DAY – 13 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : POLITY

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• Question 1 of 59 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: One-third of the members of the Legislative Council is nominated by members of Legislative Assembly from amongst themselves. Statement – II: The maximum strength of Legislative Council is fixed at one-third of total strength of the Legislative Assembly of a state. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: D Of the total number of members of a legislative Council: 1/3 are elected by members of local bodies in the state 1/12 are elected by graduates of 3 years standing and residing within the state 1/12 are elected by teachers of 3 years standing in the state not lower than standard of secondary school 1/3 are elected by members of the Legislative Assembly of the state from amongst persons who are not members of the assembly The remainder are nominated by the Governor from persons who have special knowledge of literature, science, arts and social service Hence statement 1 is incorrect Unlike members of Legislative Assembly the members of the Legislative Council are indirectly elected The maximum strength of the Council is fixed at one third of total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. The size of the Council depends on size of the Assembly of the concerned state. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: D Of the total number of members of a legislative Council: 1/3 are elected by members of local bodies in the state 1/12 are elected by graduates of 3 years standing and residing within the state 1/12 are elected by teachers of 3 years standing in the state not lower than standard of secondary school 1/3 are elected by members of the Legislative Assembly of the state from amongst persons who are not members of the assembly The remainder are nominated by the Governor from persons who have special knowledge of literature, science, arts and social service Hence statement 1 is incorrect Unlike members of Legislative Assembly the members of the Legislative Council are indirectly elected The maximum strength of the Council is fixed at one third of total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. The size of the Council depends on size of the Assembly of the concerned state. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I:

One-third of the members of the Legislative Council is nominated by members of Legislative Assembly from amongst themselves.

Statement – II:

The maximum strength of Legislative Council is fixed at one-third of total strength of the Legislative Assembly of a state.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: D

Of the total number of members of a legislative Council:

• 1/3 are elected by members of local bodies in the state

• 1/12 are elected by graduates of 3 years standing and residing within the state

• 1/12 are elected by teachers of 3 years standing in the state not lower than standard of secondary school

• 1/3 are elected by members of the Legislative Assembly of the state from amongst persons who are not members of the assembly

• The remainder are nominated by the Governor from persons who have special knowledge of literature, science, arts and social service

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Unlike members of Legislative Assembly the members of the Legislative Council are indirectly elected

• The maximum strength of the Council is fixed at one third of total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40.

• The size of the Council depends on size of the Assembly of the concerned state.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: D

Of the total number of members of a legislative Council:

• 1/3 are elected by members of local bodies in the state

• 1/12 are elected by graduates of 3 years standing and residing within the state

• 1/12 are elected by teachers of 3 years standing in the state not lower than standard of secondary school

• 1/3 are elected by members of the Legislative Assembly of the state from amongst persons who are not members of the assembly

• The remainder are nominated by the Governor from persons who have special knowledge of literature, science, arts and social service

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Unlike members of Legislative Assembly the members of the Legislative Council are indirectly elected

• The maximum strength of the Council is fixed at one third of total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40.

• The size of the Council depends on size of the Assembly of the concerned state.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 2 of 59 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The powers of the Gram Sabha are determined by the respective state legislature. The members of the Panchayat at district level are elected indirectly by elected members of the village and intermediate levels from amongst themselves. Seats are reserved for women for the post of chairperson in all three levels of the panchayat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 provides for Gram Sabha as foundation of the Panchayati Raj system in the country The Gram Sabha consists of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within area of the panchayat at the village level The Gram Sabha may exercise such powers and performs such functions at the village level as the legislature of a state determines. Hence statement 1 is correct All the members of panchayat at the village, intermediate and district levels are elected directly by the people. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The act provides for reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women Also, not less than one- third of the total number of offices of chai persons in the panchayats at each level are to be reserved for women. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 provides for Gram Sabha as foundation of the Panchayati Raj system in the country The Gram Sabha consists of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within area of the panchayat at the village level The Gram Sabha may exercise such powers and performs such functions at the village level as the legislature of a state determines. Hence statement 1 is correct All the members of panchayat at the village, intermediate and district levels are elected directly by the people. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The act provides for reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women Also, not less than one- third of the total number of offices of chai persons in the panchayats at each level are to be reserved for women. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The powers of the Gram Sabha are determined by the respective state legislature.

• The members of the Panchayat at district level are elected indirectly by elected members of the village and intermediate levels from amongst themselves.

• Seats are reserved for women for the post of chairperson in all three levels of the panchayat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 provides for Gram Sabha as foundation of the Panchayati Raj system in the country

• The Gram Sabha consists of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within area of the panchayat at the village level

• The Gram Sabha may exercise such powers and performs such functions at the village level as the legislature of a state determines.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• All the members of panchayat at the village, intermediate and district levels are elected directly by the people.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The act provides for reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women

• Also, not less than one- third of the total number of offices of chai persons in the panchayats at each level are to be reserved for women.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 provides for Gram Sabha as foundation of the Panchayati Raj system in the country

• The Gram Sabha consists of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within area of the panchayat at the village level

• The Gram Sabha may exercise such powers and performs such functions at the village level as the legislature of a state determines.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• All the members of panchayat at the village, intermediate and district levels are elected directly by the people.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The act provides for reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women

• Also, not less than one- third of the total number of offices of chai persons in the panchayats at each level are to be reserved for women.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 3 of 59 3. Question 1 points Regarding passage of bills in a bicameral state legislature, consider the following statements: Both Ordinary bills and Money bills can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly only. An ordinary bill can be held by the Legislative Council for a maximum period of one month after which the bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both the Houses. There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of money bill as well as ordinary bills. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A An ordinary bill can originate in either House of the state legislature (in case of a bicameral legislature). A money bill can always be introduced in the Legislative Assembly and not in Legislative Council (in case of bicameral Legislature). Hence statement 1 is incorrect An ordinary bill after being passed by the Assembly, is transmitted to the council, in case of bicameral Legislature. If the Assembly rejects the bill or any of the amendments suggested by the Council or the Council does not take action for 3 months, then the Assembly may pass the bill and transmit again it to the Council. If the Council rejects the bill again or passes the bill with amendments not acceptable to the Assembly or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is considered to have been passed by both houses in the form in which it was passed by the Assembly. Hence the council can detain an ordinary bill for a maximum period of four months. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Unlike the Parliament, the Constitution does not provide for a joint sitting to resolve a deadlock between two houses of the state legislature, either for a money bill or ordinary bill. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: A An ordinary bill can originate in either House of the state legislature (in case of a bicameral legislature). A money bill can always be introduced in the Legislative Assembly and not in Legislative Council (in case of bicameral Legislature). Hence statement 1 is incorrect An ordinary bill after being passed by the Assembly, is transmitted to the council, in case of bicameral Legislature. If the Assembly rejects the bill or any of the amendments suggested by the Council or the Council does not take action for 3 months, then the Assembly may pass the bill and transmit again it to the Council. If the Council rejects the bill again or passes the bill with amendments not acceptable to the Assembly or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is considered to have been passed by both houses in the form in which it was passed by the Assembly. Hence the council can detain an ordinary bill for a maximum period of four months. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Unlike the Parliament, the Constitution does not provide for a joint sitting to resolve a deadlock between two houses of the state legislature, either for a money bill or ordinary bill. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 3. Question

Regarding passage of bills in a bicameral state legislature, consider the following statements:

• Both Ordinary bills and Money bills can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly only.

• An ordinary bill can be held by the Legislative Council for a maximum period of one month after which the bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both the Houses.

• There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of money bill as well as ordinary bills.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• An ordinary bill can originate in either House of the state legislature (in case of a bicameral legislature).

• A money bill can always be introduced in the Legislative Assembly and not in Legislative Council (in case of bicameral Legislature).

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• An ordinary bill after being passed by the Assembly, is transmitted to the council, in case of bicameral Legislature.

• If the Assembly rejects the bill or any of the amendments suggested by the Council or the Council does not take action for 3 months, then the Assembly may pass the bill and transmit again it to the Council.

• If the Council rejects the bill again or passes the bill with amendments not acceptable to the Assembly or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is considered to have been passed by both houses in the form in which it was passed by the Assembly.

• Hence the council can detain an ordinary bill for a maximum period of four months.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Unlike the Parliament, the Constitution does not provide for a joint sitting to resolve a deadlock between two houses of the state legislature, either for a money bill or ordinary bill.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: A

• An ordinary bill can originate in either House of the state legislature (in case of a bicameral legislature).

• A money bill can always be introduced in the Legislative Assembly and not in Legislative Council (in case of bicameral Legislature).

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• An ordinary bill after being passed by the Assembly, is transmitted to the council, in case of bicameral Legislature.

• Hence the council can detain an ordinary bill for a maximum period of four months.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Unlike the Parliament, the Constitution does not provide for a joint sitting to resolve a deadlock between two houses of the state legislature, either for a money bill or ordinary bill.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 4 of 59 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: All the members of the District Planning Committee are nominated by elected members of district Panchayats from amongst themselves. The members of a Metropolitan Planning Committee are selected by chairpersons of municipalities and Panchayats in the metropolitan area from amongst themselves. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides that each state shall constitute at the district level, a District Planning Committee to consolidate the plans prepared by panchayats and municipalities in the district and to prepare plan for the district as a whole. The act provides that four-fifths of the members of such a committee should be elected by elected members of the district Panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst themselves. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides for constitution of Metropolitan Planning Committee in every metropolitan area to prepare a draft development plan. The act lays down that two thirds of the members of a Metropolitan Planning Committee should be elected by the elected members of the municipalities and chairpersons of the panchayats in the Metropolitan area from amongst themselves The representation of these members in the committee should be in proportion to the ratio between the population of the municipalities and the panchayats in that Metropolitan area. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides that each state shall constitute at the district level, a District Planning Committee to consolidate the plans prepared by panchayats and municipalities in the district and to prepare plan for the district as a whole. The act provides that four-fifths of the members of such a committee should be elected by elected members of the district Panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst themselves. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides for constitution of Metropolitan Planning Committee in every metropolitan area to prepare a draft development plan. The act lays down that two thirds of the members of a Metropolitan Planning Committee should be elected by the elected members of the municipalities and chairpersons of the panchayats in the Metropolitan area from amongst themselves The representation of these members in the committee should be in proportion to the ratio between the population of the municipalities and the panchayats in that Metropolitan area. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

• All the members of the District Planning Committee are nominated by elected members of district Panchayats from amongst themselves.

• The members of a Metropolitan Planning Committee are selected by chairpersons of municipalities and Panchayats in the metropolitan area from amongst themselves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides that each state shall constitute at the district level, a District Planning Committee to consolidate the plans prepared by panchayats and municipalities in the district and to prepare plan for the district as a whole.

• The act provides that four-fifths of the members of such a committee should be elected by elected members of the district Panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst themselves.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides for constitution of Metropolitan Planning Committee in every metropolitan area to prepare a draft development plan.

• The act lays down that two thirds of the members of a Metropolitan Planning Committee should be elected by the elected members of the municipalities and chairpersons of the panchayats in the Metropolitan area from amongst themselves

• The representation of these members in the committee should be in proportion to the ratio between the population of the municipalities and the panchayats in that Metropolitan area.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: D

• The act provides that four-fifths of the members of such a committee should be elected by elected members of the district Panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst themselves.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides for constitution of Metropolitan Planning Committee in every metropolitan area to prepare a draft development plan.

• The representation of these members in the committee should be in proportion to the ratio between the population of the municipalities and the panchayats in that Metropolitan area.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 5 of 59 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: An act of the State legislature applies to scheduled area only under direction of the president. The members of Tribes Advisory Council are nominated by the president. It is the duty of the Governor to submit annual report on administration of Scheduled areas to the president. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C The Fifth schedule of the Constitution deals with scheduled areas. The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. The Governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of the parliament or the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with special modifications and exceptions. Each state having Scheduled areas has to establish a Tribes Advisory Council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes; it is to consist of 20 members, 3/4th of whom are to be representatives of the scheduled tribes in the State Legislative Assembly. Hence statement 1 and 2 are incorrect The Executive power of a state extends to the Scheduled areas therein. But the Governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas. The Governor has to submit a report to the president regarding administration of such areas annually or whenever so required by the president. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Fifth schedule of the Constitution deals with scheduled areas. The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. The Governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of the parliament or the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with special modifications and exceptions. Each state having Scheduled areas has to establish a Tribes Advisory Council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes; it is to consist of 20 members, 3/4th of whom are to be representatives of the scheduled tribes in the State Legislative Assembly. Hence statement 1 and 2 are incorrect The Executive power of a state extends to the Scheduled areas therein. But the Governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas. The Governor has to submit a report to the president regarding administration of such areas annually or whenever so required by the president. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• An act of the State legislature applies to scheduled area only under direction of the president.

• The members of Tribes Advisory Council are nominated by the president.

• It is the duty of the Governor to submit annual report on administration of Scheduled areas to the president.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• The Fifth schedule of the Constitution deals with scheduled areas.

• The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area.

• The Governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of the parliament or the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with special modifications and exceptions.

• Each state having Scheduled areas has to establish a Tribes Advisory Council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes; it is to consist of 20 members, 3/4th of whom are to be representatives of the scheduled tribes in the State Legislative Assembly.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are incorrect

• The Executive power of a state extends to the Scheduled areas therein.

• But the Governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas.

• The Governor has to submit a report to the president regarding administration of such areas annually or whenever so required by the president.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: C

• The Fifth schedule of the Constitution deals with scheduled areas.

• The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area.

• The Governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of the parliament or the state legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with special modifications and exceptions.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are incorrect

• The Executive power of a state extends to the Scheduled areas therein.

• But the Governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas.

• The Governor has to submit a report to the president regarding administration of such areas annually or whenever so required by the president.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 6 of 59 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Municipal councillors are directly elected by people of municipal cities. The Mayor of Municipal Corporation is elected for one year term in all states. The Municipal Commissioner is appointed by the state government. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Municipal corporations are created for administration of big cities. A Municipal Corporation has three authorities- the council, the standing committees and the commissioner. The council is the deliverative and legislative wing of the corporation; it consists of councillors directly elected by the people as well as few nominated persons having knowledge or experience of municipal administration. Hence statement 1 is correct The council is headed by a Mayor. The Mayor is assisted by a Deputy Mayor. The Mayor is elected in a majority of the states for a 1 year renewable term but not one year in all the states. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Municipal Commissioner is responsible for the implementation of the decisions taken by the Council and its standing committees The Commissioner is the chief executive authority of the Corporation He is appointed by the state government and is generally a member of the Indian Administrative Service. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B Municipal corporations are created for administration of big cities. A Municipal Corporation has three authorities- the council, the standing committees and the commissioner. The council is the deliverative and legislative wing of the corporation; it consists of councillors directly elected by the people as well as few nominated persons having knowledge or experience of municipal administration. Hence statement 1 is correct The council is headed by a Mayor. The Mayor is assisted by a Deputy Mayor. The Mayor is elected in a majority of the states for a 1 year renewable term but not one year in all the states. Hence statement 2 is incorrect The Municipal Commissioner is responsible for the implementation of the decisions taken by the Council and its standing committees The Commissioner is the chief executive authority of the Corporation He is appointed by the state government and is generally a member of the Indian Administrative Service. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Municipal councillors are directly elected by people of municipal cities.

• The Mayor of Municipal Corporation is elected for one year term in all states.

• The Municipal Commissioner is appointed by the state government.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Municipal corporations are created for administration of big cities.

• A Municipal Corporation has three authorities- the council, the standing committees and the commissioner.

• The council is the deliverative and legislative wing of the corporation; it consists of councillors directly elected by the people as well as few nominated persons having knowledge or experience of municipal administration.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The council is headed by a Mayor.

• The Mayor is assisted by a Deputy Mayor.

• The Mayor is elected in a majority of the states for a 1 year renewable term but not one year in all the states.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Municipal Commissioner is responsible for the implementation of the decisions taken by the Council and its standing committees

• The Commissioner is the chief executive authority of the Corporation

• He is appointed by the state government and is generally a member of the Indian Administrative Service.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• Municipal corporations are created for administration of big cities.

• A Municipal Corporation has three authorities- the council, the standing committees and the commissioner.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The council is headed by a Mayor.

• The Mayor is assisted by a Deputy Mayor.

• The Mayor is elected in a majority of the states for a 1 year renewable term but not one year in all the states.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• The Municipal Commissioner is responsible for the implementation of the decisions taken by the Council and its standing committees

• The Commissioner is the chief executive authority of the Corporation

• He is appointed by the state government and is generally a member of the Indian Administrative Service.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 7 of 59 7. Question 1 points With reference to Autonomous Districts under the Sixth Schedule, consider the following statements: Each autonomous district has a district Council whose members are nominated by the state legislature. Any alteration in the area of autonomous districts can be done by the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B The Sixth schedule of the Constitution deals with autonomous districts in the tribal areas in the North Eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Each autonomous district has a district Council consisting of 30 members of whom 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise and the remaining four are nominated by the Governor. The elected members hold office for 5 years and the nominated members hold office during pleasure of the Governor. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts. The Governor is empowered to organise and reorganise the autonomous districts. The Governor can increase or decrease areas or change names or define boundaries of these districts. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Sixth schedule of the Constitution deals with autonomous districts in the tribal areas in the North Eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Each autonomous district has a district Council consisting of 30 members of whom 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise and the remaining four are nominated by the Governor. The elected members hold office for 5 years and the nominated members hold office during pleasure of the Governor. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts. The Governor is empowered to organise and reorganise the autonomous districts. The Governor can increase or decrease areas or change names or define boundaries of these districts. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 7. Question

With reference to Autonomous Districts under the Sixth Schedule, consider the following statements:

• Each autonomous district has a district Council whose members are nominated by the state legislature.

• Any alteration in the area of autonomous districts can be done by the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• The Sixth schedule of the Constitution deals with autonomous districts in the tribal areas in the North Eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

• Each autonomous district has a district Council consisting of 30 members of whom 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise and the remaining four are nominated by the Governor.

• The elected members hold office for 5 years and the nominated members hold office during pleasure of the Governor.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts.

• The Governor is empowered to organise and reorganise the autonomous districts.

• The Governor can increase or decrease areas or change names or define boundaries of these districts.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• The Sixth schedule of the Constitution deals with autonomous districts in the tribal areas in the North Eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

• Each autonomous district has a district Council consisting of 30 members of whom 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise and the remaining four are nominated by the Governor.

• The elected members hold office for 5 years and the nominated members hold office during pleasure of the Governor.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts.

• The Governor is empowered to organise and reorganise the autonomous districts.

• The Governor can increase or decrease areas or change names or define boundaries of these districts.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 8 of 59 8. Question 1 points With reference to Lapsing of bills on dissolution of the Legislative Assembly, consider the following statements: A Bill passed by the Assembly but pending in the Council lapses. A bill that originated in the Assembly but is pending in the house does not lapse. A bill pending in the Council but not passed by the Assembly does not lapse. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Legislative Council being a permanent house is not subject to dissolution; only the Legislative Assembly is subject to dissolution the position with respect to lapsing of bills on dissolution of the assembly: A Bill passed by the Assembly but pending in the Council lapses A bill pending in the Council but not passed by the Assembly does not lapse. A bill passed by the Assembly or passed by both houses but pending assent of the Governor or president does not lapse. A bill in passed by the Assembly or by both houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of the House(s) does not lapse Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct A bill pending in the Legislative Assembly (whether originating in the Assembly or transmitted to it by the council), lapses on dissolution of the Council. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B The Legislative Council being a permanent house is not subject to dissolution; only the Legislative Assembly is subject to dissolution the position with respect to lapsing of bills on dissolution of the assembly: A Bill passed by the Assembly but pending in the Council lapses A bill pending in the Council but not passed by the Assembly does not lapse. A bill passed by the Assembly or passed by both houses but pending assent of the Governor or president does not lapse. A bill in passed by the Assembly or by both houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of the House(s) does not lapse Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct A bill pending in the Legislative Assembly (whether originating in the Assembly or transmitted to it by the council), lapses on dissolution of the Council. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 8. Question

With reference to Lapsing of bills on dissolution of the Legislative Assembly, consider the following statements:

• A Bill passed by the Assembly but pending in the Council lapses.

• A bill that originated in the Assembly but is pending in the house does not lapse.

• A bill pending in the Council but not passed by the Assembly does not lapse.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The Legislative Council being a permanent house is not subject to dissolution; only the Legislative Assembly is subject to dissolution the position with respect to lapsing of bills on dissolution of the assembly:

• A Bill passed by the Assembly but pending in the Council lapses

• A bill pending in the Council but not passed by the Assembly does not lapse.

• A bill passed by the Assembly or passed by both houses but pending assent of the Governor or president does not lapse.

• A bill in passed by the Assembly or by both houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of the House(s) does not lapse

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• A bill pending in the Legislative Assembly (whether originating in the Assembly or transmitted to it by the council), lapses on dissolution of the Council.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: B

• A Bill passed by the Assembly but pending in the Council lapses

• A bill pending in the Council but not passed by the Assembly does not lapse.

