DAY – 14 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY, Subject-wise Test 16, 27, Textbook-wise Test 26 and September 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Sattriya- Is one of the eight classical dance forms of India. Was created as an integral part of Ankia Nat. Is specially performed by the women performers of the sattras. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Sattriya, one of the eight classical dance forms of India, is preserved in several monasteries in the State. Statement 2 is correct: Sattriya evolved from Ankia Nat, or Bhaona (one-act play), created through the interlacing of music, dance and drama by Sankardeva, his chief disciple Madhavdeva and their apostles during the neo-Vaishnavite movement in Assam between the 15th and 17th centuries and preserved and developed by the sattras. Statement 3 is not correct: In the 1950s, Sattriya emerged from the confines of the monasteries to the platforms in metropolitan cities. In the same decade, women started learning the dance form, which until then was a male preserve. However, women cannot learn Sattriya in the sattras. Source: Art and Culture Trend: Classical dance forms Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Sattriya, one of the eight classical dance forms of India, is preserved in several monasteries in the State. Statement 2 is correct: Sattriya evolved from Ankia Nat, or Bhaona (one-act play), created through the interlacing of music, dance and drama by Sankardeva, his chief disciple Madhavdeva and their apostles during the neo-Vaishnavite movement in Assam between the 15th and 17th centuries and preserved and developed by the sattras. Statement 3 is not correct: In the 1950s, Sattriya emerged from the confines of the monasteries to the platforms in metropolitan cities. In the same decade, women started learning the dance form, which until then was a male preserve. However, women cannot learn Sattriya in the sattras. Source: Art and Culture Trend: Classical dance forms Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Is one of the eight classical dance forms of India.

• Was created as an integral part of Ankia Nat.

• Is specially performed by the women performers of the sattras.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Sattriya, one of the eight classical dance forms of India, is preserved in several monasteries in the State.

Statement 2 is correct: Sattriya evolved from Ankia Nat, or Bhaona (one-act play), created through the interlacing of music, dance and drama by Sankardeva, his chief disciple Madhavdeva and their apostles during the neo-Vaishnavite movement in Assam between the 15th and 17th centuries and preserved and developed by the sattras.

Statement 3 is not correct: In the 1950s, Sattriya emerged from the confines of the monasteries to the platforms in metropolitan cities. In the same decade, women started learning the dance form, which until then was a male preserve. However, women cannot learn Sattriya in the sattras.

Trend: Classical dance forms

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Sattriya, one of the eight classical dance forms of India, is preserved in several monasteries in the State.

Trend: Classical dance forms

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Gresham’s Law applies when the exchange rate between two currencies is fixed by the government which is equal to the market exchange rate. The market exchange rate is essentially an equilibrium price at which the supply of a currency is equal to the demand for the currency. Which of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Gresham’s law refers to the dictum that “bad money drives out good.” Gresham’s law comes into play when the exchange rate between two moneys or currencies is fixed by the government at a certain ratio that is different from the market exchange rate. Statement 2 is not correct: It should be noted that the market exchange rate is essentially an equilibrium price at which the supply of a currency is equal to the demand for the currency. Also, the supply of a currency in the market rises as its price rises and falls as its price falls; while, on the other hand, the demand for a currency falls as its price rises and rises as its price falls. So, when the price of a currency is fixed by the government at a level below the market exchange rate, the currency’s supply drops while demand for the currency rises. Source: Economy Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Gresham’s law refers to the dictum that “bad money drives out good.” Gresham’s law comes into play when the exchange rate between two moneys or currencies is fixed by the government at a certain ratio that is different from the market exchange rate. Statement 2 is not correct:* It should be noted that the market exchange rate is essentially an equilibrium price at which the supply of a currency is equal to the demand for the currency. Also, the supply of a currency in the market rises as its price rises and falls as its price falls; while, on the other hand, the demand for a currency falls as its price rises and rises as its price falls. So, when the price of a currency is fixed by the government at a level below the market exchange rate, the currency’s supply drops while demand for the currency rises. Source: Economy Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Gresham’s Law applies when the exchange rate between two currencies is fixed by the government which is equal to the market exchange rate.

• The market exchange rate is essentially an equilibrium price at which the supply of a currency is equal to the demand for the currency.

Which of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Gresham’s law refers to the dictum that “bad money drives out good.” Gresham’s law comes into play when the exchange rate between two moneys or currencies is fixed by the government at a certain ratio that is different from the market exchange rate.

Statement 2 is not correct: It should be noted that the market exchange rate is essentially an equilibrium price at which the supply of a currency is equal to the demand for the currency.

Also, the supply of a currency in the market rises as its price rises and falls as its price falls; while, on the other hand, the demand for a currency falls as its price rises and rises as its price falls.

So, when the price of a currency is fixed by the government at a level below the market exchange rate, the currency’s supply drops while demand for the currency rises.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 2 is not correct: It should be noted that the market exchange rate is essentially an equilibrium price at which the supply of a currency is equal to the demand for the currency.

So, when the price of a currency is fixed by the government at a level below the market exchange rate, the currency’s supply drops while demand for the currency rises.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points With reference to the Keoladeo National Park, consider the following statements: It is strategically located in the middle of the Central Asian migratory flyway. It is the only known wintering site of the central population of the Siberian Crane. It is a wetland of international importance as it consists the natural wetlands. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Keoladeo National Park, located in the State of Rajasthan, is an important wintering ground of Palaearctic migratory waterfowl and is renowned for its large congregation of non-migratory resident breeding birds. Statement 1 is correct: Due to its strategic location in the middle of Central Asian migratory flyway and presence of water, large congregations of ducks, geese, coots, pelicans and waders arrive in the winter. Statement 2 is correct: The park is the only known wintering site of the central population of the critically endangered Siberian Crane, and also serves as a wintering area for other globally threatened species such as the Greater Spotted Eagle and Imperial Eagle. Statement 3 is not correct: The Keoladeo National Park is a wetland of international importance for migratory waterfowl. As the wetlands of Keoladeo are not natural, they are dependent on the monsoon and on water pumped in from outside, traditionally provided from the “Ajan Bandh” reservoir. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: National Parks Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Keoladeo National Park, located in the State of Rajasthan, is an important wintering ground of Palaearctic migratory waterfowl and is renowned for its large congregation of non-migratory resident breeding birds. Statement 1 is correct: Due to its strategic location in the middle of Central Asian migratory flyway and presence of water, large congregations of ducks, geese, coots, pelicans and waders arrive in the winter. Statement 2 is correct: The park is the only known wintering site of the central population of the critically endangered Siberian Crane, and also serves as a wintering area for other globally threatened species such as the Greater Spotted Eagle and Imperial Eagle. Statement 3 is not correct: The Keoladeo National Park is a wetland of international importance for migratory waterfowl. As the wetlands of Keoladeo are not natural, they are dependent on the monsoon and on water pumped in from outside, traditionally provided from the “Ajan Bandh” reservoir. Source: Environment and ecology Trend: National Parks Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Keoladeo National Park, consider the following statements:

• It is strategically located in the middle of the Central Asian migratory flyway.

• It is the only known wintering site of the central population of the Siberian Crane.

• It is a wetland of international importance as it consists the natural wetlands.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Keoladeo National Park, located in the State of Rajasthan, is an important wintering ground of Palaearctic migratory waterfowl and is renowned for its large congregation of non-migratory resident breeding birds.

Statement 1 is correct: Due to its strategic location in the middle of Central Asian migratory flyway and presence of water, large congregations of ducks, geese, coots, pelicans and waders arrive in the winter.

Statement 2 is correct: The park is the only known wintering site of the central population of the critically endangered Siberian Crane, and also serves as a wintering area for other globally threatened species such as the Greater Spotted Eagle and Imperial Eagle.

Statement 3 is not correct: The Keoladeo National Park is a wetland of international importance for migratory waterfowl.

As the wetlands of Keoladeo are not natural, they are dependent on the monsoon and on water pumped in from outside, traditionally provided from the “Ajan Bandh” reservoir.

Trend: National Parks

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 3 is not correct: The Keoladeo National Park is a wetland of international importance for migratory waterfowl.

As the wetlands of Keoladeo are not natural, they are dependent on the monsoon and on water pumped in from outside, traditionally provided from the “Ajan Bandh” reservoir.

Trend: National Parks

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Which one of the following Indian states is associated with the origin of “Cheriyal” Scroll Painting? (a) Manipur (b) Odisha (c) Karnataka (d) Telangana Correct Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The bright colours of Cheriyal scroll paintings have been bringing folk tales and religious texts to life for centuries. In a small town, 90 kilometres away from Hyderabad, live the families protecting and propagating Cheriyal, an art form of painting scrolls for storytelling. Named after the town, the form was practised by these families and their ancestors since the 12th Century The vibrant Cherial paintings form an essential prop to the oral story telling tradition of the region, being pictorial depictions of the stories. Evocatively squirrel-brushed in indigo, black from lamp soot, white from seashells and red from the Ayurvedic lnglicum, the Cherial painting is an integral part of the story itself. Source: Art and Culture Trend: traditional/folk art Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: D Explanation: Option (d) is correct: The bright colours of Cheriyal scroll paintings have been bringing folk tales and religious texts to life for centuries. In a small town, 90 kilometres away from Hyderabad, live the families protecting and propagating Cheriyal, an art form of painting scrolls for storytelling. Named after the town, the form was practised by these families and their ancestors since the 12th Century The vibrant Cherial paintings form an essential prop to the oral story telling tradition of the region, being pictorial depictions of the stories. Evocatively squirrel-brushed in indigo, black from lamp soot, white from seashells and red from the Ayurvedic lnglicum, the Cherial painting is an integral part of the story itself. Source: Art and Culture Trend: traditional/folk art Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 4. Question

Which one of the following Indian states is associated with the origin of “Cheriyal” Scroll Painting?

• (a) Manipur

• (b) Odisha

• (c) Karnataka

• (d) Telangana

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The bright colours of Cheriyal scroll paintings have been bringing folk tales and religious texts to life for centuries.

• In a small town, 90 kilometres away from Hyderabad, live the families protecting and propagating Cheriyal, an art form of painting scrolls for storytelling.

• Named after the town, the form was practised by these families and their ancestors since the 12th Century

• The vibrant Cherial paintings form an essential prop to the oral story telling tradition of the region, being pictorial depictions of the stories.

• Evocatively squirrel-brushed in indigo, black from lamp soot, white from seashells and red from the Ayurvedic lnglicum, the Cherial painting is an integral part of the story itself.

Trend: traditional/folk art

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The bright colours of Cheriyal scroll paintings have been bringing folk tales and religious texts to life for centuries.

