrians, Sikhs as minority communities. In 2014 the Jaina community was added to the list by notification issued by the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I:

The National Commission for Minorities became a statutory body under the National Commission for Minorities Act 1992.

Statement – II:

The National Commission for Minorities Act 1992 for the first term defined the term ‘minority’ and empowered the President to notify communities to be included under it.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: C

• In 1978 the Government of India through an executive resolution set up a Minorities Commission to safeguard interests of Minorities in the country.

• Later, it was felt that the Minorities Commission be given statutory status, so that it may infuse confidence among the minorities about the working and effectiveness of the Commission.

• With the enactment of the National Commission for Minorities act 1992, the Minorities Commission became a statutory body and was renamed as the National Commission for Minorities.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The National Commission for Minorities Act 1992 does not define the term minority.

• But the act enables the central government to notify minorities for the purposes of the act accordingly the centre in 1993 notified 5 religious communities – Muslims, Christians, Buddhists, Zoroastrians, Sikhs as minority communities.

• In 2014 the Jaina community was added to the list by notification issued by the Ministry of Minority Affairs.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: C

• In 1978 the Government of India through an executive resolution set up a Minorities Commission to safeguard interests of Minorities in the country.

• Later, it was felt that the Minorities Commission be given statutory status, so that it may infuse confidence among the minorities about the working and effectiveness of the Commission.

• With the enactment of the National Commission for Minorities act 1992, the Minorities Commission became a statutory body and was renamed as the National Commission for Minorities.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The National Commission for Minorities Act 1992 does not define the term minority.

• In 2014 the Jaina community was added to the list by notification issued by the Ministry of Minority Affairs.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: All the members of the Lokpal are selected from judicial services. Lokpal can suo motu proceed against any public servant including Prime Minister and members of Parliament. The Lokayukta is appointed by the central government for a period of three years. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act 2013 provides for establishment of the Institution of Lokpal at the centre and Lokayukta at the state level. The Lokpal is to consist of a Chairperson with a maximum of 8 members of which 50% shall be judicial members. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Lokpal cannot sou motu proceed against any public servant. Its jurisdiction includes the Prime Minister, Ministers, members of Parliament and Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials of the Central Government. The Prime Minister has been brought under purview of the Lokpal with subject matter exclusions and specific process for handling complaints against the Prime Minister. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The structure of Lokayukta is not same in all the states ; some States have created the Lokayukta as well as Upalokayukta while some others have created only the Lokayukta. The Lokayukta and Upalokayukta are appointed by the governor of the state The judicial qualifications of these offices are prescribed in some States while there are no specific qualifications in other states. In most of the States, the term of office fixed for Lokayukta is 5 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act 2013 provides for establishment of the Institution of Lokpal at the centre and Lokayukta at the state level. The Lokpal is to consist of a Chairperson with a maximum of 8 members of which 50% shall be judicial members. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The Lokpal cannot sou motu proceed against any public servant. Its jurisdiction includes the Prime Minister, Ministers, members of Parliament and Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials of the Central Government. The Prime Minister has been brought under purview of the Lokpal with subject matter exclusions and specific process for handling complaints against the Prime Minister. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The structure of Lokayukta is not same in all the states ; some States have created the Lokayukta as well as Upalokayukta while some others have created only the Lokayukta. The Lokayukta and Upalokayukta are appointed by the governor of the state The judicial qualifications of these offices are prescribed in some States while there are no specific qualifications in other states. In most of the States, the term of office fixed for Lokayukta is 5 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements:

• All the members of the Lokpal are selected from judicial services.

• Lokpal can suo motu proceed against any public servant including Prime Minister and members of Parliament.

• The Lokayukta is appointed by the central government for a period of three years.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act 2013 provides for establishment of the Institution of Lokpal at the centre and Lokayukta at the state level.

• The Lokpal is to consist of a Chairperson with a maximum of 8 members of which 50% shall be judicial members.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Lokpal cannot sou motu proceed against any public servant.

• Its jurisdiction includes the Prime Minister, Ministers, members of Parliament and Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials of the Central Government.

• The Prime Minister has been brought under purview of the Lokpal with subject matter exclusions and specific process for handling complaints against the Prime Minister.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The structure of Lokayukta is not same in all the states ; some States have created the Lokayukta as well as Upalokayukta while some others have created only the Lokayukta.