• A bill passed by the Assembly or passed by both houses but pending assent of the Governor or president does not lapse.

• A bill in passed by the Assembly or by both houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of the House(s) does not lapse

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• A bill pending in the Legislative Assembly (whether originating in the Assembly or transmitted to it by the council), lapses on dissolution of the Council.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 9 of 59 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Central Council of Local Government (CCLG) was constituted under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1992. CCLG is headed by the Prime Minister of India. CCLG is an advisory body to review the work done by local bodies with Central funds. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Central Council of Local Government (CCLG) was set up in 1954 It was constituted under Article 263 of the Constitution of India by an order of the president. It consists of the Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India and the ministers for local self governments in states. The Union Minister acts as the chairman of the Council. Hence statement 1 and 2 are incorrect The CCLG is an advisory body. It considers and recommends the policy matters to local governments. It also recommends regarding Central financial assistance and reviews the work done by local bodies with the central financial assistance. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: A The Central Council of Local Government (CCLG) was set up in 1954 It was constituted under Article 263 of the Constitution of India by an order of the president. It consists of the Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India and the ministers for local self governments in states. The Union Minister acts as the chairman of the Council. Hence statement 1 and 2 are incorrect The CCLG is an advisory body. It considers and recommends the policy matters to local governments. It also recommends regarding Central financial assistance and reviews the work done by local bodies with the central financial assistance. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Central Council of Local Government (CCLG) was constituted under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1992.

• CCLG is headed by the Prime Minister of India.

• CCLG is an advisory body to review the work done by local bodies with Central funds.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Central Council of Local Government (CCLG) was set up in 1954

• It was constituted under Article 263 of the Constitution of India by an order of the president.

• It consists of the Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India and the ministers for local self governments in states.

• The Union Minister acts as the chairman of the Council.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are incorrect

• The CCLG is an advisory body.

• It considers and recommends the policy matters to local governments.

• It also recommends regarding Central financial assistance and reviews the work done by local bodies with the central financial assistance.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: A

• The Central Council of Local Government (CCLG) was set up in 1954

• It was constituted under Article 263 of the Constitution of India by an order of the president.

• It consists of the Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India and the ministers for local self governments in states.

• The Union Minister acts as the chairman of the Council.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are incorrect

• The CCLG is an advisory body.

• It considers and recommends the policy matters to local governments.

• It also recommends regarding Central financial assistance and reviews the work done by local bodies with the central financial assistance.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 10 of 59 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The issue of disqualification of a member of state legislature under provisions of Representation of People Act 1951 can be decided by the President only. The question of disqualification of a member of the Legislative Council under the Tenth schedule of the Constitution is decided by Chairman of the Legislative Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D The Parliament has prescribed certain disqualifications in the Representation of People Act 1951 for members of the state legislature. These are similar to that of the Parliament On the question whether a member of the state legislature has become subject to any of the disqualifications under provisions of the act, the decision of the Governor is final However the governor should obtain opinion of the Election Commission and act accordingly. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The constitution lays down that a person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of state legislature if he is so disqualified on the ground of Defection under provisions of the Tenth schedule The question of disqualification under the Tenth schedule is decided by the Chairman in case of Legislative Council and Speaker in case of Legislative Assembly The Supreme Court has ruled that the decision of the Chairman or Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The Parliament has prescribed certain disqualifications in the Representation of People Act 1951 for members of the state legislature. These are similar to that of the Parliament On the question whether a member of the state legislature has become subject to any of the disqualifications under provisions of the act, the decision of the Governor is final However the governor should obtain opinion of the Election Commission and act accordingly. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The constitution lays down that a person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of state legislature if he is so disqualified on the ground of Defection under provisions of the Tenth schedule The question of disqualification under the Tenth schedule is decided by the Chairman in case of Legislative Council and Speaker in case of Legislative Assembly The Supreme Court has ruled that the decision of the Chairman or Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The issue of disqualification of a member of state legislature under provisions of Representation of People Act 1951 can be decided by the President only.

• The question of disqualification of a member of the Legislative Council under the Tenth schedule of the Constitution is decided by Chairman of the Legislative Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• The Parliament has prescribed certain disqualifications in the Representation of People Act 1951 for members of the state legislature.

• These are similar to that of the Parliament

• On the question whether a member of the state legislature has become subject to any of the disqualifications under provisions of the act, the decision of the Governor is final

• However the governor should obtain opinion of the Election Commission and act accordingly.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The constitution lays down that a person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of state legislature if he is so disqualified on the ground of Defection under provisions of the Tenth schedule

• The question of disqualification under the Tenth schedule is decided by the Chairman in case of Legislative Council and Speaker in case of Legislative Assembly

• The Supreme Court has ruled that the decision of the Chairman or Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: D

• The Parliament has prescribed certain disqualifications in the Representation of People Act 1951 for members of the state legislature.

• These are similar to that of the Parliament

• On the question whether a member of the state legislature has become subject to any of the disqualifications under provisions of the act, the decision of the Governor is final

• However the governor should obtain opinion of the Election Commission and act accordingly.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The question of disqualification under the Tenth schedule is decided by the Chairman in case of Legislative Council and Speaker in case of Legislative Assembly

• The Supreme Court has ruled that the decision of the Chairman or Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 11 of 59 11. Question 1 points With reference to the Legislative Council of a State, consider the following statements: A state can create or abolish a Legislative Council by a simple majority resolution in its Legislative Assembly. The final decision regarding creation or abolition of a Legislative Council rests with the Parliament. The strength of a Legislative Council can be as high as 40% of the strength of the Legislative Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: B The Legislative Council, or Vidhan Parishad, serves as the upper house in states of India that have opted for a bicameral legislature. According to Article 169 of the Constitution of India, the process to create or abolish a Legislative Council requires a resolution passed by the State Legislative Assembly with a special majority, which means it must be supported by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. After this, the resolution is presented to the Parliament, which can then pass a law to effect the creation or abolition. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The resolution passed by the State Legislative Assembly for the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council must be approved by both houses of the Parliament and then receive the assent of the President of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The maximum strength of the Legislative Council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly, with a minimum of 40 members. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B The Legislative Council, or Vidhan Parishad, serves as the upper house in states of India that have opted for a bicameral legislature. According to Article 169 of the Constitution of India, the process to create or abolish a Legislative Council requires a resolution passed by the State Legislative Assembly with a special majority, which means it must be supported by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. After this, the resolution is presented to the Parliament, which can then pass a law to effect the creation or abolition. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The resolution passed by the State Legislative Assembly for the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council must be approved by both houses of the Parliament and then receive the assent of the President of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The maximum strength of the Legislative Council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly, with a minimum of 40 members. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 11. Question

With reference to the Legislative Council of a State, consider the following statements:

• A state can create or abolish a Legislative Council by a simple majority resolution in its Legislative Assembly.

• The final decision regarding creation or abolition of a Legislative Council rests with the Parliament.

• The strength of a Legislative Council can be as high as 40% of the strength of the Legislative Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: B

The Legislative Council, or Vidhan Parishad, serves as the upper house in states of India that have opted for a bicameral legislature.

According to Article 169 of the Constitution of India, the process to create or abolish a Legislative Council requires a resolution passed by the State Legislative Assembly with a special majority, which means it must be supported by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. After this, the resolution is presented to the Parliament, which can then pass a law to effect the creation or abolition.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The resolution passed by the State Legislative Assembly for the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council must be approved by both houses of the Parliament and then receive the assent of the President of India.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The maximum strength of the Legislative Council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly, with a minimum of 40 members.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: B

The Legislative Council, or Vidhan Parishad, serves as the upper house in states of India that have opted for a bicameral legislature.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The maximum strength of the Legislative Council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly, with a minimum of 40 members.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 12 of 59 12. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the State Legislature is *incorrect? (a) The Advocate-General has the right to speak in the State Legislature without being its member (b) The maximum strength of Legislative Assembly is fixed at 500 members (c) The Governor can nominate up to 1/6th of the total members in the Legislative Council (d) In case of a conflict between Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council, a joint sitting can be convened to resolve the deadlock Correct Solution: D The State Legislature operates either as a unicameral or bicameral body, depending on the state. In bicameral states, it comprises the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad). Article 177 of the Indian Constitution grants the Advocate-General of a state the right to speak in, and participate in, the proceedings of both Houses of the State Legislature, as well as in any committee of the Legislature of which they may be a member, without the right to vote. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Constitution of India stipulates that a State Legislative Assembly must have no fewer than 60 and no more than 500 members. However, exceptions exist for states like Goa, Sikkim, Mizoram, and the Union Territory of Puducherry, which have fewer than 60 members due to their unique circumstances. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In states with a Legislative Council, the Governor has the authority to nominate members to the Council. Specifically, the Governor can nominate 1/6th of the total members, selecting individuals with special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, art, the cooperative movement, and social service. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The Indian Constitution does not provide for a joint sitting of the State Legislature to resolve disagreements between the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council. In the case of ordinary bills (non-money bills), if the Legislative Council rejects a bill, does not pass it within three months, or suggests amendments not acceptable to the Assembly, the Assembly can pass the bill again. If the Council still disagrees, the bill is deemed passed if the Assembly passes it for the second time, either with or without the Council’s amendments. This mechanism ensures the primacy of the Legislative Assembly in the legislative process at the state level. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution: D The State Legislature operates either as a unicameral or bicameral body, depending on the state. In bicameral states, it comprises the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad). Article 177 of the Indian Constitution grants the Advocate-General of a state the right to speak in, and participate in, the proceedings of both Houses of the State Legislature, as well as in any committee of the Legislature of which they may be a member, without the right to vote. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Constitution of India stipulates that a State Legislative Assembly must have no fewer than 60 and no more than 500 members. However, exceptions exist for states like Goa, Sikkim, Mizoram, and the Union Territory of Puducherry, which have fewer than 60 members due to their unique circumstances. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In states with a Legislative Council, the Governor has the authority to nominate members to the Council. Specifically, the Governor can nominate 1/6th of the total members, selecting individuals with special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, art, the cooperative movement, and social service. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The Indian Constitution does not provide for a joint sitting of the State Legislature to resolve disagreements between the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council. In the case of ordinary bills (non-money bills), if the Legislative Council rejects a bill, does not pass it within three months, or suggests amendments not acceptable to the Assembly, the Assembly can pass the bill again. If the Council still disagrees, the bill is deemed passed if the Assembly passes it for the second time, either with or without the Council’s amendments. This mechanism ensures the primacy of the Legislative Assembly in the legislative process at the state level. Hence, statement 4 is correct.*

#### 12. Question

Which of the following statements about the State Legislature is *incorrect*?

• (a) The Advocate-General has the right to speak in the State Legislature without being its member

• (b) The maximum strength of Legislative Assembly is fixed at 500 members

• (c) The Governor can nominate up to 1/6th of the total members in the Legislative Council

• (d) In case of a conflict between Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council, a joint sitting can be convened to resolve the deadlock

Solution: D

The State Legislature operates either as a unicameral or bicameral body, depending on the state. In bicameral states, it comprises the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).

Article 177 of the Indian Constitution grants the Advocate-General of a state the right to speak in, and participate in, the proceedings of both Houses of the State Legislature, as well as in any committee of the Legislature of which they may be a member, without the right to vote.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Constitution of India stipulates that a State Legislative Assembly must have no fewer than 60 and no more than 500 members. However, exceptions exist for states like Goa, Sikkim, Mizoram, and the Union Territory of Puducherry, which have fewer than 60 members due to their unique circumstances.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

In states with a Legislative Council, the Governor has the authority to nominate members to the Council. Specifically, the Governor can nominate 1/6th of the total members, selecting individuals with special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, art, the cooperative movement, and social service.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The Indian Constitution does not provide for a joint sitting of the State Legislature to resolve disagreements between the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council. In the case of ordinary bills (non-money bills), if the Legislative Council rejects a bill, does not pass it within three months, or suggests amendments not acceptable to the Assembly, the Assembly can pass the bill again. If the Council still disagrees, the bill is deemed passed if the Assembly passes it for the second time, either with or without the Council’s amendments. This mechanism ensures the primacy of the Legislative Assembly in the legislative process at the state level.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Solution: D

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Question 13 of 59 13. Question 1 points In which of the following exceptional circumstances can a Legislative Assembly’s term be extended beyond 5 years? (a) If the Governor feels that the ruling party needs more time to complete its development agenda (b) If the Chief Minister advises the Governor to extend the term due to pending important legislation (c) Only during a national emergency proclaimed under Article 352 (d) During both national emergency under Article 352 and state emergency under Article 356 Correct Solution: C The term of a Legislative Assembly in India is typically fixed at five years, as outlined in Article 172 of the Constitution of India. However, there are exceptional circumstances under which this term can be extended. The Governor does not have the constitutional authority to extend the term of the Legislative Assembly based on the ruling party’s development agenda. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The term of the Legislative Assembly cannot be extended based on the Chief Minister’s advice regarding pending legislation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. During a national emergency proclaimed under Article 352, the Parliament may extend the term of a State Legislative Assembly by one year at a time. However, this extension cannot continue beyond six months after the emergency has ceased to operate. Hence, statement 3 is correct. While a National Emergency under Article 352 allows for the extension of the term of the Legislative Assembly, a state emergency under Article 356 (President’s Rule) does not provide for such an extension. During President’s Rule, the Legislative Assembly can be dissolved or remain in suspended animation, but its term is not extended Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: C The term of a Legislative Assembly in India is typically fixed at five years, as outlined in Article 172 of the Constitution of India. However, there are exceptional circumstances under which this term can be extended. The Governor does not have the constitutional authority to extend the term of the Legislative Assembly based on the ruling party’s development agenda. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The term of the Legislative Assembly cannot be extended based on the Chief Minister’s advice regarding pending legislation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. During a national emergency proclaimed under Article 352, the Parliament may extend the term of a State Legislative Assembly by one year at a time. However, this extension cannot continue beyond six months after the emergency has ceased to operate. Hence, statement 3 is correct. While a National Emergency under Article 352 allows for the extension of the term of the Legislative Assembly, a state emergency under Article 356 (President’s Rule) does not provide for such an extension. During President’s Rule, the Legislative Assembly can be dissolved or remain in suspended animation, but its term is not extended Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

#### 13. Question

In which of the following exceptional circumstances can a Legislative Assembly’s term be extended beyond 5 years?

• (a) If the Governor feels that the ruling party needs more time to complete its development agenda

• (b) If the Chief Minister advises the Governor to extend the term due to pending important legislation

• (c) Only during a national emergency proclaimed under Article 352

• (d) During both national emergency under Article 352 and state emergency under Article 356

Solution: C

The term of a Legislative Assembly in India is typically fixed at five years, as outlined in Article 172 of the Constitution of India. However, there are exceptional circumstances under which this term can be extended.

The Governor does not have the constitutional authority to extend the term of the Legislative Assembly based on the ruling party’s development agenda.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The term of the Legislative Assembly cannot be extended based on the Chief Minister’s advice regarding pending legislation.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

During a national emergency proclaimed under Article 352, the Parliament may extend the term of a State Legislative Assembly by one year at a time. However, this extension cannot continue beyond six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

While a National Emergency under Article 352 allows for the extension of the term of the Legislative Assembly, a state emergency under Article 356 (President’s Rule) does not provide for such an extension. During President’s Rule, the Legislative Assembly can be dissolved or remain in suspended animation, but its term is not extended

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution: C

The Governor does not have the constitutional authority to extend the term of the Legislative Assembly based on the ruling party’s development agenda.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The term of the Legislative Assembly cannot be extended based on the Chief Minister’s advice regarding pending legislation.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 14 of 59 14. Question 1 points The “principle of subsidiarity” in the context of local governance implies that: (a) Local governments must be financially dependent on higher levels of government (b) Functions should be performed by the lowest level of government capable of performing them efficiently (c) Urban and rural local bodies must have equal powers and functions (d) Higher levels of government should retain supervisory authority over all decisions made by local bodies Correct Solution: B The principle of subsidiarity in the context of local governance emphasizes the idea that governance should be as close to the citizens as possible. The principle of subsidiarity is a fundamental concept in governance, particularly in the context of decentralization and local self-governance. It suggests that functions should be carried out at the smallest unit of governance possible, closest to the citizens, and only delegated upwards when the local unit cannot perform the task efficiently. Hence, statement (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The principle of subsidiarity in the context of local governance emphasizes the idea that governance should be as close to the citizens as possible. The principle of subsidiarity is a fundamental concept in governance, particularly in the context of decentralization and local self-governance. It suggests that functions should be carried out at the smallest unit of governance possible, closest to the citizens, and only delegated upwards when the local unit cannot perform the task efficiently. Hence, statement (b) is correct.

#### 14. Question

The “principle of subsidiarity” in the context of local governance implies that:

• (a) Local governments must be financially dependent on higher levels of government

• (b) Functions should be performed by the lowest level of government capable of performing them efficiently

• (c) Urban and rural local bodies must have equal powers and functions

• (d) Higher levels of government should retain supervisory authority over all decisions made by local bodies

Solution: B

The principle of subsidiarity in the context of local governance emphasizes the idea that governance should be as close to the citizens as possible.

The principle of subsidiarity is a fundamental concept in governance, particularly in the context of decentralization and local self-governance. It suggests that functions should be carried out at the smallest unit of governance possible, closest to the citizens, and only delegated upwards when the local unit cannot perform the task efficiently.

Hence, statement (b) is correct.

Solution: B

The principle of subsidiarity in the context of local governance emphasizes the idea that governance should be as close to the citizens as possible.

Hence, statement (b) is correct.

• Question 15 of 59 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of local self-governance in India: The Mayo Resolution of 1870 focused primarily on financial decentralization. The Royal Commission on Decentralization (1907) recommended strengthening the village panchayats. The Government of India Act, 1935 transferred local self-government to provincial control. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D All statements are correct. Local self-governance in India has its roots in ancient times, but modern reforms began during British rule. The British introduced several measures to decentralize governance, which were further developed post-independence to empower local bodies and promote grassroots democracy. Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 marked a significant step towards financial decentralization in India. It allowed provincial governments to levy local taxes to balance their budgets, thereby promoting local self-government institutions. The Royal Commission on Decentralization, established in 1907, recognized the importance of village panchayats and recommended their constitution and development for administering local village affairs. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced provincial autonomy, making local self-government a provincial subject, thereby transferring its control to the provinces. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, formed in 1957, recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system, consisting of Zila Parishad at the district level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Gram Panchayat at the village level. Incorrect Solution: D All statements are correct. Local self-governance in India has its roots in ancient times, but modern reforms began during British rule. The British introduced several measures to decentralize governance, which were further developed post-independence to empower local bodies and promote grassroots democracy. Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 marked a significant step towards financial decentralization in India. It allowed provincial governments to levy local taxes to balance their budgets, thereby promoting local self-government institutions. The Royal Commission on Decentralization, established in 1907, recognized the importance of village panchayats and recommended their constitution and development for administering local village affairs. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced provincial autonomy, making local self-government a provincial subject, thereby transferring its control to the provinces. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, formed in 1957, recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system, consisting of Zila Parishad at the district level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Gram Panchayat at the village level.

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of local self-governance in India:

• The Mayo Resolution of 1870 focused primarily on financial decentralization.

• The Royal Commission on Decentralization (1907) recommended strengthening the village panchayats.

• The Government of India Act, 1935 transferred local self-government to provincial control.

• The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

All statements are correct.

Local self-governance in India has its roots in ancient times, but modern reforms began during British rule. The British introduced several measures to decentralize governance, which were further developed post-independence to empower local bodies and promote grassroots democracy.

Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 marked a significant step towards financial decentralization in India. It allowed provincial governments to levy local taxes to balance their budgets, thereby promoting local self-government institutions.

The Royal Commission on Decentralization, established in 1907, recognized the importance of village panchayats and recommended their constitution and development for administering local village affairs.

The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced provincial autonomy, making local self-government a provincial subject, thereby transferring its control to the provinces.

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, formed in 1957, recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system, consisting of Zila Parishad at the district level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Gram Panchayat at the village level.

Solution: D

All statements are correct.

The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced provincial autonomy, making local self-government a provincial subject, thereby transferring its control to the provinces.