• In a small town, 90 kilometres away from Hyderabad, live the families protecting and propagating Cheriyal, an art form of painting scrolls for storytelling.

• Named after the town, the form was practised by these families and their ancestors since the 12th Century

• The vibrant Cherial paintings form an essential prop to the oral story telling tradition of the region, being pictorial depictions of the stories.

• Evocatively squirrel-brushed in indigo, black from lamp soot, white from seashells and red from the Ayurvedic lnglicum, the Cherial painting is an integral part of the story itself.

Trend: traditional/folk art

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Samarth Scheme: It is a placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme of Ministry of Finance. It aims at employment linkage through Textile Industry collaboration. It is formulated with advanced Aadhaar Enabled Biometric Attendance System. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Samarth is a demand driven and placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme of Ministry of Textiles. The scheme was formulated under the broad skilling policy framework adopted by M/o Skill Development & Entrepreneurship. Statement 2 is correct: The scheme aims at employment linkage through Textile Industry collaboration Statement 3 is correct: Samarth has been formulated with advanced features such as Aadhaar Enabled Biometric Attendance System (AEBAS), Training of Trainers (ToT), CCTV recording of training programme, dedicated call centre with helpline number, mobile app, Web based Management Information System (MIS), on-line monitoring of the training process etc. The State, District, Training Centre-wise information/ data in dashboard available in public domain. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Initiatives/schemes in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Samarth is a demand driven and placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme of Ministry of Textiles. The scheme was formulated under the broad skilling policy framework adopted by M/o Skill Development & Entrepreneurship. Statement 2 is correct: The scheme aims at employment linkage through Textile Industry collaboration Statement 3 is correct: Samarth has been formulated with advanced features such as Aadhaar Enabled Biometric Attendance System (AEBAS), Training of Trainers (ToT), CCTV recording of training programme, dedicated call centre with helpline number, mobile app, Web based Management Information System (MIS), on-line monitoring of the training process etc. The State, District, Training Centre-wise information/ data in dashboard available in public domain. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Initiatives/schemes in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Samarth Scheme:

• It is a placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme of Ministry of Finance.

• It aims at employment linkage through Textile Industry collaboration.

• It is formulated with advanced Aadhaar Enabled Biometric Attendance System.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Samarth is a demand driven and placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme of Ministry of Textiles.

The scheme was formulated under the broad skilling policy framework adopted by M/o Skill Development & Entrepreneurship.

Statement 2 is correct: The scheme aims at employment linkage through Textile Industry collaboration

Statement 3 is correct: Samarth has been formulated with advanced features such as Aadhaar Enabled Biometric Attendance System (AEBAS), Training of Trainers (ToT), CCTV recording of training programme, dedicated call centre with helpline number, mobile app, Web based Management Information System (MIS), on-line monitoring of the training process etc. The State, District, Training Centre-wise information/ data in dashboard available in public domain.

Trend: Initiatives/schemes in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Samarth is a demand driven and placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme of Ministry of Textiles.

The scheme was formulated under the broad skilling policy framework adopted by M/o Skill Development & Entrepreneurship.

Statement 2 is correct: The scheme aims at employment linkage through Textile Industry collaboration

Trend: Initiatives/schemes in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which of the following is not a characteristic of animals? a) Autotrophic b) Heterotrophic c) Multicellular d) Lack of cell walls Correct Answer: a Explanation: Autotrophy is an attribute found in plants but not animals. Autotrophs are organisms that make their food using a process known as photosynthesis, and they do not need any other organism to survive. On the other hand, animals rely on obtaining energy from their environment or from autotrophs, which can be through ingestion, absorption, or photosynthesis. Heterotrophic: This is a defining characteristic of animals. They obtain their nutrition by ingesting and digesting organic material. Multicellular: Animals are typically composed of multiple cells, distinguishing them from unicellular organisms like bacteria or protists. Lack of cell walls: Unlike plants, animals generally do not have cell walls surrounding their cells. This allows for greater flexibility and movement in animal bodies. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Autotrophy is an attribute found in plants but not animals. Autotrophs are organisms that make their food using a process known as photosynthesis, and they do not need any other organism to survive. On the other hand, animals rely on obtaining energy from their environment or from autotrophs, which can be through ingestion, absorption, or photosynthesis. Heterotrophic: This is a defining characteristic of animals. They obtain their nutrition by ingesting and digesting organic material. Multicellular: Animals are typically composed of multiple cells, distinguishing them from unicellular organisms like bacteria or protists. Lack of cell walls: Unlike plants, animals generally do not have cell walls surrounding their cells. This allows for greater flexibility and movement in animal bodies. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 6. Question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of animals?

• a) Autotrophic

• b) Heterotrophic

• c) Multicellular

• d) Lack of cell walls

Explanation:

• Autotrophy is an attribute found in plants but not animals. Autotrophs are organisms that make their food using a process known as photosynthesis, and they do not need any other organism to survive. On the other hand, animals rely on obtaining energy from their environment or from autotrophs, which can be through ingestion, absorption, or photosynthesis.

• Heterotrophic: This is a defining characteristic of animals. They obtain their nutrition by ingesting and digesting organic material.

• Multicellular: Animals are typically composed of multiple cells, distinguishing them from unicellular organisms like bacteria or protists.

• Lack of cell walls: Unlike plants, animals generally do not have cell walls surrounding their cells. This allows for greater flexibility and movement in animal bodies.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Heterotrophic: This is a defining characteristic of animals. They obtain their nutrition by ingesting and digesting organic material.

• Multicellular: Animals are typically composed of multiple cells, distinguishing them from unicellular organisms like bacteria or protists.

• Lack of cell walls: Unlike plants, animals generally do not have cell walls surrounding their cells. This allows for greater flexibility and movement in animal bodies.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Which of the following groups of animals commonly undergo metamorphosis during their life cycle? a) Mammals b) Birds c) Amphibians d) Reptiles Correct Answer: c Explanation: Mammals do not commonly undergo metamorphosis. They typically undergo direct development, where the offspring are born resembling miniature versions of the adults and gradually grow into adults. Birds also do not commonly undergo metamorphosis. They hatch from eggs as relatively immature but fully formed birds and undergo gradual growth and development until they reach adulthood. Amphibians: This group of animals, which includes frogs, toads, salamanders, and newts, typically undergoes metamorphosis during their life cycle. They start their lives as aquatic larvae (such as tadpoles) with gills for breathing underwater. Through metamorphosis, they undergo a series of dramatic changes, including the development of lungs, limbs, and a transition from aquatic to terrestrial life as adults. Amphibian metamorphosis is a well-known and well-documented process in biology. Hence, option (c) is correct. Reptiles, including snakes, lizards, turtles, and crocodiles, do not commonly undergo metamorphosis. They typically undergo direct development or minor changes in body size and proportion as they grow from hatchlings to adults. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Mammals do not commonly undergo metamorphosis. They typically undergo direct development, where the offspring are born resembling miniature versions of the adults and gradually grow into adults. Birds also do not commonly undergo metamorphosis. They hatch from eggs as relatively immature but fully formed birds and undergo gradual growth and development until they reach adulthood. Amphibians: This group of animals, which includes frogs, toads, salamanders, and newts, typically undergoes metamorphosis during their life cycle. They start their lives as aquatic larvae (such as tadpoles) with gills for breathing underwater. Through metamorphosis, they undergo a series of dramatic changes, including the development of lungs, limbs, and a transition from aquatic to terrestrial life as adults. Amphibian metamorphosis is a well-known and well-documented process in biology. Hence, option (c) is correct. Reptiles, including snakes, lizards, turtles, and crocodiles, do not commonly undergo metamorphosis. They typically undergo direct development or minor changes in body size and proportion as they grow from hatchlings to adults. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 7. Question

Which of the following groups of animals commonly undergo metamorphosis during their life cycle?

• a) Mammals

• c) Amphibians

• d) Reptiles

Explanation:

• Mammals do not commonly undergo metamorphosis. They typically undergo direct development, where the offspring are born resembling miniature versions of the adults and gradually grow into adults.

• Birds also do not commonly undergo metamorphosis. They hatch from eggs as relatively immature but fully formed birds and undergo gradual growth and development until they reach adulthood.

• Amphibians: This group of animals, which includes frogs, toads, salamanders, and newts, typically undergoes metamorphosis during their life cycle. They start their lives as aquatic larvae (such as tadpoles) with gills for breathing underwater. Through metamorphosis, they undergo a series of dramatic changes, including the development of lungs, limbs, and a transition from aquatic to terrestrial life as adults. Amphibian metamorphosis is a well-known and well-documented process in biology. Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Reptiles, including snakes, lizards, turtles, and crocodiles, do not commonly undergo metamorphosis. They typically undergo direct development or minor changes in body size and proportion as they grow from hatchlings to adults.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Birds also do not commonly undergo metamorphosis. They hatch from eggs as relatively immature but fully formed birds and undergo gradual growth and development until they reach adulthood.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Mitochondria are responsible for producing the majority of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through cellular respiration. Mitochondria are responsible for the synthesis of glucose, a vital energy source for cellular processes. Mitochondria contain their own genetic material, separate from the cell’s nuclear DNA. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: Mitochondria play a crucial role in cellular respiration, a process that generates ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the primary energy currency of cells. Mitochondria produce the majority of ATP through cellular respiration. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Mitochondria are not responsible for the synthesis of glucose; instead, they are involved in cellular respiration, breaking down glucose to produce ATP. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Mitochondria contain their own genetic material, known as mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), which is separate from the cell’s nuclear DNA. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Question on DNA/RNA, mitochondria have been previously asked in UPSC prelims Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Mitochondria play a crucial role in cellular respiration, a process that generates ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the primary energy currency of cells. Mitochondria produce the majority of ATP through cellular respiration. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Mitochondria are not responsible for the synthesis of glucose; instead, they are involved in cellular respiration, breaking down glucose to produce ATP. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Mitochondria contain their own genetic material, known as mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), which is separate from the cell’s nuclear DNA. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Question on DNA/RNA, mitochondria have been previously asked in UPSC prelims Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Mitochondria are responsible for producing the majority of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through cellular respiration.

• Mitochondria are responsible for the synthesis of glucose, a vital energy source for cellular processes.