• The Lokayukta and Upalokayukta are appointed by the governor of the state

• The judicial qualifications of these offices are prescribed in some States while there are no specific qualifications in other states.

• In most of the States, the term of office fixed for Lokayukta is 5 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: D

• The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act 2013 provides for establishment of the Institution of Lokpal at the centre and Lokayukta at the state level.

• The Lokpal is to consist of a Chairperson with a maximum of 8 members of which 50% shall be judicial members.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The Lokpal cannot sou motu proceed against any public servant.

• Its jurisdiction includes the Prime Minister, Ministers, members of Parliament and Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials of the Central Government.

• The Prime Minister has been brought under purview of the Lokpal with subject matter exclusions and specific process for handling complaints against the Prime Minister.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The structure of Lokayukta is not same in all the states ; some States have created the Lokayukta as well as Upalokayukta while some others have created only the Lokayukta.

• The Lokayukta and Upalokayukta are appointed by the governor of the state

• The judicial qualifications of these offices are prescribed in some States while there are no specific qualifications in other states.

• In most of the States, the term of office fixed for Lokayukta is 5 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points With reference to Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements: CBI is a statutory body under the under the Ministry of Home Affairs. It can investigate cases in a state only with prior permission of the state government. It can investigate cases related to foreign exchange violations only at the request of the Ministry of External Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 only Correct Solution: D Central Bureau of Investigation owes its origin to the Delhi Special Police Establishment, established in 1941 to enquire into cases of corruption in the procurement during the Second World War. Later, based on recommendations of the Santhanam committee on prevention of corruption, CBI was established by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs in 1963. It was transferred afterwards to the Ministry of Personnel and, at present in enjoys the status of an attached office. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The provisions of the Delhi Special police establishment Act of 1946 does not enable the CBI to exercise its powers and jurisdiction in any area in a state without consent of the Government of that state In other words, jurisdiction of the CBI can be extended to States only with consent of the state government concerned. Hence statement 2 is correct The Directorate of Enforcement is a multi-disciplinary organisation mandated with investigation of offences of money laundering and violations of foreign exchange laws. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D Central Bureau of Investigation owes its origin to the Delhi Special Police Establishment, established in 1941 to enquire into cases of corruption in the procurement during the Second World War. Later, based on recommendations of the Santhanam committee on prevention of corruption, CBI was established by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs in 1963. It was transferred afterwards to the Ministry of Personnel and, at present in enjoys the status of an attached office. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The provisions of the Delhi Special police establishment Act of 1946 does not enable the CBI to exercise its powers and jurisdiction in any area in a state without consent of the Government of that state In other words, jurisdiction of the CBI can be extended to States only with consent of the state government concerned. Hence statement 2 is correct The Directorate of Enforcement is a multi-disciplinary organisation mandated with investigation of offences of money laundering and violations of foreign exchange laws. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

With reference to Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements:

• CBI is a statutory body under the under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

• It can investigate cases in a state only with prior permission of the state government.

• It can investigate cases related to foreign exchange violations only at the request of the Ministry of External Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 2 only

Solution: D

• Central Bureau of Investigation owes its origin to the Delhi Special Police Establishment, established in 1941 to enquire into cases of corruption in the procurement during the Second World War.

• Later, based on recommendations of the Santhanam committee on prevention of corruption, CBI was established by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs in 1963.

• It was transferred afterwards to the Ministry of Personnel and, at present in enjoys the status of an attached office.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The provisions of the Delhi Special police establishment Act of 1946 does not enable the CBI to exercise its powers and jurisdiction in any area in a state without consent of the Government of that state

• In other words, jurisdiction of the CBI can be extended to States only with consent of the state government concerned.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Directorate of Enforcement is a multi-disciplinary organisation mandated with investigation of offences of money laundering and violations of foreign exchange laws.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: D

• Central Bureau of Investigation owes its origin to the Delhi Special Police Establishment, established in 1941 to enquire into cases of corruption in the procurement during the Second World War.

• Later, based on recommendations of the Santhanam committee on prevention of corruption, CBI was established by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs in 1963.