• Question 16 of 59 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the State Finance Commission: It can recommend principles governing the distribution of financial resources between the State Government and local bodies. Its recommendations, once accepted by the Governor, are binding on both the state government and local bodies. It is constituted every five years or earlier, as deemed necessary by the Governor. It is mandated to review measures needed to improve the financial position of local bodies. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C The State Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India. Its primary function is to review the financial position of Panchayats and Municipalities and make recommendations on the distribution of financial resources between the state government and local bodies. The State Finance Commission recommends principles governing the distribution of financial resources between the State Government and local bodies, including Panchayats and Municipalities. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The recommendations of the State Finance Commission are advisory in nature. While the Governor lays these recommendations before the state legislature, they are not automatically binding on the state government or local bodies. The state government has the discretion to accept or modify the recommendations. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution mandates that the Governor shall constitute a State Finance Commission every five years. However, the Governor also has the discretion to constitute it earlier if deemed necessary. Hence, statement 3 is correct, One of the key functions of the State Finance Commission is to review and recommend measures to augment the financial resources of local bodies, thereby improving their financial position. Hence, statement 4 is correct, Incorrect Solution: C The State Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India. Its primary function is to review the financial position of Panchayats and Municipalities and make recommendations on the distribution of financial resources between the state government and local bodies. The State Finance Commission recommends principles governing the distribution of financial resources between the State Government and local bodies, including Panchayats and Municipalities. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The recommendations of the State Finance Commission are advisory in nature. While the Governor lays these recommendations before the state legislature, they are not automatically binding on the state government or local bodies. The state government has the discretion to accept or modify the recommendations. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution mandates that the Governor shall constitute a State Finance Commission every five years. However, the Governor also has the discretion to constitute it earlier if deemed necessary. Hence, statement 3 is correct, One of the key functions of the State Finance Commission is to review and recommend measures to augment the financial resources of local bodies, thereby improving their financial position. Hence, statement 4 is correct,

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the State Finance Commission:

• It can recommend principles governing the distribution of financial resources between the State Government and local bodies.

• Its recommendations, once accepted by the Governor, are binding on both the state government and local bodies.

• It is constituted every five years or earlier, as deemed necessary by the Governor.

• It is mandated to review measures needed to improve the financial position of local bodies.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

The State Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India. Its primary function is to review the financial position of Panchayats and Municipalities and make recommendations on the distribution of financial resources between the state government and local bodies.

The State Finance Commission recommends principles governing the distribution of financial resources between the State Government and local bodies, including Panchayats and Municipalities.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The recommendations of the State Finance Commission are advisory in nature. While the Governor lays these recommendations before the state legislature, they are not automatically binding on the state government or local bodies. The state government has the discretion to accept or modify the recommendations.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The Constitution mandates that the Governor shall constitute a State Finance Commission every five years. However, the Governor also has the discretion to constitute it earlier if deemed necessary.

Hence, statement 3 is correct,

One of the key functions of the State Finance Commission is to review and recommend measures to augment the financial resources of local bodies, thereby improving their financial position.

Hence, statement 4 is correct,

Solution: C

The State Finance Commission recommends principles governing the distribution of financial resources between the State Government and local bodies, including Panchayats and Municipalities.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The Constitution mandates that the Governor shall constitute a State Finance Commission every five years. However, the Governor also has the discretion to constitute it earlier if deemed necessary.

Hence, statement 3 is correct,

One of the key functions of the State Finance Commission is to review and recommend measures to augment the financial resources of local bodies, thereby improving their financial position.

Hence, statement 4 is correct,

• Question 17 of 59 17. Question 1 points The implementation of the “Urban Infrastructure Development Scheme for Small and Medium Towns (UIDSSMT)” directly involves which of the following local governance mechanisms? Direct fund transfer to Municipal Corporations State-level nodal agencies District Planning Committees Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: B The Urban Infrastructure Development Scheme for Small and Medium Towns (UIDSSMT) was a component of the Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM), aimed at improving urban infrastructure in small and medium towns. The UIDSSMT was launched to encourage reforms and fast-track infrastructure development in small and medium towns, focusing on efficiency in urban infrastructure and services delivery, community participation, and accountability of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) towards citizens. The scheme was designed to improve infrastructural facilities, promote public-private partnerships, and foster planned integrated development. Under UIDSSMT, funds are not transferred directly to Municipal Corporations. Instead, the scheme operates through State-Level Nodal Agencies (SLNAs), which are responsible for appraising project proposals, obtaining approvals from the State Level Sanctioning Committee (SLSC), and ensuring proper utilization of funds. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct. While District Planning Committees (DPCs) play a role in local governance, they are not directly involved in the implementation of UIDSSMT. The scheme’s implementation is primarily through SLNAs and ULBs. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) were established to implement multi-discipline projects under UIDSSMT, as seen in the case of the Kerala Sustainable Urban Development Project (KSUDP), which was designated as the SLNA for UIDSSMT Hence, statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The Urban Infrastructure Development Scheme for Small and Medium Towns (UIDSSMT) was a component of the Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM), aimed at improving urban infrastructure in small and medium towns. The UIDSSMT was launched to encourage reforms and fast-track infrastructure development in small and medium towns, focusing on efficiency in urban infrastructure and services delivery, community participation, and accountability of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) towards citizens. The scheme was designed to improve infrastructural facilities, promote public-private partnerships, and foster planned integrated development. Under UIDSSMT, funds are not transferred directly to Municipal Corporations. Instead, the scheme operates through State-Level Nodal Agencies (SLNAs), which are responsible for appraising project proposals, obtaining approvals from the State Level Sanctioning Committee (SLSC), and ensuring proper utilization of funds. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct. While District Planning Committees (DPCs) play a role in local governance, they are not directly involved in the implementation of UIDSSMT. The scheme’s implementation is primarily through SLNAs and ULBs. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) were established to implement multi-discipline projects under UIDSSMT, as seen in the case of the Kerala Sustainable Urban Development Project (KSUDP), which was designated as the SLNA for UIDSSMT Hence, statement 4 is correct.

#### 17. Question

The implementation of the “Urban Infrastructure Development Scheme for Small and Medium Towns (UIDSSMT)” directly involves which of the following local governance mechanisms?

• Direct fund transfer to Municipal Corporations

• State-level nodal agencies

• District Planning Committees

• Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Solution: B

The Urban Infrastructure Development Scheme for Small and Medium Towns (UIDSSMT) was a component of the Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM), aimed at improving urban infrastructure in small and medium towns.

The UIDSSMT was launched to encourage reforms and fast-track infrastructure development in small and medium towns, focusing on efficiency in urban infrastructure and services delivery, community participation, and accountability of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) towards citizens. The scheme was designed to improve infrastructural facilities, promote public-private partnerships, and foster planned integrated development.

Under UIDSSMT, funds are not transferred directly to Municipal Corporations. Instead, the scheme operates through State-Level Nodal Agencies (SLNAs), which are responsible for appraising project proposals, obtaining approvals from the State Level Sanctioning Committee (SLSC), and ensuring proper utilization of funds.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

While District Planning Committees (DPCs) play a role in local governance, they are not directly involved in the implementation of UIDSSMT. The scheme’s implementation is primarily through SLNAs and ULBs.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect

Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) were established to implement multi-discipline projects under UIDSSMT, as seen in the case of the Kerala Sustainable Urban Development Project (KSUDP), which was designated as the SLNA for UIDSSMT

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Solution: B

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Question 18 of 59 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the classification of areas under the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: The President can declare an area as Scheduled Area after consulting the Governor of the state concerned. The Dhebar Commission established criteria for declaring areas as Scheduled Areas. The Constitution explicitly defines the parameters for identifying Scheduled Areas. Once declared as a Scheduled Area, its boundaries cannot be altered without a constitutional amendment. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The Fifth Schedule under Article 244(1) of the Constitution of India outlines the provisions for the administration of Scheduled Areas, which are regions with a significant tribal population. These areas are designated to ensure the protection and development of tribal communities, with special provisions for their governance and welfare. The President has the authority to declare an area as a Scheduled Area, and this is typically done after consulting the Governor of the respective state. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Dhebar Commission (1960-61) recommended criteria for declaring an area as a Scheduled Area, including factors such as a preponderance of tribal population, compactness and reasonable size of the area, underdeveloped nature of the area, and marked disparity in economic standards compared to neighbouring areas. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Constitution does not explicitly define the parameters for identifying Scheduled Areas; instead, criteria have been established through commissions and committees over time. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. The President has the power to alter the boundaries of Scheduled Areas, increase or decrease their area, or even rescind the declaration of a Scheduled Area without requiring a constitutional amendment, as per paragraph 6(2) of the Fifth Schedule Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B The Fifth Schedule under Article 244(1) of the Constitution of India outlines the provisions for the administration of Scheduled Areas, which are regions with a significant tribal population. These areas are designated to ensure the protection and development of tribal communities, with special provisions for their governance and welfare. The President has the authority to declare an area as a Scheduled Area, and this is typically done after consulting the Governor of the respective state. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Dhebar Commission (1960-61) recommended criteria for declaring an area as a Scheduled Area, including factors such as a preponderance of tribal population, compactness and reasonable size of the area, underdeveloped nature of the area, and marked disparity in economic standards compared to neighbouring areas. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The Constitution does not explicitly define the parameters for identifying Scheduled Areas; instead, criteria have been established through commissions and committees over time. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. The President has the power to alter the boundaries of Scheduled Areas, increase or decrease their area, or even rescind the declaration of a Scheduled Area without requiring a constitutional amendment, as per paragraph 6(2) of the Fifth Schedule Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the classification of areas under the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

• The President can declare an area as Scheduled Area after consulting the Governor of the state concerned.

• The Dhebar Commission established criteria for declaring areas as Scheduled Areas.

• The Constitution explicitly defines the parameters for identifying Scheduled Areas.

• Once declared as a Scheduled Area, its boundaries cannot be altered without a constitutional amendment.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

The Fifth Schedule under Article 244(1) of the Constitution of India outlines the provisions for the administration of Scheduled Areas, which are regions with a significant tribal population. These areas are designated to ensure the protection and development of tribal communities, with special provisions for their governance and welfare.

The President has the authority to declare an area as a Scheduled Area, and this is typically done after consulting the Governor of the respective state.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Dhebar Commission (1960-61) recommended criteria for declaring an area as a Scheduled Area, including factors such as a preponderance of tribal population, compactness and reasonable size of the area, underdeveloped nature of the area, and marked disparity in economic standards compared to neighbouring areas.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Constitution does not explicitly define the parameters for identifying Scheduled Areas; instead, criteria have been established through commissions and committees over time.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

The President has the power to alter the boundaries of Scheduled Areas, increase or decrease their area, or even rescind the declaration of a Scheduled Area without requiring a constitutional amendment, as per paragraph 6(2) of the Fifth Schedule

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution: B

The President has the authority to declare an area as a Scheduled Area, and this is typically done after consulting the Governor of the respective state.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Constitution does not explicitly define the parameters for identifying Scheduled Areas; instead, criteria have been established through commissions and committees over time.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 19 of 59 19. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the fundamental difference between the Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Indian Constitution in terms of tribal self-governance? (a) The Fifth Schedule provides greater autonomy to tribal communities than the Sixth Schedule (b) The Sixth Schedule recognizes tribal customary laws while the Fifth Schedule does not (c) The Sixth Schedule creates autonomous governance structures while the Fifth Schedule relies on state administration with tribal advisory mechanisms (d) The Fifth Schedule applies to mainland India while the Sixth Schedule is exclusively for island territories Correct Solution: C The Indian Constitution, through its Fifth and Sixth Schedules, provides special provisions for the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas, respectively. These schedules aim to safeguard the rights, culture, and development of tribal communities, recognizing their unique needs and historical isolation. The Sixth Schedule provides more autonomy to tribal communities through the establishment of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with legislative, judicial, executive, and financial powers, while the Fifth Schedule relies on state administration with advisory mechanisms like the Tribes Advisory Council. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Both schedules recognize and aim to protect tribal customary laws, but the Sixth Schedule provides a more structured framework for their implementation through autonomous governance structures. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Sixth Schedule establishes Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with significant powers, allowing for self-governance in tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. In contrast, the Fifth Schedule relies on state administration, with the Governor having the power to adapt laws and the Tribes Advisory Council providing advice on tribal matters. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, while the Sixth Schedule applies to Tribal Areas in these four northeastern states. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: C The Indian Constitution, through its Fifth and Sixth Schedules, provides special provisions for the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas, respectively. These schedules aim to safeguard the rights, culture, and development of tribal communities, recognizing their unique needs and historical isolation. The Sixth Schedule provides more autonomy to tribal communities through the establishment of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with legislative, judicial, executive, and financial powers, while the Fifth Schedule relies on state administration with advisory mechanisms like the Tribes Advisory Council. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Both schedules recognize and aim to protect tribal customary laws, but the Sixth Schedule provides a more structured framework for their implementation through autonomous governance structures. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Sixth Schedule establishes Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with significant powers, allowing for self-governance in tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. In contrast, the Fifth Schedule relies on state administration, with the Governor having the power to adapt laws and the Tribes Advisory Council providing advice on tribal matters. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, while the Sixth Schedule applies to Tribal Areas in these four northeastern states. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

#### 19. Question

Which of the following best describes the fundamental difference between the Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Indian Constitution in terms of tribal self-governance?

• (a) The Fifth Schedule provides greater autonomy to tribal communities than the Sixth Schedule

• (b) The Sixth Schedule recognizes tribal customary laws while the Fifth Schedule does not

• (c) The Sixth Schedule creates autonomous governance structures while the Fifth Schedule relies on state administration with tribal advisory mechanisms

• (d) The Fifth Schedule applies to mainland India while the Sixth Schedule is exclusively for island territories

Solution: C

The Indian Constitution, through its Fifth and Sixth Schedules, provides special provisions for the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas, respectively. These schedules aim to safeguard the rights, culture, and development of tribal communities, recognizing their unique needs and historical isolation.

The Sixth Schedule provides more autonomy to tribal communities through the establishment of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with legislative, judicial, executive, and financial powers, while the Fifth Schedule relies on state administration with advisory mechanisms like the Tribes Advisory Council.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Both schedules recognize and aim to protect tribal customary laws, but the Sixth Schedule provides a more structured framework for their implementation through autonomous governance structures.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The Sixth Schedule establishes Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with significant powers, allowing for self-governance in tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. In contrast, the Fifth Schedule relies on state administration, with the Governor having the power to adapt laws and the Tribes Advisory Council providing advice on tribal matters.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, while the Sixth Schedule applies to Tribal Areas in these four northeastern states.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution: C

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Both schedules recognize and aim to protect tribal customary laws, but the Sixth Schedule provides a more structured framework for their implementation through autonomous governance structures.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, while the Sixth Schedule applies to Tribal Areas in these four northeastern states.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Question 20 of 59 20. Question 1 points The Supreme Court’s judgment in Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997) is significant because it: (a) Extended the provisions of the Sixth Schedule to the Fifth Schedule areas (b) Invalidated the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining in Fifth Schedule areas (c) Established the principle that Governors cannot modify central laws in Scheduled Areas (d) Recognized the exclusive rights of Tribal Advisory Councils to manage forest resources Correct Solution: B The Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997) case is a landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India that dealt with the protection of tribal land rights in Scheduled Areas. The case arose from the Andhra Pradesh Scheduled Areas Land Transfer Regulation, 1959, which prohibited the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals in Scheduled Areas. The State of Andhra Pradesh had allowed non-tribals to acquire land in these areas, leading to concerns about the exploitation and displacement of tribal communities. Samatha, an NGO, challenged these transfers, arguing that they violated the rights of tribals under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution. The Supreme Court ruled that the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining in Scheduled Areas was null and void, as it contravened the Andhra Pradesh Scheduled Areas Land Transfer Regulation, 1959, and the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997) case is a landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India that dealt with the protection of tribal land rights in Scheduled Areas. The case arose from the Andhra Pradesh Scheduled Areas Land Transfer Regulation, 1959, which prohibited the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals in Scheduled Areas. The State of Andhra Pradesh had allowed non-tribals to acquire land in these areas, leading to concerns about the exploitation and displacement of tribal communities. Samatha, an NGO, challenged these transfers, arguing that they violated the rights of tribals under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution. The Supreme Court ruled that the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining in Scheduled Areas was null and void, as it contravened the Andhra Pradesh Scheduled Areas Land Transfer Regulation, 1959, and the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 20. Question

The Supreme Court’s judgment in Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997) is significant because it:

• (a) Extended the provisions of the Sixth Schedule to the Fifth Schedule areas

• (b) Invalidated the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining in Fifth Schedule areas

• (c) Established the principle that Governors cannot modify central laws in Scheduled Areas

• (d) Recognized the exclusive rights of Tribal Advisory Councils to manage forest resources

Solution: B

The Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997) case is a landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India that dealt with the protection of tribal land rights in Scheduled Areas.

The case arose from the Andhra Pradesh Scheduled Areas Land Transfer Regulation, 1959, which prohibited the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals in Scheduled Areas. The State of Andhra Pradesh had allowed non-tribals to acquire land in these areas, leading to concerns about the exploitation and displacement of tribal communities. Samatha, an NGO, challenged these transfers, arguing that they violated the rights of tribals under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution.

The Supreme Court ruled that the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining in Scheduled Areas was null and void, as it contravened the Andhra Pradesh Scheduled Areas Land Transfer Regulation, 1959, and the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

The Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997) case is a landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India that dealt with the protection of tribal land rights in Scheduled Areas.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 21 of 59 21. Question 1 points With reference to the Climate Finance Action Fund (CFAF), consider the following statements It is aimed at supporting developing countries in climate mitigation, adaptation, and achieving their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). It will be capitalised initially with contributions from fossil fuel-producing countries and companies. It will be headquartered in Baku, Azerbaijan. The fund is managed by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Secretariat. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) All four (d) Only one Correct Solution: B Climate Finance Action Fund (CFAF): The Climate Finance Action Fund (CFAF) is a catalytic public-private partnership fund aimed at accelerating climate finance flows, particularly to developing countries. It was launched as part of a package of 14 initiatives under the COP29 thematic days framework. The fund aims to support climate mitigation, adaptation, and research and development in developing countries. It also helps countries meet their next-generation Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) aligned with the 1.5°C target. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The fund will be initially capitalised with contributions from fossil fuel-producing countries and companies in the oil, gas, and coal sectors. Azerbaijan will act as a founding contributor. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The headquarters and secretariat of CFAF will be located in Baku, Azerbaijan. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) The CFAF is not managed by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Secretariat. It is not a UN-mandated or UN-operated fund, unlike the Green Climate Fund or Adaptation Fund. (Hence, statement 4 is incorrect) The fund will become operational after the initial fundraising target of $1 billion is reached and once 10 contributing countries have committed as shareholders. 50% of the capital will be directed to climate projects in developing countries, and 50% will help countries meet their NDCs. 20% of revenues generated from investments will go into a Rapid Response Funding Facility (2R2F), offering highly concessional and grant-based assistance to address urgent climate-related disasters. https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/cop29-host-azerbaijan-launches-climate-fund-introduces-fossil-fuel-levy-124072000086_1.html Incorrect Solution: B Climate Finance Action Fund (CFAF): The Climate Finance Action Fund (CFAF) is a catalytic public-private partnership fund aimed at accelerating climate finance flows, particularly to developing countries. It was launched as part of a package of 14 initiatives under the COP29 thematic days framework. The fund aims to support climate mitigation, adaptation, and research and development in developing countries. It also helps countries meet their next-generation Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) aligned with the 1.5°C target. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The fund will be initially capitalised with contributions from fossil fuel-producing countries and companies in the oil, gas, and coal sectors. Azerbaijan will act as a founding contributor. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The headquarters and secretariat of CFAF will be located in Baku, Azerbaijan. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) The CFAF is not managed by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Secretariat. It is not a UN-mandated or UN-operated fund, unlike the Green Climate Fund or Adaptation Fund. (Hence, statement 4 is incorrect) The fund will become operational after the initial fundraising target of $1 billion is reached and once 10 contributing countries have committed as shareholders. 50% of the capital will be directed to climate projects in developing countries, and 50% will help countries meet their NDCs. 20% of revenues generated from investments will go into a Rapid Response Funding Facility (2R2F), offering highly concessional and grant-based assistance to address urgent climate-related disasters. https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/cop29-host-azerbaijan-launches-climate-fund-introduces-fossil-fuel-levy-124072000086_1.html

#### 21. Question

With reference to the Climate Finance Action Fund (CFAF), consider the following statements

• It is aimed at supporting developing countries in climate mitigation, adaptation, and achieving their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).

• It will be capitalised initially with contributions from fossil fuel-producing countries and companies.

• It will be headquartered in Baku, Azerbaijan.

• The fund is managed by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Secretariat.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) All four

• (d) Only one

Solution: B

Climate Finance Action Fund (CFAF):

• The Climate Finance Action Fund (CFAF) is a catalytic public-private partnership fund aimed at accelerating climate finance flows, particularly to developing countries.

• It was launched as part of a package of 14 initiatives under the COP29 thematic days framework.

• The fund aims to support climate mitigation, adaptation, and research and development in developing countries. It also helps countries meet their next-generation Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) aligned with the 1.5°C target. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The fund will be initially capitalised with contributions from fossil fuel-producing countries and companies in the oil, gas, and coal sectors. Azerbaijan will act as a founding contributor. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The headquarters and secretariat of CFAF will be located in Baku, Azerbaijan. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• The CFAF is not managed by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Secretariat. It is not a UN-mandated or UN-operated fund, unlike the Green Climate Fund or Adaptation Fund. (Hence, statement 4 is incorrect)

• The fund will become operational after the initial fundraising target of $1 billion is reached and once 10 contributing countries have committed as shareholders.