• Mitochondria contain their own genetic material, separate from the cell’s nuclear DNA.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Mitochondria play a crucial role in cellular respiration, a process that generates ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the primary energy currency of cells. Mitochondria produce the majority of ATP through cellular respiration. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Mitochondria are not responsible for the synthesis of glucose; instead, they are involved in cellular respiration, breaking down glucose to produce ATP. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Mitochondria contain their own genetic material, known as mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), which is separate from the cell’s nuclear DNA. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Trend: Question on DNA/RNA, mitochondria have been previously asked in UPSC prelims

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Mitochondria are not responsible for the synthesis of glucose; instead, they are involved in cellular respiration, breaking down glucose to produce ATP. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Mitochondria contain their own genetic material, known as mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), which is separate from the cell’s nuclear DNA. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Trend: Question on DNA/RNA, mitochondria have been previously asked in UPSC prelims

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Which of the following health disorders are caused due to faulty or dysfunctional mitochondria? Cardiac arrest Liver failure Cognitive impairment Growth retardation Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 1,2 and 3 only d) 1,2,3 and 4 Correct Answer: d Explanation: Faulty or dysfunctional mitochondria can lead to various health problems, collectively known as mitochondrial disorders. These disorders can affect different organs and systems in the body, depending on the extent and location of mitochondrial dysfunction. Some of the problems faced by humans due to faulty mitochondria include: Muscle Weakness and Fatigue: Mitochondrial disorders often manifest with muscle weakness, fatigue, and exercise intolerance. This is because muscles require a significant amount of energy in the form of ATP, and dysfunctional mitochondria are unable to produce ATP efficiently, leading to muscle dysfunction. Neurological Symptoms: Since the brain and nervous system are highly energy-dependent, mitochondrial dysfunction can result in a range of neurological symptoms. These may include seizures, developmental delays, movement disorders, vision and hearing problems, cognitive impairment, and peripheral neuropathy. Organ Dysfunction: Mitochondrial disorders can affect various organs, including the heart, liver, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract. Cardiac problems such as cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias, and heart failure can occur due to impaired energy production in heart muscle cells. Liver dysfunction may lead to liver disease and metabolic abnormalities. Similarly, kidney dysfunction and gastrointestinal issues can arise. Metabolic Disorders: Mitochondrial dysfunction can disrupt metabolic pathways, leading to metabolic disorders such as diabetes mellitus, hyperlactatemia, and metabolic acidosis. These metabolic abnormalities can further exacerbate mitochondrial dysfunction, creating a vicious cycle. Respiratory Problems: Since mitochondria are essential for cellular respiration, respiratory problems can arise in individuals with mitochondrial disorders. These may include respiratory muscle weakness, difficulty breathing, and susceptibility to respiratory infections. Developmental and Growth Disorders: Mitochondrial dysfunction during development can lead to developmental delays, growth retardation, and failure to thrive in infants and children. Increased Risk of Neurodegenerative Diseases: Some mitochondrial disorders are associated with an increased risk of neurodegenerative diseases such as Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, and Huntington’s disease. Dysfunctional mitochondria can contribute to the accumulation of toxic substances and oxidative stress, leading to neuronal damage and cell death. Systemic Symptoms: Patients with mitochondrial disorders may experience systemic symptoms such as fatigue, exercise intolerance, poor temperature regulation, gastrointestinal issues, and susceptibility to infections. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Question on DNA/RNA, mitochondria have been previously asked in UPSC prelims Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Faulty or dysfunctional mitochondria can lead to various health problems, collectively known as mitochondrial disorders. These disorders can affect different organs and systems in the body, depending on the extent and location of mitochondrial dysfunction. Some of the problems faced by humans due to faulty mitochondria include: Muscle Weakness and Fatigue: Mitochondrial disorders often manifest with muscle weakness, fatigue, and exercise intolerance. This is because muscles require a significant amount of energy in the form of ATP, and dysfunctional mitochondria are unable to produce ATP efficiently, leading to muscle dysfunction. Neurological Symptoms: Since the brain and nervous system are highly energy-dependent, mitochondrial dysfunction can result in a range of neurological symptoms. These may include seizures, developmental delays, movement disorders, vision and hearing problems, cognitive impairment, and peripheral neuropathy. Organ Dysfunction: Mitochondrial disorders can affect various organs, including the heart, liver, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract. Cardiac problems such as cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias, and heart failure can occur due to impaired energy production in heart muscle cells. Liver dysfunction may lead to liver disease and metabolic abnormalities. Similarly, kidney dysfunction and gastrointestinal issues can arise. Metabolic Disorders: Mitochondrial dysfunction can disrupt metabolic pathways, leading to metabolic disorders such as diabetes mellitus, hyperlactatemia, and metabolic acidosis. These metabolic abnormalities can further exacerbate mitochondrial dysfunction, creating a vicious cycle. Respiratory Problems: Since mitochondria are essential for cellular respiration, respiratory problems can arise in individuals with mitochondrial disorders. These may include respiratory muscle weakness, difficulty breathing, and susceptibility to respiratory infections. Developmental and Growth Disorders: Mitochondrial dysfunction during development can lead to developmental delays, growth retardation, and failure to thrive in infants and children. Increased Risk of Neurodegenerative Diseases: Some mitochondrial disorders are associated with an increased risk of neurodegenerative diseases such as Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, and Huntington’s disease. Dysfunctional mitochondria can contribute to the accumulation of toxic substances and oxidative stress, leading to neuronal damage and cell death. Systemic Symptoms: Patients with mitochondrial disorders may experience systemic symptoms such as fatigue, exercise intolerance, poor temperature regulation, gastrointestinal issues, and susceptibility to infections. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Question on DNA/RNA, mitochondria have been previously asked in UPSC prelims Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 9. Question

Which of the following health disorders are caused due to faulty or dysfunctional mitochondria?

• Cardiac arrest

• Liver failure

• Cognitive impairment

• Growth retardation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 3 and 4 only

• c) 1,2 and 3 only

• d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation:

• Faulty or dysfunctional mitochondria can lead to various health problems, collectively known as mitochondrial disorders. These disorders can affect different organs and systems in the body, depending on the extent and location of mitochondrial dysfunction. Some of the problems faced by humans due to faulty mitochondria include:

• Muscle Weakness and Fatigue: Mitochondrial disorders often manifest with muscle weakness, fatigue, and exercise intolerance. This is because muscles require a significant amount of energy in the form of ATP, and dysfunctional mitochondria are unable to produce ATP efficiently, leading to muscle dysfunction.

• Neurological Symptoms: Since the brain and nervous system are highly energy-dependent, mitochondrial dysfunction can result in a range of neurological symptoms. These may include seizures, developmental delays, movement disorders, vision and hearing problems, cognitive impairment, and peripheral neuropathy.

• Organ Dysfunction: Mitochondrial disorders can affect various organs, including the heart, liver, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract. Cardiac problems such as cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias, and heart failure can occur due to impaired energy production in heart muscle cells. Liver dysfunction may lead to liver disease and metabolic abnormalities. Similarly, kidney dysfunction and gastrointestinal issues can arise.

• Metabolic Disorders: Mitochondrial dysfunction can disrupt metabolic pathways, leading to metabolic disorders such as diabetes mellitus, hyperlactatemia, and metabolic acidosis. These metabolic abnormalities can further exacerbate mitochondrial dysfunction, creating a vicious cycle.

• Respiratory Problems: Since mitochondria are essential for cellular respiration, respiratory problems can arise in individuals with mitochondrial disorders. These may include respiratory muscle weakness, difficulty breathing, and susceptibility to respiratory infections.

• Developmental and Growth Disorders: Mitochondrial dysfunction during development can lead to developmental delays, growth retardation, and failure to thrive in infants and children.

• Increased Risk of Neurodegenerative Diseases: Some mitochondrial disorders are associated with an increased risk of neurodegenerative diseases such as Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, and Huntington’s disease. Dysfunctional mitochondria can contribute to the accumulation of toxic substances and oxidative stress, leading to neuronal damage and cell death.

• Systemic Symptoms: Patients with mitochondrial disorders may experience systemic symptoms such as fatigue, exercise intolerance, poor temperature regulation, gastrointestinal issues, and susceptibility to infections.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Question on DNA/RNA, mitochondria have been previously asked in UPSC prelims

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Developmental and Growth Disorders: Mitochondrial dysfunction during development can lead to developmental delays, growth retardation, and failure to thrive in infants and children.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Question on DNA/RNA, mitochondria have been previously asked in UPSC prelims

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Project Kusha aims to improve India’s air defence capabilities by acquiring long-range interceptor missiles. Statement-II: The system developed under Project Kusha is expected to surpass the effectiveness of the S-400 air defense system. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: c Explanation: Project Kusha aims to enhance India’s air defence capabilities by acquiring three long-range interceptor missiles with ranges of 150km, 250km, and 350km, providing comprehensive protection against aerial threats. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The S-400 Triumf is a mobile surface-to-air missile (SAM) system developed by Russia. The S-400 is capable of intercepting and destroying various aerial targets, such as aircraft, drones, cruise missiles, and ballistic missiles. It has an operational range of up to 400 kilometres and a surveillance range of up to 600 kilometres. It can engage targets up to an altitude of 30 kilometres flying at a speed of 17,000 kilometres per hour or around 13 Mach – 13 times the speed of sound. The S-400 is considered one of the world’s most advanced air defence systems that can simultaneously track and neutralize a range of incoming aerial threats. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Defence Technology Approach: S-400 is one of the most advanced air defence system, it is improbable that a current innovation can surpass this system. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Project Kusha aims to enhance India’s air defence capabilities by acquiring three long-range interceptor missiles with ranges of 150km, 250km, and 350km, providing comprehensive protection against aerial threats. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The S-400 Triumf is a mobile surface-to-air missile (SAM) system developed by Russia. The S-400 is capable of intercepting and destroying various aerial targets, such as aircraft, drones, cruise missiles, and ballistic missiles. It has an operational range of up to 400 kilometres and a surveillance range of up to 600 kilometres. It can engage targets up to an altitude of 30 kilometres flying at a speed of 17,000 kilometres per hour or around 13 Mach – 13 times the speed of sound. The S-400 is considered one of the world’s most advanced air defence systems that can simultaneously track and neutralize a range of incoming aerial threats. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Defence Technology Approach: S-400 is one of the most advanced air defence system, it is improbable that a current innovation can surpass this system.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Project Kusha aims to improve India’s air defence capabilities by acquiring long-range interceptor missiles.

Statement-II:

The system developed under Project Kusha is expected to surpass the effectiveness of the S-400 air defense system.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

• Project Kusha aims to enhance India’s air defence capabilities by acquiring three long-range interceptor missiles with ranges of 150km, 250km, and 350km, providing comprehensive protection against aerial threats. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The S-400 Triumf is a mobile surface-to-air missile (SAM) system developed by Russia. The S-400 is capable of intercepting and destroying various aerial targets, such as aircraft, drones, cruise missiles, and ballistic missiles.