• It was transferred afterwards to the Ministry of Personnel and, at present in enjoys the status of an attached office.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• In other words, jurisdiction of the CBI can be extended to States only with consent of the state government concerned.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Directorate of Enforcement is a multi-disciplinary organisation mandated with investigation of offences of money laundering and violations of foreign exchange laws.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding State Information Commission: All the members of the commission are appointed by the president. The members of the commission hold office for such terms as prescribed by the central government or still 65 years of age, whichever is earlier. A member can be removed from office on ground of incapacity only after the Supreme Court upholds the cause of removal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct Solution: C The State Information Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 State Information Commissioners. The members are appointed by the Governor on recommendation of a committee consisting of the Chief Minister (as chairperson), Leader of Opposition in the legislative assembly and a state cabinet minister nominated by the Chief Minister. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner shall hold office for such time as prescribed by the central government or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier They are not eligible for reappointment. The Governor can remove any member of the Commission on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity However, in these cases, the Governor has to refer the matter to the supreme court for an enquiry If the supreme court after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the Governor can remove him. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C The State Information Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 State Information Commissioners. The members are appointed by the Governor on recommendation of a committee consisting of the Chief Minister (as chairperson), Leader of Opposition in the legislative assembly and a state cabinet minister nominated by the Chief Minister. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner shall hold office for such time as prescribed by the central government or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier They are not eligible for reappointment. The Governor can remove any member of the Commission on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity However, in these cases, the Governor has to refer the matter to the supreme court for an enquiry If the supreme court after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the Governor can remove him. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements regarding State Information Commission:

• All the members of the commission are appointed by the president.

• The members of the commission hold office for such terms as prescribed by the central government or still 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.

• A member can be removed from office on ground of incapacity only after the Supreme Court upholds the cause of removal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 3 only

Solution: C

• The State Information Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 State Information Commissioners.

• The members are appointed by the Governor on recommendation of a committee consisting of the Chief Minister (as chairperson), Leader of Opposition in the legislative assembly and a state cabinet minister nominated by the Chief Minister.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner shall hold office for such time as prescribed by the central government or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

• They are not eligible for reappointment.

• The Governor can remove any member of the Commission on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity

• However, in these cases, the Governor has to refer the matter to the supreme court for an enquiry

• If the supreme court after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the Governor can remove him.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

• The State Information Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 State Information Commissioners.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• They are not eligible for reappointment.

• The Governor can remove any member of the Commission on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity

• However, in these cases, the Governor has to refer the matter to the supreme court for an enquiry

• If the supreme court after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the Governor can remove him.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points The Central Vigilance Commission is a multi-member body consisting of a Chairman and two members appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee. Who among the following are members of the selection committee? Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Speaker of Lok Sabha Union Minister of Home Affairs Attorney General of India Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The Central Vigilance Commission is the main agency for preventing corruption in the central government. It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the government; its establishment was recommended by Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners. They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister (as its head), Union Minister of Home Affairs and the leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha. Hence options 1 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: B The Central Vigilance Commission is the main agency for preventing corruption in the central government. It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the government; its establishment was recommended by Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners. They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister (as its head), Union Minister of Home Affairs and the leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha. Hence options 1 and 3 are correct

#### 18. Question

The Central Vigilance Commission is a multi-member body consisting of a Chairman and two members appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee. Who among the following are members of the selection committee?

• Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

• Speaker of Lok Sabha

• Union Minister of Home Affairs

• Attorney General of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• The Central Vigilance Commission is the main agency for preventing corruption in the central government.

• It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the government; its establishment was recommended by Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.

• The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners.

• They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister (as its head), Union Minister of Home Affairs and the leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha.

Hence options 1 and 3 are correct

Solution: B

• The Central Vigilance Commission is the main agency for preventing corruption in the central government.

• It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the government; its establishment was recommended by Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.

• The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners.

