DAY – 13 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY, Subject-wise Test 16, 27, Textbook-wise Test 10 and September 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the SMILE Scheme: The scheme covers welfare measures for both transgender persons and persons who are engaged in the act of begging. The Swadhar Greh Initiative is implemented under the Scheme to focus extensively on rehabilitation of the transgenders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched an umbrella scheme “SMILE – Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise” which includes two sub-schemes – ‘Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation for Welfare of Transgender Persons’ and ‘Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging’. This umbrella scheme covers several comprehensive measures including welfare measures for both transgender persons and persons who are engaged in the act of begging with focus extensively on rehabilitation. Statement 2 is not correct: The Ministry of Women and Child Development is implementing the Swadhar Greh Scheme which targets the women victims of difficult circumstances who are in need of institutional support for rehabilitation so that they can lead their life with dignity. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched an umbrella scheme “SMILE – Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise” which includes two sub-schemes – ‘Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation for Welfare of Transgender Persons’ and ‘Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging’. This umbrella scheme covers several comprehensive measures including welfare measures for both transgender persons and persons who are engaged in the act of begging with focus extensively on rehabilitation. Statement 2 is not correct: The Ministry of Women and Child Development is implementing the Swadhar Greh Scheme which targets the women victims of difficult circumstances who are in need of institutional support for rehabilitation so that they can lead their life with dignity.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the SMILE Scheme:

• The scheme covers welfare measures for both transgender persons and persons who are engaged in the act of begging.

• The Swadhar Greh Initiative is implemented under the Scheme to focus extensively on rehabilitation of the transgenders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched an umbrella scheme “SMILE – Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise” which includes two sub-schemes – ‘Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation for Welfare of Transgender Persons’ and ‘Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging’.

This umbrella scheme covers several comprehensive measures including welfare measures for both transgender persons and persons who are engaged in the act of begging with focus extensively on rehabilitation.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Ministry of Women and Child Development is implementing the Swadhar Greh Scheme which targets the women victims of difficult circumstances who are in need of institutional support for rehabilitation so that they can lead their life with dignity.

Answer: A

Explanation:

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA)- Is an India-led Initiative to develop an alliance of Governments to the facilitate adoption of biofuels. Is accelerating India’s Programmes including “SATAT” and “SHRESHTA” to develop the Indian ecosystem. Which of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) is an initiative by India as the G20 Chair. The Alliance intends to expedite the global uptake of biofuels through facilitating technology advancements, intensifying utilization of sustainable biofuels, shaping robust standard setting and certification through the participation of a wide spectrum of stakeholders. The alliance will also act as a central repository of knowledge and an expert hub. GBA aims to serve as a catalytic platform, fostering global collaboration for the advancement and widespread adoption of biofuels. Statement 2 is not correct: It will help accelerate India’s existing biofuels programs such as PM-JIVANYojna, SATAT, and GOBARdhan scheme, thereby contributing to increased farmers’ income, creating jobs and overall development of the Indian ecosystem. Recently, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched the scheme ‘SHRESHTA.’ This scheme is known as Scheme for residential education for students in High school in Targeted Areas. SHRESHTA is not a biofuel programme. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) is an initiative by India as the G20 Chair. The Alliance intends to expedite the global uptake of biofuels through facilitating technology advancements, intensifying utilization of sustainable biofuels, shaping robust standard setting and certification through the participation of a wide spectrum of stakeholders. The alliance will also act as a central repository of knowledge and an expert hub. GBA aims to serve as a catalytic platform, fostering global collaboration for the advancement and widespread adoption of biofuels. Statement 2 is not correct: *It will help accelerate India’s existing biofuels programs such as PM-JIVANYojna, SATAT, and GOBARdhan scheme, thereby contributing to increased farmers’ income, creating jobs and overall development of the Indian ecosystem. Recently, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched the scheme ‘SHRESHTA.’ This scheme is known as Scheme for residential education for students in High school in Targeted Areas. SHRESHTA is not a biofuel programme.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

The Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA)-

• Is an India-led Initiative to develop an alliance of Governments to the facilitate adoption of biofuels.

• Is accelerating India’s Programmes including “SATAT” and “SHRESHTA” to develop the Indian ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) is an initiative by India as the G20 Chair. The Alliance intends to expedite the global uptake of biofuels through facilitating technology advancements, intensifying utilization of sustainable biofuels, shaping robust standard setting and certification through the participation of a wide spectrum of stakeholders.

The alliance will also act as a central repository of knowledge and an expert hub. GBA aims to serve as a catalytic platform, fostering global collaboration for the advancement and widespread adoption of biofuels.

Statement 2 is not correct: It will help accelerate India’s existing biofuels programs such as PM-JIVANYojna, SATAT, and GOBARdhan scheme, thereby contributing to increased farmers’ income, creating jobs and overall development of the Indian ecosystem.

Recently, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched the scheme ‘SHRESHTA.’ This scheme is known as Scheme for residential education for students in High school in Targeted Areas. SHRESHTA is not a biofuel programme.

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points The “DOTP Technology” sometimes talked about in the news is associated with- (a) Mitigating the challenge of plastic waste management. (b) In-situ conservation in Biodiversity Hotspots. (c) Sustainable seawater desalination technique. (d) Reducing the open defecation tradition in rural India. Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: CSIR-Indian Institute of Chemical Technology (IICT) offering ‘WOW’ (Wealth out of Waste) technology from plastic waste has developed and transferred a process design for converting the PET bottles or Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET) bottles to safer ‘phthalate free Dioctyl Terephthalate (DOTP)’ plasticiser. The ‘DOPT-technology’ mitigates the challenge of plastic waste management and provides a sustainable solution as it can be a replacement in the formulation and moulding of PVC in flexible products such as toys, upholstery, fabrics, pipes, flooring surfaces, gaskets, automotive parts, etc. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: CSIR-Indian Institute of Chemical Technology (IICT) offering ‘WOW’ (Wealth out of Waste) technology from plastic waste has developed and transferred a process design for converting the PET bottles or Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET) bottles to safer ‘phthalate free Dioctyl Terephthalate (DOTP)’ plasticiser. The ‘DOPT-technology’ mitigates the challenge of plastic waste management and provides a sustainable solution as it can be a replacement in the formulation and moulding of PVC in flexible products such as toys, upholstery, fabrics, pipes, flooring surfaces, gaskets, automotive parts, etc.

#### 3. Question

The “DOTP Technology” sometimes talked about in the news is associated with-

• (a) Mitigating the challenge of plastic waste management.

• (b) In-situ conservation in Biodiversity Hotspots.

• (c) Sustainable seawater desalination technique.

• (d) Reducing the open defecation tradition in rural India.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: CSIR-Indian Institute of Chemical Technology (IICT) offering ‘WOW’ (Wealth out of Waste) technology from plastic waste has developed and transferred a process design for converting the PET bottles or Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET) bottles to safer ‘phthalate free Dioctyl Terephthalate (DOTP)’ plasticiser.

The ‘DOPT-technology’ mitigates the challenge of plastic waste management and provides a sustainable solution as it can be a replacement in the formulation and moulding of PVC in flexible products such as toys, upholstery, fabrics, pipes, flooring surfaces, gaskets, automotive parts, etc.

Answer: A

Explanation:

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points With reference to the Credit default swaps, consider the following statements: It is a financial derivative that allows an investor to offset their credit risk with another investor. In its contract, the buyer pays an ongoing premium similar to the payments on an insurance policy. It involves municipal and corporate bonds but does not cover the mortgage-backed securities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: A credit default swap (CDS) is a financial derivative that allows an investor to swap or offset their credit risk with that of another investor. To swap the risk of default, the lender buys a CDS from another investor who agrees to reimburse them if the borrower defaults. Statement 2 is correct: In a credit default swap contract, the buyer pays an ongoing premium similar to the payments on an insurance policy. In exchange, the seller agrees to pay the security’s value and interest payments if a default occurs A credit default swap by itself is a form of hedging. A bank might purchase a CDS to hedge against the risk of the borrower defaulting. Statement 3 is not correct: A credit default swap is the most common form of credit derivative and may involve municipal bonds, emerging market bonds, mortgage-backed securities (MBS), or corporate bonds. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: A credit default swap (CDS) is a financial derivative that allows an investor to swap or offset their credit risk with that of another investor. To swap the risk of default, the lender buys a CDS from another investor who agrees to reimburse them if the borrower defaults. Statement 2 is correct: In a credit default swap contract, the buyer pays an ongoing premium similar to the payments on an insurance policy. In exchange, the seller agrees to pay the security’s value and interest payments if a default occurs A credit default swap by itself is a form of hedging. A bank might purchase a CDS to hedge against the risk of the borrower defaulting. Statement 3 is not correct: A credit default swap is the most common form of credit derivative and may involve municipal bonds, emerging market bonds, mortgage-backed securities (MBS), or corporate bonds.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Credit default swaps, consider the following statements:

• It is a financial derivative that allows an investor to offset their credit risk with another investor.

• In its contract, the buyer pays an ongoing premium similar to the payments on an insurance policy.

• It involves municipal and corporate bonds but does not cover the mortgage-backed securities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: A credit default swap (CDS) is a financial derivative that allows an investor to swap or offset their credit risk with that of another investor.

To swap the risk of default, the lender buys a CDS from another investor who agrees to reimburse them if the borrower defaults.