• 50% of the capital will be directed to climate projects in developing countries, and 50% will help countries meet their NDCs.

• 20% of revenues generated from investments will go into a Rapid Response Funding Facility (2R2F), offering highly concessional and grant-based assistance to address urgent climate-related disasters.

https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/cop29-host-azerbaijan-launches-climate-fund-introduces-fossil-fuel-levy-124072000086_1.html

Solution: B

Climate Finance Action Fund (CFAF):

• The Climate Finance Action Fund (CFAF) is a catalytic public-private partnership fund aimed at accelerating climate finance flows, particularly to developing countries.

• It was launched as part of a package of 14 initiatives under the COP29 thematic days framework.

• The headquarters and secretariat of CFAF will be located in Baku, Azerbaijan. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• The fund will become operational after the initial fundraising target of $1 billion is reached and once 10 contributing countries have committed as shareholders.

• 50% of the capital will be directed to climate projects in developing countries, and 50% will help countries meet their NDCs.

https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/cop29-host-azerbaijan-launches-climate-fund-introduces-fossil-fuel-levy-124072000086_1.html

• Question 22 of 59 22. Question 1 points With reference to the Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability (GCPRS), consider the following statements It is an initiative organized by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to promote circular economy in plastics. The conclave is aimed at fostering collaboration among industry stakeholders for sustainable plastic practices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability (GCPRS): The Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability (GCPRS) is a significant event that addresses plastic waste management, recycling, and sustainability, with a focus on promoting circularity in plastic use. It is organized by the All-India Plastics Manufacturers’ Association (AIPMA), a private industry body. It is not organized by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The conclave brings together industry stakeholders to collaborate on innovative technologies and sustainable practices in the plastics sector. It serves as a platform to foster partnerships and promote best practices in recycling and sustainability. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2030702 Incorrect Solution: B Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability (GCPRS): The Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability (GCPRS) is a significant event that addresses plastic waste management, recycling, and sustainability, with a focus on promoting circularity in plastic use. It is organized by the All-India Plastics Manufacturers’ Association (AIPMA), a private industry body. It is not organized by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The conclave brings together industry stakeholders to collaborate on innovative technologies and sustainable practices in the plastics sector. It serves as a platform to foster partnerships and promote best practices in recycling and sustainability. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2030702

#### 22. Question

With reference to the Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability (GCPRS), consider the following statements

• It is an initiative organized by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to promote circular economy in plastics.

• The conclave is aimed at fostering collaboration among industry stakeholders for sustainable plastic practices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability (GCPRS):

• The Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability (GCPRS) is a significant event that addresses plastic waste management, recycling, and sustainability, with a focus on promoting circularity in plastic use.

• It is organized by the All-India Plastics Manufacturers’ Association (AIPMA), a private industry body. It is not organized by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• The conclave brings together industry stakeholders to collaborate on innovative technologies and sustainable practices in the plastics sector. It serves as a platform to foster partnerships and promote best practices in recycling and sustainability. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2030702

Solution: B

Global Conclave on Plastic Recycling and Sustainability (GCPRS):

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2030702

• Question 23 of 59 23. Question 1 points With reference to the GROWTH-India Telescope, consider the following statements It is India’s first fully robotic telescope and is located at the Indian Astronomical Observatory in Ladakh. It is operated jointly by IIT Bombay and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It specializes in time-domain astronomy and is part of an international initiative to observe cosmic transients. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: B GROWTH-India Telescope: The GROWTH-India Telescope is India’s first fully robotic telescope, operational at the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO), Hanle, in Ladakh. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) It is jointly operated by IIT Bombay and the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA). It is not operated by ISRO. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) It is a 0.7-metre wide-field optical telescope and is designed specifically for time-domain astronomy, which involves observing transient astronomical events such as supernovae, gamma-ray bursts, and near-Earth asteroids. The telescope is part of the Global Relay of Observatories Watching Transients Happen (GROWTH) network — a multi-country initiative. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) It recently captured a building-sized asteroid approaching Earth, highlighting its relevance in planetary defense and rapid celestial event monitoring. The project is funded by India’s Department of Science and Technology (DST)–SERB and the National Science Foundation (NSF), USA. https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/science/indias-first-fully-robotic-optical-research-growth-india-telescope-captures-building-sized-asteroid-iit-bombay/articleshow/112043377.cms Incorrect Solution: B GROWTH-India Telescope: The GROWTH-India Telescope is India’s first fully robotic telescope, operational at the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO), Hanle, in Ladakh. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) It is jointly operated by IIT Bombay and the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA). It is not operated by ISRO. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) It is a 0.7-metre wide-field optical telescope and is designed specifically for time-domain astronomy, which involves observing transient astronomical events such as supernovae, gamma-ray bursts, and near-Earth asteroids. The telescope is part of the Global Relay of Observatories Watching Transients Happen (GROWTH) network — a multi-country initiative. (Hence, statement 3 is correct) It recently captured a building-sized asteroid approaching Earth, highlighting its relevance in planetary defense and rapid celestial event monitoring. The project is funded by India’s Department of Science and Technology (DST)–SERB and the National Science Foundation (NSF), USA. https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/science/indias-first-fully-robotic-optical-research-growth-india-telescope-captures-building-sized-asteroid-iit-bombay/articleshow/112043377.cms

#### 23. Question

With reference to the GROWTH-India Telescope, consider the following statements

• It is India’s first fully robotic telescope and is located at the Indian Astronomical Observatory in Ladakh.

• It is operated jointly by IIT Bombay and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

• It specializes in time-domain astronomy and is part of an international initiative to observe cosmic transients.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: B

GROWTH-India Telescope:

• The GROWTH-India Telescope is India’s first fully robotic telescope, operational at the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO), Hanle, in Ladakh. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• It is jointly operated by IIT Bombay and the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA). It is not operated by ISRO. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• It is a 0.7-metre wide-field optical telescope and is designed specifically for time-domain astronomy, which involves observing transient astronomical events such as supernovae, gamma-ray bursts, and near-Earth asteroids.

• The telescope is part of the Global Relay of Observatories Watching Transients Happen (GROWTH) network — a multi-country initiative. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• It recently captured a building-sized asteroid approaching Earth, highlighting its relevance in planetary defense and rapid celestial event monitoring.

• The project is funded by India’s Department of Science and Technology (DST)–SERB and the National Science Foundation (NSF), USA.

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/science/indias-first-fully-robotic-optical-research-growth-india-telescope-captures-building-sized-asteroid-iit-bombay/articleshow/112043377.cms

Solution: B

GROWTH-India Telescope:

• The GROWTH-India Telescope is India’s first fully robotic telescope, operational at the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO), Hanle, in Ladakh. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• It is jointly operated by IIT Bombay and the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA). It is not operated by ISRO. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• The telescope is part of the Global Relay of Observatories Watching Transients Happen (GROWTH) network — a multi-country initiative. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• It recently captured a building-sized asteroid approaching Earth, highlighting its relevance in planetary defense and rapid celestial event monitoring.

• The project is funded by India’s Department of Science and Technology (DST)–SERB and the National Science Foundation (NSF), USA.

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/science/indias-first-fully-robotic-optical-research-growth-india-telescope-captures-building-sized-asteroid-iit-bombay/articleshow/112043377.cms

• Question 24 of 59 24. Question 1 points With reference to the Foreigners Tribunals in India, consider the following statements They are quasi-judicial bodies established under the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, framed under the Foreigners Act, 1946. The Foreigners Tribunals are currently operational only in Assam. A Foreigners Tribunal has the power to summon witnesses and require the production of documents, similar to a civil court. A Foreigners Tribunal is mandated to deliver its verdict within 60 days from the date of reference by the concerned authority. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) All four (d) Only one Correct Solution: C Foreigners Tribunals: Legal Basis: Foreigners Tribunals (FTs) are quasi-judicial bodies established under the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, issued under Section 3 of the Foreigners Act, 1946. These tribunals enable local authorities to refer individuals suspected to be foreigners for adjudication. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Geographical Scope: FTs are currently exclusive to Assam. In other states, illegal immigration cases are dealt with under the Foreigners Act without the tribunal mechanism. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Composition: Each FT is chaired by a member drawn from judges, advocates, or civil servants with judicial experience. Number of Tribunals: As per the Ministry of Home Affairs (2021), 300 FTs were sanctioned in Assam, though only 100 were operational, beginning with 11 formed before the scrapping of the Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act, 1983 in 2005. Powers: FTs have powers of a civil court in specific matters such as: Summoning witnesses Enforcing attendance Examining on oath Requiring document production (Hence, statement 3 is correct) Procedure & Timelines: A notice must be served in English or the State’s official language within 10 days of receiving the reference. The person has 10 days to reply, and another 10 days to provide supporting documents. The FT must dispose of the case within 60 days of the reference. If unable to prove citizenship, the person may be sent to a detention centre (now called transit camp) for potential deportation. (Hence, statement 4 is correct) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/how-do-assams-foreigners-tribunals-function-explained/article68419385.ece#:~:text=A%20tribunal%20is%20required%20to,of%20his%20or%20her%20case Incorrect Solution: C Foreigners Tribunals: Legal Basis: Foreigners Tribunals (FTs) are quasi-judicial bodies established under the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, issued under Section 3 of the Foreigners Act, 1946. These tribunals enable local authorities to refer individuals suspected to be foreigners for adjudication. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Geographical Scope: FTs are currently exclusive to Assam. In other states, illegal immigration cases are dealt with under the Foreigners Act without the tribunal mechanism. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Composition: Each FT is chaired by a member drawn from judges, advocates, or civil servants with judicial experience. Number of Tribunals: As per the Ministry of Home Affairs (2021), 300 FTs were sanctioned in Assam, though only 100 were operational, beginning with 11 formed before the scrapping of the Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act, 1983 in 2005. Powers: FTs have powers of a civil court in specific matters such as: Summoning witnesses Enforcing attendance Examining on oath Requiring document production (Hence, statement 3 is correct) Procedure & Timelines: A notice must be served in English or the State’s official language within 10 days of receiving the reference. The person has 10 days to reply, and another 10 days to provide supporting documents. The FT must dispose of the case within 60 days of the reference. If unable to prove citizenship, the person may be sent to a detention centre (now called transit camp) for potential deportation. (Hence, statement 4 is correct) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/how-do-assams-foreigners-tribunals-function-explained/article68419385.ece#:~:text=A%20tribunal%20is%20required%20to,of%20his%20or%20her%20case

#### 24. Question

With reference to the Foreigners Tribunals in India, consider the following statements

• They are quasi-judicial bodies established under the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, framed under the Foreigners Act, 1946.

• The Foreigners Tribunals are currently operational only in Assam.

• A Foreigners Tribunal has the power to summon witnesses and require the production of documents, similar to a civil court.

• A Foreigners Tribunal is mandated to deliver its verdict within 60 days from the date of reference by the concerned authority.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) All four

• (d) Only one

Solution: C

Foreigners Tribunals:

• Legal Basis: Foreigners Tribunals (FTs) are quasi-judicial bodies established under the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, issued under Section 3 of the Foreigners Act, 1946. These tribunals enable local authorities to refer individuals suspected to be foreigners for adjudication. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Geographical Scope: FTs are currently exclusive to Assam. In other states, illegal immigration cases are dealt with under the Foreigners Act without the tribunal mechanism. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Composition: Each FT is chaired by a member drawn from judges, advocates, or civil servants with judicial experience.

• Number of Tribunals: As per the Ministry of Home Affairs (2021), 300 FTs were sanctioned in Assam, though only 100 were operational, beginning with 11 formed before the scrapping of the Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act, 1983 in 2005.

• Powers: FTs have powers of a civil court in specific matters such as: Summoning witnesses Enforcing attendance Examining on oath Requiring document production (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• Summoning witnesses

• Enforcing attendance

• Examining on oath

• Requiring document production (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• Procedure & Timelines: A notice must be served in English or the State’s official language within 10 days of receiving the reference. The person has 10 days to reply, and another 10 days to provide supporting documents. The FT must dispose of the case within 60 days of the reference. If unable to prove citizenship, the person may be sent to a detention centre (now called transit camp) for potential deportation. (Hence, statement 4 is correct)

• A notice must be served in English or the State’s official language within 10 days of receiving the reference.

• The person has 10 days to reply, and another 10 days to provide supporting documents.

• The FT must dispose of the case within 60 days of the reference.

• If unable to prove citizenship, the person may be sent to a detention centre (now called transit camp) for potential deportation. (Hence, statement 4 is correct)

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/how-do-assams-foreigners-tribunals-function-explained/article68419385.ece#:~:text=A%20tribunal%20is%20required%20to,of%20his%20or%20her%20case

Solution: C

Foreigners Tribunals:

• Composition: Each FT is chaired by a member drawn from judges, advocates, or civil servants with judicial experience.

• Summoning witnesses

• Enforcing attendance

• Examining on oath

• Requiring document production (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

• A notice must be served in English or the State’s official language within 10 days of receiving the reference.

• The person has 10 days to reply, and another 10 days to provide supporting documents.

• The FT must dispose of the case within 60 days of the reference.

• If unable to prove citizenship, the person may be sent to a detention centre (now called transit camp) for potential deportation. (Hence, statement 4 is correct)

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/how-do-assams-foreigners-tribunals-function-explained/article68419385.ece#:~:text=A%20tribunal%20is%20required%20to,of%20his%20or%20her%20case

• Question 25 of 59 25. Question 1 points With reference to the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC), consider the following statements It is an ad-hoc body constituted under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. It has the power to summon documents, witnesses, and experts for in-depth examination of evidence relevant to the issue it is tasked with. The recommendations of the committee are binding on the government. Members of the committee are drawn only from the Lok Sabha. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC): A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is an ad-hoc and bipartisan committee constituted to examine specific matters such as proposed legislation or policy issues in detail. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) It is formed under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha constitutes the committee. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The members are drawn from both Houses of Parliament, generally comprising 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha, ensuring proportional representation of political parties. (Hence, statement 4 is incorrect) The JPC has the power to summon documents, witnesses, and experts for detailed deliberations on the issue under its scrutiny. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The committee’s recommendations are not binding; they are advisory in nature and the government may or may not accept them. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) Once formed, the committee is typically given 90 days to submit its report, though this deadline can be extended. It reports to the Parliament, which may take further action or discussion based on its findings. Incorrect Solution: B Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC): A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is an ad-hoc and bipartisan committee constituted to examine specific matters such as proposed legislation or policy issues in detail. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) It is formed under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha constitutes the committee. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) The members are drawn from both Houses of Parliament, generally comprising 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha, ensuring proportional representation of political parties. (Hence, statement 4 is incorrect) The JPC has the power to summon documents, witnesses, and experts for detailed deliberations on the issue under its scrutiny. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The committee’s recommendations are not binding; they are advisory in nature and the government may or may not accept them. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) Once formed, the committee is typically given 90 days to submit its report, though this deadline can be extended. It reports to the Parliament, which may take further action or discussion based on its findings.

#### 25. Question

With reference to the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC), consider the following statements

• It is an ad-hoc body constituted under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.

• It has the power to summon documents, witnesses, and experts for in-depth examination of evidence relevant to the issue it is tasked with.

• The recommendations of the committee are binding on the government.

• Members of the committee are drawn only from the Lok Sabha.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC):

• A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is an ad-hoc and bipartisan committee constituted to examine specific matters such as proposed legislation or policy issues in detail. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• It is formed under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha constitutes the committee. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The members are drawn from both Houses of Parliament, generally comprising 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha, ensuring proportional representation of political parties. (Hence, statement 4 is incorrect)

• The JPC has the power to summon documents, witnesses, and experts for detailed deliberations on the issue under its scrutiny. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The committee’s recommendations are not binding; they are advisory in nature and the government may or may not accept them. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• Once formed, the committee is typically given 90 days to submit its report, though this deadline can be extended.

• It reports to the Parliament, which may take further action or discussion based on its findings.

Solution: B

Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC):

• It is formed under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha constitutes the committee. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• The JPC has the power to summon documents, witnesses, and experts for detailed deliberations on the issue under its scrutiny. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The committee’s recommendations are not binding; they are advisory in nature and the government may or may not accept them. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• Once formed, the committee is typically given 90 days to submit its report, though this deadline can be extended.

• It reports to the Parliament, which may take further action or discussion based on its findings.

• Question 26 of 59 26. Question 1 points Reality TV has dominated our screens for more than twenty years now. Thousands of people have become subject to the fame that follows the brief periods spent on cooking programmes, talent shows, being locked in houses, and being left on desert islands. For very few of them it has changed their lives for the better in the long term, providing them with new career opportunities and good income. What about the rest? Well, the fame does eventually fade away, but while it lasts it has its benefits as well as problems. Without doubt, for the minority who benefit from reality TV fame in terms of career and finances, the advantages probably outweigh the disadvantages. People who step up to be on programmes like these generally tend to be aware that they will be recognized in public, so when they are, they probably do not see it as a disadvantage. Recognition may well have been one of their original motives for going on a reality show. However, many may have insecurities about the position they now hold, about whether they truly deserve it and whether other people think the same way of them. It is the other ninety-nine percent who end up with the shorter end of the stick though. At first people might stop and ask them for selfies, which can be fun, and perhaps they will be asked to a lot of parties for a while. However, in the following months, people who recognize them might also start criticizing them in public or troll them online. All of this could be without the benefit of money or a new career. Going back to normal life can be difficult when the selfies stop. Being a reality star is a strange kind of fame. People recognize you, but they also see you as an ‘ordinary’ person. You occupy the middle ground between being famous and not being famous. People who have been on reality shows may have done or said embarrassing things that are now forever recorded on the Internet for the world to see and poke fun at; or they may have been cast as a villain by the production staff, causing negative reactions from strangers. All in all, fame from a reality show probably has more disadvantages than advantages. People should think twice before they decide to take the plunge. It might change their life, but it is all the more likely to lead to nowhere. Which of the following inferences is logical based on the passage? a. Majority of reality TV stars go onto have successful careers in the limelight. b. Reality stars who do not start a new career can end up disillusioned with fame c. Being invited to parties is worth starring in a reality TV show. d. None of the above Correct Correct Option : B Justification : Answer: B Justification: The answer can be found in the last paragraph which talks about what happens to people who do not become rich and famous after a reality TV show. Since they get a taste of fame before returning to their normal lives, they often face more disadvantages than advantages especially due to the permanence of the internet. This probably leads to a lot of disillusionment and disappointment. Hence, B. Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification : Answer: B Justification: The answer can be found in the last paragraph which talks about what happens to people who do not become rich and famous after a reality TV show. Since they get a taste of fame before returning to their normal lives, they often face more disadvantages than advantages especially due to the permanence of the internet. This probably leads to a lot of disillusionment and disappointment. Hence, B.

#### 26. Question

Reality TV has dominated our screens for more than twenty years now. Thousands of people have become subject to the fame that follows the brief periods spent on cooking programmes, talent shows, being locked in houses, and being left on desert islands. For very few of them it has changed their lives for the better in the long term, providing them with new career opportunities and good income. What about the rest? Well, the fame does eventually fade away, but while it lasts it has its benefits as well as problems.

Without doubt, for the minority who benefit from reality TV fame in terms of career and finances, the advantages probably outweigh the disadvantages. People who step up to be on programmes like these generally tend to be aware that they will be recognized in public, so when they are, they probably do not see it as a disadvantage. Recognition may well have been one of their original motives for going on a reality show. However, many may have insecurities about the position they now hold, about whether they truly deserve it and whether other people think the same way of them.

It is the other ninety-nine percent who end up with the shorter end of the stick though. At first people might stop and ask them for selfies, which can be fun, and perhaps they will be asked to a lot of parties for a while. However, in the following months, people who recognize them might also start criticizing them in public or troll them online. All of this could be without the benefit of money or a new career. Going back to normal life can be difficult when the selfies stop.

Being a reality star is a strange kind of fame. People recognize you, but they also see you as an ‘ordinary’ person. You occupy the middle ground between being famous and not being famous. People who have been on reality shows may have done or said embarrassing things that are now forever recorded on the Internet for the world to see and poke fun at; or they may have been cast as a villain by the production staff, causing negative reactions from strangers. All in all, fame from a reality show probably has more disadvantages than advantages. People should think twice before they decide to take the plunge. It might change their life, but it is all the more likely to lead to nowhere.

Which of the following inferences is logical based on the passage?

• a. Majority of reality TV stars go onto have successful careers in the limelight.

• b. Reality stars who do not start a new career can end up disillusioned with fame

• c. Being invited to parties is worth starring in a reality TV show.

• d. None of the above

Correct Option : B

Justification :

Justification:

The answer can be found in the last paragraph which talks about what happens to people who do not become rich and famous after a reality TV show. Since they get a taste of fame before returning to their normal lives, they often face more disadvantages than advantages especially due to the permanence of the internet. This probably leads to a lot of disillusionment and disappointment. Hence, B.

