DAY – 12 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : POLITY

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points How many of the following provisions need the consent of states for amendment in the constitution? Representation of states in Parliament Supreme Court and High courts Elections to Parliament and state legislatures Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. The following provisions can be amended in this way: 1. Election of the President and its manner. 2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states. 3. Supreme Court and High courts. Hence Statement 2 is correct. 4. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states. 5. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule. 6. Representation of states in Parliament. Hence Statement 1 is correct. 7. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself). Elections to Parliament and State legislatures can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. The following provisions can be amended in this way: 1. Election of the President and its manner. 2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states. 3. Supreme Court and High courts. Hence Statement 2 is correct. 4. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states. 5. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule. 6. Representation of states in Parliament. Hence Statement 1 is correct. 7. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself). Elections to Parliament and State legislatures can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 1. Question

How many of the following provisions need the consent of states for amendment in the constitution?

• Representation of states in Parliament

• Supreme Court and High courts

• Elections to Parliament and state legislatures

Select the correct answer using the code given below

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States

Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

The following provisions can be amended in this way: 1. Election of the President and its manner. 2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states. 3. Supreme Court and High courts. Hence Statement 2 is correct. 4. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states. 5. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule. 6. Representation of states in Parliament. Hence Statement 1 is correct. 7. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).

Elections to Parliament and State legislatures can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: B

By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States

Elections to Parliament and State legislatures can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The laws made by astate legislature are not applicable outside the state in normal circumstance. The President is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 2 only Correct Solution: A The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The territory of India includes the states, the union territories, and any other area for the time being included in the territory of India. Hence Statement 1 is correct. A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. The laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object. Hence Statement 2 is correct. The governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The territory of India includes the states, the union territories, and any other area for the time being included in the territory of India. Hence Statement 1 is correct. A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. The laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object. Hence Statement 2 is correct. The governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements

• The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India.

• The laws made by astate legislature are not applicable outside the state in normal circumstance.

• The President is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 only

• (d) 2 only

Solution: A

The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The territory of India includes the states, the union territories, and any other area for the time being included in the territory of India. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. The laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

The governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: A

The governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: In case of a conflict between the central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in theConcurrent List, the State law prevails over the Central law. The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the Statelist for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B In case of a conflict between the central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails over the State law. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the state list for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions. This provision enables the Central government to fulfil its international obligations and commitments. Hence Statement 2 is correct. Some examples of laws enacted under the above provision are United Nations (Privileges and Immunities) Act, 1947; Geneva Convention Act, 1960; Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 and legislations relating to environment and TRIPS. Incorrect Solution: B In case of a conflict between the central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails over the State law. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the state list for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions. This provision enables the Central government to fulfil its international obligations and commitments. Hence Statement 2 is correct. Some examples of laws enacted under the above provision are United Nations (Privileges and Immunities) Act, 1947; Geneva Convention Act, 1960; Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 and legislations relating to environment and TRIPS.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• In case of a conflict between the central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in theConcurrent List, the State law prevails over the Central law.

• The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the Statelist for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

In case of a conflict between the central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails over the State law. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the state list for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions.

This provision enables the Central government to fulfil its international obligations and commitments. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Some examples of laws enacted under the above provision are United Nations (Privileges and Immunities) Act, 1947; Geneva Convention Act, 1960; Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 and legislations relating to environment and TRIPS.

Solution: B

In case of a conflict between the central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List, the Central law prevails over the State law. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the state list for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions.

This provision enables the Central government to fulfil its international obligations and commitments. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Parliament can provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect tothe use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley. During the operation of a national emergency, the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on any matter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both the statements are correct. The Constitution contains the following provisions to secure cooperation and co-ordination between the Centre and the states: The Parliament can provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley. The President can establish (under Article 263) an Inter-State Council to investigate anddiscuss subject of common interest between the Centre and the states. Such a council was setup in 1990. During the operation of a national emergency (under Article 352), the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any’ matter. Thus, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the Centre, though they are not suspended. Incorrect Solution: C Both the statements are correct. The Constitution contains the following provisions to secure cooperation and co-ordination between the Centre and the states: The Parliament can provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley. The President can establish (under Article 263) an Inter-State Council to investigate anddiscuss subject of common interest between the Centre and the states. Such a council was setup in 1990. During the operation of a national emergency (under Article 352), the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any’ matter. Thus, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the Centre, though they are not suspended.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Parliament can provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect tothe use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.

• During the operation of a national emergency, the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on any matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

The Constitution contains the following provisions to secure cooperation and co-ordination between the Centre and the states:

• The Parliament can provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.

• The President can establish (under Article 263) an Inter-State Council to investigate anddiscuss subject of common interest between the Centre and the states. Such a council was setup in 1990.

During the operation of a national emergency (under Article 352), the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any’ matter. Thus, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the Centre, though they are not suspended.

Solution: C

Both the statements are correct.

The Constitution contains the following provisions to secure cooperation and co-ordination between the Centre and the states:

• The Parliament can provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.

• The President can establish (under Article 263) an Inter-State Council to investigate anddiscuss subject of common interest between the Centre and the states. Such a council was setup in 1990.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements A state cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre, if there is still out-standing anypart of a loan made to the state by the Centre. The Central government cannot make loans to any state or give guarantees in respect of loansraised by any state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A A state cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre, if there is still out-standing any part of a loan made to the state by the Centre or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Centre. Hence Statement 1 is correct. The Central government can make loans to any state or give guarantees in respect of loans raised by any state. Any sums required for the purpose of making such loans are to be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A A state cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre, if there is still out-standing any part of a loan made to the state by the Centre or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Centre. Hence Statement 1 is correct. The Central government can make loans to any state or give guarantees in respect of loans raised by any state. Any sums required for the purpose of making such loans are to be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements

• A state cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre, if there is still out-standing anypart of a loan made to the state by the Centre.