Statement 2 is correct: In a credit default swap contract, the buyer pays an ongoing premium similar to the payments on an insurance policy. In exchange, the seller agrees to pay the security’s value and interest payments if a default occurs

A credit default swap by itself is a form of hedging. A bank might purchase a CDS to hedge against the risk of the borrower defaulting.

Statement 3 is not correct: A credit default swap is the most common form of credit derivative and may involve municipal bonds, emerging market bonds, mortgage-backed securities (MBS), or corporate bonds.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: A credit default swap (CDS) is a financial derivative that allows an investor to swap or offset their credit risk with that of another investor.

To swap the risk of default, the lender buys a CDS from another investor who agrees to reimburse them if the borrower defaults.

A credit default swap by itself is a form of hedging. A bank might purchase a CDS to hedge against the risk of the borrower defaulting.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the MicorRNAs (miRNA): These are non-coding RNAs and hence have no role in regulating gene expression. Extracellular miRNAs act as messengers to mediate cell-cell communication. The miRNAs have been reported as potential biomarkers for a variety of diseases. How many of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are a class of non-coding RNAs that play important roles in regulating gene expression. Under certain conditions, miRNAs can also activate translation or regulate transcription. Statement 2 is correct: miRNAs are secreted into extracellular fluids and Extracellular miRNAs function as chemical messengers to mediate the cell-cell communication. miRNAs are critical for normal animal development and are involved in a variety of biological processes. Aberrant expression of miRNAs is associated with many human diseases. Statement 3 is correct: In addition, Extracellular miRNAs have been widely reported as potential biomarkers for a variety of diseases and they also serve as signaling molecules to mediate cell-cell communications. The biogenesis of miRNA is classified into canonical and non-canonical pathways Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are a class of non-coding RNAs that play important roles in regulating gene expression. Under certain conditions, miRNAs can also activate translation or regulate transcription. Statement 2 is correct: miRNAs are secreted into extracellular fluids and Extracellular miRNAs function as chemical messengers to mediate the cell-cell communication. miRNAs are critical for normal animal development and are involved in a variety of biological processes. Aberrant expression of miRNAs is associated with many human diseases. Statement 3 is correct:* In addition, Extracellular miRNAs have been widely reported as potential biomarkers for a variety of diseases and they also serve as signaling molecules to mediate cell-cell communications. The biogenesis of miRNA is classified into canonical and non-canonical pathways

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the MicorRNAs (miRNA):

• These are non-coding RNAs and hence have no role in regulating gene expression.

• Extracellular miRNAs act as messengers to mediate cell-cell communication.

• The miRNAs have been reported as potential biomarkers for a variety of diseases.

How many of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are a class of non-coding RNAs that play important roles in regulating gene expression. Under certain conditions, miRNAs can also activate translation or regulate transcription.

Statement 2 is correct: miRNAs are secreted into extracellular fluids and Extracellular miRNAs function as chemical messengers to mediate the cell-cell communication.

miRNAs are critical for normal animal development and are involved in a variety of biological processes. Aberrant expression of miRNAs is associated with many human diseases.

Statement 3 is correct: In addition, Extracellular miRNAs have been widely reported as potential biomarkers for a variety of diseases and they also serve as signaling molecules to mediate cell-cell communications.

The biogenesis of miRNA is classified into canonical and non-canonical pathways

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: miRNAs are secreted into extracellular fluids and Extracellular miRNAs function as chemical messengers to mediate the cell-cell communication.

miRNAs are critical for normal animal development and are involved in a variety of biological processes. Aberrant expression of miRNAs is associated with many human diseases.

The biogenesis of miRNA is classified into canonical and non-canonical pathways

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points The Global Slavery Index is published by- (a) International Labour Organisation (ILO) (b) International Organisation for Migration (IOM) (c) World Bank (d) Walk Free Foundation Correct Answer: d According to the Walk Free Foundation’s Global Slavery Index 2023, 50 million people are living in conditions of modern slavery – a 25% rise over the last five years. Hence, option (d) is correct. It is an assessment of modern slavery conditions in 160 countries. It uses data released by the International Labour Organisation (ILO), the International Organisation for Migration (IOM), etc. The Index provides rankings across 3 dimensions: Size of the problem (prevalence), Government response and Vulnerability (political instability, inequality). The 2023 index is significant as India holds the G20 presidency this year, with a focus on sustainable development and climate change mitigation. Incorrect Answer: d According to the Walk Free Foundation’s Global Slavery Index 2023, 50 million people are living in conditions of modern slavery – a 25% rise over the last five years. Hence, option (d) is correct. It is an assessment of modern slavery conditions in 160 countries. It uses data released by the International Labour Organisation (ILO), the International Organisation for Migration (IOM), etc. The Index provides rankings across 3 dimensions: Size of the problem (prevalence), Government response and Vulnerability (political instability, inequality). The 2023 index is significant as India holds the G20 presidency this year, with a focus on sustainable development and climate change mitigation.

#### 6. Question

The Global Slavery Index is published by-

• (a) International Labour Organisation (ILO)

• (b) International Organisation for Migration (IOM)

• (c) World Bank

• (d) Walk Free Foundation

According to the Walk Free Foundation’s Global Slavery Index 2023, 50 million people are living in conditions of modern slavery – a 25% rise over the last five years.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• It is an assessment of modern slavery conditions in 160 countries.

• It uses data released by the International Labour Organisation (ILO), the International Organisation for Migration (IOM), etc.

• The Index provides rankings across 3 dimensions: Size of the problem (prevalence), Government response and Vulnerability (political instability, inequality).

• The 2023 index is significant as India holds the G20 presidency this year, with a focus on sustainable development and climate change mitigation.

According to the Walk Free Foundation’s Global Slavery Index 2023, 50 million people are living in conditions of modern slavery – a 25% rise over the last five years.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• It is an assessment of modern slavery conditions in 160 countries.

• It uses data released by the International Labour Organisation (ILO), the International Organisation for Migration (IOM), etc.

• The Index provides rankings across 3 dimensions: Size of the problem (prevalence), Government response and Vulnerability (political instability, inequality).

• The 2023 index is significant as India holds the G20 presidency this year, with a focus on sustainable development and climate change mitigation.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Varunastra: It is a ship launched anti-submarine torpedo. It has been imported from France. A torpedo is a self-propelled underwater weapon designed to target and destroy enemy vessels or submarines. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: b The Indian Navy and Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) achieved a significant milestone as an indigenous heavy-weight torpedo, Varunastra, successfully engaged an underwater target in a live test. A torpedo is a self-propelled underwater weapon designed to target and destroy enemy vessels or submarines. It is typically cylindrical in shape and equipped with explosives, propulsion systems, and guidance mechanisms. Hence, statement 3 is correct. About Varunastra: It is an indigenously designed and developed ship launched anti-submarine torpedo. It was designed and developed by the Vizag-based Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL) under the DRDO and is manufactured by Bharat Dynamics Ltd (BDL) Hence, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Answer: b The Indian Navy and Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) achieved a significant milestone as an indigenous heavy-weight torpedo, Varunastra, successfully engaged an underwater target in a live test. A torpedo is a self-propelled underwater weapon designed to target and destroy enemy vessels or submarines. It is typically cylindrical in shape and equipped with explosives, propulsion systems, and guidance mechanisms. Hence, statement 3 is correct. About Varunastra: It is an indigenously designed and developed ship launched anti-submarine torpedo. It was designed and developed by the Vizag-based Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL) under the DRDO and is manufactured by Bharat Dynamics Ltd (BDL) Hence, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Varunastra:

• It is a ship launched anti-submarine torpedo.

• It has been imported from France.

• A torpedo is a self-propelled underwater weapon designed to target and destroy enemy vessels or submarines.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

The Indian Navy and Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) achieved a significant milestone as an indigenous heavy-weight torpedo, Varunastra, successfully engaged an underwater target in a live test.

A torpedo is a self-propelled underwater weapon designed to target and destroy enemy vessels or submarines. It is typically cylindrical in shape and equipped with explosives, propulsion systems, and guidance mechanisms.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

About Varunastra:

It is an indigenously designed and developed ship launched anti-submarine torpedo. It was designed and developed by the Vizag-based Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL) under the DRDO and is manufactured by Bharat Dynamics Ltd (BDL)

Hence, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

About Varunastra:

Hence, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding “Taurine”: Taurine is an amino acid that has a few important roles in your body, including supporting immune health and nervous system function. Taurine is either comes from the animal protein in the diet or is manufactured by the body. The scientific report suggests that taurine extends life and boosts health in a range of animal species. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: c A recent study has shown that Taurine – a nutrient found in meat, and fish and sold as a supplement – extends life and boosts health in a range of animal species. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Experiments on middle-aged animals showed boosting taurine to youthful levels extended life by over 10% and improved physical and brain health. Taurine is an amino acid that has a few important roles in your body, including supporting immune health and nervous system function. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The scientific report suggests taurine plays a role in reducing cellular senescence – where cells in the body stop dividing – a hallmark of ageing. The nutrient also appeared to keep mitochondria – the power stations in the body’s cells – functioning. Taurine is virtually non-existent in plants. So, the nutrient either comes from the animal protein in the diet or is manufactured by the body. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Answer: c A recent study has shown that Taurine – a nutrient found in meat, and fish and sold as a supplement – extends life and boosts health in a range of animal species. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Experiments on middle-aged animals showed boosting taurine to youthful levels extended life by over 10% and improved physical and brain health. Taurine is an amino acid that has a few important roles in your body, including supporting immune health and nervous system function. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The scientific report suggests taurine plays a role in reducing cellular senescence – where cells in the body stop dividing – a hallmark of ageing. The nutrient also appeared to keep mitochondria – the power stations in the body’s cells – functioning. Taurine is virtually non-existent in plants. So, the nutrient either comes from the animal protein in the diet or is manufactured by the body. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding “Taurine”:

• Taurine is an amino acid that has a few important roles in your body, including supporting immune health and nervous system function.