Hence options 1 and 3 are correct

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Law Commission of India is established by an order issued by the Department of Legal Affairs. All the members of the Law Commission are selected from serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body. It is established by an order of the central government from time to time for a fixed tenure; the order is issued by the Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law and Justice. Hence statement 1 is correct The composition of the Law Commission is not fixed; it varies from one Commission to another. Generally, it consists of a chairperson, some full-time members, a member secretary and some part time members depending upon the nature of topics referred to it for consideration. The Chairman and full-time members are either serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts or legal experts, jurists or professors of law in any university of India. The member secretary belongs to the Indian Legal Service and holds the rank of either Additional Secretary or Secretary to the Government of India. The part time members are appointed from among the eminent members of the Bar or eminent scholars in the academic field or persons having specialised knowledge in a particular branch of law. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body. It is established by an order of the central government from time to time for a fixed tenure; the order is issued by the Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law and Justice. Hence statement 1 is correct The composition of the Law Commission is not fixed; it varies from one Commission to another. Generally, it consists of a chairperson, some full-time members, a member secretary and some part time members depending upon the nature of topics referred to it for consideration. The Chairman and full-time members are either serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts or legal experts, jurists or professors of law in any university of India. The member secretary belongs to the Indian Legal Service and holds the rank of either Additional Secretary or Secretary to the Government of India. The part time members are appointed from among the eminent members of the Bar or eminent scholars in the academic field or persons having specialised knowledge in a particular branch of law. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Law Commission of India is established by an order issued by the Department of Legal Affairs.

• All the members of the Law Commission are selected from serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body.

• It is established by an order of the central government from time to time for a fixed tenure; the order is issued by the Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law and Justice.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The composition of the Law Commission is not fixed; it varies from one Commission to another.

• Generally, it consists of a chairperson, some full-time members, a member secretary and some part time members depending upon the nature of topics referred to it for consideration.

• The Chairman and full-time members are either serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts or legal experts, jurists or professors of law in any university of India.

• The member secretary belongs to the Indian Legal Service and holds the rank of either Additional Secretary or Secretary to the Government of India.

• The part time members are appointed from among the eminent members of the Bar or eminent scholars in the academic field or persons having specialised knowledge in a particular branch of law.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body.

• It is established by an order of the central government from time to time for a fixed tenure; the order is issued by the Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law and Justice.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The composition of the Law Commission is not fixed; it varies from one Commission to another.

• Generally, it consists of a chairperson, some full-time members, a member secretary and some part time members depending upon the nature of topics referred to it for consideration.

• The Chairman and full-time members are either serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts or legal experts, jurists or professors of law in any university of India.

• The member secretary belongs to the Indian Legal Service and holds the rank of either Additional Secretary or Secretary to the Government of India.

• The part time members are appointed from among the eminent members of the Bar or eminent scholars in the academic field or persons having specialised knowledge in a particular branch of law.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is a statutory body set up under the CPCR Act 2005. Statement – II: Under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act 2005, the ‘child rights’ includes rights of children adopted in the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: A The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is a statutory (and not a constitutional body) It was set up in 2007 under the CPCR act 2005, enacted by the parliament. The commission deals with effective implementation of laws and programmes relating to children. Hence statement 1 is correct Under the CPCR Act 2005 child rights include the children’s rights adopted in the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child on 20 November 1989 and ratified by the government of India on December 11, 1992 Under this convention a child has been defined as a human being below the age of 18 years. Hence statement 2 is correct Statement II explains the basis for the rights that the NCPCR is mandated to protect under the CPCR Act 2005. Therefore, Statement II provides context and explains the scope of “child rights” within the act referenced in statement I. Incorrect Solution: A The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is a statutory (and not a constitutional body) It was set up in 2007 under the CPCR act 2005, enacted by the parliament. The commission deals with effective implementation of laws and programmes relating to children. Hence statement 1 is correct Under the CPCR Act 2005 child rights include the children’s rights adopted in the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child on 20 November 1989 and ratified by the government of India on December 11, 1992 Under this convention a child has been defined as a human being below the age of 18 years. Hence statement 2 is correct Statement II explains the basis for the rights that the NCPCR is mandated to protect under the CPCR Act 2005. Therefore, Statement II provides context and explains the scope of “child rights” within the act referenced in statement I.

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I:

The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is a statutory body set up under the CPCR Act 2005.

Statement – II:

Under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act 2005, the ‘child rights’ includes rights of children adopted in the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: A

• The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is a statutory (and not a constitutional body)

• It was set up in 2007 under the CPCR act 2005, enacted by the parliament.

• The commission deals with effective implementation of laws and programmes relating to children.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Under the CPCR Act 2005 child rights include the children’s rights adopted in the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child on 20 November 1989 and ratified by the government of India on December 11, 1992

• Under this convention a child has been defined as a human being below the age of 18 years.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Statement II explains the basis for the rights that the NCPCR is mandated to protect under the CPCR Act 2005. Therefore, Statement II provides context and explains the scope of “child rights” within the act referenced in statement I.