• It has an operational range of up to 400 kilometres and a surveillance range of up to 600 kilometres. It can engage targets up to an altitude of 30 kilometres flying at a speed of 17,000 kilometres per hour or around 13 Mach – 13 times the speed of sound. The S-400 is considered one of the world’s most advanced air defence systems that can simultaneously track and neutralize a range of incoming aerial threats. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Defence Technology

Approach: S-400 is one of the most advanced air defence system, it is improbable that a current innovation can surpass this system.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Defence Technology

Approach: S-400 is one of the most advanced air defence system, it is improbable that a current innovation can surpass this system.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: 5G networks primarily operate in the frequency range below 6 GHz, while 6G networks are expected to utilize higher frequencies up to terahertz bands. 6G technology focuses solely on expanding coverage in urban areas, while 5G primarily targets rural and less densely populated regions for improved connectivity. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Advancements expected in 6G technology includes, lower latency, higher data rates, and the potential use of advanced techniques like intelligent reflecting surfaces and molecular communication. A key difference between 5G and 6G technologies, is the frequency range they operate in. 5G networks operate predominantly below 6 GHz, while 6G is expected to explore higher frequencies, including terahertz bands. Hence, statement 1 is correct. With the introduction of 6G, broadband coverage will expand irrespective of urban or rural areas. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Questions on AR,VR, VoltE and 4G have been asked previously in UPSC prelims Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Advancements expected in 6G technology includes, lower latency, higher data rates, and the potential use of advanced techniques like intelligent reflecting surfaces and molecular communication. A key difference between 5G and 6G technologies, is the frequency range they operate in. 5G networks operate predominantly below 6 GHz, while 6G is expected to explore higher frequencies, including terahertz bands. Hence, statement 1 is correct. With the introduction of 6G, broadband coverage will expand irrespective of urban or rural areas. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Questions on AR,VR, VoltE and 4G have been asked previously in UPSC prelims Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• 5G networks primarily operate in the frequency range below 6 GHz, while 6G networks are expected to utilize higher frequencies up to terahertz bands.

• 6G technology focuses solely on expanding coverage in urban areas, while 5G primarily targets rural and less densely populated regions for improved connectivity.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Advancements expected in 6G technology includes, lower latency, higher data rates, and the potential use of advanced techniques like intelligent reflecting surfaces and molecular communication.

• A key difference between 5G and 6G technologies, is the frequency range they operate in. 5G networks operate predominantly below 6 GHz, while 6G is expected to explore higher frequencies, including terahertz bands. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• With the introduction of 6G, broadband coverage will expand irrespective of urban or rural areas. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Trend: Questions on AR,VR, VoltE and 4G have been asked previously in UPSC prelims

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Advancements expected in 6G technology includes, lower latency, higher data rates, and the potential use of advanced techniques like intelligent reflecting surfaces and molecular communication.

• With the introduction of 6G, broadband coverage will expand irrespective of urban or rural areas. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Trend: Questions on AR,VR, VoltE and 4G have been asked previously in UPSC prelims

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to the “dark side of the moon”? It refers to the side of the moon that is permanently shrouded in darkness due to lack of sunlight. It refers to the hemisphere of the moon that is not visible from Earth due to synchronous rotation. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: b Explanation: While the term “dark side of the moon” might suggest permanent darkness, it’s more accurately described as the hemisphere of the moon that is not currently facing Earth. While both sides of the moon do receive sunlight, the term “dark side” refers to the side that is not visible from Earth. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: space exploration Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: While the term “dark side of the moon” might suggest permanent darkness, it’s more accurately described as the hemisphere of the moon that is not currently facing Earth. While both sides of the moon do receive sunlight, the term “dark side” refers to the side that is not visible from Earth. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: space exploration Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to the “dark side of the moon”?

• It refers to the side of the moon that is permanently shrouded in darkness due to lack of sunlight.

• It refers to the hemisphere of the moon that is not visible from Earth due to synchronous rotation.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c. Both 1 and 2

• d. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• While the term “dark side of the moon” might suggest permanent darkness, it’s more accurately described as the hemisphere of the moon that is not currently facing Earth. While both sides of the moon do receive sunlight, the term “dark side” refers to the side that is not visible from Earth. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: space exploration

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: space exploration

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points What does the presence of “polygon terrain” on Mars indicate? a) Underground caves on Mars. b) Subsurface ice causing cracks on the Martian surface. c) Evidence of volcanic activity on Mars. d) Presence of ancient riverbeds on Mars. Correct Answer: b Explanation: Subsurface Water Ice Mapping (SWIM) project: It aims to locate the best places to access water ice buried under the Martian surface. The recently released fourth set of maps is the most detailed and accurate since the project started in 2017. It is led by the Planetary Science Institute in Tucson, Arizona, and managed by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory in Southern California. The project uses data from several NASA missions, such as the Mars Reconnaissance Orbiter (MRO), the 2001 Mars Odyssey, and the defunct Mars Global Surveyor. The first phase of the SWIM project, completed in 2019, focused on the northern hemisphere. The second phase, completed in 2020, includes the southern hemisphere. The new map includes sightings of so-called “polygon terrain,” where the seasonal expansion and contraction of subsurface ice causes the ground to form polygonal cracks, indicating more ice hidden beneath the surface. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: space exploration Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Subsurface Water Ice Mapping (SWIM) project: It aims to locate the best places to access water ice buried under the Martian surface. The recently released fourth set of maps is the most detailed and accurate since the project started in 2017. It is led by the Planetary Science Institute in Tucson, Arizona, and managed by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory in Southern California. The project uses data from several NASA missions, such as the Mars Reconnaissance Orbiter (MRO), the 2001 Mars Odyssey, and the defunct Mars Global Surveyor. The first phase of the SWIM project, completed in 2019, focused on the northern hemisphere. The second phase, completed in 2020, includes the southern hemisphere. The new map includes sightings of so-called “polygon terrain,” where the seasonal expansion and contraction of subsurface ice causes the ground to form polygonal cracks, indicating more ice hidden beneath the surface. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: space exploration Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 13. Question

What does the presence of “polygon terrain” on Mars indicate?

• a) Underground caves on Mars.

• b) Subsurface ice causing cracks on the Martian surface.

• c) Evidence of volcanic activity on Mars.

• d) Presence of ancient riverbeds on Mars.

Explanation:

• Subsurface Water Ice Mapping (SWIM) project: It aims to locate the best places to access water ice buried under the Martian surface. The recently released fourth set of maps is the most detailed and accurate since the project started in 2017.

• It is led by the Planetary Science Institute in Tucson, Arizona, and managed by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory in Southern California. The project uses data from several NASA missions, such as the Mars Reconnaissance Orbiter (MRO), the 2001 Mars Odyssey, and the defunct Mars Global Surveyor.

• The first phase of the SWIM project, completed in 2019, focused on the northern hemisphere. The second phase, completed in 2020, includes the southern hemisphere.

• The new map includes sightings of so-called “polygon terrain,” where the seasonal expansion and contraction of subsurface ice causes the ground to form polygonal cracks, indicating more ice hidden beneath the surface.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: space exploration

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The first phase of the SWIM project, completed in 2019, focused on the northern hemisphere. The second phase, completed in 2020, includes the southern hemisphere.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: space exploration

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Which of the following technologies is NOT used in the Internet of Things (IoT)? a) Sensors and Actuators b) Blockchain c) Cloud Computing d) Big Data Analytics Correct Answer: b Explanation: The internet of things, or IoT, is a networked system of interconnected computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals, or people with unique identifiers (UIDs) and the ability to transfer data without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction. A thing in the internet of things can be a person implanted with a heart monitor, a farm animal implanted with a biochip transponder, a car with built-in sensors to alert the driver when tyre pressure is low, or any other natural or man-made object that can be assigned an Internet Protocol (IP) address and can transfer data over a network. Integral components of IoT ecosystems are; Sensors and Actuators: Sensors and actuators are essential components of the Internet of Things (IoT) ecosystem. Sensors collect data from the physical environment, such as temperature, humidity, motion, or light, while actuators enable IoT devices to interact with the physical world by controlling various mechanisms, such as opening valves or turning on motors. These devices play a crucial role in gathering real-time information and enabling automated responses in IoT applications. Cloud Computing: Cloud computing is a fundamental technology in IoT deployments. It provides the necessary infrastructure and services for storing, processing, and analyzing the vast amounts of data generated by IoT devices. Cloud platforms offer scalable storage solutions, computational resources, and data analytics tools, enabling organizations to efficiently manage IoT data and derive actionable insights to support decision-making. Big Data Analytics: Big data analytics is another critical technology in IoT systems. It involves the analysis of large and complex datasets generated by IoT devices to extract insights, identify patterns, and make informed decisions. IoT data often exhibits characteristics of big data, including volume, velocity, and variety, making advanced analytics techniques essential for deriving value from IoT deployments. Big data analytics enables organizations to optimize processes, improve operational efficiency, and drive innovation in IoT applications. Blockchain: While blockchain technology has applications in various domains, it is not commonly used in mainstream IoT deployment Blockchain is a decentralized and distributed ledger technology that enables secure and transparent transactions among multiple parties without the need for intermediaries. Its adoption in IoT remains limited due to challenges such as scalability, interoperability, and regulatory concerns, it is not as prevalent as other technologies like sensors, cloud computing, or big data analytics in typical IoT deployments. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Blockchain, AI, Generative AI Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The internet of things, or IoT, is a networked system of interconnected computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals, or people with unique identifiers (UIDs) and the ability to transfer data without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction. A thing in the internet of things can be a person implanted with a heart monitor, a farm animal implanted with a biochip transponder, a car with built-in sensors to alert the driver when tyre pressure is low, or any other natural or man-made object that can be assigned an Internet Protocol (IP) address and can transfer data over a network. Integral components of IoT ecosystems are; Sensors and Actuators: Sensors and actuators are essential components of the Internet of Things (IoT) ecosystem. Sensors collect data from the physical environment, such as temperature, humidity, motion, or light, while actuators enable IoT devices to interact with the physical world by controlling various mechanisms, such as opening valves or turning on motors. These devices play a crucial role in gathering real-time information and enabling automated responses in IoT applications. Cloud Computing: Cloud computing is a fundamental technology in IoT deployments. It provides the necessary infrastructure and services for storing, processing, and analyzing the vast amounts of data generated by IoT devices. Cloud platforms offer scalable storage solutions, computational resources, and data analytics tools, enabling organizations to efficiently manage IoT data and derive actionable insights to support decision-making. Big Data Analytics: Big data analytics is another critical technology in IoT systems. It involves the analysis of large and complex datasets generated by IoT devices to extract insights, identify patterns, and make informed decisions. IoT data often exhibits characteristics of big data, including volume, velocity, and variety, making advanced analytics techniques essential for deriving value from IoT deployments. Big data analytics enables organizations to optimize processes, improve operational efficiency, and drive innovation in IoT applications. Blockchain: While blockchain technology has applications in various domains, it is not commonly used in mainstream IoT deployment Blockchain is a decentralized and distributed ledger technology that enables secure and transparent transactions among multiple parties without the need for intermediaries. Its adoption in IoT remains limited due to challenges such as scalability, interoperability, and regulatory concerns, it is not as prevalent as other technologies like sensors, cloud computing, or big data analytics in typical IoT deployments. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Blockchain, AI, Generative AI Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 14. Question

Which of the following technologies is NOT used in the Internet of Things (IoT)?