• Taurine is either comes from the animal protein in the diet or is manufactured by the body.

• The scientific report suggests that taurine extends life and boosts health in a range of animal species.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

A recent study has shown that Taurine – a nutrient found in meat, and fish and sold as a supplement – extends life and boosts health in a range of animal species.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Experiments on middle-aged animals showed boosting taurine to youthful levels extended life by over 10% and improved physical and brain health.

Taurine is an amino acid that has a few important roles in your body, including supporting immune health and nervous system function.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The scientific report suggests taurine plays a role in reducing cellular senescence – where cells in the body stop dividing – a hallmark of ageing.

The nutrient also appeared to keep mitochondria – the power stations in the body’s cells – functioning.

Taurine is virtually non-existent in plants. So, the nutrient either comes from the animal protein in the diet or is manufactured by the body.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

A recent study has shown that Taurine – a nutrient found in meat, and fish and sold as a supplement – extends life and boosts health in a range of animal species.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Experiments on middle-aged animals showed boosting taurine to youthful levels extended life by over 10% and improved physical and brain health.

Taurine is an amino acid that has a few important roles in your body, including supporting immune health and nervous system function.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The scientific report suggests taurine plays a role in reducing cellular senescence – where cells in the body stop dividing – a hallmark of ageing.

The nutrient also appeared to keep mitochondria – the power stations in the body’s cells – functioning.

Taurine is virtually non-existent in plants. So, the nutrient either comes from the animal protein in the diet or is manufactured by the body.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points With reference to the Squash World Cup-2023, consider the following statements: Squash World Cup-2023 was held in New Delhi, India. Squash is typically played by two players for singles matches or four players for doubles matches. In this world cup, the games were played to seven points, which is a first in the history of the World Squash Federation. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: b The Squash World Cup-2023 held in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, from June 13 to 17. It introduced some exciting changes to attract attention and engage more people in the sport. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Squash is typically played by two players for singles matches or four players for doubles matches. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Changes introduced: The tournament will feature a mixed team competition and will be played in the format of a best-of-five game, with each game played to seven points instead of the usual 11. In case of a tie, the winning team will be determined by the greater positive difference between games won and lost. These changes were made first time in the history of the World Squash Federation. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Answer: b The Squash World Cup-2023 held in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, from June 13 to 17. It introduced some exciting changes to attract attention and engage more people in the sport. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Squash is typically played by two players for singles matches or four players for doubles matches. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Changes introduced: The tournament will feature a mixed team competition and will be played in the format of a best-of-five game, with each game played to seven points instead of the usual 11. In case of a tie, the winning team will be determined by the greater positive difference between games won and lost. These changes were made first time in the history of the World Squash Federation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the Squash World Cup-2023, consider the following statements:

• Squash World Cup-2023 was held in New Delhi, India.

• Squash is typically played by two players for singles matches or four players for doubles matches.

• In this world cup, the games were played to seven points, which is a first in the history of the World Squash Federation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

The Squash World Cup-2023 held in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, from June 13 to 17. It introduced some exciting changes to attract attention and engage more people in the sport.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Squash is typically played by two players for singles matches or four players for doubles matches.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Changes introduced:

The tournament will feature a mixed team competition and will be played in the format of a best-of-five game, with each game played to seven points instead of the usual 11. In case of a tie, the winning team will be determined by the greater positive difference between games won and lost. These changes were made first time in the history of the World Squash Federation.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The Squash World Cup-2023 held in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, from June 13 to 17. It introduced some exciting changes to attract attention and engage more people in the sport.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Squash is typically played by two players for singles matches or four players for doubles matches.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Changes introduced:

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Recently, Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR) was in news. It is associated with which of the following sectors? (a) Clean India (b) Missile development (c) Power sector (d) Private sector satellite development Correct Answer: c “Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR)” is a national initiative launched by the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, to identify and develop emerging technologies in the power sector, promoting indigenous research and innovation. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c “Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR)” is a national initiative launched by the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, to identify and develop emerging technologies in the power sector, promoting indigenous research and innovation. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 10. Question

Recently, Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR) was in news. It is associated with which of the following sectors?

• (a) Clean India

• (b) Missile development

• (c) Power sector

• (d) Private sector satellite development

“Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR)” is a national initiative launched by the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, to identify and develop emerging technologies in the power sector, promoting indigenous research and innovation.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points In the context of Artemis Accords, recently signed by India, consider the following statements: Artemis Accords sets common principles to govern civil exploration and use of Moon. As per the provisions of the Accords, any country undertaking space exploration should share the data with others. It is legally binding on the signatories. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: b Explanation: On June 21, 2023, the Republic of India became the 27th nation to sign the Artemis Accords, demonstrating its commitment to sustainable and transparent space activity. Artemis Accords are established by the U.S. State Department and NASA with seven other founding members: Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, the United Arab Emirates, and the United Kingdom in 2020. Purpose: for setting common principles to govern civil exploration and use of outer space, the moon, Mars, comets, and asteroids, for peaceful purposes. (Statement 1 dose not say moon ONLY). Hence, statement 1 is correct. It builds upon the foundation of the Outer Space Treaty of 1967. The Outer Space Treaty, a multilateral pact under the United Nations, serves as the foundation for international space law. The treaty emphasizes space as a shared resource for humanity, prohibits national appropriation, and encourages the peaceful use of space. The principles of the Artemis Accords include: peaceful exploration, full transparency in space activity, Including public release of scientific data. Hence, statement 2 is correct. interoperability of systems to enhance safety and sustainability, emergency assistance to personnel in distress, preserving outer space heritage, extracting and utilizing space resources in compliance with the Outer Space Treaty, and The safe disposal of orbital debris. The Artemis programme includes plans for a base on the lunar surface, multiple spacecraft to ferry humans and cargo, an orbiting space station, and a constellation of satellites to help with navigation and communication. The first Artemis crewed mission to the moon’s surface is likely in 2026. Artemis accord is legally non-binding. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: On June 21, 2023, the Republic of India became the 27th nation to sign the Artemis Accords, demonstrating its commitment to sustainable and transparent space activity. Artemis Accords are established by the U.S. State Department and NASA with seven other founding members: Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, the United Arab Emirates, and the United Kingdom in 2020. Purpose: for setting common principles to govern civil exploration and use of outer space, the moon, Mars, comets, and asteroids, for peaceful purposes. (Statement 1 dose not say moon ONLY). Hence, statement 1 is correct. It builds upon the foundation of the Outer Space Treaty of 1967. The Outer Space Treaty, a multilateral pact under the United Nations, serves as the foundation for international space law. The treaty emphasizes space as a shared resource for humanity, prohibits national appropriation, and encourages the peaceful use of space. The principles of the Artemis Accords include: peaceful exploration, full transparency in space activity, Including public release of scientific data. Hence, statement 2 is correct. interoperability of systems to enhance safety and sustainability, emergency assistance to personnel in distress, preserving outer space heritage, extracting and utilizing space resources in compliance with the Outer Space Treaty, and The safe disposal of orbital debris. The Artemis programme includes plans for a base on the lunar surface, multiple spacecraft to ferry humans and cargo, an orbiting space station, and a constellation of satellites to help with navigation and communication. The first Artemis crewed mission to the moon’s surface is likely in 2026. Artemis accord is legally non-binding. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 11. Question

In the context of Artemis Accords, recently signed by India, consider the following statements:

• Artemis Accords sets common principles to govern civil exploration and use of Moon.

• As per the provisions of the Accords, any country undertaking space exploration should share the data with others.

• It is legally binding on the signatories.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

On June 21, 2023, the Republic of India became the 27th nation to sign the Artemis Accords, demonstrating its commitment to sustainable and transparent space activity.

Artemis Accords are established by the U.S. State Department and NASA with seven other founding members: Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, the United Arab Emirates, and the United Kingdom in 2020.

Purpose: for setting common principles to govern civil exploration and use of outer space, the moon, Mars, comets, and asteroids, for peaceful purposes. (Statement 1 dose not say moon ONLY). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

It builds upon the foundation of the Outer Space Treaty of 1967.

The Outer Space Treaty, a multilateral pact under the United Nations, serves as the foundation for international space law.

The treaty emphasizes space as a shared resource for humanity, prohibits national appropriation, and encourages the peaceful use of space.

The principles of the Artemis Accords include:

peaceful exploration,

full transparency in space activity,

Including public release of scientific data. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

interoperability of systems to enhance safety and sustainability,

emergency assistance to personnel in distress,

preserving outer space heritage,

extracting and utilizing space resources in compliance with the Outer Space Treaty, and

The safe disposal of orbital debris.

The Artemis programme includes plans for a base on the lunar surface, multiple spacecraft to ferry humans and cargo, an orbiting space station, and a constellation of satellites to help with navigation and communication. The first Artemis crewed mission to the moon’s surface is likely in 2026.

Artemis accord is legally non-binding. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

On June 21, 2023, the Republic of India became the 27th nation to sign the Artemis Accords, demonstrating its commitment to sustainable and transparent space activity.

It builds upon the foundation of the Outer Space Treaty of 1967.

The Outer Space Treaty, a multilateral pact under the United Nations, serves as the foundation for international space law.