Correct Option : B

Justification :

Justification:

• Question 27 of 59 27. Question 1 points Percent Profit earned by two companies producing electronic equipment’s from the year 2012 to 2017. Profit % for a year = {(Revenue – Investment)/Investment} x 100 Profit = Revenue – Investment Profit % of P and Q Company P invested Rs. 9,21,600 in the year 2018. The revenue of P in the year 2018 was equal to the revenue of Q in 2015 in which Q had invested Rs. 7.2 lakh. Find the profit percent of company P in the year 2018. a. . 20% b. 25% c. 15% d. 30% Correct Correct Option : B Justification : Answer B)25% Explanation Company Q had invested Rs. 7.2 lakh in 2015 and made a profit of 60%. So 60 = [(Revenue – 7.2)/7.2] × 100 Revenue = 7.2 + 4.32 = 11.52 lakh Revenue of P in 2018 was equal to revenue of Q in 2015, so Revenue of P in 2018 = 11.52 lakh Investment of P in 2018 = Rs. 921600 Profit = Revenue – Investment = 1152000 – 921600 = 2.304 lakh Profit percent = (2.304/9.216) × 100 = 25% Hence, option B is correct. Incorrect Correct Option : B Justification : Answer B)25% Explanation Company Q had invested Rs. 7.2 lakh in 2015 and made a profit of 60%. So 60 = [(Revenue – 7.2)/7.2] × 100 Revenue = 7.2 + 4.32 = 11.52 lakh Revenue of P in 2018 was equal to revenue of Q in 2015, so Revenue of P in 2018 = 11.52 lakh Investment of P in 2018 = Rs. 921600 Profit = Revenue – Investment = 1152000 – 921600 = 2.304 lakh Profit percent = (2.304/9.216) × 100 = 25% Hence, option B is correct.

#### 27. Question

Percent Profit earned by two companies producing electronic equipment’s from the year 2012 to 2017.

Profit % for a year = {(Revenue – Investment)/Investment} x 100

Profit = Revenue – Investment

Profit % of P and Q

Company P invested Rs. 9,21,600 in the year 2018. The revenue of P in the year 2018

was equal to the revenue of Q in 2015 in which Q had invested Rs. 7.2 lakh. Find the

profit percent of company P in the year 2018.

Correct Option : B

Justification :

Answer B)25%

Explanation

Company Q had invested Rs. 7.2 lakh in 2015 and made a profit of 60%. So

60 = [(Revenue – 7.2)/7.2] × 100

Revenue = 7.2 + 4.32 = 11.52 lakh

Revenue of P in 2018 was equal to revenue of Q in 2015, so

Revenue of P in 2018 = 11.52 lakh

Investment of P in 2018 = Rs. 921600

Profit = Revenue – Investment = 1152000 – 921600 = 2.304 lakh

Profit percent = (2.304/9.216) × 100 = 25%

Hence, option B is correct.

Correct Option : B

Justification :

Answer B)25%

Explanation

Company Q had invested Rs. 7.2 lakh in 2015 and made a profit of 60%. So

60 = [(Revenue – 7.2)/7.2] × 100

Revenue = 7.2 + 4.32 = 11.52 lakh

Revenue of P in 2018 was equal to revenue of Q in 2015, so

Revenue of P in 2018 = 11.52 lakh

Investment of P in 2018 = Rs. 921600

Profit = Revenue – Investment = 1152000 – 921600 = 2.304 lakh

Profit percent = (2.304/9.216) × 100 = 25%

Hence, option B is correct.

• Question 28 of 59 28. Question 1 points This year, the cost of a Tomato increased by 20% over that of the last year. Last year a Tomato costed Rs.10 and a Potato costed Rs.5. This year it costs Rs.11 more to buy 5 Potato and 3 Tomato. Find the percentage increase in the price of the Potato. a. . 4% b. 15% c. 27% d. 20% Correct Correct Option : D Justification : Cost of the Tomato last year = Rs.10 So, Cost of the Tomato this year = 10 + 20% of 10 = Rs.(10 + 2) = Rs.12 Cost of the Potato last year = Rs.5 Let the cost of Potato this year be x Therefore, cost of 5 Potato and 3 Tomato this year = 5x + (3 × 12) = 5x + 36 ….. (i) cost of 5 Potato and 3 Tomato last year = ((5 × 5) + (3 × 10)) = 55 …….. (ii) This year the cost is Rs.11 more From (i) and (ii), we get 5x + 36 = 55 + 11 ⇒ 5x = (66 – 36) ⇒ x = 6 Increase in the cost of Potato = (6 – 5) = Rs. 1 Percentage increase = (1/5) × 100% = 20% Hence, option (D) is correct. Incorrect Correct Option : D Justification : Cost of the Tomato last year = Rs.10 So, Cost of the Tomato this year = 10 + 20% of 10 = Rs.(10 + 2) = Rs.12 Cost of the Potato last year = Rs.5 Let the cost of Potato this year be x Therefore, cost of 5 Potato and 3 Tomato this year = 5x + (3 × 12) = 5x + 36 ….. (i) cost of 5 Potato and 3 Tomato last year = ((5 × 5) + (3 × 10)) = 55 …….. (ii) This year the cost is Rs.11 more From (i) and (ii), we get 5x + 36 = 55 + 11 ⇒ 5x = (66 – 36) ⇒ x = 6 Increase in the cost of Potato = (6 – 5) = Rs. 1 Percentage increase = (1/5) × 100% = 20% Hence, option (D) is correct.

#### 28. Question

This year, the cost of a Tomato increased by 20% over that of the last year. Last year a Tomato costed Rs.10 and a Potato costed Rs.5. This year it costs Rs.11 more to buy 5 Potato and 3 Tomato. Find the percentage increase in the price of the Potato.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Cost of the Tomato last year = Rs.10

So, Cost of the Tomato this year = 10 + 20% of 10 = Rs.(10 + 2) = Rs.12

Cost of the Potato last year = Rs.5

Let the cost of Potato this year be x

Therefore, cost of 5 Potato and 3 Tomato this year = 5x + (3 × 12) = 5x + 36 ….. (i)

cost of 5 Potato and 3 Tomato last year = ((5 × 5) + (3 × 10)) = 55 …….. (ii)

This year the cost is Rs.11 more From (i) and (ii),

we get 5x + 36 = 55 + 11 ⇒ 5x = (66 – 36) ⇒ x = 6

Increase in the cost of Potato = (6 – 5) = Rs. 1

Percentage increase = (1/5) × 100% = 20%

Hence, option (D) is correct.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Cost of the Tomato last year = Rs.10

So, Cost of the Tomato this year = 10 + 20% of 10 = Rs.(10 + 2) = Rs.12

Cost of the Potato last year = Rs.5

Let the cost of Potato this year be x

Therefore, cost of 5 Potato and 3 Tomato this year = 5x + (3 × 12) = 5x + 36 ….. (i)

cost of 5 Potato and 3 Tomato last year = ((5 × 5) + (3 × 10)) = 55 …….. (ii)

This year the cost is Rs.11 more From (i) and (ii),

we get 5x + 36 = 55 + 11 ⇒ 5x = (66 – 36) ⇒ x = 6

Increase in the cost of Potato = (6 – 5) = Rs. 1

Percentage increase = (1/5) × 100% = 20%

Hence, option (D) is correct.

• Question 29 of 59 29. Question 1 points If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also at or above the 80th percentile in all three sections in JEE is actually a multiple of 5, what is the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and at or above the 80th percentile in both P and M in JEE? a. 40 b. 50 c. 60 d. 70 Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Solution: It is given that 200 candidates scored above 90th percentile overall in JEE. Let the following Venn diagram represent the number of persons who scored above 80 percentile in JEE in each of the three sections: Solution: It is given that 200 candidates scored above 90th percentile overall in JEE. Let the following Venn diagram represent the number of persons who scored above 80 percentile in JEE in each of the three sections: From 1, h = 0. From 2, d + e + f = 150 From 3, a = b = c Since there are a total of 200 candidates, 3a + g = 200 – 150 = 50 From 4, (2a + f) : (2a + e) : (2a + d) = 4 : 2 : 1 Therefore, 6a + (d + e + f) is divisible by 4 + 2 + 1 = 7. Since d + e + f = 150, 6a + 150 is divisible by 7, i.e., 6a + 3 is divisible by 7. Hence, a = 3, 10, 17, . . . Further, since 3a + g = 5 0, a must be less than 17. Therefore, only two cases are possible for the value of a, i.e., 3 or 10. We can calculate the values of the other variables for the two cases. a = 3 or 10 d = 18 or 10 e = 42 or 40 f = 90 or 100 g = 41 or 20 Among the candidates who are at or above 90th percentile, the candidates who are at or above 80th percentile in at least two sections are selected for AET. Hence, the candidates represented by d, e, f and g are selected for AET. NIT will consider the candidates who are appearing for AET and are at or above 80th percentile in P. Hence, NIT will consider the candidates represented by d, e and g, which can be 104 or 80. NIT will conduct a separate test for the other students who are at or above 80th percentile in P. Given that there are a total of 400 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P, and since there are 104 or 80 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P and are at or above 90th percentile overall, there must be 296 or 320 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P who scored less than 90th percentile overall. From the given condition, g is a multiple of 5. Hence, g = 20. The number of candidates at or above 90th percentile overall and at or above 80th percentile in both P and M = e + g = 60. Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Solution: It is given that 200 candidates scored above 90th percentile overall in JEE. Let the following Venn diagram represent the number of persons who scored above 80 percentile in JEE in each of the three sections: Solution: It is given that 200 candidates scored above 90th percentile overall in JEE. Let the following Venn diagram represent the number of persons who scored above 80 percentile in JEE in each of the three sections: From 1, h = 0. From 2, d + e + f = 150 From 3, a = b = c Since there are a total of 200 candidates, 3a + g = 200 – 150 = 50 From 4, (2a + f) : (2a + e) : (2a + d) = 4 : 2 : 1 Therefore, 6a + (d + e + f) is divisible by 4 + 2 + 1 = 7. Since d + e + f = 150, 6a + 150 is divisible by 7, i.e., 6a + 3 is divisible by 7. Hence, a = 3, 10, 17, . . . Further, since 3a + g = 5 0, a must be less than 17. Therefore, only two cases are possible for the value of a, i.e., 3 or 10. We can calculate the values of the other variables for the two cases. a = 3 or 10 d = 18 or 10 e = 42 or 40 f = 90 or 100 g = 41 or 20 Among the candidates who are at or above 90th percentile, the candidates who are at or above 80th percentile in at least two sections are selected for AET. Hence, the candidates represented by d, e, f and g are selected for AET. NIT will consider the candidates who are appearing for AET and are at or above 80th percentile in P. Hence, NIT will consider the candidates represented by d, e and g, which can be 104 or 80. NIT will conduct a separate test for the other students who are at or above 80th percentile in P. Given that there are a total of 400 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P, and since there are 104 or 80 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P and are at or above 90th percentile overall, there must be 296 or 320 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P who scored less than 90th percentile overall. From the given condition, g is a multiple of 5. Hence, g = 20. The number of candidates at or above 90th percentile overall and at or above 80th percentile in both P and M = e + g = 60.

#### 29. Question

If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also at or above the 80th percentile in all three sections in JEE is actually a multiple of 5, what is the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and at or above the 80th percentile in both P and M in JEE?

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Solution: It is given that 200 candidates scored above 90th percentile overall in JEE.

Let the following Venn diagram represent the number of persons who scored above 80 percentile in JEE in each of the three sections:

Solution: It is given that 200 candidates scored above 90th percentile overall in JEE.

Let the following Venn diagram represent the number of persons who scored above 80 percentile in JEE in each of the three sections:

From 1, h = 0.

From 2, d + e + f = 150

From 3, a = b = c

Since there are a total of 200 candidates, 3a + g = 200 – 150 = 50

From 4, (2a + f) : (2a + e) : (2a + d) = 4 : 2 : 1

Therefore, 6a + (d + e + f) is divisible by 4 + 2 + 1 = 7.

Since d + e + f = 150, 6a + 150 is divisible by 7, i.e., 6a + 3 is divisible by 7. Hence, a = 3, 10, 17, . . .

Further, since 3a + g = 5 0, a must be less than 17. Therefore, only two cases are possible for the value of a, i.e., 3 or 10.

We can calculate the values of the other variables for the two cases.

a = 3 or 10

d = 18 or 10

e = 42 or 40

f = 90 or 100

g = 41 or 20

Among the candidates who are at or above 90th percentile, the candidates who are at or above 80th percentile in at least two sections are selected for AET. Hence, the candidates represented by d, e, f and g are selected for AET. NIT will consider the candidates who are appearing for AET and are at or above 80th percentile in P.

Hence, NIT will consider the candidates represented by d, e and g, which can be 104 or 80. NIT will conduct a separate test for the other students who are at or above 80th percentile in P. Given that there are a total of 400 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P, and since there are 104 or 80 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P and are at or above 90th percentile overall, there must be 296 or 320 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P who scored less than 90th percentile overall.

From the given condition, g is a multiple of 5. Hence, g = 20.

The number of candidates at or above 90th percentile overall and at or above 80th percentile in both P and M = e + g = 60.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Solution: It is given that 200 candidates scored above 90th percentile overall in JEE.

Let the following Venn diagram represent the number of persons who scored above 80 percentile in JEE in each of the three sections:

Solution: It is given that 200 candidates scored above 90th percentile overall in JEE.

Let the following Venn diagram represent the number of persons who scored above 80 percentile in JEE in each of the three sections:

From 1, h = 0.

From 2, d + e + f = 150

From 3, a = b = c

Since there are a total of 200 candidates, 3a + g = 200 – 150 = 50

From 4, (2a + f) : (2a + e) : (2a + d) = 4 : 2 : 1

Therefore, 6a + (d + e + f) is divisible by 4 + 2 + 1 = 7.

Since d + e + f = 150, 6a + 150 is divisible by 7, i.e., 6a + 3 is divisible by 7. Hence, a = 3, 10, 17, . . .

Further, since 3a + g = 5 0, a must be less than 17. Therefore, only two cases are possible for the value of a, i.e., 3 or 10.

We can calculate the values of the other variables for the two cases.

a = 3 or 10

d = 18 or 10

e = 42 or 40

f = 90 or 100

g = 41 or 20

From the given condition, g is a multiple of 5. Hence, g = 20.

The number of candidates at or above 90th percentile overall and at or above 80th percentile in both P and M = e + g = 60.

• Question 30 of 59 30. Question 1 points X and Y entered in a partnership business in which Y invested Rs. 50,000. At the end of 4 months Y withdrew Rs. 7500 and at the end of another 5 months he again withdrew Rs. 9000. X had left his investment intact, then what was his investment if at the end of one – year he received 40% of the total profit? a. . 27500 b. Rs. 32000 c. Rs. 28500 d. Rs. 31500 Correct Correct Option : C Justification : Explanation Let the investment of X = Rs. a then Ratio of profit sharing of X to Y = 40 : 60 = 2 : 3 According to the question, a × 12: (50000 × 4 + 42500 × 5 + 33500 × 3) = 2: 3 By solving, a = Rs. 28500 Hence, option C is correct. Incorrect Correct Option : C Justification : Explanation Let the investment of X = Rs. a then Ratio of profit sharing of X to Y = 40 : 60 = 2 : 3 According to the question, a × 12: (50000 × 4 + 42500 × 5 + 33500 × 3) = 2: 3 By solving, a = Rs. 28500 Hence, option C is correct.

#### 30. Question

X and Y entered in a partnership business in which Y invested Rs.

50,000. At the end of 4 months Y withdrew Rs. 7500 and at the end of another 5

months he again withdrew Rs. 9000. X had left his investment intact, then what

was his investment if at the end of one – year he received 40% of the total profit?

• a. . 27500

• b. Rs. 32000

• c. Rs. 28500

• d. Rs. 31500

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Explanation

Let the investment of X = Rs. a then

Ratio of profit sharing of X to Y = 40 : 60 = 2 : 3

According to the question,

a × 12: (50000 × 4 + 42500 × 5 + 33500 × 3) = 2: 3

By solving, a = Rs. 28500

Hence, option C is correct.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Explanation

Let the investment of X = Rs. a then

Ratio of profit sharing of X to Y = 40 : 60 = 2 : 3

According to the question,

a × 12: (50000 × 4 + 42500 × 5 + 33500 × 3) = 2: 3

By solving, a = Rs. 28500

Hence, option C is correct.

• Question 31 of 59 31. Question 1 points HIMANSH, a High-altitude research station is located in (a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand (c) Ladakh (d) Sikkim Correct Solution: A As part of the Indian government’s initiatives for better understanding of glacier –climate inter-relationship and quantify the Himalayan glacier responses towards the climate change, National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR), Goa, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences has established a high-altitude research station in Himalaya called HIMANSH. HIMANSH is a dedicated Research Station established at Sutri Dhaka, Chandra Basin, Lahaul-Spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh which has an altitude of 4080m above mean sea level. Objectives: To facilitate Himalayan Cryosphare Studies in Chandra basin to study the dynamics and the rate of change of Himalayan glaciers to understand its impact on hydrology and climate. Incorrect Solution: A As part of the Indian government’s initiatives for better understanding of glacier –climate inter-relationship and quantify the Himalayan glacier responses towards the climate change, National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR), Goa, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences has established a high-altitude research station in Himalaya called HIMANSH. HIMANSH is a dedicated Research Station established at Sutri Dhaka, Chandra Basin, Lahaul-Spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh which has an altitude of 4080m above mean sea level. Objectives: To facilitate Himalayan Cryosphare Studies in Chandra basin to study the dynamics and the rate of change of Himalayan glaciers to understand its impact on hydrology and climate.

#### 31. Question

HIMANSH, a High-altitude research station is located in

• (a) Himachal Pradesh

• (b) Uttarakhand

• (c) Ladakh

• (d) Sikkim

Solution: A

As part of the Indian government’s initiatives for better understanding of glacier –climate inter-relationship and quantify the Himalayan glacier responses towards the climate change, National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR), Goa, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences has established a high-altitude research station in Himalaya called HIMANSH. HIMANSH is a dedicated Research Station established at Sutri Dhaka, Chandra Basin, Lahaul-Spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh which has an altitude of 4080m above mean sea level.

Objectives: To facilitate Himalayan Cryosphare Studies in Chandra basin to study the dynamics and the rate of change of Himalayan glaciers to understand its impact on hydrology and climate.

Solution: A

Objectives: To facilitate Himalayan Cryosphare Studies in Chandra basin to study the dynamics and the rate of change of Himalayan glaciers to understand its impact on hydrology and climate.

• Question 32 of 59 32. Question 1 points Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) has been initiated by: (a) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (b) NITI aayog (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry (d) Ministry of Human Resource Development Correct Solution: B The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country. AlM’s objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels. The Atal Innovation Mission has following two core functions: Entrepreneurship promotion through Self-Employment and Talent Utilization, wherein innovators would be supported and mentored to become successful entrepreneurs. Innovation promotion: to provide a platform where innovative ideas are generated. Incorrect Solution: B The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country. AlM’s objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels. The Atal Innovation Mission has following two core functions: Entrepreneurship promotion through Self-Employment and Talent Utilization, wherein innovators would be supported and mentored to become successful entrepreneurs. Innovation promotion: to provide a platform where innovative ideas are generated.

#### 32. Question

Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) has been initiated by:

• (a) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

• (b) NITI aayog

• (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

• (d) Ministry of Human Resource Development

Solution: B

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.

AlM’s objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels.

The Atal Innovation Mission has following two core functions:

• Entrepreneurship promotion through Self-Employment and Talent Utilization, wherein innovators would be supported and mentored to become successful entrepreneurs.

• Innovation promotion: to provide a platform where innovative ideas are generated.

Solution: B

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.

AlM’s objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels.

The Atal Innovation Mission has following two core functions:

• Entrepreneurship promotion through Self-Employment and Talent Utilization, wherein innovators would be supported and mentored to become successful entrepreneurs.

• Innovation promotion: to provide a platform where innovative ideas are generated.