• a) Sensors and Actuators

• b) Blockchain

• c) Cloud Computing

• d) Big Data Analytics

Explanation:

• The internet of things, or IoT, is a networked system of interconnected computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals, or people with unique identifiers (UIDs) and the ability to transfer data without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.

• A thing in the internet of things can be a person implanted with a heart monitor, a farm animal implanted with a biochip transponder, a car with built-in sensors to alert the driver when tyre pressure is low, or any other natural or man-made object that can be assigned an Internet Protocol (IP) address and can transfer data over a network.

• Integral components of IoT ecosystems are;

• Sensors and Actuators: Sensors and actuators are essential components of the Internet of Things (IoT) ecosystem. Sensors collect data from the physical environment, such as temperature, humidity, motion, or light, while actuators enable IoT devices to interact with the physical world by controlling various mechanisms, such as opening valves or turning on motors. These devices play a crucial role in gathering real-time information and enabling automated responses in IoT applications.

• Cloud Computing: Cloud computing is a fundamental technology in IoT deployments. It provides the necessary infrastructure and services for storing, processing, and analyzing the vast amounts of data generated by IoT devices. Cloud platforms offer scalable storage solutions, computational resources, and data analytics tools, enabling organizations to efficiently manage IoT data and derive actionable insights to support decision-making.

• Big Data Analytics: Big data analytics is another critical technology in IoT systems. It involves the analysis of large and complex datasets generated by IoT devices to extract insights, identify patterns, and make informed decisions. IoT data often exhibits characteristics of big data, including volume, velocity, and variety, making advanced analytics techniques essential for deriving value from IoT deployments. Big data analytics enables organizations to optimize processes, improve operational efficiency, and drive innovation in IoT applications.

• Blockchain: While blockchain technology has applications in various domains, it is not commonly used in mainstream IoT deployment Blockchain is a decentralized and distributed ledger technology that enables secure and transparent transactions among multiple parties without the need for intermediaries. Its adoption in IoT remains limited due to challenges such as scalability, interoperability, and regulatory concerns, it is not as prevalent as other technologies like sensors, cloud computing, or big data analytics in typical IoT deployments.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Blockchain, AI, Generative AI

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Integral components of IoT ecosystems are;

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Blockchain, AI, Generative AI

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Which of the following is *not a factor affecting the price of NFTs? a) Creativity b) Uniqueness c) Consistency d) Scarcity Correct Answer: c Explanation: NFT (Non-Fungible Tokens) are a digital certificate of authenticity. In the present times, NFTs are known to be the most popular things. NFTs can be easily understood as digital tokens that can include digital arts, digital assets, music, video, or any other asset in the digital world that is built based on blockchain technology. While creativity, uniqueness, and scarcity are all important factors influencing the price of NFTs, consistency is not typically considered a significant factor in determining NFT value. Instead, NFT pricing is primarily driven by factors related to the novelty, rarity, and desirability of the digital assets represented by the NFTs. Creativity: Creativity is a significant factor affecting the price of NFTs. Highly creative and innovative digital artworks or assets tend to attract more attention from buyers and collectors, driving up their value. NFTs that demonstrate exceptional creativity and originality often command higher prices in the market. Uniqueness: Uniqueness is a fundamental characteristic of NFTs and plays a crucial role in determining their value. NFTs represent one-of-a-kind digital assets that cannot be replicated or duplicated, making them inherently scarce. The rarer and more unique an NFT is, the higher its perceived value, as collectors seek to own exclusive digital content. Consistency: Consistency is not typically mentioned as a factor affecting the price of NFTs. Unlike traditional investments or commodities, where consistency in performance or quality may influence pricing, the value of NFTs is often driven by factors such as creativity, uniqueness, and scarcity. Consistency in NFTs refers to maintaining a consistent level of quality or output over time, but it is not directly tied to pricing dynamics in the NFT market. Scarcity: Scarcity is a critical determinant of value in the NFT market. Since NFTs are non-fungible and represent unique digital assets, scarcity enhances their appeal to collectors and investors. Limited edition NFTs or those with a restricted supply are perceived as more valuable due to their scarcity. The concept of scarcity contributes to the scarcity mind-set among buyers, driving competition and higher prices for desirable NFTs. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Economy Trend: Question on NFTs has been previously asked by UPSC prelims in 2022 Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: NFT (Non-Fungible Tokens) are a digital certificate of authenticity. In the present times, NFTs are known to be the most popular things. NFTs can be easily understood as digital tokens that can include digital arts, digital assets, music, video, or any other asset in the digital world that is built based on blockchain technology. While creativity, uniqueness, and scarcity are all important factors influencing the price of NFTs, consistency is not typically considered a significant factor in determining NFT value. Instead, NFT pricing is primarily driven by factors related to the novelty, rarity, and desirability of the digital assets represented by the NFTs. Creativity: Creativity is a significant factor affecting the price of NFTs. Highly creative and innovative digital artworks or assets tend to attract more attention from buyers and collectors, driving up their value. NFTs that demonstrate exceptional creativity and originality often command higher prices in the market. Uniqueness: Uniqueness is a fundamental characteristic of NFTs and plays a crucial role in determining their value. NFTs represent one-of-a-kind digital assets that cannot be replicated or duplicated, making them inherently scarce. The rarer and more unique an NFT is, the higher its perceived value, as collectors seek to own exclusive digital content. Consistency: Consistency is not typically mentioned as a factor affecting the price of NFTs. Unlike traditional investments or commodities, where consistency in performance or quality may influence pricing, the value of NFTs is often driven by factors such as creativity, uniqueness, and scarcity. Consistency in NFTs refers to maintaining a consistent level of quality or output over time, but it is not directly tied to pricing dynamics in the NFT market. Scarcity: Scarcity is a critical determinant of value in the NFT market. Since NFTs are non-fungible and represent unique digital assets, scarcity enhances their appeal to collectors and investors. Limited edition NFTs or those with a restricted supply are perceived as more valuable due to their scarcity. The concept of scarcity contributes to the scarcity mind-set among buyers, driving competition and higher prices for desirable NFTs. Hence, option (c) is correct. * Source: Economy Trend: Question on NFTs has been previously asked by UPSC prelims in 2022 Approach: applied knowledge

#### 15. Question

Which of the following is *not *a factor affecting the price of NFTs?

• a) Creativity

• b) Uniqueness

• c) Consistency

• d) Scarcity

Explanation:

• NFT (Non-Fungible Tokens) are a digital certificate of authenticity. In the present times, NFTs are known to be the most popular things. NFTs can be easily understood as digital tokens that can include digital arts, digital assets, music, video, or any other asset in the digital world that is built based on blockchain technology.

• While creativity, uniqueness, and scarcity are all important factors influencing the price of NFTs, consistency is not typically considered a significant factor in determining NFT value. Instead, NFT pricing is primarily driven by factors related to the novelty, rarity, and desirability of the digital assets represented by the NFTs.

• Creativity: Creativity is a significant factor affecting the price of NFTs. Highly creative and innovative digital artworks or assets tend to attract more attention from buyers and collectors, driving up their value. NFTs that demonstrate exceptional creativity and originality often command higher prices in the market.

• Uniqueness: Uniqueness is a fundamental characteristic of NFTs and plays a crucial role in determining their value. NFTs represent one-of-a-kind digital assets that cannot be replicated or duplicated, making them inherently scarce. The rarer and more unique an NFT is, the higher its perceived value, as collectors seek to own exclusive digital content.

• Consistency: Consistency is not typically mentioned as a factor affecting the price of NFTs. Unlike traditional investments or commodities, where consistency in performance or quality may influence pricing, the value of NFTs is often driven by factors such as creativity, uniqueness, and scarcity. Consistency in NFTs refers to maintaining a consistent level of quality or output over time, but it is not directly tied to pricing dynamics in the NFT market.

• Scarcity: Scarcity is a critical determinant of value in the NFT market. Since NFTs are non-fungible and represent unique digital assets, scarcity enhances their appeal to collectors and investors. Limited edition NFTs or those with a restricted supply are perceived as more valuable due to their scarcity. The concept of scarcity contributes to the scarcity mind-set among buyers, driving competition and higher prices for desirable NFTs.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Question on NFTs has been previously asked by UPSC prelims in 2022

Approach: applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Question on NFTs has been previously asked by UPSC prelims in 2022