The treaty emphasizes space as a shared resource for humanity, prohibits national appropriation, and encourages the peaceful use of space.

The principles of the Artemis Accords include:

peaceful exploration,

full transparency in space activity,

Including public release of scientific data. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

interoperability of systems to enhance safety and sustainability,

emergency assistance to personnel in distress,

preserving outer space heritage,

extracting and utilizing space resources in compliance with the Outer Space Treaty, and

The safe disposal of orbital debris.

Artemis accord is legally non-binding. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) is an inherited blood disorder which affects red blood cells and turn them into crescent shape. The Government of India has set the target of eliminating sickle cell disease by 2030. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Sickle Cell Anemia: It is an inherited blood disorder. It affects hemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells that delivers oxygen to cells throughout the body. People with this disease have atypical hemoglobin molecules called hemoglobin S, which can distort red blood cells into a sickle, or crescent, shape. These sickle cells also become rigid and sticky, which can slow or block blood flow. Hence, statement 1 is correct. National Sickle Cell Anemia Elimination Mission was announced as part of the Union Budget 2023 with a vision of eliminating sickle cell disease (SCD) as a public health problem in India before 2047. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Sickle Cell Anemia: It is an inherited blood disorder. It affects hemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells that delivers oxygen to cells throughout the body. People with this disease have atypical hemoglobin molecules called hemoglobin S, which can distort red blood cells into a sickle, or crescent, shape. These sickle cells also become rigid and sticky, which can slow or block blood flow. Hence, statement 1 is correct. National Sickle Cell Anemia Elimination Mission was announced as part of the Union Budget 2023 with a vision of eliminating sickle cell disease (SCD) as a public health problem in India before 2047. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) is an inherited blood disorder which affects red blood cells and turn them into crescent shape.

• The Government of India has set the target of eliminating sickle cell disease by 2030.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c. Both 1 and 2

• d. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Sickle Cell Anemia: It is an inherited blood disorder. It affects hemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells that delivers oxygen to cells throughout the body. People with this disease have atypical hemoglobin molecules called hemoglobin S, which can distort red blood cells into a sickle, or crescent, shape. These sickle cells also become rigid and sticky, which can slow or block blood flow. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

National Sickle Cell Anemia Elimination Mission was announced as part of the Union Budget 2023 with a vision of eliminating sickle cell disease (SCD) as a public health problem in India before 2047. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following: Solar Probe Launched by 1.Parker : European Union 2. Hinotori : Japan 3. Ulysses : USA 4.Hinode : China How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a.. Only one b Only two c. Only three d.All four Correct Answer: a Explanation: ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft, launched in September 2023, to explore the Sun, has activated its second instrument, ASPEX (Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment). What is ASPEX? ASPEX, or the Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment, is a scientific instrument on ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft designed to study solar wind particles. It comprises tools such as the ‘Solar Wind Ion Spectrometer’ (SWIS) and the ‘Suprathermal and Energetic Particle Spectrometer’ (STEPS). United States Parker Solar Probe (August 2018): Touched the Sun’s upper atmosphere, sampled particles and magnetic fields in December 2021. Hence, pair 1 is incorrect. Solar Orbiter (February 2020): Explores the Sun’s changing space environment Japan Hinotori (ASTRO-A, 1981): Studied solar flares using hard X-rays. Hence, pair 2 is correct. Yohkoh (SOLAR-A, 1991): Studied solar activity Hinode (SOLAR-B, 2006): Studied the Sun’s impact on Earth. Europe Ulysses (October 1990): Studied space environment above and below the Sun’s poles. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect. Proba-2 (October 2001): Part of solar exploratory missions. Upcoming: Proba-3 (2024), Smile (2025) China Advanced Space-based Solar Observatory (ASO-S, October 2022): Launched to observe the Sun. Hence, pair 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft, launched in September 2023, to explore the Sun, has activated its second instrument, ASPEX (Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment). What is ASPEX? ASPEX, or the Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment, is a scientific instrument on ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft designed to study solar wind particles. It comprises tools such as the ‘Solar Wind Ion Spectrometer’ (SWIS) and the ‘Suprathermal and Energetic Particle Spectrometer’ (STEPS). United States Parker Solar Probe (August 2018): Touched the Sun’s upper atmosphere, sampled particles and magnetic fields in December 2021. Hence, pair 1 is incorrect. Solar Orbiter (February 2020): Explores the Sun’s changing space environment Japan Hinotori (ASTRO-A, 1981): Studied solar flares using hard X-rays. Hence, pair 2 is correct. Yohkoh (SOLAR-A, 1991): Studied solar activity Hinode (SOLAR-B, 2006): Studied the Sun’s impact on Earth. Europe Ulysses (October 1990): Studied space environment above and below the Sun’s poles. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect. Proba-2 (October 2001): Part of solar exploratory missions. Upcoming: Proba-3 (2024), Smile (2025) China Advanced Space-based Solar Observatory (ASO-S, October 2022): Launched to observe the Sun. Hence, pair 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 13. Question

Consider the following:

Solar Probe Launched by

1.Parker : European Union

1.Hinotori : Japan

1.Ulysses : USA

4.Hinode : China

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• a.. Only one

• b Only two

• c. Only three

• d.All four

Explanation:

ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft, launched in September 2023, to explore the Sun, has activated its second instrument, ASPEX (Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment). What is ASPEX? ASPEX, or the Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment, is a scientific instrument on ISRO’s Aditya L1 spacecraft designed to study solar wind particles. It comprises tools such as the ‘Solar Wind Ion Spectrometer’ (SWIS) and the ‘Suprathermal and Energetic Particle Spectrometer’ (STEPS).

United States | Parker Solar Probe (August 2018): Touched the Sun’s upper atmosphere, sampled particles and magnetic fields in December 2021. Hence, pair 1 is incorrect. Solar Orbiter (February 2020): Explores the Sun’s changing space environment

Japan | Hinotori (ASTRO-A, 1981): Studied solar flares using hard X-rays. Hence, pair 2 is correct. Yohkoh (SOLAR-A, 1991): Studied solar activity Hinode (SOLAR-B, 2006): Studied the Sun’s impact on Earth.

Europe | Ulysses (October 1990): Studied space environment above and below the Sun’s poles. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect. Proba-2 (October 2001): Part of solar exploratory missions. Upcoming: Proba-3 (2024), Smile (2025)

China | Advanced Space-based Solar Observatory (ASO-S, October 2022): Launched to observe the Sun. Hence, pair 4 is incorrect.

Solar Orbiter (February 2020): Explores the Sun’s changing space environment

Yohkoh (SOLAR-A, 1991): Studied solar activity

Hinode (SOLAR-B, 2006): Studied the Sun’s impact on Earth.

Proba-2 (October 2001): Part of solar exploratory missions.

Upcoming: Proba-3 (2024), Smile (2025)

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

China | Advanced Space-based Solar Observatory (ASO-S, October 2022): Launched to observe the Sun. Hence, pair 4 is incorrect.

Solar Orbiter (February 2020): Explores the Sun’s changing space environment

Yohkoh (SOLAR-A, 1991): Studied solar activity

Hinode (SOLAR-B, 2006): Studied the Sun’s impact on Earth.

Proba-2 (October 2001): Part of solar exploratory missions.

Upcoming: Proba-3 (2024), Smile (2025)

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points In the context of Aditya-L1 mission, consider the following: Payload Objective 1.VELC : Studies the solar corona. 2.SUIT : Captures images of the Solar Photosphere and Chromosphere 3.ASPEX : Studies solar wind 4.PAPA : Gathers data on plasma characteristics and composition How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: Aditya-L1 is India’s first space-based solar mission to study the Sun. It was launched on September 2, 2023, by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) into a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth Lagrange point 1 (L1). Aditya-L1 would provide an uninterrupted view of the Sun for prolonged periods, overcoming the limitations of Low Earth Orbits where the view is frequently blocked by the Earth itself. Aditya-L1 will facilitate India to establish its own solar observatory in space, which would have numerous applications in day-to-day life. Payload Objectives Remote Sensing Payloads Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) Studies the solar corona. Observe dynamics of Coronal Mass Ejections. Hence, pair 1 is correct. Solar Ultra-violet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) Captures images of the Solar Photosphere and Chromosphere in near Ultraviolet (UV). Measures solar irradiance variations in near UV. Hence, pair 2 is correct. Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS) Functions as a Soft X-ray spectrometer. High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer (HEL1OS) Acts as a Hard X-ray spectrometer. Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment (ASPEX) Studies solar wind and energetic ions. Analyse their energy distribution. Hence, pair 3 is correct. Plasma Analyser Package for Aditya (PAPA) Gather data on plasma characteristics and composition in the interplanetary space. Provides insights into solar wind interactions with the environment. Hence, pair 4 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Aditya-L1 is India’s first space-based solar mission to study the Sun. It was launched on September 2, 2023, by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) into a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth Lagrange point 1 (L1). Aditya-L1 would provide an uninterrupted view of the Sun for prolonged periods, overcoming the limitations of Low Earth Orbits where the view is frequently blocked by the Earth itself. Aditya-L1 will facilitate India to establish its own solar observatory in space, which would have numerous applications in day-to-day life. Payload Objectives Remote Sensing Payloads Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) Studies the solar corona. Observe dynamics of Coronal Mass Ejections. Hence, pair 1 is correct. Solar Ultra-violet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) Captures images of the Solar Photosphere and Chromosphere in near Ultraviolet (UV). Measures solar irradiance variations in near UV. Hence, pair 2 is correct. Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS) Functions as a Soft X-ray spectrometer. High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer (HEL1OS) Acts as a Hard X-ray spectrometer. Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment (ASPEX) Studies solar wind and energetic ions. Analyse their energy distribution. Hence, pair 3 is correct. Plasma Analyser Package for Aditya (PAPA) Gather data on plasma characteristics and composition in the interplanetary space. Provides insights into solar wind interactions with the environment. Hence, pair 4 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 14. Question

In the context of Aditya-L1 mission, consider the following:

Payload Objective

1.VELC : Studies the solar corona.