• Question 33 of 59 33. Question 1 points With reference to the ‘Thermoplastics’, consider the following statements: Thermoplastic materials have very high melting points. Thermoplastics can be remolded and recycled without negatively affecting the material’s physical properties. PVC is an example of thermoplastic. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B A thermoplastic is a material, usually a plastic polymer, which becomes soft when heated and hard when cooled. They have very low melting point. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Thermoplastic materials can be cooled and heated several times without any change in their chemistry or mechanical properties. When thermoplastics are heated, they melt to a liquid. They freeze to a glassy state when cooled enough. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Thermoplastic materials have many features. Some products made from thermoplastic materials are used for electronic applications. They protect against electrostatic discharge and radio frequency interference. Thermoplastics are one of the main two types of plastics. Thermoplastic can be moulded into any shape. Thermoplastics differ from thermosetting polymers. Thermosets form irreversible chemical bonds during the curing process. The most produced plastics are: Polyethylene (PE), Polypropylene, Polyvinyl chloride (PVC). Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B A thermoplastic is a material, usually a plastic polymer, which becomes soft when heated and hard when cooled. They have very low melting point. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Thermoplastic materials can be cooled and heated several times without any change in their chemistry or mechanical properties. When thermoplastics are heated, they melt to a liquid. They freeze to a glassy state when cooled enough. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Thermoplastic materials have many features. Some products made from thermoplastic materials are used for electronic applications. They protect against electrostatic discharge and radio frequency interference. Thermoplastics are one of the main two types of plastics. Thermoplastic can be moulded into any shape. Thermoplastics differ from thermosetting polymers. Thermosets form irreversible chemical bonds during the curing process. The most produced plastics are: Polyethylene (PE), Polypropylene, Polyvinyl chloride (PVC). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 33. Question

With reference to the ‘Thermoplastics’, consider the following statements:

• Thermoplastic materials have very high melting points.

• Thermoplastics can be remolded and recycled without negatively affecting the material’s physical properties.

• PVC is an example of thermoplastic.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

A thermoplastic is a material, usually a plastic polymer, which becomes soft when heated and hard when cooled. They have very low melting point. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Thermoplastic materials can be cooled and heated several times without any change in their chemistry or mechanical properties. When thermoplastics are heated, they melt to a liquid. They freeze to a glassy state when cooled enough. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Thermoplastic materials have many features. Some products made from thermoplastic materials are used for electronic applications. They protect against electrostatic discharge and radio frequency interference. Thermoplastics are one of the main two types of plastics.

Thermoplastic can be moulded into any shape. Thermoplastics differ from thermosetting polymers. Thermosets form irreversible chemical bonds during the curing process.

The most produced plastics are: Polyethylene (PE), Polypropylene, Polyvinyl chloride (PVC). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: B

A thermoplastic is a material, usually a plastic polymer, which becomes soft when heated and hard when cooled. They have very low melting point. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Thermoplastic can be moulded into any shape. Thermoplastics differ from thermosetting polymers. Thermosets form irreversible chemical bonds during the curing process.

The most produced plastics are: Polyethylene (PE), Polypropylene, Polyvinyl chloride (PVC). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 34 of 59 34. Question 1 points Consider the following provisions regarding Outer Space Treaty: States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both the statements are correct. Outer Space Treaty (OST) treaty entered into force in October 1967. The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following principles: Exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all mankind; Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States; Outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means; States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner; Incorrect Solution: C Both the statements are correct. Outer Space Treaty (OST) treaty entered into force in October 1967. The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following principles: Exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all mankind; Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States; Outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means; States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner;

#### 34. Question

Consider the following provisions regarding Outer Space Treaty:

• States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner

• Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

Outer Space Treaty (OST) treaty entered into force in October 1967.

The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following principles:

• Exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all mankind;

• Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States;

• Outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means;

States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner;

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

Outer Space Treaty (OST) treaty entered into force in October 1967.

The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following principles:

• Exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all mankind;

• Outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States;

• Outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means;

States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner;

• Question 35 of 59 35. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding ISRO’s SpaDeX Mission: The mission aims to demonstrate in-space rendezvous, docking, and undocking using two indigenously developed spacecraft in low Earth orbit. The SpaDeX mission will contribute to critical capabilities for India’s future missions such as sample return from Mars and Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS). The SpaDeX spacecraft has been launched by GSLV-Mk III into a geostationary orbit for docking demonstration. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1: Correct SpaDeX is a technology demonstrator mission to develop and test autonomous docking and rendezvous capability. It uses two small spacecraft (~220 kg each), named SDX01 (Chaser) and SDX02 (Target), in low Earth orbit (LEO). Statement 2: Correct This technology is crucial for complex future missions like: Human landing on the Moon Sample return missions Construction and operation of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) Statement 3: Incorrect The launch vehicle is PSLV-C60, not GSLV Mk III. Orbit: 470 km circular LEO, not geostationary orbit. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1: Correct SpaDeX is a technology demonstrator mission to develop and test autonomous docking and rendezvous capability. It uses two small spacecraft (~220 kg each), named SDX01 (Chaser) and SDX02 (Target), in low Earth orbit (LEO). Statement 2: Correct This technology is crucial for complex future missions like: Human landing on the Moon Sample return missions Construction and operation of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) Statement 3: Incorrect The launch vehicle is PSLV-C60, not GSLV Mk III. Orbit: 470 km circular LEO, not geostationary orbit.

#### 35. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ISRO’s SpaDeX Mission:

• The mission aims to demonstrate in-space rendezvous, docking, and undocking using two indigenously developed spacecraft in low Earth orbit.

• The SpaDeX mission will contribute to critical capabilities for India’s future missions such as sample return from Mars and Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS).

• The SpaDeX spacecraft has been launched by GSLV-Mk III into a geostationary orbit for docking demonstration.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1: Correct

• SpaDeX is a technology demonstrator mission to develop and test autonomous docking and rendezvous capability.

• It uses two small spacecraft (~220 kg each), named SDX01 (Chaser) and SDX02 (Target), in low Earth orbit (LEO).

Statement 2: Correct

• This technology is crucial for complex future missions like: Human landing on the Moon Sample return missions Construction and operation of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS)

• Human landing on the Moon

• Sample return missions

• Construction and operation of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS)

Statement 3: Incorrect

• The launch vehicle is PSLV-C60, not GSLV Mk III.

Orbit: 470 km circular LEO, not geostationary orbit.

Solution: B

Statement 1: Correct

• SpaDeX is a technology demonstrator mission to develop and test autonomous docking and rendezvous capability.

• It uses two small spacecraft (~220 kg each), named SDX01 (Chaser) and SDX02 (Target), in low Earth orbit (LEO).

Statement 2: Correct

• This technology is crucial for complex future missions like: Human landing on the Moon Sample return missions Construction and operation of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS)

• Human landing on the Moon

• Sample return missions

• Construction and operation of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS)

Statement 3: Incorrect

• The launch vehicle is PSLV-C60, not GSLV Mk III.

Orbit: 470 km circular LEO, not geostationary orbit.

• Question 36 of 59 36. Question 1 points With reference to the GPS-aided Geo augmented navigation (GAGAN), consider the following statements: It is a joint satellite-based augmentation system project between ISRO and Airports Authority of India. It is inter-operable with other international SBAS systems like US-WAAS and European EGNOS. GAGAN GEO footprint extends from Africa to Australia and has expansion capability for seamless navigation services across the region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) and Airports Authority of India (AAI) have implemented the GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation-GAGAN project as a Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) for the Indian Airspace. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The objective of GAGAN to establish, deploy and certify satellite-based augmentation system for safety-of-life civil aviation applications in India has been successfully completed. The system is inter-operable with other international SBAS systems like US-WAAS, European EGNOS, and Japanese MSAS etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct. GAGAN GEO footprint extends from Africa to Australia and has expansion capability for seamless navigation services across the region. GAGAN provides the additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary for all phases of flight, from enroute through approach for all qualified airports within the GAGAN service volume. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: D The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) and Airports Authority of India (AAI) have implemented the GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation-GAGAN project as a Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) for the Indian Airspace. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The objective of GAGAN to establish, deploy and certify satellite-based augmentation system for safety-of-life civil aviation applications in India has been successfully completed. The system is inter-operable with other international SBAS systems like US-WAAS, European EGNOS, and Japanese MSAS etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct. GAGAN GEO footprint extends from Africa to Australia and has expansion capability for seamless navigation services across the region. GAGAN provides the additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary for all phases of flight, from enroute through approach for all qualified airports within the GAGAN service volume. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 36. Question

With reference to the GPS-aided Geo augmented navigation (GAGAN), consider the following statements:

• It is a joint satellite-based augmentation system project between ISRO and Airports Authority of India.

• It is inter-operable with other international SBAS systems like US-WAAS and European EGNOS.

• GAGAN GEO footprint extends from Africa to Australia and has expansion capability for seamless navigation services across the region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) and Airports Authority of India (AAI) have implemented the GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation-GAGAN project as a Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) for the Indian Airspace. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The objective of GAGAN to establish, deploy and certify satellite-based augmentation system for safety-of-life civil aviation applications in India has been successfully completed. The system is inter-operable with other international SBAS systems like US-WAAS, European EGNOS, and Japanese MSAS etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

GAGAN GEO footprint extends from Africa to Australia and has expansion capability for seamless navigation services across the region. GAGAN provides the additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary for all phases of flight, from enroute through approach for all qualified airports within the GAGAN service volume. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: D

• Question 37 of 59 37. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Low Temperature Thermal Desalination (LTTD) technology: It is a process under which the warm surface sea water is flash evaporated at low pressure and the vapour is condensed with cold deep-sea water. LTTD technology does not require any chemical pre- and post-treatment of seawater. It is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The LTTD is a process under which the warm surface sea water is flash evaporated at low pressure and the vapour is condensed with cold deep sea water. The LTTD technology does not require any chemical pre and post-treatment of seawater and thus the pollution problems are minimal and suitable for island territories. Since no effluent treatment is required, it gives less operational maintenance problems compared to other desalination processes. Hence, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. The LTTD technology is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: D The LTTD is a process under which the warm surface sea water is flash evaporated at low pressure and the vapour is condensed with cold deep sea water. The LTTD technology does not require any chemical pre and post-treatment of seawater and thus the pollution problems are minimal and suitable for island territories. Since no effluent treatment is required, it gives less operational maintenance problems compared to other desalination processes. Hence, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. The LTTD technology is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 37. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Low Temperature Thermal Desalination (LTTD) technology:

• It is a process under which the warm surface sea water is flash evaporated at low pressure and the vapour is condensed with cold deep-sea water.

• LTTD technology does not require any chemical pre- and post-treatment of seawater.

• It is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

The LTTD is a process under which the warm surface sea water is flash evaporated at low pressure and the vapour is condensed with cold deep sea water. The LTTD technology does not require any chemical pre and post-treatment of seawater and thus the pollution problems are minimal and suitable for island territories. Since no effluent treatment is required, it gives less operational maintenance problems compared to other desalination processes. Hence, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

The LTTD technology is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: D

The LTTD technology is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 38 of 59 38. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Retroviruses are any of a group of RNA viruses which insert a DNA copy of their genome into the host cell in order to replicate. HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is an example for retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements given above are correct. Retrovirus is a type of virus that uses RNA as its genetic material. After infecting a cell, a retrovirus uses an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA into DNA. The retrovirus then integrates its viral DNA into the DNA of the host cell, which allows the retrovirus to replicate. HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is a retrovirus. Antiretroviral drugs are medications for the treatment of infection by retroviruses, primarily HIV. Different classes of antiretroviral drugs act at different stages of the HIV life cycle. Combination of several (typically three or four) antiretroviral drugs is known as Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART). Incorrect Solution: C Both statements given above are correct. Retrovirus is a type of virus that uses RNA as its genetic material. After infecting a cell, a retrovirus uses an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA into DNA. The retrovirus then integrates its viral DNA into the DNA of the host cell, which allows the retrovirus to replicate. HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is a retrovirus. Antiretroviral drugs are medications for the treatment of infection by retroviruses, primarily HIV. Different classes of antiretroviral drugs act at different stages of the HIV life cycle. Combination of several (typically three or four) antiretroviral drugs is known as Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART).

#### 38. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Retroviruses are any of a group of RNA viruses which insert a DNA copy of their genome into the host cell in order to replicate.

• HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is an example for retrovirus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both statements given above are correct.

Retrovirus is a type of virus that uses RNA as its genetic material. After infecting a cell, a retrovirus uses an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA into DNA. The retrovirus then integrates its viral DNA into the DNA of the host cell, which allows the retrovirus to replicate. HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is a retrovirus.

Antiretroviral drugs are medications for the treatment of infection by retroviruses, primarily HIV.

Different classes of antiretroviral drugs act at different stages of the HIV life cycle.

Combination of several (typically three or four) antiretroviral drugs is known as Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART).

Solution: C

Both statements given above are correct.

Antiretroviral drugs are medications for the treatment of infection by retroviruses, primarily HIV.

Different classes of antiretroviral drugs act at different stages of the HIV life cycle.

Combination of several (typically three or four) antiretroviral drugs is known as Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART).

• Question 39 of 59 39. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Senescent cells: It is a type of stem cells. It produces high number of nucleotides that builds DNA Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Both the statements are incorrect. Senescent cells are the opposite of stem cells, they can never divide again. New research finds that ageing, senescent cells stop producing nucleotides, the building block of DNA. When young cells were prevented from producing nucleotides, the cells became senescent. Incorrect Solution: D Both the statements are incorrect. Senescent cells are the opposite of stem cells, they can never divide again. New research finds that ageing, senescent cells stop producing nucleotides, the building block of DNA. When young cells were prevented from producing nucleotides, the cells became senescent.

#### 39. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Senescent cells:

• It is a type of stem cells.

• It produces high number of nucleotides that builds DNA

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

Both the statements are incorrect.

Senescent cells are the opposite of stem cells, they can never divide again. New research finds that ageing, senescent cells stop producing nucleotides, the building block of DNA. When young cells were prevented from producing nucleotides, the cells became senescent.

Solution: D

Both the statements are incorrect.

• Question 40 of 59 40. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Soil based Microbial Fuel Cells: These depend on electrons from bacteria to create an electric circuit. These can be used to fuel underground sensors used in green infrastructures. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C A team led by North Western University developed a new fuel cell that can harvest energy from microbes living in the soil. Instead of using chemicals to generate electricity, they harvest electricity from bacteria that naturally give out electrons to nearby conductors. These electrons flow from anodo to cathode to create an electric circuit It can last forever as long as there is organic carbon in the soil for the microbes to break down. This will generate power with the help of microbes in the soil and can potentially be used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture application The fuel is around the size of a book and can potentially be used to fuel sensors used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture. It could become a sustainable, renewable alternative to toxic chemicals that could lead into the ground when used in soil. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C A team led by North Western University developed a new fuel cell that can harvest energy from microbes living in the soil. Instead of using chemicals to generate electricity, they harvest electricity from bacteria that naturally give out electrons to nearby conductors. These electrons flow from anodo to cathode to create an electric circuit It can last forever as long as there is organic carbon in the soil for the microbes to break down. This will generate power with the help of microbes in the soil and can potentially be used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture application The fuel is around the size of a book and can potentially be used to fuel sensors used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture. It could become a sustainable, renewable alternative to toxic chemicals that could lead into the ground when used in soil. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 40. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Soil based Microbial Fuel Cells:

• These depend on electrons from bacteria to create an electric circuit.

• These can be used to fuel underground sensors used in green infrastructures.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• A team led by North Western University developed a new fuel cell that can harvest energy from microbes living in the soil.

• Instead of using chemicals to generate electricity, they harvest electricity from bacteria that naturally give out electrons to nearby conductors.

• These electrons flow from anodo to cathode to create an electric circuit

• It can last forever as long as there is organic carbon in the soil for the microbes to break down.

• This will generate power with the help of microbes in the soil and can potentially be used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture application

• The fuel is around the size of a book and can potentially be used to fuel sensors used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture.

• It could become a sustainable, renewable alternative to toxic chemicals that could lead into the ground when used in soil.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• A team led by North Western University developed a new fuel cell that can harvest energy from microbes living in the soil.

• Instead of using chemicals to generate electricity, they harvest electricity from bacteria that naturally give out electrons to nearby conductors.

• These electrons flow from anodo to cathode to create an electric circuit

• It can last forever as long as there is organic carbon in the soil for the microbes to break down.

• This will generate power with the help of microbes in the soil and can potentially be used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture application

• The fuel is around the size of a book and can potentially be used to fuel sensors used in green infrastructure and precision agriculture.

• It could become a sustainable, renewable alternative to toxic chemicals that could lead into the ground when used in soil.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Question 41 of 59 41. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Liquefied Natural Gas is a mixture of methane and hydrocarbons. LNG is used as a Marine fuel due to lower emission of sulphur oxides compared to traditional Marine fuels. The first ever Small Scale Liquefied Natural Gas (SSLNG) unit of India has been set up by Oil India Limited. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: D The major component of natural gas is methane which typically accounts for 70% to 90% of its composition Natural gas also contains small number of other hydrocarbons including ethane, propane and butane. Liquefied natural gas is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state about -162°C, to make it easier and safer to store and transport Hence statement 1 is correct LNG has several applications including as a fuel for trucks, buses and other vehicles offering reduced emissions of Nitrogen oxides, particulate matter and other Greenhouse gases compared to diesel. LNG is increasingly used as a fuel for ships and vessels, especially in emission-controlled areas due to its lower emissions of sulphur oxides and particulate matter compared to traditional Marine fuels. Hence statement 2 is correct Recently, the Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas inaugurated India’s first Small Scale Liquefied Natural Gas unit at GAIL India Limited’s Vijaypur complex in Madhya Pradesh. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The major component of natural gas is methane which typically accounts for 70% to 90% of its composition Natural gas also contains small number of other hydrocarbons including ethane, propane and butane. Liquefied natural gas is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state about -162°C, to make it easier and safer to store and transport Hence statement 1 is correct LNG has several applications including as a fuel for trucks, buses and other vehicles offering reduced emissions of Nitrogen oxides, particulate matter and other Greenhouse gases compared to diesel. LNG is increasingly used as a fuel for ships and vessels, especially in emission-controlled areas due to its lower emissions of sulphur oxides and particulate matter compared to traditional Marine fuels. Hence statement 2 is correct Recently, the Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas inaugurated India’s first Small Scale Liquefied Natural Gas unit at GAIL India Limited’s Vijaypur complex in Madhya Pradesh. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 41. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Liquefied Natural Gas is a mixture of methane and hydrocarbons.

• LNG is used as a Marine fuel due to lower emission of sulphur oxides compared to traditional Marine fuels.

• The first ever Small Scale Liquefied Natural Gas (SSLNG) unit of India has been set up by Oil India Limited.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: D

• The major component of natural gas is methane which typically accounts for 70% to 90% of its composition

• Natural gas also contains small number of other hydrocarbons including ethane, propane and butane.

• Liquefied natural gas is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state about -162°C, to make it easier and safer to store and transport

Hence statement 1 is correct

• LNG has several applications including as a fuel for trucks, buses and other vehicles offering reduced emissions of Nitrogen oxides, particulate matter and other Greenhouse gases compared to diesel.

• LNG is increasingly used as a fuel for ships and vessels, especially in emission-controlled areas due to its lower emissions of sulphur oxides and particulate matter compared to traditional Marine fuels.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Recently, the Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas inaugurated India’s first Small Scale Liquefied Natural Gas unit at GAIL India Limited’s Vijaypur complex in Madhya Pradesh.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: D

• The major component of natural gas is methane which typically accounts for 70% to 90% of its composition

• Natural gas also contains small number of other hydrocarbons including ethane, propane and butane.

• Liquefied natural gas is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state about -162°C, to make it easier and safer to store and transport

Hence statement 1 is correct

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Recently, the Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas inaugurated India’s first Small Scale Liquefied Natural Gas unit at GAIL India Limited’s Vijaypur complex in Madhya Pradesh.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 42 of 59 42. Question 1 points The First ever Nuclear Energy Summit was Organised in 2024 by: (a) International Atomic Energy Agency (b) International Renewable Energy Agency (c) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (d) International Energy Agency Correct Solution: A The first Global Nuclear Energy Summit was jointly organised by the International Atomic Energy Agency and Belgium to promote nuclear energy. The Summit was attended by more than 30 Nations including India and European Union. It was organised in the wake of historic inclusion of nuclear energy in the Global stocktake agreed at the UN climate change conference 2023. Inclusion in globalstock called for accelerating its deployment. Currently nuclear energy is responsible for around 25% of global low carbon electricity production. The International Atomic Energy Association is an autonomous International Organisation within the United Nations system; it works with member states and partners worldwide to promote safe, secure and peaceful nuclear Technology. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution: A The first Global Nuclear Energy Summit was jointly organised by the International Atomic Energy Agency and Belgium to promote nuclear energy. The Summit was attended by more than 30 Nations including India and European Union. It was organised in the wake of historic inclusion of nuclear energy in the Global stocktake agreed at the UN climate change conference 2023. Inclusion in globalstock called for accelerating its deployment. Currently nuclear energy is responsible for around 25% of global low carbon electricity production. The International Atomic Energy Association is an autonomous International Organisation within the United Nations system; it works with member states and partners worldwide to promote safe, secure and peaceful nuclear Technology. Hence option A is correct

#### 42. Question

The First ever Nuclear Energy Summit was Organised in 2024 by:

• (a) International Atomic Energy Agency

• (b) International Renewable Energy Agency

• (c) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development

• (d) International Energy Agency

Solution: A

• The first Global Nuclear Energy Summit was jointly organised by the International Atomic Energy Agency and Belgium to promote nuclear energy.