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding nuclear medicine procedures: They use radioactive material inside the body for diagnosis or treatment. They primarily focus on imaging the structure of organs or tissues. They slightly increase the risk of developing cancer later in life. They can be used to target and destroy damaged or diseased organs or tissue. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Nuclear medicine uses radioactive material inside the body to see how organs or tissue are functioning (for diagnosis) or to target and destroy damaged or diseased organs or tissue (for treatment). Nuclear medicine procedures involve the administration of radioactive tracers, which are absorbed by organs or tissues and emit gamma rays. These emissions are then detected by specialized cameras to produce images for diagnosis or to deliver targeted radiation for treatment. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Nuclear medicine procedures primarily focus on imaging the function of organs or tissues rather than their structure. Unlike common imaging procedures using x-rays, such as CT scans or traditional radiography, which provide detailed structural images, nuclear medicine techniques like PET scans primarily show how organs or tissues are functioning at a cellular level. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. While nuclear medicine procedures offer valuable diagnostic and therapeutic benefits, the use of ionizing radiation in these procedures can slightly increase the risk of developing cancer later in life. However, the benefits of these procedures typically outweigh the risks, especially when used for diagnosis or treatment of serious medical conditions. Hence, statement 3 is correct. In addition to diagnostic applications, nuclear medicine procedures can also be used therapeutically to target and destroy damaged or diseased organs or tissues. For example, radioactive iodine therapy is commonly used to treat thyroid conditions, while brachytherapy involves the placement of radioactive sources directly into or near a tumour to deliver targeted radiation therapy. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and medicine Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Nuclear medicine uses radioactive material inside the body to see how organs or tissue are functioning (for diagnosis) or to target and destroy damaged or diseased organs or tissue (for treatment). Nuclear medicine procedures involve the administration of radioactive tracers, which are absorbed by organs or tissues and emit gamma rays. These emissions are then detected by specialized cameras to produce images for diagnosis or to deliver targeted radiation for treatment. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Nuclear medicine procedures primarily focus on imaging the function of organs or tissues rather than their structure. Unlike common imaging procedures using x-rays, such as CT scans or traditional radiography, which provide detailed structural images, nuclear medicine techniques like PET scans primarily show how organs or tissues are functioning at a cellular level. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. While nuclear medicine procedures offer valuable diagnostic and therapeutic benefits, the use of ionizing radiation in these procedures can slightly increase the risk of developing cancer later in life. However, the benefits of these procedures typically outweigh the risks, especially when used for diagnosis or treatment of serious medical conditions. Hence, statement 3 is correct. In addition to diagnostic applications, nuclear medicine procedures can also be used therapeutically to target and destroy damaged or diseased organs or tissues. For example, radioactive iodine therapy is commonly used to treat thyroid conditions, while brachytherapy involves the placement of radioactive sources directly into or near a tumour to deliver targeted radiation therapy. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and medicine Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding nuclear medicine procedures:

• They use radioactive material inside the body for diagnosis or treatment.

• They primarily focus on imaging the structure of organs or tissues.

• They slightly increase the risk of developing cancer later in life.

• They can be used to target and destroy damaged or diseased organs or tissue.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Nuclear medicine uses radioactive material inside the body to see how organs or tissue are functioning (for diagnosis) or to target and destroy damaged or diseased organs or tissue (for treatment).

• Nuclear medicine procedures involve the administration of radioactive tracers, which are absorbed by organs or tissues and emit gamma rays. These emissions are then detected by specialized cameras to produce images for diagnosis or to deliver targeted radiation for treatment. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Nuclear medicine procedures primarily focus on imaging the function of organs or tissues rather than their structure. Unlike common imaging procedures using x-rays, such as CT scans or traditional radiography, which provide detailed structural images, nuclear medicine techniques like PET scans primarily show how organs or tissues are functioning at a cellular level. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• While nuclear medicine procedures offer valuable diagnostic and therapeutic benefits, the use of ionizing radiation in these procedures can slightly increase the risk of developing cancer later in life. However, the benefits of these procedures typically outweigh the risks, especially when used for diagnosis or treatment of serious medical conditions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• In addition to diagnostic applications, nuclear medicine procedures can also be used therapeutically to target and destroy damaged or diseased organs or tissues. For example, radioactive iodine therapy is commonly used to treat thyroid conditions, while brachytherapy involves the placement of radioactive sources directly into or near a tumour to deliver targeted radiation therapy. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Healthcare and medicine

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Healthcare and medicine

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points What does ‘ANEEL’, recently seen in news stands for? a) Advanced Nuclear Energy for Enriched Life b) Advanced Nuclear Energy for Environmental Leverage c) Advanced Nuclear Energy for Efficient Living d) Advanced Nuclear Energy for Economic Liberation Correct Answer: a Explanation: ANEEL (Advanced Nuclear Energy for Enriched Life): Clean Core Thorium Energy, a Chicago-based company, has developed ANEEL (Advanced Nuclear Energy for Enriched Life), (named after India’s scientist, Dr Anil Kakodkar) – a fuel that combines Thorium and High Assay Low Enriched Uranium (HALEU). ANEEL can be used in India’s existing Pressurized Heavy-Water Reactors (PHWRs), offering a potential game-changer for the country’s nuclear energy sector. India has the world’s largest reserves of Thorium, estimated at 1.07 million tonnes, and ANEEL could facilitate the efficient utilization of Thorium in nuclear reactors. The fuel’s benefits include reduced nuclear waste volume, lower operating costs, and long lasting efficiency. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: terms in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: ANEEL (Advanced Nuclear Energy for Enriched Life): Clean Core Thorium Energy, a Chicago-based company, has developed ANEEL (Advanced Nuclear Energy for Enriched Life), (named after India’s scientist, Dr Anil Kakodkar) – a fuel that combines Thorium and High Assay Low Enriched Uranium (HALEU). ANEEL can be used in India’s existing Pressurized Heavy-Water Reactors (PHWRs), offering a potential game-changer for the country’s nuclear energy sector. India has the world’s largest reserves of Thorium, estimated at 1.07 million tonnes, and ANEEL could facilitate the efficient utilization of Thorium in nuclear reactors. The fuel’s benefits include reduced nuclear waste volume, lower operating costs, and long lasting efficiency. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: terms in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 17. Question

What does ‘ANEEL’, recently seen in news stands for?

• a) Advanced Nuclear Energy for Enriched Life

• b) Advanced Nuclear Energy for Environmental Leverage

• c) Advanced Nuclear Energy for Efficient Living

• d) Advanced Nuclear Energy for Economic Liberation

Explanation:

• ANEEL (Advanced Nuclear Energy for Enriched Life): Clean Core Thorium Energy, a Chicago-based company, has developed ANEEL (Advanced Nuclear Energy for Enriched Life), (named after India’s scientist, Dr Anil Kakodkar) – a fuel that combines Thorium and High Assay Low Enriched Uranium (HALEU).

• ANEEL can be used in India’s existing Pressurized Heavy-Water Reactors (PHWRs), offering a potential game-changer for the country’s nuclear energy sector.

• India has the world’s largest reserves of Thorium, estimated at 1.07 million tonnes, and ANEEL could facilitate the efficient utilization of Thorium in nuclear reactors.

• The fuel’s benefits include reduced nuclear waste volume, lower operating costs, and long lasting efficiency.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: terms in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• ANEEL can be used in India’s existing Pressurized Heavy-Water Reactors (PHWRs), offering a potential game-changer for the country’s nuclear energy sector.

• India has the world’s largest reserves of Thorium, estimated at 1.07 million tonnes, and ANEEL could facilitate the efficient utilization of Thorium in nuclear reactors.

• The fuel’s benefits include reduced nuclear waste volume, lower operating costs, and long lasting efficiency.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: terms in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points What is the main challenge with achieving nuclear fusion? a) Obtaining high plasma densities b) Extracting hydrogen from seawater b) Extracting hydrogen from seawater d) Storing radioactive waste safely Correct Answer: a Explanation: Nuclear Fusion and Nuclear Fission: The nuclear energy currently in use across the world comes from the fission process, in which the nucleus of a heavier element is split into those of lighter elements in a controlled manner. In fusion, nuclei of two lighter elements are made to fuse together to form the nucleus of a heavier atom. A large amount of energy is released in both these processes, but substantially more in fusion than fission. For example, the fusion of two nuclei of a heavier isotope of hydrogen, called tritium, produces at least four times as much energy as the fission of a uranium atom which is the normal process of generating electricity in a nuclear reactor. Besides greater energy yield, fusion is also a carbon-free source of energy, and has negligible radiation risks. But fusion reactions happen only at very high temperatures, 10 times the temperature that exists at the core of the Sun, and creating such an extreme environment in a laboratory requires huge amounts of energy. Obtaining high plasma densities is crucial for sustaining fusion reactions because it increases the likelihood of collisions between nuclei, which is essential for fusion to occur. However, maintaining stable, high-density plasmas is challenging due to factors such as plasma instabilities, particle losses, and energy confinement issues. While extracting hydrogen from seawater and storing radioactive waste safely are important considerations for fusion energy production, they are not the primary challenges associated with achieving nuclear fusion. Additionally, generating greenhouse gases is not a challenge specific to fusion, as fusion reactions do not produce greenhouse gases. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Questions on Nuclear technology have been recurrent in UPSC prelims Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Nuclear Fusion and Nuclear Fission: The nuclear energy currently in use across the world comes from the fission process, in which the nucleus of a heavier element is split into those of lighter elements in a controlled manner. In fusion, nuclei of two lighter elements are made to fuse together to form the nucleus of a heavier atom. A large amount of energy is released in both these processes, but substantially more in fusion than fission. For example, the fusion of two nuclei of a heavier isotope of hydrogen, called tritium, produces at least four times as much energy as the fission of a uranium atom which is the normal process of generating electricity in a nuclear reactor. Besides greater energy yield, fusion is also a carbon-free source of energy, and has negligible radiation risks. But fusion reactions happen only at very high temperatures, 10 times the temperature that exists at the core of the Sun, and creating such an extreme environment in a laboratory requires huge amounts of energy. Obtaining high plasma densities is crucial for sustaining fusion reactions because it increases the likelihood of collisions between nuclei, which is essential for fusion to occur. However, maintaining stable, high-density plasmas is challenging due to factors such as plasma instabilities, particle losses, and energy confinement issues. While extracting hydrogen from seawater and storing radioactive waste safely are important considerations for fusion energy production, they are not the primary challenges associated with achieving nuclear fusion. Additionally, generating greenhouse gases is not a challenge specific to fusion, as fusion reactions do not produce greenhouse gases. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Questions on Nuclear technology have been recurrent in UPSC prelims Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 18. Question

What is the main challenge with achieving nuclear fusion?

• a) Obtaining high plasma densities

• b) Extracting hydrogen from seawater

• d) Storing radioactive waste safely

Explanation:

• Nuclear Fusion and Nuclear Fission: The nuclear energy currently in use across the world comes from the fission process, in which the nucleus of a heavier element is split into those of lighter elements in a controlled manner.

• In fusion, nuclei of two lighter elements are made to fuse together to form the nucleus of a heavier atom. A large amount of energy is released in both these processes, but substantially more in fusion than fission.

• For example, the fusion of two nuclei of a heavier isotope of hydrogen, called tritium, produces at least four times as much energy as the fission of a uranium atom which is the normal process of generating electricity in a nuclear reactor.

• Besides greater energy yield, fusion is also a carbon-free source of energy, and has negligible radiation risks. But fusion reactions happen only at very high temperatures, 10 times the temperature that exists at the core of the Sun, and creating such an extreme environment in a laboratory requires huge amounts of energy.

• Obtaining high plasma densities is crucial for sustaining fusion reactions because it increases the likelihood of collisions between nuclei, which is essential for fusion to occur. However, maintaining stable, high-density plasmas is challenging due to factors such as plasma instabilities, particle losses, and energy confinement issues.