2.SUIT : Captures images of the Solar Photosphere and Chromosphere

3.ASPEX : Studies solar wind

4.PAPA : Gathers data on plasma characteristics and composition

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

Aditya-L1 is India’s first space-based solar mission to study the Sun. It was launched on September 2, 2023, by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) into a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth Lagrange point 1 (L1). Aditya-L1 would provide an uninterrupted view of the Sun for prolonged periods, overcoming the limitations of Low Earth Orbits where the view is frequently blocked by the Earth itself.

Aditya-L1 will facilitate India to establish its own solar observatory in space, which would have numerous applications in day-to-day life.

Payload | Objectives

Remote Sensing Payloads |

Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) | Studies the solar corona. Observe dynamics of Coronal Mass Ejections. Hence, pair 1 is correct.

Solar Ultra-violet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) | Captures images of the Solar Photosphere and Chromosphere in near Ultraviolet (UV). Measures solar irradiance variations in near UV. Hence, pair 2 is correct.

Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS) | Functions as a Soft X-ray spectrometer.

High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer (HEL1OS) | Acts as a Hard X-ray spectrometer.

Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment (ASPEX) | Studies solar wind and energetic ions. Analyse their energy distribution. Hence, pair 3 is correct.

Plasma Analyser Package for Aditya (PAPA) | Gather data on plasma characteristics and composition in the interplanetary space. Provides insights into solar wind interactions with the environment. Hence, pair 4 is correct.

Observe dynamics of Coronal Mass Ejections. Hence, pair 1 is correct.

Measures solar irradiance variations in near UV.

Hence, pair 2 is correct.

Analyse their energy distribution.

Hence, pair 3 is correct.

Provides insights into solar wind interactions with the environment.

Hence, pair 4 is correct.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Aditya-L1 will facilitate India to establish its own solar observatory in space, which would have numerous applications in day-to-day life.

Payload | Objectives

Remote Sensing Payloads |

Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) | Studies the solar corona. Observe dynamics of Coronal Mass Ejections. Hence, pair 1 is correct.

Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS) | Functions as a Soft X-ray spectrometer.

High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer (HEL1OS) | Acts as a Hard X-ray spectrometer.

Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment (ASPEX) | Studies solar wind and energetic ions. Analyse their energy distribution. Hence, pair 3 is correct.

Observe dynamics of Coronal Mass Ejections. Hence, pair 1 is correct.

Measures solar irradiance variations in near UV.

Hence, pair 2 is correct.

Analyse their energy distribution.

Hence, pair 3 is correct.

Provides insights into solar wind interactions with the environment.

Hence, pair 4 is correct.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes ‘Lagrange Point’? a. It is the visible surface of the Sun, the region that emits sunlight. It is relatively cool and has several different colors. b. It is a specific location in space which experiences enhanced gravitational equilibrium. c. It is the outermost plasma layer and is called the Sun’s halo or crown. d.None of the above Correct Answer: b Explanation: Lagrange points are specific locations in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as a planet and its moon or a planet and the Sun, produce enhanced regions of gravitational equilibrium. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Lagrange points are specific locations in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as a planet and its moon or a planet and the Sun, produce enhanced regions of gravitational equilibrium. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 15. Question

Which of the following best describes ‘Lagrange Point’?

• a. It is the visible surface of the Sun, the region that emits sunlight. It is relatively cool and has several different colors.

• b. It is a specific location in space which experiences enhanced gravitational equilibrium.

• c. It is the outermost plasma layer and is called the Sun’s halo or crown.

• d.None of the above

Explanation:

Lagrange points are specific locations in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as a planet and its moon or a planet and the Sun, produce enhanced regions of gravitational equilibrium.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points With reference to NASA’s missions Lucy and Psyche, which of the following statement is correct? A These are missions to find the signs of life in Mars. B To study asteroids to explore the early solar system. C To study the Saturn rings D To study the atmosphere on the moon Correct Answer: b Explanation: NASA has selected two missions that have the potential to open new windows on one of the earliest eras in the history of our solar system. Lucy is a planned NASA space probe that will tour five Jupiter trojans, asteroids which share Jupiter’s orbit around the Sun. Psyche, also a robotic mission, is targeted to launch in October of 2023, arriving at the asteroid in 2030, following an Earth gravity assist spacecraft maneuver in 2024 and a Mars flyby in 2025. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: NASA has selected two missions that have the potential to open new windows on one of the earliest eras in the history of our solar system. Lucy is a planned NASA space probe that will tour five Jupiter trojans, asteroids which share Jupiter’s orbit around the Sun. Psyche, also a robotic mission, is targeted to launch in October of 2023, arriving at the asteroid in 2030, following an Earth gravity assist spacecraft maneuver in 2024 and a Mars flyby in 2025. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 16. Question

With reference to NASA’s missions Lucy and Psyche, which of the following statement is correct?

• A These are missions to find the signs of life in Mars.

• B To study asteroids to explore the early solar system.

• C To study the Saturn rings

• D To study the atmosphere on the moon

Explanation:

NASA has selected two missions that have the potential to open new windows on one of the earliest eras in the history of our solar system.

Lucy is a planned NASA space probe that will tour five Jupiter trojans, asteroids which share Jupiter’s orbit around the Sun.

Psyche, also a robotic mission, is targeted to launch in October of 2023, arriving at the asteroid in 2030, following an Earth gravity assist spacecraft maneuver in 2024 and a Mars flyby in 2025.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

NASA has selected two missions that have the potential to open new windows on one of the earliest eras in the history of our solar system.

Lucy is a planned NASA space probe that will tour five Jupiter trojans, asteroids which share Jupiter’s orbit around the Sun.

Psyche, also a robotic mission, is targeted to launch in October of 2023, arriving at the asteroid in 2030, following an Earth gravity assist spacecraft maneuver in 2024 and a Mars flyby in 2025.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Which of the following countries has launched a new astronomical satellite named Einstein Probe (EP) to observe transient and violent celestial phenomena in the universe? a.USA b. Canada c. China d. India Correct Answer: c Explanation: China has launched a new astronomical satellite named Einstein Probe (EP) with a lotus-shaped design to observe transient and violent celestial phenomena in the universe. The mission involves international collaboration with The European Space Agency and the Max Planck Institute for Extra-terrestrial Physics in Germany. The Einstein Probe (EP) satellite features wide-field X-ray telescopes (WXT) and follow-up X-ray telescopes (FXT). Its objectives include capturing initial light from supernova explosions, detecting X-ray signals linked to gravitational wave events, and discovering dormant black holes and celestial objects. The satellite’s X-ray detection tech, inspired by, showcases innovative lobster-eye telescopes. Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: China has launched a new astronomical satellite named Einstein Probe (EP) with a lotus-shaped design to observe transient and violent celestial phenomena in the universe. The mission involves international collaboration with The European Space Agency and the Max Planck Institute for Extra-terrestrial Physics in Germany. The Einstein Probe (EP) satellite features wide-field X-ray telescopes (WXT) and follow-up X-ray telescopes (FXT). Its objectives include capturing initial light from supernova explosions, detecting X-ray signals linked to gravitational wave events, and discovering dormant black holes and celestial objects. The satellite’s X-ray detection tech, inspired by, showcases innovative lobster-eye telescopes. Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 17. Question

Which of the following countries has launched a new astronomical satellite named Einstein Probe (EP) to observe transient and violent celestial phenomena in the universe?

Explanation:

China has launched a new astronomical satellite named Einstein Probe (EP) with a lotus-shaped design to observe transient and violent celestial phenomena in the universe. The mission involves international collaboration with The European Space Agency and the Max Planck Institute for Extra-terrestrial Physics in Germany.