• The Summit was attended by more than 30 Nations including India and European Union.

• It was organised in the wake of historic inclusion of nuclear energy in the Global stocktake agreed at the UN climate change conference 2023.

• Inclusion in globalstock called for accelerating its deployment.

• Currently nuclear energy is responsible for around 25% of global low carbon electricity production.

• The International Atomic Energy Association is an autonomous International Organisation within the United Nations system; it works with member states and partners worldwide to promote safe, secure and peaceful nuclear Technology.

Hence option A is correct

Solution: A

• The first Global Nuclear Energy Summit was jointly organised by the International Atomic Energy Agency and Belgium to promote nuclear energy.

• The Summit was attended by more than 30 Nations including India and European Union.

• It was organised in the wake of historic inclusion of nuclear energy in the Global stocktake agreed at the UN climate change conference 2023.

• Inclusion in globalstock called for accelerating its deployment.

• Currently nuclear energy is responsible for around 25% of global low carbon electricity production.

Hence option A is correct

• Question 43 of 59 43. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Unlike Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors, Fast Breeder Reactors (FBR) use neutrons with high kinetic energy for fission reaction. FBRs employ a mixture of Uranium and Plutonium as fuel for the reaction. FBRs are envisaged as means of full utilisation of Thorium reserves of India. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors are fuelled by natural Uranium to generate electricity; plutonium is generated as a by product which is extracted to create a Uranium -Plutonium mixed oxide fuel; this is subsequently used as a fuel for Fast Breeder Reactor. The word Fast comes from the fact that FBRs use fast neutrons for the fission reaction instead of slow neutrons traditionally employed by PHWRs. Fast neutron is a free neutron with high kinetic energy level of 1MeV; while slow neutrons are those with low kinetic energy typically below 1 electron volt. In FRBs, The Uranium 238 blanket surrounding the fuel core will undergo nuclear transmutation to produce more fuel, thus earning the name breeder The use of Thorium 232 which in itself is not a fissile material, as a blanket, is also envisaged in this second stage By transmutation Thorium will create fissile Uranium 233 which will be used as a fuel in the third stage nuclear program of India. FBR is thus a stepping stone for the third stage of the nuclear program of India paving the way for eventual full utilisation of abundant Thorium Reserves of the country. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors are fuelled by natural Uranium to generate electricity; plutonium is generated as a by product which is extracted to create a Uranium -Plutonium mixed oxide fuel; this is subsequently used as a fuel for Fast Breeder Reactor. The word Fast comes from the fact that FBRs use fast neutrons for the fission reaction instead of slow neutrons traditionally employed by PHWRs. Fast neutron is a free neutron with high kinetic energy level of 1MeV; while slow neutrons are those with low kinetic energy typically below 1 electron volt. In FRBs, The Uranium 238 blanket surrounding the fuel core will undergo nuclear transmutation to produce more fuel, thus earning the name breeder The use of Thorium 232 which in itself is not a fissile material, as a blanket, is also envisaged in this second stage By transmutation Thorium will create fissile Uranium 233 which will be used as a fuel in the third stage nuclear program of India. FBR is thus a stepping stone for the third stage of the nuclear program of India paving the way for eventual full utilisation of abundant Thorium Reserves of the country. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 43. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Unlike Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors, Fast Breeder Reactors (FBR) use neutrons with high kinetic energy for fission reaction.

• FBRs employ a mixture of Uranium and Plutonium as fuel for the reaction.

• FBRs are envisaged as means of full utilisation of Thorium reserves of India.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors are fuelled by natural Uranium to generate electricity; plutonium is generated as a by product which is extracted to create a Uranium -Plutonium mixed oxide fuel; this is subsequently used as a fuel for Fast Breeder Reactor.

• The word Fast comes from the fact that FBRs use fast neutrons for the fission reaction instead of slow neutrons traditionally employed by PHWRs.

• Fast neutron is a free neutron with high kinetic energy level of 1MeV; while slow neutrons are those with low kinetic energy typically below 1 electron volt.

• In FRBs, The Uranium 238 blanket surrounding the fuel core will undergo nuclear transmutation to produce more fuel, thus earning the name breeder

• The use of Thorium 232 which in itself is not a fissile material, as a blanket, is also envisaged in this second stage

• By transmutation Thorium will create fissile Uranium 233 which will be used as a fuel in the third stage nuclear program of India.

• FBR is thus a stepping stone for the third stage of the nuclear program of India paving the way for eventual full utilisation of abundant Thorium Reserves of the country.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

• The word Fast comes from the fact that FBRs use fast neutrons for the fission reaction instead of slow neutrons traditionally employed by PHWRs.

• Fast neutron is a free neutron with high kinetic energy level of 1MeV; while slow neutrons are those with low kinetic energy typically below 1 electron volt.

• In FRBs, The Uranium 238 blanket surrounding the fuel core will undergo nuclear transmutation to produce more fuel, thus earning the name breeder

• The use of Thorium 232 which in itself is not a fissile material, as a blanket, is also envisaged in this second stage

• By transmutation Thorium will create fissile Uranium 233 which will be used as a fuel in the third stage nuclear program of India.

• FBR is thus a stepping stone for the third stage of the nuclear program of India paving the way for eventual full utilisation of abundant Thorium Reserves of the country.

Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 44 of 59 44. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to the Anusandhan National Research Foundation: It is a statutory body chaired by the Prime Minister of India. The Science and Engineering Research Board has been subsumed into ANRF. Under the Early Career Research Grant, ANRF will provide grant of upto Rs 60 lakhs for a period of 3 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The Anusandhan National Research Foundation has been established with the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act 2023. It aims to promote research and development and foster a culture of research and innovation throughout universities, colleges and laboratories in the country. It will act as an Apex body to provide high level strategic direction of scientific research under recommendations of the National Education Policy. Under the guidance of Prime Minister, the president of its governing Board, the foundation is set to commence several new initiatives to string them Research and innovation ecosystem in the country. With establishment of ANRF, the Science and Engineering Research Board established by an act of parliament in 2008 has been subsumed into ANRF. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct ANRF is initiating Prime Minister’s Early Career Research Grant to assist researchers to initiate their research career in a new institution with a flexible budget and progressive initiatives for ease of doing research Under it research grant of upto Rs 60 lakhs plus overheads for a period of 3 years will be provided. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: D The Anusandhan National Research Foundation has been established with the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act 2023. It aims to promote research and development and foster a culture of research and innovation throughout universities, colleges and laboratories in the country. It will act as an Apex body to provide high level strategic direction of scientific research under recommendations of the National Education Policy. Under the guidance of Prime Minister, the president of its governing Board, the foundation is set to commence several new initiatives to string them Research and innovation ecosystem in the country. With establishment of ANRF, the Science and Engineering Research Board established by an act of parliament in 2008 has been subsumed into ANRF. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct ANRF is initiating Prime Minister’s Early Career Research Grant to assist researchers to initiate their research career in a new institution with a flexible budget and progressive initiatives for ease of doing research Under it research grant of upto Rs 60 lakhs plus overheads for a period of 3 years will be provided. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 44. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to the Anusandhan National Research Foundation:

• It is a statutory body chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

• The Science and Engineering Research Board has been subsumed into ANRF.

• Under the Early Career Research Grant, ANRF will provide grant of upto Rs 60 lakhs for a period of 3 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• The Anusandhan National Research Foundation has been established with the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act 2023.

• It aims to promote research and development and foster a culture of research and innovation throughout universities, colleges and laboratories in the country.

• It will act as an Apex body to provide high level strategic direction of scientific research under recommendations of the National Education Policy.

• Under the guidance of Prime Minister, the president of its governing Board, the foundation is set to commence several new initiatives to string them Research and innovation ecosystem in the country.

• With establishment of ANRF, the Science and Engineering Research Board established by an act of parliament in 2008 has been subsumed into ANRF.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• ANRF is initiating Prime Minister’s Early Career Research Grant to assist researchers to initiate their research career in a new institution with a flexible budget and progressive initiatives for ease of doing research

• Under it research grant of upto Rs 60 lakhs plus overheads for a period of 3 years will be provided.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: D

• The Anusandhan National Research Foundation has been established with the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act 2023.

• It aims to promote research and development and foster a culture of research and innovation throughout universities, colleges and laboratories in the country.

• It will act as an Apex body to provide high level strategic direction of scientific research under recommendations of the National Education Policy.

• With establishment of ANRF, the Science and Engineering Research Board established by an act of parliament in 2008 has been subsumed into ANRF.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Under it research grant of upto Rs 60 lakhs plus overheads for a period of 3 years will be provided.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 45 of 59 45. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Small Reactors: Bharat Small Reactors (BSRs) are an upgrade of India’s existing 220 MW Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR) technology. Unlike Small Modular Reactors (SMRs), BSRs are factory-fabricated and designed for rapid on-site assembly to reduce construction time. The deployment of around 40–50 BSRs is expected to add approximately 10 GW to India’s nuclear power capacity in the coming decade. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B BSRs are based on proven 220 MW PHWR designs, like those used at Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) in Kalpakkam. These are being upgraded and repurposed for use as captive power plants in industries and to support India’s clean energy goals. (Hence statement 1 is correct) BSR are *not factory-built or modular; they are conventional site-built PHWRs. SMRs, like those gaining traction globally, are the ones fabricated in factories and assembled on-site. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Each BSR = ~220 MW → 40–50 reactors would generate ~10–11 GW. This aligns with India’s energy transition goals and net-zero targets by 2070. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Incorrect Solution: B BSRs are based on proven 220 MW PHWR designs, like those used at Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) in Kalpakkam. These are being upgraded and repurposed for use as captive power plants in industries and to support India’s clean energy goals. (Hence statement 1 is correct) BSR are not factory-built or modular; they are conventional site-built PHWRs. SMRs, like those gaining traction globally, are the ones fabricated in factories and assembled on-site. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Each BSR = ~220 MW → 40–50 reactors would generate ~10–11 GW. This aligns with India’s energy transition goals and net-zero targets by 2070. (Hence statement 3 is correct*)

#### 45. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Small Reactors:

• Bharat Small Reactors (BSRs) are an upgrade of India’s existing 220 MW Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR) technology.

• Unlike Small Modular Reactors (SMRs), BSRs are factory-fabricated and designed for rapid on-site assembly to reduce construction time.

• The deployment of around 40–50 BSRs is expected to add approximately 10 GW to India’s nuclear power capacity in the coming decade.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• BSRs are based on proven 220 MW PHWR designs, like those used at Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) in Kalpakkam.

• These are being upgraded and repurposed for use as captive power plants in industries and to support India’s clean energy goals. (Hence statement 1 is correct)

• BSR are *not factory-built* or modular; they are conventional site-built PHWRs.

• SMRs, like those gaining traction globally, are the ones fabricated in factories and assembled on-site. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)

• Each BSR = ~220 MW → 40–50 reactors would generate ~10–11 GW.

• This aligns with India’s energy transition goals and net-zero targets by 2070. (Hence statement 3 is correct)

Solution: B

• BSRs are based on proven 220 MW PHWR designs, like those used at Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) in Kalpakkam.

• These are being upgraded and repurposed for use as captive power plants in industries and to support India’s clean energy goals. (Hence statement 1 is correct)

• BSR are *not factory-built* or modular; they are conventional site-built PHWRs.

• SMRs, like those gaining traction globally, are the ones fabricated in factories and assembled on-site. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)

• Each BSR = ~220 MW → 40–50 reactors would generate ~10–11 GW.

• This aligns with India’s energy transition goals and net-zero targets by 2070. (Hence statement 3 is correct)

• Question 46 of 59 46. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Tribo- Electric Nanogenerator Technology: It is associated with generation of electricity from human motion. It can feature GPS technology for real time tracking of individuals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Recently IIT Indore has developed advanced footwear for the armed forces integrating Tribo- Electric Nanogenerator Technology that generates electricity from human motion The Tribo-electric nanogenerators are devices capable of converting mechanical movement into electrical energy. This innovation powers small electronic devices and features GPS and RFID Technology for real time tracking of soldiers, enhancing safety and operational efficiency These shoes have potential application in tracking old people, in industrial setups, athletic sectors, offering benefits like Location tracking and performance analysis of individuals. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Recently IIT Indore has developed advanced footwear for the armed forces integrating Tribo- Electric Nanogenerator Technology that generates electricity from human motion The Tribo-electric nanogenerators are devices capable of converting mechanical movement into electrical energy. This innovation powers small electronic devices and features GPS and RFID Technology for real time tracking of soldiers, enhancing safety and operational efficiency These shoes have potential application in tracking old people, in industrial setups, athletic sectors, offering benefits like Location tracking and performance analysis of individuals. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 46. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Tribo- Electric Nanogenerator Technology:

• It is associated with generation of electricity from human motion.

• It can feature GPS technology for real time tracking of individuals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Recently IIT Indore has developed advanced footwear for the armed forces integrating Tribo- Electric Nanogenerator Technology that generates electricity from human motion

• The Tribo-electric nanogenerators are devices capable of converting mechanical movement into electrical energy.

• This innovation powers small electronic devices and features GPS and RFID Technology for real time tracking of soldiers, enhancing safety and operational efficiency

• These shoes have potential application in tracking old people, in industrial setups, athletic sectors, offering benefits like Location tracking and performance analysis of individuals.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• Recently IIT Indore has developed advanced footwear for the armed forces integrating Tribo- Electric Nanogenerator Technology that generates electricity from human motion

• The Tribo-electric nanogenerators are devices capable of converting mechanical movement into electrical energy.

• This innovation powers small electronic devices and features GPS and RFID Technology for real time tracking of soldiers, enhancing safety and operational efficiency

• These shoes have potential application in tracking old people, in industrial setups, athletic sectors, offering benefits like Location tracking and performance analysis of individuals.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Question 47 of 59 47. Question 1 points The term Tokamak is sometimes seen in news; which of the following best describes it? (a) A reaction to increase half life of radioactive materials (b) A machine to convert non-radioactive elements to radioactive ones through artificial transmutation process (c) A nuclear reactor designed to produce recyclable nuclear waste (d) An experimental machine designed to harness the energy of fusion reaction Correct Solution: D The Tokamak is designed as an experimental machine designed to harness the energy of fusion; inside a Tokamak, a fusion plasma is created and confined by strong magnetic fields. The energy produced through the fusion of atoms in the plasma is absorbed as heat in the walls of the vessel. Just like a conventional power plant, a fusion Power plant will use this heat to produce steam and then electricity by way of turbines and generators. The heart of a Tokamak is a doughnut shaped vacuum chamber. Inside, under the influence of extreme heat and pressure, a gaseous hydrogen fuel becomes a plasma- a hot electrically charged gas. In a star, as in a fusion device, plasmas provide the environment in which light elements can fuse and yield energy. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D The Tokamak is designed as an experimental machine designed to harness the energy of fusion; inside a Tokamak, a fusion plasma is created and confined by strong magnetic fields. The energy produced through the fusion of atoms in the plasma is absorbed as heat in the walls of the vessel. Just like a conventional power plant, a fusion Power plant will use this heat to produce steam and then electricity by way of turbines and generators. The heart of a Tokamak is a doughnut shaped vacuum chamber. Inside, under the influence of extreme heat and pressure, a gaseous hydrogen fuel becomes a plasma- a hot electrically charged gas. In a star, as in a fusion device, plasmas provide the environment in which light elements can fuse and yield energy. Hence option D is correct

#### 47. Question

The term Tokamak is sometimes seen in news; which of the following best describes it?

• (a) A reaction to increase half life of radioactive materials

• (b) A machine to convert non-radioactive elements to radioactive ones through artificial transmutation process

• (c) A nuclear reactor designed to produce recyclable nuclear waste

• (d) An experimental machine designed to harness the energy of fusion reaction

Solution: D

• The Tokamak is designed as an experimental machine designed to harness the energy of fusion; inside a Tokamak, a fusion plasma is created and confined by strong magnetic fields.

• The energy produced through the fusion of atoms in the plasma is absorbed as heat in the walls of the vessel.

• Just like a conventional power plant, a fusion Power plant will use this heat to produce steam and then electricity by way of turbines and generators.

• The heart of a Tokamak is a doughnut shaped vacuum chamber.

• Inside, under the influence of extreme heat and pressure, a gaseous hydrogen fuel becomes a plasma- a hot electrically charged gas.

• In a star, as in a fusion device, plasmas provide the environment in which light elements can fuse and yield energy.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• The Tokamak is designed as an experimental machine designed to harness the energy of fusion; inside a Tokamak, a fusion plasma is created and confined by strong magnetic fields.

• The energy produced through the fusion of atoms in the plasma is absorbed as heat in the walls of the vessel.

• Just like a conventional power plant, a fusion Power plant will use this heat to produce steam and then electricity by way of turbines and generators.

• The heart of a Tokamak is a doughnut shaped vacuum chamber.

• Inside, under the influence of extreme heat and pressure, a gaseous hydrogen fuel becomes a plasma- a hot electrically charged gas.

• In a star, as in a fusion device, plasmas provide the environment in which light elements can fuse and yield energy.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 48 of 59 48. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: In a Gravity Energy Storage system electrical energy is converted into gravitational potential energy. Statement – II: Gravity Energy Storage system works by lifting of heavy mass during periods of excess energy generation and releasing it during rise in energy demand. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: A In a gravity energy storage system, electrical energy is converted into gravitational potential energy by lifting a heavy (like water, concrete block or compressed earth blocks) to a higher position. When there is excess electrical energy typically from Renewable sources like wind or solar, it is used to lift heavy mass against gravity; this lifting process stores energy as gravitational potential energy. When energy demand rises, the mass is released, descending to drive water through a turbine generating electricity. This system is profitable as it lasts for decades with minimal maintenance compared to battery system; also, it is environmentally friendly as no harmful chemical is used. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1 Incorrect Solution: A In a gravity energy storage system, electrical energy is converted into gravitational potential energy by lifting a heavy (like water, concrete block or compressed earth blocks) to a higher position. When there is excess electrical energy typically from Renewable sources like wind or solar, it is used to lift heavy mass against gravity; this lifting process stores energy as gravitational potential energy. When energy demand rises, the mass is released, descending to drive water through a turbine generating electricity. This system is profitable as it lasts for decades with minimal maintenance compared to battery system; also, it is environmentally friendly as no harmful chemical is used. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

#### 48. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I:

In a Gravity Energy Storage system electrical energy is converted into gravitational potential energy.

Statement – II:

Gravity Energy Storage system works by lifting of heavy mass during periods of excess energy generation and releasing it during rise in energy demand.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: A

• In a gravity energy storage system, electrical energy is converted into gravitational potential energy by lifting a heavy (like water, concrete block or compressed earth blocks) to a higher position.

• When there is excess electrical energy typically from Renewable sources like wind or solar, it is used to lift heavy mass against gravity; this lifting process stores energy as gravitational potential energy.

• When energy demand rises, the mass is released, descending to drive water through a turbine generating electricity.

• This system is profitable as it lasts for decades with minimal maintenance compared to battery system; also, it is environmentally friendly as no harmful chemical is used.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

Solution: A

• When energy demand rises, the mass is released, descending to drive water through a turbine generating electricity.

• This system is profitable as it lasts for decades with minimal maintenance compared to battery system; also, it is environmentally friendly as no harmful chemical is used.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1

• Question 49 of 59 49. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Zinc air batteries rely on atmospheric Oxygen for generating energy. Unlike lithium-ion batteries, zinc air batteries are rechargeable and can only be used in electric vehicles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Zinc air batteries utilise zinc as the anode and oxygen from air as the cathode to generate energy. This type of battery is known for high energy density which makes it an attractive option for various applications including hearing aids and other small electronic devices. Hence statement 1 is correct Zinc air batteries are more environment friendly and lighter due to usage of air; But these are non rechargeable unlike lithium-ion battery that can be recharged. Zinc air batteries are typically single use ones and can be used in hearing aids, military devices while lithium-ion batteries are rechargeable and are used in smartphones and electric vehicles. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Zinc air batteries utilise zinc as the anode and oxygen from air as the cathode to generate energy. This type of battery is known for high energy density which makes it an attractive option for various applications including hearing aids and other small electronic devices. Hence statement 1 is correct Zinc air batteries are more environment friendly and lighter due to usage of air; But these are non rechargeable unlike lithium-ion battery that can be recharged. Zinc air batteries are typically single use ones and can be used in hearing aids, military devices while lithium-ion batteries are rechargeable and are used in smartphones and electric vehicles. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 49. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Zinc air batteries rely on atmospheric Oxygen for generating energy.

• Unlike lithium-ion batteries, zinc air batteries are rechargeable and can only be used in electric vehicles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Zinc air batteries utilise zinc as the anode and oxygen from air as the cathode to generate energy.

• This type of battery is known for high energy density which makes it an attractive option for various applications including hearing aids and other small electronic devices.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Zinc air batteries are more environment friendly and lighter due to usage of air;

• But these are non rechargeable unlike lithium-ion battery that can be recharged.