• While extracting hydrogen from seawater and storing radioactive waste safely are important considerations for fusion energy production, they are not the primary challenges associated with achieving nuclear fusion. Additionally, generating greenhouse gases is not a challenge specific to fusion, as fusion reactions do not produce greenhouse gases.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Questions on Nuclear technology have been recurrent in UPSC prelims

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Questions on Nuclear technology have been recurrent in UPSC prelims

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points With reference to ‘phage therapy’ recently seen in news, which of the following statements is correct? a) It is a treatment approach that uses viruses to kill bacteria. b) It is a treatment approach that uses bacteria to kill other bacteria c) It is a treatment approach that uses bacteria to kill specific viruses d) It is a treatment approach that uses viruses to kill other viruses Correct Answer: a Explanation: A study conducted by the University of Exeter shows that the public is aware of and accepts the use of bacteria-killing viruses, known as phage therapy, as an alternative to antibiotics. Phage therapy is a treatment approach that uses bacteriophages, which are viruses that infect and kill specific bacteria. It involves using these viruses to target and destroy bacterial infections, serving as an alternative to antibiotics. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and medicine Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: A study conducted by the University of Exeter shows that the public is aware of and accepts the use of bacteria-killing viruses, known as phage therapy, as an alternative to antibiotics. Phage therapy is a treatment approach that uses bacteriophages, which are viruses that infect and kill specific bacteria. It involves using these viruses to target and destroy bacterial infections, serving as an alternative to antibiotics. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and medicine Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 19. Question

With reference to ‘phage therapy’ recently seen in news, which of the following statements is correct?

• a) It is a treatment approach that uses viruses to kill bacteria.

• b) It is a treatment approach that uses bacteria to kill other bacteria

• c) It is a treatment approach that uses bacteria to kill specific viruses

• d) It is a treatment approach that uses viruses to kill other viruses

Explanation:

• A study conducted by the University of Exeter shows that the public is aware of and accepts the use of bacteria-killing viruses, known as phage therapy, as an alternative to antibiotics.

• Phage therapy is a treatment approach that uses bacteriophages, which are viruses that infect and kill specific bacteria. It involves using these viruses to target and destroy bacterial infections, serving as an alternative to antibiotics.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Healthcare and medicine

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• A study conducted by the University of Exeter shows that the public is aware of and accepts the use of bacteria-killing viruses, known as phage therapy, as an alternative to antibiotics.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Healthcare and medicine

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Guillain-Barre syndrome is a rare disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks the nerves. Weakness and tingling in the hands and feet are usually the first symptoms which quickly spread, eventually paralyzing the whole body. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Recent research found out that the risk of developing ‘extremely rare’ Guillain-Barre syndrome Increases due to COVID-19. The syndrome is a rare disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks your nerves. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Weakness and tingling in your hands and feet are usually the first symptoms. These sensations can quickly spread, eventually paralyzing your whole body. There is no known cure for this syndrome. Most commonly treated by intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), made of donated blood that contains healthy antibodies. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c ) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and diseases Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Recent research found out that the risk of developing ‘extremely rare’ Guillain-Barre syndrome Increases due to COVID-19. The syndrome is a rare disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks your nerves. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Weakness and tingling in your hands and feet are usually the first symptoms. These sensations can quickly spread, eventually paralyzing your whole body. There is no known cure for this syndrome. Most commonly treated by intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), made of donated blood that contains healthy antibodies. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c ) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and diseases Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Guillain-Barre syndrome is a rare disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks the nerves.

• Weakness and tingling in the hands and feet are usually the first symptoms which quickly spread, eventually paralyzing the whole body.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Recent research found out that the risk of developing ‘extremely rare’ Guillain-Barre syndrome Increases due to COVID-19. The syndrome is a rare disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks your nerves. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Weakness and tingling in your hands and feet are usually the first symptoms. These sensations can quickly spread, eventually paralyzing your whole body. There is no known cure for this syndrome. Most commonly treated by intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), made of donated blood that contains healthy antibodies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Hence, option (c ) is correct.

Trend: Healthcare and diseases

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c ) is correct.

Trend: Healthcare and diseases

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points These are large deciduous trees known for their longevity and vibrant foliage. In autumn, its green leaves transform into shades of red, amber, and yellow. It is the State tree of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir: a) Rhododendron b) Juniper c) Chinar d) Birch Correct Solution: c) Justification: Chinar trees are large deciduous trees known for their longevity and vibrant foliage. In autumn, its green leaves trans- form into shades of red, amber, and yellow. The chinar holds cultural significance in Kashmir. Muslim Kashmiris believe it was brought by Islamic preachers from Iran, while Hindu Kashmiris associate it with Hindu goddess Bhavani. It is the State tree of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Flora/fauna in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Chinar trees are large deciduous trees known for their longevity and vibrant foliage. In autumn, its green leaves trans- form into shades of red, amber, and yellow. The chinar holds cultural significance in Kashmir. Muslim Kashmiris believe it was brought by Islamic preachers from Iran, while Hindu Kashmiris associate it with Hindu goddess Bhavani. It is the State tree of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Flora/fauna in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 21. Question

These are large deciduous trees known for their longevity and vibrant foliage. In autumn, its green leaves transform into shades of red, amber, and yellow. It is the State tree of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir:

• a) Rhododendron

• b) Juniper

Solution: c)

Justification: Chinar trees are large deciduous trees known for their longevity and vibrant foliage. In autumn, its green leaves trans- form into shades of red, amber, and yellow.

The chinar holds cultural significance in Kashmir. Muslim Kashmiris believe it was brought by Islamic preachers from Iran, while Hindu Kashmiris associate it with Hindu goddess Bhavani. It is the State tree of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Flora/fauna in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: c)

Justification: Chinar trees are large deciduous trees known for their longevity and vibrant foliage. In autumn, its green leaves trans- form into shades of red, amber, and yellow.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Flora/fauna in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam is a women’s rights grant scheme just rolled out in Tamil Nadu aimed at providing financial support to eligible women recognized as heads of families. The scheme identifies beneficiaries based on which of these criteria? Electricity consumption Annual income Land ownership Political participation How many of the statements above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) Learning: Under this scheme, eligible women are entitled to receive a monthly rights grant or basic income of ₹1,000 each. This amounts to an annual grant of ₹12,000 per beneficiary. The intention is to improve the livelihood of women, enhance their standard of living, and promote self-respect in society. Beneficiary families should meet the following economic criteria: Annual income below ₹2.5 lakh. Ownership of less than five acres of wetland or less than ten acres of dryland. Consumption of less than 3,600 units of electricity per year for domestic use. A similar scheme has been launched by the Karnataka Government: Karnataka Gruha Lakshmi Scheme supports women heads of families by providing eligible women will receive financial assistance of ₹2000 per month. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: schemes in news Approach: option 4 is vague and is not relevant factor for eligibility of a scheme. Incorrect Solution: c) Learning: Under this scheme, eligible women are entitled to receive a monthly rights grant or basic income of ₹1,000 each. This amounts to an annual grant of ₹12,000 per beneficiary. The intention is to improve the livelihood of women, enhance their standard of living, and promote self-respect in society. Beneficiary families should meet the following economic criteria: Annual income below ₹2.5 lakh. Ownership of less than five acres of wetland or less than ten acres of dryland. Consumption of less than 3,600 units of electricity per year for domestic use. A similar scheme has been launched by the Karnataka Government: Karnataka Gruha Lakshmi Scheme supports women heads of families by providing eligible women will receive financial assistance of ₹2000 per month. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: schemes in news Approach: option 4 is vague and is not relevant factor for eligibility of a scheme.

#### 22. Question

Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam is a women’s rights grant scheme just rolled out in Tamil Nadu aimed at providing financial support to eligible women recognized as heads of families. The scheme identifies beneficiaries based on which of these criteria?

• Electricity consumption

• Annual income

• Land ownership

• Political participation

How many of the statements above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: c)

Learning: Under this scheme, eligible women are entitled to receive a monthly rights grant or basic income of ₹1,000 each. This amounts to an annual grant of ₹12,000 per beneficiary. The intention is to improve the livelihood of women, enhance their standard of living, and promote self-respect in society. Beneficiary families should meet the following economic criteria:

• Annual income below ₹2.5 lakh.

• Ownership of less than five acres of wetland or less than ten acres of dryland.

• Consumption of less than 3,600 units of electricity per year for domestic use.

A similar scheme has been launched by the Karnataka Government: Karnataka Gruha Lakshmi Scheme supports women heads of families by providing eligible women will receive financial assistance of ₹2000 per month.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: schemes in news

Approach: option 4 is vague and is not relevant factor for eligibility of a scheme.

Solution: c)

• Annual income below ₹2.5 lakh.

• Ownership of less than five acres of wetland or less than ten acres of dryland.

• Consumption of less than 3,600 units of electricity per year for domestic use.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: schemes in news

Approach: option 4 is vague and is not relevant factor for eligibility of a scheme.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Carrying Capacity Assessment is a tool for protecting hilly areas through sustainable tourism. Which of the following components are usually assessed to ascertain this capacity? Physical carrying capacity of a place Visitor experience Balance between tourism’s economic impact and the local economy benefits businesses Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: d) Justification:. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Josimath subsidence and related ecology concerns Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: d) Justification:. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Josimath subsidence and related ecology concerns Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 23. Question

Carrying Capacity Assessment is a tool for protecting hilly areas through sustainable tourism. Which of the following components are usually assessed to ascertain this capacity?

• Physical carrying capacity of a place

• Visitor experience

• Balance between tourism’s economic impact and the local economy benefits businesses

Which of the above is/are correct?

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)

Justification:.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Josimath subsidence and related ecology concerns

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: d)

Justification:.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Josimath subsidence and related ecology concerns

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements between change in indicators of demographic dividend. The share of youth (ages 15 to 29) in the workforce has decreased. The share of those aged 45 and above has reduced. The Employment Rate (ER) for youth has increased. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf Trend: trends in Labour force participation Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf Trend: trends in Labour force participation Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements between change in indicators of demographic dividend.

• The share of youth (ages 15 to 29) in the workforce has decreased.

• The share of those aged 45 and above has reduced.

• The Employment Rate (ER) for youth has increased.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf

Trend: trends in Labour force participation

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf

Trend: trends in Labour force participation

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Multilateral development banks (MDB) are international financial institutions for the purpose of encouraging economic development in poorer nations. Which of these institutions served as MDBs? Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund World Bank How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf Trend: International Bodies Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf Trend: International Bodies Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 25. Question

Multilateral development banks (MDB) are international financial institutions for the purpose of encouraging economic development in poorer nations. Which of these institutions served as MDBs?