The Einstein Probe (EP) satellite features wide-field X-ray telescopes (WXT) and follow-up X-ray telescopes (FXT). Its objectives include capturing initial light from supernova explosions, detecting X-ray signals linked to gravitational wave events, and discovering dormant black holes and celestial objects. The satellite’s X-ray detection tech, inspired by, showcases innovative lobster-eye telescopes.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points With reference to Mitochondrial Donation Treatment (MDT), consider the following statements: 1.It is a form of IVF that replaces faulty mitochondrial DNA in the patient’s eggs with healthy mitochondrial DNA from a donor egg. 2.All of the baby’s DNA comes from its two parents, and no DNA is inherited from the donor as the nucleus is removed from the healthy donor egg. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a.1 only b.2 only c.Both 1 and 2 d.Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: Approximately 1 in 5,000-10,000 children are born each year with mitochondrial disease. Certain mutations in mitochondria can lead to mitochondrial diseases, affecting energy production and impacting various organs, including the brain, nerves, muscles, kidneys, heart, and liver. These diseases can result in severe symptoms, such as organ failure, muscle wastage, and even brain damage. Unfortunately, there is no cure for mitochondrial diseases, but they can be managed to some extent. To address the issue of mitochondrial diseases, scientists and researchers developed an advanced In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) technique called Mitochondrial Donation Treatment (MDT) or three-parent IVF. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The procedure combines the sperm and eggs from the biological parents with mitochondria from a donor’s eggs. Harmful mutations in mitochondria, which are inherited only from the mother, can affect all the children a woman has. As of now, the technique is still in its experimental stage. Most of the baby’s DNA comes from its parents, and just a little percentage comes from the donor, whose mitochondria were used to fertilize the egg. Although the phrase “three-parent babies” is widely used in the media, most of the baby’s DNA comes from its two parents, with around 0.1% from the donor. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Approximately 1 in 5,000-10,000 children are born each year with mitochondrial disease. Certain mutations in mitochondria can lead to mitochondrial diseases, affecting energy production and impacting various organs, including the brain, nerves, muscles, kidneys, heart, and liver. These diseases can result in severe symptoms, such as organ failure, muscle wastage, and even brain damage. Unfortunately, there is no cure for mitochondrial diseases, but they can be managed to some extent. To address the issue of mitochondrial diseases, scientists and researchers developed an advanced In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) technique called Mitochondrial Donation Treatment (MDT) or three-parent IVF. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The procedure combines the sperm and eggs from the biological parents with mitochondria from a donor’s eggs. Harmful mutations in mitochondria, which are inherited only from the mother, can affect all the children a woman has. As of now, the technique is still in its experimental stage. Most of the baby’s DNA comes from its parents, and just a little percentage comes from the donor, whose mitochondria were used to fertilize the egg. Although the phrase “three-parent babies” is widely used in the media, most of the baby’s DNA comes from its two parents, with around 0.1% from the donor. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

#### 18. Question

With reference to Mitochondrial Donation Treatment (MDT), consider the following statements:

1.It is a form of IVF that replaces faulty mitochondrial DNA in the patient’s eggs with healthy mitochondrial DNA from a donor egg.

2.All of the baby’s DNA comes from its two parents, and no DNA is inherited from the donor as the nucleus is removed from the healthy donor egg.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c.Both 1 and 2

• d.Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Approximately 1 in 5,000-10,000 children are born each year with mitochondrial disease. Certain mutations in mitochondria can lead to mitochondrial diseases, affecting energy production and impacting various organs, including the brain, nerves, muscles, kidneys, heart, and liver.

These diseases can result in severe symptoms, such as organ failure, muscle wastage, and even brain damage. Unfortunately, there is no cure for mitochondrial diseases, but they can be managed to some extent.

To address the issue of mitochondrial diseases, scientists and researchers developed an advanced In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) technique called Mitochondrial Donation Treatment (MDT) or three-parent IVF. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The procedure combines the sperm and eggs from the biological parents with mitochondria from a donor’s eggs. Harmful mutations in mitochondria, which are inherited only from the mother, can affect all the children a woman has. As of now, the technique is still in its experimental stage.

Most of the baby’s DNA comes from its parents, and just a little percentage comes from the donor, whose mitochondria were used to fertilize the egg. Although the phrase “three-parent babies” is widely used in the media, most of the baby’s DNA comes from its two parents, with around 0.1% from the donor. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Explanation:

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Bio – Imaging banks will lead to improvement in the cancer treatment provided in India. Statement-II: A Bio-Imaging bank is a repository containing radiology and pathology images with clinical details, outcome data, treatment specifics, and additional metadata. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: a Explanation: Recently, Mumbai’s Tata Memorial Hospital (TMH), India’s largest cancer hospital, embraces AI with a ‘Bio-Imaging Bank’ for early stage cancer detection. The AI aids in early diagnosis which has proven to be 98 percent correct after doctors cross-check. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It is a comprehensive repository containing radiology and pathology images with clinical details, outcome data, treatment specifics, and additional metadata. This resource is strategically crafted for training, validation, and rigorous testing of AI algorithms. AI’s potential lies in tailoring treatment approaches based on diverse patient profiles, and thus optimising therapy outcomes. Hence, statement 2 is correct and is the correct explanation of statement 1. The project uses deep learning to develop a cancer specific tailored algorithm for early detection, incorporating data from 60,000 patients. Funded by– The Department of Biotechnology, in collaboration with IIT-Bombay, RGCIRC-New Delhi, AIIMS-New Delhi, and PGIMER-Chandigarh. Hence, option (a) is correct. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Recently, Mumbai’s Tata Memorial Hospital (TMH), India’s largest cancer hospital, embraces AI with a ‘Bio-Imaging Bank’ for early stage cancer detection. The AI aids in early diagnosis which has proven to be 98 percent correct after doctors cross-check. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It is a comprehensive repository containing radiology and pathology images with clinical details, outcome data, treatment specifics, and additional metadata. This resource is strategically crafted for training, validation, and rigorous testing of AI algorithms. AI’s potential lies in tailoring treatment approaches based on diverse patient profiles, and thus optimising therapy outcomes. Hence, statement 2 is correct and is the correct explanation of statement 1. The project uses deep learning to develop a cancer specific tailored algorithm for early detection, incorporating data from 60,000 patients. Funded by– The Department of Biotechnology, in collaboration with IIT-Bombay, RGCIRC-New Delhi, AIIMS-New Delhi, and PGIMER-Chandigarh. Hence, option (a) is correct.

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Bio – Imaging banks will lead to improvement in the cancer treatment provided in India.

Statement-II:

A Bio-Imaging bank is a repository containing radiology and pathology images with clinical details, outcome data, treatment specifics, and additional metadata.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

Recently, Mumbai’s Tata Memorial Hospital (TMH), India’s largest cancer hospital, embraces AI with a ‘Bio-Imaging Bank’ for early stage cancer detection.

The AI aids in early diagnosis which has proven to be 98 percent correct after doctors cross-check. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

It is a comprehensive repository containing radiology and pathology images with clinical details, outcome data, treatment specifics, and additional metadata.

This resource is strategically crafted for training, validation, and rigorous testing of AI algorithms. AI’s potential lies in tailoring treatment approaches based on diverse patient profiles, and thus optimising therapy outcomes. Hence, statement 2 is correct and is the correct explanation of statement 1.

The project uses deep learning to develop a cancer specific tailored algorithm for early detection, incorporating data from 60,000 patients.

Funded by– The Department of Biotechnology, in collaboration with IIT-Bombay, RGCIRC-New Delhi, AIIMS-New Delhi, and PGIMER-Chandigarh.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Recently, Mumbai’s Tata Memorial Hospital (TMH), India’s largest cancer hospital, embraces AI with a ‘Bio-Imaging Bank’ for early stage cancer detection.

The AI aids in early diagnosis which has proven to be 98 percent correct after doctors cross-check. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

It is a comprehensive repository containing radiology and pathology images with clinical details, outcome data, treatment specifics, and additional metadata.

The project uses deep learning to develop a cancer specific tailored algorithm for early detection, incorporating data from 60,000 patients.

Funded by– The Department of Biotechnology, in collaboration with IIT-Bombay, RGCIRC-New Delhi, AIIMS-New Delhi, and PGIMER-Chandigarh.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: 1.Artificial intelligence comprises both Machine learning and deep learning. 2. Machine learning employs a simple structure, while deep learning uses a deep, hierarchical structure with multiple layers to capture complex relationships in the data. 3.If a robot can move from one place to another like a human, then it comes under Artificial Intelligence. Which of the above statements are correct? a.2 only b.1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1,2 and 3 Correct Answer: b Explanation: Both Machine Learning and Deep Learning are the sub-categories of Artificial Intelligence. They are studied differently due to their depth of subject and vast areas of application. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Machine learning employs a simple structure of neural networks with a limited number of layers, while deep learning uses a deep, hierarchical structure with multiple layers to capture complex relationships in the data. Deep learning, a subset of machine learning, has revolutionized the way machines process and interpret data. It teaches computers to do what comes naturally to humans; for example, in the case of Self-Driving cars, recognizing the signals to stop or go. Deep Learning involves the use of neural networks with multiple layers (three or more layers) to simulate human brain functions. Deep learning is well-suited for tasks involving image and speech recognition, while machine learning is used in tasks to recommend items on different shopping websites like Amazon, Flipkart, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct. AI deals with human behavior rather than human actions. It deals with the way the human mind thinks and causes the body to act in a way in any particular situation. Hence, if a robot just moves like humans through external commands, we cannot say that AI has been implemented for moving that robot. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Both Machine Learning and Deep Learning are the sub-categories of Artificial Intelligence. They are studied differently due to their depth of subject and vast areas of application. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Machine learning employs a simple structure of neural networks with a limited number of layers, while deep learning uses a deep, hierarchical structure with multiple layers to capture complex relationships in the data. Deep learning, a subset of machine learning, has revolutionized the way machines process and interpret data. It teaches computers to do what comes naturally to humans; for example, in the case of Self-Driving cars, recognizing the signals to stop or go. Deep Learning involves the use of neural networks with multiple layers (three or more layers) to simulate human brain functions. Deep learning is well-suited for tasks involving image and speech recognition, while machine learning is used in tasks to recommend items on different shopping websites like Amazon, Flipkart, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct. AI deals with human behavior rather than human actions. It deals with the way the human mind thinks and causes the body to act in a way in any particular situation. Hence, if a robot just moves like humans through external commands, we cannot say that AI has been implemented for moving that robot. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

1.Artificial intelligence comprises both Machine learning and deep learning.

1.Machine learning employs a simple structure, while deep learning uses a deep, hierarchical structure with multiple layers to capture complex relationships in the data.