Solution: A

• The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is a statutory (and not a constitutional body)

• It was set up in 2007 under the CPCR act 2005, enacted by the parliament.

• The commission deals with effective implementation of laws and programmes relating to children.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Under this convention a child has been defined as a human being below the age of 18 years.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points The Justice Hema Committee, recently seen in the news, was constituted to: (a) Review prison reforms in India (b) Examine gender-based discrimination in the Malayalam film industry (c) Recommend changes to child protection laws (d) Investigate custodial deaths in police stations in Kerala Correct Solution: B Justice Hema Committee Report: The Justice Hema Committee was constituted by the Government of Kerala in 2017 to study and recommend measures to address the challenges faced by women in the Malayalam film industry. The committee was chaired by Justice K. Hema, a retired judge of the Kerala High Court. The committee was formed in response to widespread concerns about sexual harassment, discrimination, and unsafe working conditions faced by women actors and workers in the film industry. The report highlights serious issues of exploitation, sexual harassment, and systemic gender-based discrimination in the Malayalam film sector. The committee called for: A grievance redressal mechanism for women in the film sector. Stronger institutional oversight, including possible legislation or regulations. Reforms in existing industry bodies to address gender concerns. In August 2023, the Kerala High Court directed the state government to submit the entire report, including previously redacted portions, in a sealed cover, following a PIL that sought criminal action against individuals named in the report. The Justice Hema Committee is seen as a landmark effort to recognize and institutionalize safety and rights for women in the Indian film industry. https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/kerala-high-court-directs-state-govt-to-produce-entire-hema-committee-report/article68553725.ece Incorrect Solution: B Justice Hema Committee Report: The Justice Hema Committee was constituted by the Government of Kerala in 2017 to study and recommend measures to address the challenges faced by women in the Malayalam film industry. The committee was chaired by Justice K. Hema, a retired judge of the Kerala High Court. The committee was formed in response to widespread concerns about sexual harassment, discrimination, and unsafe working conditions faced by women actors and workers in the film industry. The report highlights serious issues of exploitation, sexual harassment, and systemic gender-based discrimination in the Malayalam film sector. The committee called for: A grievance redressal mechanism for women in the film sector. Stronger institutional oversight, including possible legislation or regulations. Reforms in existing industry bodies to address gender concerns. In August 2023, the Kerala High Court directed the state government to submit the entire report, including previously redacted portions, in a sealed cover, following a PIL that sought criminal action against individuals named in the report. The Justice Hema Committee is seen as a landmark effort to recognize and institutionalize safety and rights for women in the Indian film industry. https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/kerala-high-court-directs-state-govt-to-produce-entire-hema-committee-report/article68553725.ece

#### 21. Question

The Justice Hema Committee, recently seen in the news, was constituted to:

• (a) Review prison reforms in India

• (b) Examine gender-based discrimination in the Malayalam film industry

• (c) Recommend changes to child protection laws

• (d) Investigate custodial deaths in police stations in Kerala

Solution: B

Justice Hema Committee Report:

• The Justice Hema Committee was constituted by the Government of Kerala in 2017 to study and recommend measures to address the challenges faced by women in the Malayalam film industry.

• The committee was chaired by Justice K. Hema, a retired judge of the Kerala High Court.

• The committee was formed in response to widespread concerns about sexual harassment, discrimination, and unsafe working conditions faced by women actors and workers in the film industry.

• The report highlights serious issues of exploitation, sexual harassment, and systemic gender-based discrimination in the Malayalam film sector.

• The committee called for: A grievance redressal mechanism for women in the film sector. Stronger institutional oversight, including possible legislation or regulations. Reforms in existing industry bodies to address gender concerns.

• A grievance redressal mechanism for women in the film sector.

• Stronger institutional oversight, including possible legislation or regulations.

• Reforms in existing industry bodies to address gender concerns.

• In August 2023, the Kerala High Court directed the state government to submit the entire report, including previously redacted portions, in a sealed cover, following a PIL that sought criminal action against individuals named in the report.

• The Justice Hema Committee is seen as a landmark effort to recognize and institutionalize safety and rights for women in the Indian film industry.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/kerala-high-court-directs-state-govt-to-produce-entire-hema-committee-report/article68553725.ece