• Asian Development Bank

• International Monetary Fund

• World Bank

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf

Trend: International Bodies

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf

Trend: International Bodies

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Identical chocolate pieces are sold in boxes of two sizes, small and large. The large box is sold for twice the price of the small box. If the selling price per gram of chocolate in the large box is 12% less than that in the small box, then the percentage by which the weight of chocolate in the large box exceeds that in the small box is nearest to A 144 B 127 C 135 D 124 Correct Answer: B) 127 Let the selling price of the Large and Small boxes of chocolates be Rs.200 and Rs.100 respectively. Let us consider that the Large box S has grams of chocolate while the Small box has grams of chocolate. The relation between the selling price per gram of chocolate can be represented as: 200/L =0.88 ( 100/S) On solving we obtain the ratio of the amount of chocolate in each box as: L/S = 25/11 The percentage by which the weight of chocolate in the large box exceeds that in the small box =[ ( 25/11 )-1 ] 100 ≈ 127% Incorrect Answer: B) 127 Let the selling price of the Large and Small boxes of chocolates be Rs.200 and Rs.100 respectively. Let us consider that the Large box S has grams of chocolate while the Small box has grams of chocolate. The relation between the selling price per gram of chocolate can be represented as: 200/L =0.88 ( 100/S) On solving we obtain the ratio of the amount of chocolate in each box as: L/S = 25/11 The percentage by which the weight of chocolate in the large box exceeds that in the small box =[ ( 25/11 )-1 ] 100 ≈ 127%

#### 26. Question

Identical chocolate pieces are sold in boxes of two sizes, small and large. The large box is sold for twice the price of the small box. If the selling price per gram of chocolate in the large box is 12% less than that in the small box, then the percentage by which the weight of chocolate in the large box exceeds that in the small box is nearest to

Answer: B) 127

Let the selling price of the Large and Small boxes of chocolates be Rs.200 and Rs.100 respectively. Let us consider that the Large box S has grams of chocolate while the Small box has grams of chocolate.

The relation between the selling price per gram of chocolate can be represented as: 200/L =0.88 ( 100/S)

On solving we obtain the ratio of the amount of chocolate in each box as: L/S = 25/11

The percentage by which the weight of chocolate in the large box exceeds that in the small box =[ ( 25/11 )-1 ] 100 ≈ 127%

Answer: B) 127

The relation between the selling price per gram of chocolate can be represented as: 200/L =0.88 ( 100/S)

On solving we obtain the ratio of the amount of chocolate in each box as: L/S = 25/11

The percentage by which the weight of chocolate in the large box exceeds that in the small box =[ ( 25/11 )-1 ] 100 ≈ 127%

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points A student multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3, What is the percentage error in the calculation ? A) 54 % B) 64 % C) 74 % D) 84 % Correct Answer: B) 64 % Explanation: Let the number be x. Then, ideally he should have multiplied by x by 5/3. Hence Correct result was x (5/3)= 5x/3. By mistake he multiplied x by 3/5 . Hence the result with error = 3x/5 Then, error = (5x/3 – 3x/5) = 16x/15 Error % = (error/True vaue) 100 = [(16/15) x/(5/3) x] 100 = 64 % Incorrect Answer: B) 64 % Explanation: Let the number be x. Then, ideally he should have multiplied by x by 5/3. Hence Correct result was x (5/3)= 5x/3. By mistake he multiplied x by 3/5 . Hence the result with error = 3x/5 Then, error = (5x/3 – 3x/5) = 16x/15 Error % = (error/True vaue) 100 = [(16/15) x/(5/3) x] 100 = 64 %

#### 27. Question

A student multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3, What is the percentage error in the calculation ?

Answer: B) 64 %

Explanation: Let the number be x.

Then, ideally he should have multiplied by x by 5/3. Hence Correct result was x * (5/3)= 5x/3.

By mistake he multiplied x by 3/5 . Hence the result with error = 3x/5

Then, error = (5x/3 – 3x/5) = 16x/15

Error % = (error/True vaue) 100 = [(16/15) x/(5/3) x] 100 = 64 %

Answer: B) 64 %

Explanation: Let the number be x.

Then, ideally he should have multiplied by x by 5/3. Hence Correct result was x * (5/3)= 5x/3.

By mistake he multiplied x by 3/5 . Hence the result with error = 3x/5

Then, error = (5x/3 – 3x/5) = 16x/15

Error % = (error/True vaue) 100 = [(16/15) x/(5/3) x] 100 = 64 %

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points P, Q, and R enter into a partnership & their share are in the ratio of 1/2: 1/3: 1/4, after two months, P withdraws half of the capital & after 10 months, a profit of Rs 378 is divided among them. What is Q’s share? A. 114 B. 120 C. 134 D. 144 Correct Answer. (D) 144 Explanation : The ratio of their initial investment = 1/2: 1/3: 1/4 = 6 : 4: 3 Let’s take the initial investment of P, Q and R as 6x, 4x and 3x respectively A:B:C = (6x 2 + 3x 10) : 4x12 : 3x12 = (12+30) : 412 : 312 =(4+10) : 44 : 12 = 14 : 16 : 12 = 7 : 8 : 6 B’s share = 378 (8/21) = 18 8 = 144 Incorrect Answer. (D) 144 Explanation : The ratio of their initial investment = 1/2: 1/3: 1/4 = 6 : 4: 3 Let’s take the initial investment of P, Q and R as 6x, 4x and 3x respectively A:B:C = (6x 2 + 3x 10) : 4x12 : 3x12 = (12+30) : 412 : 312 =(4+10) : 44 : 12 = 14 : 16 : 12 = 7 : 8 : 6 B’s share = 378 (8/21) = 18 8 = 144

#### 28. Question

P, Q, and R enter into a partnership & their share are in the ratio of 1/2: 1/3: 1/4, after two months, P withdraws half of the capital & after 10 months, a profit of Rs 378 is divided among them. What is Q’s share?

Answer. (D) 144

Explanation :

The ratio of their initial investment = 1/2: 1/3: 1/4

= 6 : 4: 3

Let’s take the initial investment of P, Q and R as 6x, 4x and 3x respectively

A:B:C = (6x 2 + 3x 10) : 4x12 : 3x12

= (12+30) : 412 : 312

=(4+10) : 4*4 : 12

= 14 : 16 : 12

= 7 : 8 : 6

B’s share = 378 (8/21) = 18 8 = 144

Answer. (D) 144

Explanation :

The ratio of their initial investment = 1/2: 1/3: 1/4

= 6 : 4: 3

Let’s take the initial investment of P, Q and R as 6x, 4x and 3x respectively

A:B:C = (6x 2 + 3x 10) : 4x12 : 3x12

= (12+30) : 412 : 312

=(4+10) : 4*4 : 12

= 14 : 16 : 12

= 7 : 8 : 6

B’s share = 378 (8/21) = 18 8 = 144

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Philosophical and scientific understandings of compassion converge, both stressing its necessity for the moral life and human flourishing. The ultimate truth is that mechanistic organizational systems of care and the biomedical paradigm like medicine research, clinical trials and preventive or curative care at hospitals create a strong risk of dehumanization. Additionally, the neoliberal market ideology, with its instrumental approach to individuals and commodification of healthcare creates a corrosive influence that alienates clinicians from their patients and severely curtails the scope for genuine practice. With reference to the above passage, following corollaries have been made: Tension between efficiency and patient-centric care are more acute in current economic scenario Compassion is not obliterated in a neoliberal hospital set-up Code: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Compassion is definitely obliterated due to dehumanization that happens in these set ups. So 2 is wrong. Tension between profit and ethics in neoliberal model is represented by statement 1, so 1 is correct. Thus A is answer. Incorrect Answer: A Compassion is definitely obliterated due to dehumanization that happens in these set ups. So 2 is wrong. Tension between profit and ethics in neoliberal model is represented by statement 1, so 1 is correct. Thus A is answer.

#### 29. Question

Philosophical and scientific understandings of compassion converge, both stressing its necessity for the moral life and human flourishing. The ultimate truth is that mechanistic organizational systems of care and the biomedical paradigm like medicine research, clinical trials and preventive or curative care at hospitals create a strong risk of dehumanization. Additionally, the neoliberal market ideology, with its instrumental approach to individuals and commodification of healthcare creates a corrosive influence that alienates clinicians from their patients and severely curtails the scope for genuine practice.

With reference to the above passage, following corollaries have been made:

• Tension between efficiency and patient-centric care are more acute in current economic scenario

• Compassion is not obliterated in a neoliberal hospital set-up

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

Compassion is definitely obliterated due to dehumanization that happens in these set ups. So 2 is wrong.

Tension between profit and ethics in neoliberal model is represented by statement 1, so 1 is correct.

Thus A is answer.

Compassion is definitely obliterated due to dehumanization that happens in these set ups. So 2 is wrong.

Tension between profit and ethics in neoliberal model is represented by statement 1, so 1 is correct.

Thus A is answer.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Philosophical and scientific understandings of compassion converge, both stressing its necessity for the moral life and human flourishing. The ultimate truth is that mechanistic organizational systems of care and the biomedical paradigm like medicine research, clinical trials and preventive or curative care at hospitals create a strong risk of dehumanization. Additionally, the neoliberal market ideology, with its instrumental approach to individuals and commodification of healthcare creates a corrosive influence that alienates clinicians from their patients and severely curtails the scope for genuine practice. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Patients experience comparatively more abandonment and anxiety in profit-minded health setups of neoliberal model Alienation of healthcare professionals is integral to the mechanistic organizational systems. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Since dehumanization happens and also due to profit orientedness there will be abandonment of patients since they are seen as instruments. Also, struggles in giving an ethical care is leading to alienation of doctors Thus C is the answer. Incorrect Answer: C Since dehumanization happens and also due to profit orientedness there will be abandonment of patients since they are seen as instruments. Also, struggles in giving an ethical care is leading to alienation of doctors Thus C is the answer.

#### 30. Question

On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:

• Patients experience comparatively more abandonment and anxiety in profit-minded health setups of neoliberal model

• Alienation of healthcare professionals is integral to the mechanistic organizational systems.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• C. Both 1 & 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

Since dehumanization happens and also due to profit orientedness there will be abandonment of patients since they are seen as instruments.

Also, struggles in giving an ethical care is leading to alienation of doctors

Thus C is the answer.

Since dehumanization happens and also due to profit orientedness there will be abandonment of patients since they are seen as instruments.