• Zinc air batteries are typically single use ones and can be used in hearing aids, military devices while lithium-ion batteries are rechargeable and are used in smartphones and electric vehicles.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Zinc air batteries utilise zinc as the anode and oxygen from air as the cathode to generate energy.

• This type of battery is known for high energy density which makes it an attractive option for various applications including hearing aids and other small electronic devices.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Zinc air batteries are more environment friendly and lighter due to usage of air;

• But these are non rechargeable unlike lithium-ion battery that can be recharged.

• Zinc air batteries are typically single use ones and can be used in hearing aids, military devices while lithium-ion batteries are rechargeable and are used in smartphones and electric vehicles.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 50 of 59 50. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Bio-RIDE Scheme: The scheme includes components related to both research & development and industrial entrepreneurship in the biotechnology sector. It aims to promote bio-innovation to address challenges in sectors like healthcare, clean energy, and agriculture. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Bio-RIDE Scheme: Objective: The scheme aims to foster innovation, promote bio-entrepreneurship, and position India as a global leader in biotechnology and biomanufacturing. It seeks to bridge the gap between academic research and industrial application, accelerating innovation and translational research. Components: Biotechnology Research and Development (R&D) Industrial and Entrepreneurship Development (I&ED) Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry (a new component added under this unified scheme) (Hence, Statement 1 is correct) Focus Areas: The scheme targets national and global challenges in healthcare, agriculture, clean energy, and environmental sustainability through bio-innovation. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct) Implementation & Funding: The scheme is not implemented by the Ministry of Environment, but by the Department of Biotechnology, under the Ministry of Science and Technology. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect) Outlay: ₹9197 crore has been allocated under the 15th Finance Commission period (2021–2026). https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2056001 Incorrect Solution: B Bio-RIDE Scheme: Objective: The scheme aims to foster innovation, promote bio-entrepreneurship, and position India as a global leader in biotechnology and biomanufacturing. It seeks to bridge the gap between academic research and industrial application, accelerating innovation and translational research. Components: Biotechnology Research and Development (R&D) Industrial and Entrepreneurship Development (I&ED) Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry (a new component added under this unified scheme) (Hence, Statement 1 is correct) Focus Areas: The scheme targets national and global challenges in healthcare, agriculture, clean energy, and environmental sustainability through bio-innovation. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct) Implementation & Funding: The scheme is not implemented by the Ministry of Environment, but by the Department of Biotechnology, under the Ministry of Science and Technology. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect) Outlay: ₹9197 crore has been allocated under the 15th Finance Commission period (2021–2026). https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2056001

#### 50. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Bio-RIDE Scheme:

• The scheme includes components related to both research & development and industrial entrepreneurship in the biotechnology sector.

• It aims to promote bio-innovation to address challenges in sectors like healthcare, clean energy, and agriculture.

• The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Bio-RIDE Scheme:

• Objective: The scheme aims to foster innovation, promote bio-entrepreneurship, and position India as a global leader in biotechnology and biomanufacturing.

• It seeks to bridge the gap between academic research and industrial application, accelerating innovation and translational research.

• Components: Biotechnology Research and Development (R&D) Industrial and Entrepreneurship Development (I&ED) Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry (a new component added under this unified scheme) (Hence, Statement 1 is correct)

• Biotechnology Research and Development (R&D)

• Industrial and Entrepreneurship Development (I&ED)

• Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry (a new component added under this unified scheme) (Hence, Statement 1 is correct)

• Focus Areas: The scheme targets national and global challenges in healthcare, agriculture, clean energy, and environmental sustainability through bio-innovation. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct)

• Implementation & Funding: The scheme is not implemented by the Ministry of Environment, but by the Department of Biotechnology, under the Ministry of Science and Technology. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect)

• The scheme is not implemented by the Ministry of Environment, but by the Department of Biotechnology, under the Ministry of Science and Technology. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect)

• Outlay: ₹9197 crore has been allocated under the 15th Finance Commission period (2021–2026).

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2056001

Solution: B

Bio-RIDE Scheme:

• Objective: The scheme aims to foster innovation, promote bio-entrepreneurship, and position India as a global leader in biotechnology and biomanufacturing.

• It seeks to bridge the gap between academic research and industrial application, accelerating innovation and translational research.

• Biotechnology Research and Development (R&D)

• Industrial and Entrepreneurship Development (I&ED)

• Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry (a new component added under this unified scheme) (Hence, Statement 1 is correct)

• The scheme is not implemented by the Ministry of Environment, but by the Department of Biotechnology, under the Ministry of Science and Technology. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect)

• Outlay: ₹9197 crore has been allocated under the 15th Finance Commission period (2021–2026).

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2056001

• Question 51 of 59 51. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes “Operation Sadbhav” recently seen in the news (a) A counter-insurgency operation in the northeastern states of India. (b) A military exercise conducted jointly by India and ASEAN nations. (c) A humanitarian relief operation launched by India to assist flood-hit ASEAN countries affected by Typhoon Yagi. (d) An initiative to rehabilitate internally displaced persons in Myanmar. Correct Solution: C Operation Sadbhav Objective: Operation Sadbhav is a humanitarian relief mission launched by the Government of India to support countries affected by Typhoon Yagi, particularly in Southeast Asia. Recipient Countries: India extended assistance to Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam, which were severely impacted by floods caused by the typhoon. Aid Allocation: Vietnam: Received $1 million in humanitarian assistance. Laos: Received $100,000 in relief aid. Implementation: Relief materials such as food, clothing, medicines, and water purification supplies were delivered. The Indian Navy and Air Force were deployed to transport and distribute the relief supplies. Strategic Context: The operation reflects India’s commitment to regional cooperation and its Act East Policy, which emphasizes building closer ties with ASEAN nations. It reinforces India’s role as a responsible regional actor in times of humanitarian crises. (Hence, the correct answer is C) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-sends-assistance-to-flood-hit-laos-myanmar-vietnam/article68646098.ece Incorrect Solution: C Operation Sadbhav Objective: Operation Sadbhav is a humanitarian relief mission launched by the Government of India to support countries affected by Typhoon Yagi, particularly in Southeast Asia. Recipient Countries: India extended assistance to Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam, which were severely impacted by floods caused by the typhoon. Aid Allocation: Vietnam: Received $1 million in humanitarian assistance. Laos: Received $100,000 in relief aid. Implementation: Relief materials such as food, clothing, medicines, and water purification supplies were delivered. The Indian Navy and Air Force were deployed to transport and distribute the relief supplies. Strategic Context: The operation reflects India’s commitment to regional cooperation and its Act East Policy, which emphasizes building closer ties with ASEAN nations. It reinforces India’s role as a responsible regional actor in times of humanitarian crises. (Hence, the correct answer is C) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-sends-assistance-to-flood-hit-laos-myanmar-vietnam/article68646098.ece

#### 51. Question

Which of the following best describes “Operation Sadbhav” recently seen in the news

• (a) A counter-insurgency operation in the northeastern states of India.

• (b) A military exercise conducted jointly by India and ASEAN nations.

• (c) A humanitarian relief operation launched by India to assist flood-hit ASEAN countries affected by Typhoon Yagi.

• (d) An initiative to rehabilitate internally displaced persons in Myanmar.

Solution: C

Operation Sadbhav

• Objective: Operation Sadbhav is a humanitarian relief mission launched by the Government of India to support countries affected by Typhoon Yagi, particularly in Southeast Asia.

• Recipient Countries: India extended assistance to Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam, which were severely impacted by floods caused by the typhoon.

• Aid Allocation: Vietnam: Received $1 million in humanitarian assistance. Laos: Received $100,000 in relief aid.

• Vietnam: Received $1 million in humanitarian assistance.

• Laos: Received $100,000 in relief aid.

• Implementation: Relief materials such as food, clothing, medicines, and water purification supplies were delivered. The Indian Navy and Air Force were deployed to transport and distribute the relief supplies.

• Relief materials such as food, clothing, medicines, and water purification supplies were delivered.

• The Indian Navy and Air Force were deployed to transport and distribute the relief supplies.

• Strategic Context: The operation reflects India’s commitment to regional cooperation and its Act East Policy, which emphasizes building closer ties with ASEAN nations. It reinforces India’s role as a responsible regional actor in times of humanitarian crises. (Hence, the correct answer is C)

• The operation reflects India’s commitment to regional cooperation and its Act East Policy, which emphasizes building closer ties with ASEAN nations.

• It reinforces India’s role as a responsible regional actor in times of humanitarian crises. (Hence, the correct answer is C)

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-sends-assistance-to-flood-hit-laos-myanmar-vietnam/article68646098.ece

Solution: C

Operation Sadbhav

• Objective: Operation Sadbhav is a humanitarian relief mission launched by the Government of India to support countries affected by Typhoon Yagi, particularly in Southeast Asia.

• Recipient Countries: India extended assistance to Laos, Myanmar, and Vietnam, which were severely impacted by floods caused by the typhoon.

• Aid Allocation: Vietnam: Received $1 million in humanitarian assistance. Laos: Received $100,000 in relief aid.

• Vietnam: Received $1 million in humanitarian assistance.

• Laos: Received $100,000 in relief aid.

• Relief materials such as food, clothing, medicines, and water purification supplies were delivered.

• The Indian Navy and Air Force were deployed to transport and distribute the relief supplies.

• The operation reflects India’s commitment to regional cooperation and its Act East Policy, which emphasizes building closer ties with ASEAN nations.

• It reinforces India’s role as a responsible regional actor in times of humanitarian crises. (Hence, the correct answer is C)

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-sends-assistance-to-flood-hit-laos-myanmar-vietnam/article68646098.ece

• Question 52 of 59 52. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) indicates the total investment made in fixed assets such as infrastructure and machinery over a specified period. Statement-II: A decline in GFCF necessarily implies a reduction in a country’s GDP growth rate. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) GFCF refers to the net increase in physical assets within an economy during a specific period, typically measured as the total value of a country’s investments in fixed assets like infrastructure, machinery, tools, equipment, and buildings. It is a key component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) under the expenditure method and is used to assess how much of the new value added in the economy is being invested rather than consumed. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) GFCF is considered a measure of economic growth and development, as it reflects additions to the productive capacity of the economy. However, it is not the only determinant of GDP growth. GDP can grow even if GFCF falls, especially if other components like private consumption, government spending, or exports increase. Thus, a decline in GFCF does not necessarily imply a reduction in the GDP growth rate. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) For example, in some years, GDP growth has remained positive despite weak investment trends, supported by strong consumption demand or public spending. https://indianexpress.com/article/business/world-bank-projects-india-grow-7-per-cent-fy25-9547718/ Incorrect Solution: C Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) GFCF refers to the net increase in physical assets within an economy during a specific period, typically measured as the total value of a country’s investments in fixed assets like infrastructure, machinery, tools, equipment, and buildings. It is a key component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) under the expenditure method and is used to assess how much of the new value added in the economy is being invested rather than consumed. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) GFCF is considered a measure of economic growth and development, as it reflects additions to the productive capacity of the economy. However, it is not the only determinant of GDP growth. GDP can grow even if GFCF falls, especially if other components like private consumption, government spending, or exports increase. Thus, a decline in GFCF does not necessarily imply a reduction in the GDP growth rate. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect) For example, in some years, GDP growth has remained positive despite weak investment trends, supported by strong consumption demand or public spending. https://indianexpress.com/article/business/world-bank-projects-india-grow-7-per-cent-fy25-9547718/

#### 52. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) indicates the total investment made in fixed assets such as infrastructure and machinery over a specified period.

Statement-II:

A decline in GFCF necessarily implies a reduction in a country’s GDP growth rate.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)

• GFCF refers to the net increase in physical assets within an economy during a specific period, typically measured as the total value of a country’s investments in fixed assets like infrastructure, machinery, tools, equipment, and buildings.

• It is a key component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) under the expenditure method and is used to assess how much of the new value added in the economy is being invested rather than consumed. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• GFCF is considered a measure of economic growth and development, as it reflects additions to the productive capacity of the economy. However, it is not the only determinant of GDP growth.

• GDP can grow even if GFCF falls, especially if other components like private consumption, government spending, or exports increase. Thus, a decline in GFCF does not necessarily imply a reduction in the GDP growth rate. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)

• For example, in some years, GDP growth has remained positive despite weak investment trends, supported by strong consumption demand or public spending.

https://indianexpress.com/article/business/world-bank-projects-india-grow-7-per-cent-fy25-9547718/

Solution: C

Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF)

• GFCF is considered a measure of economic growth and development, as it reflects additions to the productive capacity of the economy. However, it is not the only determinant of GDP growth.

• For example, in some years, GDP growth has remained positive despite weak investment trends, supported by strong consumption demand or public spending.

https://indianexpress.com/article/business/world-bank-projects-india-grow-7-per-cent-fy25-9547718/

• Question 53 of 59 53. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the BepiColombo Mission: It is a joint mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA). One of its objectives is to study Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with solar wind. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C BepiColombo Mission: Joint Collaboration: The BepiColombo mission is a collaborative effort between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), launched in October 2018 to study the planet Mercury. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Mission Objectives: The mission aims to explore: Mercury’s surface features, geological structure, and composition Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with the solar wind, which is crucial for understanding the planet’s internal structure and space environment (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Components of the Spacecraft: Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) – developed by ESA for surface and internal studies Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO) or Mio – developed by JAXA to study the magnetic field and exosphere Scientific Significance: BepiColombo will also test aspects of Einstein’s general theory of relativity Named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and physicist who contributed to Mercury’s orbital mechanics Launch and Arrival: Launched in 2018, the spacecraft is expected to reach Mercury’s orbit in 2025, after a complex series of gravity-assist maneuvers (Earth, Venus, Mercury). https://www.nytimes.com/2024/09/07/science/mercury-images-bepicolombo.html#:~:text=A%20joint%20mission%20between%20the,problems%20with%20the%20spacecraft's%20thrusters Incorrect Solution: C BepiColombo Mission: Joint Collaboration: The BepiColombo mission is a collaborative effort between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), launched in October 2018 to study the planet Mercury. (Hence, statement 1 is correct) Mission Objectives: The mission aims to explore: Mercury’s surface features, geological structure, and composition Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with the solar wind, which is crucial for understanding the planet’s internal structure and space environment (Hence, statement 2 is correct) Components of the Spacecraft: Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) – developed by ESA for surface and internal studies Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO) or Mio – developed by JAXA to study the magnetic field and exosphere Scientific Significance: BepiColombo will also test aspects of Einstein’s general theory of relativity Named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and physicist who contributed to Mercury’s orbital mechanics Launch and Arrival: Launched in 2018, the spacecraft is expected to reach Mercury’s orbit in 2025, after a complex series of gravity-assist maneuvers (Earth, Venus, Mercury). https://www.nytimes.com/2024/09/07/science/mercury-images-bepicolombo.html#:~:text=A%20joint%20mission%20between%20the,problems%20with%20the%20spacecraft's%20thrusters

#### 53. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the BepiColombo Mission:

• It is a joint mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).

• One of its objectives is to study Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with solar wind.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

BepiColombo Mission:

• Joint Collaboration: The BepiColombo mission is a collaborative effort between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), launched in October 2018 to study the planet Mercury. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)

• Mission Objectives: The mission aims to explore: Mercury’s surface features, geological structure, and composition Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with the solar wind, which is crucial for understanding the planet’s internal structure and space environment (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Mercury’s surface features, geological structure, and composition

• Mercury’s magnetic field and its interaction with the solar wind, which is crucial for understanding the planet’s internal structure and space environment (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• Components of the Spacecraft: Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) – developed by ESA for surface and internal studies Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO) or Mio – developed by JAXA to study the magnetic field and exosphere

• Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) – developed by ESA for surface and internal studies

• Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO) or Mio – developed by JAXA to study the magnetic field and exosphere

• Scientific Significance: BepiColombo will also test aspects of Einstein’s general theory of relativity Named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and physicist who contributed to Mercury’s orbital mechanics

• BepiColombo will also test aspects of Einstein’s general theory of relativity

• Named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and physicist who contributed to Mercury’s orbital mechanics

• Launch and Arrival: Launched in 2018, the spacecraft is expected to reach Mercury’s orbit in 2025, after a complex series of gravity-assist maneuvers (Earth, Venus, Mercury).

https://www.nytimes.com/2024/09/07/science/mercury-images-bepicolombo.html#:~:text=A%20joint%20mission%20between%20the,problems%20with%20the%20spacecraft's%20thrusters

Solution: C

BepiColombo Mission:

• Mercury’s surface features, geological structure, and composition

• Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) – developed by ESA for surface and internal studies

• Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO) or Mio – developed by JAXA to study the magnetic field and exosphere

• BepiColombo will also test aspects of Einstein’s general theory of relativity

• Named after Giuseppe “Bepi” Colombo, an Italian mathematician and physicist who contributed to Mercury’s orbital mechanics

• Launch and Arrival: Launched in 2018, the spacecraft is expected to reach Mercury’s orbit in 2025, after a complex series of gravity-assist maneuvers (Earth, Venus, Mercury).

https://www.nytimes.com/2024/09/07/science/mercury-images-bepicolombo.html#:~:text=A%20joint%20mission%20between%20the,problems%20with%20the%20spacecraft's%20thrusters

• Question 54 of 59 54. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Eklavya Platform has been launched to facilitate continuous professional military education for Indian Army officers. Statement-II: It is hosted by the Ministry of Education and aims to integrate military education with civilian university platforms. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Eklavya Platform: Purpose and Launch: The Eklavya Platform is a digital military education initiative launched in 2024 by the Chief of the Army Staff. It is aimed at facilitating continuous professional military education for officers in the Indian Army. The platform seeks to decongest physical training courses and encourage domain specialization, in line with evolving modern warfare needs. (Hence, Statement-I is correct) Development and Hosting: The platform is developed by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG-N), with support from the Directorate General of Information Systems. It is hosted on the Army Data Network, not by the Ministry of Education. It is not intended to integrate with civilian university platforms; instead, it provides a secure military-oriented learning ecosystem for Army personnel. (Hence, Statement-II is incorrect) Key Features: Includes a “Knowledge Highway” with access to journals, research papers, and military articles. Designed with scalable architecture to support long-term learning throughout an officer’s career. Registration is de-linked from physical course nominations, promoting a self-driven learning approach. Incorrect Solution: C Eklavya Platform: Purpose and Launch: The Eklavya Platform is a digital military education initiative launched in 2024 by the Chief of the Army Staff. It is aimed at facilitating continuous professional military education for officers in the Indian Army. The platform seeks to decongest physical training courses and encourage domain specialization, in line with evolving modern warfare needs. (Hence, Statement-I is correct) Development and Hosting: The platform is developed by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG-N), with support from the Directorate General of Information Systems. It is hosted on the Army Data Network, not by the Ministry of Education. It is not intended to integrate with civilian university platforms; instead, it provides a secure military-oriented learning ecosystem for Army personnel. (Hence, Statement-II is incorrect) Key Features: Includes a “Knowledge Highway” with access to journals, research papers, and military articles. Designed with scalable architecture to support long-term learning throughout an officer’s career. Registration is de-linked from physical course nominations, promoting a self-driven learning approach.

#### 54. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Eklavya Platform has been launched to facilitate continuous professional military education for Indian Army officers.

Statement-II: It is hosted by the Ministry of Education and aims to integrate military education with civilian university platforms.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Eklavya Platform:

• Purpose and Launch: The Eklavya Platform is a digital military education initiative launched in 2024 by the Chief of the Army Staff. It is aimed at facilitating continuous professional military education for officers in the Indian Army. The platform seeks to decongest physical training courses and encourage domain specialization, in line with evolving modern warfare needs. (Hence, Statement-I is correct)

• The Eklavya Platform is a digital military education initiative launched in 2024 by the Chief of the Army Staff.

• It is aimed at facilitating continuous professional military education for officers in the Indian Army.

• The platform seeks to decongest physical training courses and encourage domain specialization, in line with evolving modern warfare needs. (Hence, Statement-I is correct)

• Development and Hosting: The platform is developed by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG-N), with support from the Directorate General of Information Systems. It is hosted on the Army Data Network, not by the Ministry of Education. It is not intended to integrate with civilian university platforms; instead, it provides a secure military-oriented learning ecosystem for Army personnel. (Hence, Statement-II is incorrect)

• The platform is developed by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG-N), with support from the Directorate General of Information Systems.

• It is hosted on the Army Data Network, not by the Ministry of Education.

• It is not intended to integrate with civilian university platforms; instead, it provides a secure military-oriented learning ecosystem for Army personnel. (Hence, Statement-II is incorrect)

• Key Features: Includes a “Knowledge Highway” with access to journals, research papers, and military articles. Designed with scalable architecture to support long-term learning throughout an officer’s career. Registration is de-linked from physical course nominations, promoting a self-driven learning approach.

• Includes a “Knowledge Highway” with access to journals, research papers, and military articles.

• Designed with scalable architecture to support long-term learning throughout an officer’s career.

• Registration is de-linked from physical course nominations, promoting a self-driven learning approach.