3.If a robot can move from one place to another like a human, then it comes under Artificial Intelligence.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• b.1 and 2 only

• c. 2 and 3 only

• d. 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

Both Machine Learning and Deep Learning are the sub-categories of Artificial Intelligence. They are studied differently due to their depth of subject and vast areas of application. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Machine learning employs a simple structure of neural networks with a limited number of layers, while deep learning uses a deep, hierarchical structure with multiple layers to capture complex relationships in the data.

Deep learning, a subset of machine learning, has revolutionized the way machines process and interpret data. It teaches computers to do what comes naturally to humans; for example, in the case of Self-Driving cars, recognizing the signals to stop or go. Deep Learning involves the use of neural networks with multiple layers (three or more layers) to simulate human brain functions.

Deep learning is well-suited for tasks involving image and speech recognition, while machine learning is used in tasks to recommend items on different shopping websites like Amazon, Flipkart, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

AI deals with human behavior rather than human actions. It deals with the way the human mind thinks and causes the body to act in a way in any particular situation. Hence, if a robot just moves like humans through external commands, we cannot say that AI has been implemented for moving that robot. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (b) is correct

Explanation:

Hence, option (b) is correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points That Members of Parliament are immune from legal proceedings for anything they say or any vote they cast in Parliament or its committees, derives its backing from a) a constitutional provision b) only statutory provisions c) only the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha d) only conventions Correct Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 21. Question

That Members of Parliament are immune from legal proceedings for anything they say or any vote they cast in Parliament or its committees, derives its backing from

• a) a constitutional provision

• b) only statutory provisions

• c) only the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha

• d) only conventions

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points The G20/OECD Principles of Corporate Governance are the international standard for corporate governance. Consider the following about them. They are binding principles and replace national laws, so as to harmonise principles internationally. These principle do not apply to the money markets and the stock markets. The principles are designed only for publicly traded companies. How many of the statements above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None of the above Correct Solution: d) Learning: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: d) Learning: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 22. Question

The G20/OECD Principles of Corporate Governance are the international standard for corporate governance. Consider the following about them.

• They are binding principles and replace national laws, so as to harmonise principles internationally.

• These principle do not apply to the money markets and the stock markets.

• The principles are designed only for publicly traded companies.

How many of the statements above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

• d) None of the above

Solution: d)

Learning:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: d)

Learning:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following about Project Mausam of the Ministry of Culture. Its goals include understanding the historical impact of monsoon winds on interactions and cultural exchanges of India with its various regional coastal nations. It fosters cross-cultural linkages of India with several Indian Ocean countries and focuses on cultural routes and maritime landscapes connecting different parts of the Indian Ocean littoral. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: Project ‘Mausam’ is a cultural initiative led by the Ministry of Culture and implemented by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), New Delhi. It aims to showcase a Transnational Mixed Route (Natural and Cultural Heritage) on the World Heritage List. The project explores monsoon patterns, cultural routes, and maritime landscapes in the Indian Ocean region. Its goals include understanding the historical impact of monsoon winds on interactions, shared knowledge systems, and cultural exchanges among coastal centres. The project fosters cross-cultural linkages with 39 Indi- an Ocean countries and focuses on cultural routes and maritime landscapes connecting different parts of the Indian Ocean littoral. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Project ‘Mausam’ is a cultural initiative led by the Ministry of Culture and implemented by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), New Delhi. It aims to showcase a Transnational Mixed Route (Natural and Cultural Heritage) on the World Heritage List. The project explores monsoon patterns, cultural routes, and maritime landscapes in the Indian Ocean region. Its goals include understanding the historical impact of monsoon winds on interactions, shared knowledge systems, and cultural exchanges among coastal centres. The project fosters cross-cultural linkages with 39 Indi- an Ocean countries and focuses on cultural routes and maritime landscapes connecting different parts of the Indian Ocean littoral. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 23. Question

Consider the following about Project Mausam of the Ministry of Culture.

• Its goals include understanding the historical impact of monsoon winds on interactions and cultural exchanges of India with its various regional coastal nations.

• It fosters cross-cultural linkages of India with several Indian Ocean countries and focuses on cultural routes and maritime landscapes connecting different parts of the Indian Ocean littoral.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: Project ‘Mausam’ is a cultural initiative led by the Ministry of Culture and implemented by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), New Delhi. It aims to showcase a Transnational Mixed Route (Natural and Cultural Heritage) on the World Heritage List. The project explores monsoon patterns, cultural routes, and maritime landscapes in the Indian Ocean region.

Its goals include understanding the historical impact of monsoon winds on interactions, shared knowledge systems, and cultural exchanges among coastal centres.

The project fosters cross-cultural linkages with 39 Indi- an Ocean countries and focuses on cultural routes and maritime landscapes connecting different parts of the Indian Ocean littoral.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Its goals include understanding the historical impact of monsoon winds on interactions, shared knowledge systems, and cultural exchanges among coastal centres.

The project fosters cross-cultural linkages with 39 Indi- an Ocean countries and focuses on cultural routes and maritime landscapes connecting different parts of the Indian Ocean littoral.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Of all countries, France has the most number of land neighbours (nations), when we include its overseas departments, collectivises and territories. In Asia, China has the most number of land neighbours. In Africa, Rwanda has the most number of land neighbours. How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: a) Justification: Here is a list you can refer to: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_and_territories_by_number_of_land_borders China and Russia have the most number of land neighbours, numbering 14. In Africa, Congo has the most number of neighbours, numbering 9. Q Source: Based on https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Here is a list you can refer to: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_and_territories_by_number_of_land_borders China and Russia have the most number of land neighbours, numbering 14. In Africa, Congo has the most number of neighbours, numbering 9. Q Source: Based on https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Of all countries, France has the most number of land neighbours (nations), when we include its overseas departments, collectivises and territories.

• In Asia, China has the most number of land neighbours.

• In Africa, Rwanda has the most number of land neighbours.

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: a)

Justification: Here is a list you can refer to: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_and_territories_by_number_of_land_borders

China and Russia have the most number of land neighbours, numbering 14.

In Africa, Congo has the most number of neighbours, numbering 9.

Q Source: Based on https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: a)

Justification: Here is a list you can refer to: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_and_territories_by_number_of_land_borders

China and Russia have the most number of land neighbours, numbering 14.

In Africa, Congo has the most number of neighbours, numbering 9.

Q Source: Based on https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Tirumurai is a twelve-volume compendium of songs or hymns in praise of Shiva in the Tamil language from the 6th to the 11th century CE by various poets (Nayanars) in Tamil Nadu. The authors contributing to this volume include Appar Manikkavacakar Sekkizhar How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

#### 25. Question

Tirumurai is a twelve-volume compendium of songs or hymns in praise of Shiva in the Tamil language from the 6th to the 11th century CE by various poets (Nayanars) in Tamil Nadu. The authors contributing to this volume include

• Manikkavacakar

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Organizations spend a ton of time measuring the vocational skills, because they can. Because there’s a hundred years of history. And mostly, because it’s safe. We know how to measure typing speed. We have a lot more trouble measuring passion or commitment. And organizations hire and fire based on vocational skill output all the time. We let ourselves off the hook when it comes to decision making, eager participation, speaking with authority, working in teams, seeing the truth, inspiring others, caring and being willing to change things. We underinvest in training these skills, fearful that these things are innate and can’t be taught. We call these skills soft, making it easy for us to move on to something seemingly more urgent. With reference to above passage following references have been made: Organizations cannot thrive if it misses attitudes, processes and perceptions of the people who do the work. Soft skills are about charisma and diligence and contribution. Which of the above is/are valid? A 1 only B 2 only C Both 1 & 2 D Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C The passage tells only vocational skills are focused and soft skills are wished away. They are said to be important as per the passage so 1 is correct. The various skills mentioned in the passage and considered soft are obviously about charisma and demeanor. So C is answer. Incorrect Answer: C The passage tells only vocational skills are focused and soft skills are wished away. They are said to be important as per the passage so 1 is correct. The various skills mentioned in the passage and considered soft are obviously about charisma and demeanor. So C is answer.

#### 26. Question

Organizations spend a ton of time measuring the vocational skills, because they can. Because there’s a hundred years of history. And mostly, because it’s safe. We know how to measure typing speed. We have a lot more trouble measuring passion or commitment. And organizations hire and fire based on vocational skill output all the time. We let ourselves off the hook when it comes to decision making, eager participation, speaking with authority, working in teams, seeing the truth, inspiring others, caring and being willing to change things. We underinvest in training these skills, fearful that these things are innate and can’t be taught. We call these skills soft, making it easy for us to move on to something seemingly more urgent.

With reference to above passage following references have been made:

Organizations cannot thrive if it misses attitudes, processes and perceptions of the people who do the work.

Soft skills are about charisma and diligence and contribution.

Which of the above is/are valid?

• C Both 1 & 2

• D Neither 1 nor 2

The passage tells only vocational skills are focused and soft skills are wished away. They are said to be important as per the passage so 1 is correct.

The various skills mentioned in the passage and considered soft are obviously about charisma and demeanor.

So C is answer.

The passage tells only vocational skills are focused and soft skills are wished away. They are said to be important as per the passage so 1 is correct.

The various skills mentioned in the passage and considered soft are obviously about charisma and demeanor.

So C is answer.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points Organizations spend a ton of time measuring the vocational skills, because they can. Because there’s a hundred years of history. And mostly, because it’s safe. We know how to measure typing speed. We have a lot more trouble measuring passion or commitment. And organizations hire and fire based on vocational skill output all the time. We let ourselves off the hook when it comes to decision making, eager participation, speaking with authority, working in teams, seeing the truth, inspiring others, caring and being willing to change things. We underinvest in training these skills, fearful that these things are innate and can’t be taught. We call these skills soft, making it easy for us to move on to something seemingly more urgent. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Vocational skills are considered impersonal Soft skills are considered to be not teachable Code: A 1 only B 2 only C Both 1 & 2 D Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C The vocational skills are not about personality based qualities like soft skills. Thus they are impersonal. 1 is correct. Also, soft skills are considered not teachable hence they are not even focused by the organization. So both are correct. Incorrect Answer: C The vocational skills are not about personality based qualities like soft skills. Thus they are impersonal. 1 is correct. Also, soft skills are considered not teachable hence they are not even focused by the organization. So both are correct.

#### 27. Question

On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:

Vocational skills are considered impersonal

Soft skills are considered to be not teachable

• C Both 1 & 2

• D Neither 1 nor 2

The vocational skills are not about personality based qualities like soft skills. Thus they are impersonal. 1 is correct.

Also, soft skills are considered not teachable hence they are not even focused by the organization.

So both are correct.

The vocational skills are not about personality based qualities like soft skills. Thus they are impersonal. 1 is correct.

Also, soft skills are considered not teachable hence they are not even focused by the organization.

So both are correct.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Two friends A and B invest in a business in partnership. B borrows 20% of A’s salary, combines it with 60% of his salary and invests with A, who puts all of his remaining salary. One year later the ratio of profit of A and B is 5 : 3 respectively and B returns Rs. 21000 to A which he borrowed from him. What is the difference between salary of A and B? A) Rs. 33000 B) Rs. 56000 C) Rs. 60000 D) Rs. 28000 Correct Correct Option: B) Rs. 56000 Let salary of A = Rs. 10a and salary of B = Rs. 10b Investment by B = Rs. (2a + 6b), investment by A = Rs. 8a Ratio of investment = ratio of profit 8a/2a + 6b = 5/3 a/b = 15/7 B returns 21000 to A, so 2a = 21000 Investment of A = 8a = 84000 Salary of A = 10a = Rs.105000 Investment of B = (84000 × 3)/5 = Rs. 50400 → 2a + 6b => 6b = 50400 – 21000 = 29400 Salary of B = 10b = (29400 × 10)/6 = Rs.49000 Difference = Rs. (105000 – 49000) = Rs.56000 Hence, option B is correct. Incorrect Correct Option: B) Rs. 56000 Let salary of A = Rs. 10a and salary of B = Rs. 10b Investment by B = Rs. (2a + 6b), investment by A = Rs. 8a Ratio of investment = ratio of profit 8a/2a + 6b = 5/3 a/b = 15/7 B returns 21000 to A, so 2a = 21000 Investment of A = 8a = 84000 Salary of A = 10a = Rs.105000 Investment of B = (84000 × 3)/5 = Rs. 50400 → 2a + 6b => 6b = 50400 – 21000 = 29400 Salary of B = 10b = (29400 × 10)/6 = Rs.49000 Difference = Rs. (105000 – 49000) = Rs.56000 Hence, option B is correct.

#### 28. Question

Two friends A and B invest in a business in partnership. B borrows 20% of A’s salary, combines it with 60% of his salary and invests with A, who puts all of his remaining salary. One year later the ratio of profit of A and B is 5 : 3 respectively and B returns Rs. 21000 to A which he borrowed from him. What is the difference between salary of A and B?

• A) Rs. 33000

• B) Rs. 56000

• C) Rs. 60000

• D) Rs. 28000

Correct Option: B) Rs. 56000

Let salary of A = Rs. 10a and salary of B = Rs. 10b

Investment by B = Rs. (2a + 6b), investment by A = Rs. 8a

Ratio of investment = ratio of profit

8a/2a + 6b = 5/3

a/b = 15/7

B returns 21000 to A, so 2a = 21000

Investment of A = 8a = 84000

Salary of A = 10a = Rs.105000

Investment of B = (84000 × 3)/5 = Rs. 50400 → 2a + 6b

=> 6b = 50400 – 21000 = 29400

Salary of B = 10b = (29400 × 10)/6 = Rs.49000

Difference = Rs. (105000 – 49000) = Rs.56000

Hence, option B is correct.

Correct Option: B) Rs. 56000

Let salary of A = Rs. 10a and salary of B = Rs. 10b

Investment by B = Rs. (2a + 6b), investment by A = Rs. 8a

Ratio of investment = ratio of profit

8a/2a + 6b = 5/3

a/b = 15/7

B returns 21000 to A, so 2a = 21000

Investment of A = 8a = 84000

Salary of A = 10a = Rs.105000

Investment of B = (84000 × 3)/5 = Rs. 50400 → 2a + 6b

=> 6b = 50400 – 21000 = 29400

Salary of B = 10b = (29400 × 10)/6 = Rs.49000

Difference = Rs. (105000 – 49000) = Rs.56000

Hence, option B is correct.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points If x is 90% of y, what percent of x is y ? a. 90% b. 101(1/9)% c. 111(1/9)% d. 190% Correct Ans: C) 111(1/9)% X = (90/100)Y X =(9/10) Y Y = (10/9)X (Y/X) = 10/9 \Required percentage = [(Y/X)´100]%=[(10/9)´100]%=111(1/9)% Incorrect Ans: C) 111(1/9)% X = (90/100)Y X =(9/10) Y Y = (10/9)X (Y/X) = 10/9 \Required percentage = [(Y/X)´100]%=[(10/9)´100]%=111(1/9)%

#### 29. Question

If x is 90% of y, what percent of x is y ?

• b. 101(1/9)%

• c. 111(1/9)%

Ans: C) 111(1/9)%

X = (90/100)Y

X =(9/10) Y

Y = (10/9)X

(Y/X) = 10/9

\Required percentage = [(Y/X)´100]%=[(10/9)´100]%=111(1/9)%

Ans: C) 111(1/9)%

X = (90/100)Y

X =(9/10) Y

Y = (10/9)X

(Y/X) = 10/9

\Required percentage = [(Y/X)´100]%=[(10/9)´100]%=111(1/9)%

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points The strength of an indigo solution in percentage is equal to the amount of indigo in grams per 100 cc of water. Two 800 cc bottles are filled with indigo solutions of strengths 33% and 17%, respectively. A part of the solution from the first bottle is thrown away and replaced by an equal volume of the solution from the second bottle. If the strength of the indigo solution in the first bottle has now changed to 21% then the volume, in cc, of the solution left in the second bottle is a. 100 cc b. 200 cc c. 300 cc d. 400 cc Correct Answer: B) 200 cc Explanation: Let Bottle A have an indigo solution of strength 33% while Bottle B have an indigo solution of strength 17%. The ratio in which we mix these two solutions to obtain a resultant solution of strength 21% : A/B : 21-17 / 33-21 = 4/12 or 1/3 Hence, three parts of the solution from Bottle B is mixed with one part of the solution from Bottle A. For this process to happen, we need to displace 600 cc of solution from Bottle A and replace it with 600 cc of solution from Bottle B {since both bottles have 800 cc, three parts of this volume = 600cc}. As a result, 200 cc of the solution remains in Bottle B. Hence, the correct answer is 200 cc. Incorrect Answer: B) 200 cc Explanation: Let Bottle A have an indigo solution of strength 33% while Bottle B have an indigo solution of strength 17%. The ratio in which we mix these two solutions to obtain a resultant solution of strength 21% : A/B : 21-17 / 33-21 = 4/12 or 1/3 Hence, three parts of the solution from Bottle B is mixed with one part of the solution from Bottle A. For this process to happen, we need to displace 600 cc of solution from Bottle A and replace it with 600 cc of solution from Bottle B {since both bottles have 800 cc, three parts of this volume = 600cc}. As a result, 200 cc of the solution remains in Bottle B. Hence, the correct answer is 200 cc.

#### 30. Question

The strength of an indigo solution in percentage is equal to the amount of indigo in grams per 100 cc of water. Two 800 cc bottles are filled with indigo solutions of strengths 33% and 17%, respectively. A part of the solution from the first bottle is thrown away and replaced by an equal volume of the solution from the second bottle. If the strength of the indigo solution in the first bottle has now changed to 21% then the volume, in cc, of the solution left in the second bottle is

Answer: B) 200 cc

Explanation:

Let Bottle A have an indigo solution of strength 33% while Bottle B have an indigo solution of strength 17%.

The ratio in which we mix these two solutions to obtain a resultant solution of strength 21% : A/B : 21-17 / 33-21 = 4/12 or 1/3

Hence, three parts of the solution from Bottle B is mixed with one part of the solution from Bottle A. For this process to happen, we need

to displace 600 cc of solution from Bottle A and replace it with 600 cc of solution from Bottle B {since both bottles have 800 cc, three parts of this volume = 600cc}.

As a result, 200 cc of the solution remains in Bottle B.

Hence, the correct answer is 200 cc.

Answer: B) 200 cc

Explanation:

Let Bottle A have an indigo solution of strength 33% while Bottle B have an indigo solution of strength 17%.

The ratio in which we mix these two solutions to obtain a resultant solution of strength 21% : A/B : 21-17 / 33-21 = 4/12 or 1/3

Hence, three parts of the solution from Bottle B is mixed with one part of the solution from Bottle A. For this process to happen, we need

to displace 600 cc of solution from Bottle A and replace it with 600 cc of solution from Bottle B {since both bottles have 800 cc, three parts of this volume = 600cc}.