• The Central government cannot make loans to any state or give guarantees in respect of loansraised by any state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

A state cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre, if there is still out-standing any part of a loan made to the state by the Centre or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Centre. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

The Central government can make loans to any state or give guarantees in respect of loans raised by any state. Any sums required for the purpose of making such loans are to be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Which of the following is/are the recommendations of Sarkaria Commission? Article 356 should be used very sparingly, in extreme cases as a last resortwhen all the available alternatives fail. When the president withholds his assent to the state bills, the reasons should be communicatedto the state government. The Centre should consult the states before making a law on a subject of the Concurrent List. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C All the statements given above are correct. Sarkaria Commission In 1983, the Central government appointed a three-member Commission on Centre–state relations under the chairmanship of R S Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court. The Commission made 247 recommendations to improve Centre–state relations. The important recommendations are mentioned below: A permanent Inter-State Council called the Inter-Governmental Council should be set up under Article 263. 2. Article 356 (President’s Rule) should be used very sparingly, in extreme cases as a last resort when all the available alternatives fail. When the president withholds his assent to the state bills, the reasons should be communicated to the state government. The Centre should have powers to deploy its armed forces, even without the consent of states. Incorrect Solution: C All the statements given above are correct. Sarkaria Commission In 1983, the Central government appointed a three-member Commission on Centre–state relations under the chairmanship of R S Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court. The Commission made 247 recommendations to improve Centre–state relations. The important recommendations are mentioned below: A permanent Inter-State Council called the Inter-Governmental Council should be set up under Article 263. 2. Article 356 (President’s Rule) should be used very sparingly, in extreme cases as a last resort when all the available alternatives fail. When the president withholds his assent to the state bills, the reasons should be communicated to the state government. The Centre should have powers to deploy its armed forces, even without the consent of states.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following is/are the recommendations of Sarkaria Commission?

• Article 356 should be used very sparingly, in extreme cases as a last resortwhen all the available alternatives fail.

• When the president withholds his assent to the state bills, the reasons should be communicatedto the state government.

• The Centre should consult the states before making a law on a subject of the Concurrent List.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

All the statements given above are correct.

Sarkaria Commission

In 1983, the Central government appointed a three-member Commission on Centre–state relations under the chairmanship of R S Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court.

The Commission made 247 recommendations to improve Centre–state relations. The important recommendations are mentioned below:

• A permanent Inter-State Council called the Inter-Governmental Council should be set up under Article 263. 2. Article 356 (President’s Rule) should be used very sparingly, in extreme cases as a last resort when all the available alternatives fail.

• When the president withholds his assent to the state bills, the reasons should be communicated to the state government.

• The Centre should have powers to deploy its armed forces, even without the consent of states.

Solution: C

All the statements given above are correct.

Sarkaria Commission

In 1983, the Central government appointed a three-member Commission on Centre–state relations under the chairmanship of R S Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court.

The Commission made 247 recommendations to improve Centre–state relations. The important recommendations are mentioned below:

• When the president withholds his assent to the state bills, the reasons should be communicated to the state government.

• The Centre should have powers to deploy its armed forces, even without the consent of states.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements Zonal Council: Zonal Councils are constitutional bodies. Prime Minister is the common chairman of the five zonal councils. It aims at promoting cooperation and coordination between states, union territoriesand the Centre. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 only Correct Solution: B The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Re-organisation Act of 1956. The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. The home minister of Central government is the common chairman of the five zonal councils. Each chief minister acts as a vice-chairman of the council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect. The zonal councils aim at promoting cooperation and coordination between states, union territories and the Centre. They discuss and make recommendations regarding matters like economic and social planning, linguistic minorities, border disputes, inter-state transport, and so on. They are only deliberative and advisory bodies. Hence Statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Re-organisation Act of 1956. The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. The home minister of Central government is the common chairman of the five zonal councils. Each chief minister acts as a vice-chairman of the council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect. The zonal councils aim at promoting cooperation and coordination between states, union territories and the Centre. They discuss and make recommendations regarding matters like economic and social planning, linguistic minorities, border disputes, inter-state transport, and so on. They are only deliberative and advisory bodies. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements Zonal Council:

• Zonal Councils are constitutional bodies.

• Prime Minister is the common chairman of the five zonal councils.

• It aims at promoting cooperation and coordination between states, union territoriesand the Centre.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 2 only

Solution: B

The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Re-organisation Act of 1956. The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

The home minister of Central government is the common chairman of the five zonal councils. Each chief minister acts as a vice-chairman of the council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

The zonal councils aim at promoting cooperation and coordination between states, union territories and the Centre. They discuss and make recommendations regarding matters like economic and social planning, linguistic minorities, border disputes, inter-state transport, and so on. They are only deliberative and advisory bodies. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Article 359 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 358extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire countryor a part of it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Article 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 359 extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it. Article 358 suspends Article 19 completely while Article 359 does not empower the suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21. Hence Statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B Article 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 359 extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it. Article 358 suspends Article 19 completely while Article 359 does not empower the suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Article 359 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 358extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential

• Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire countryor a part of it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Article 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 359 extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it. Article 358 suspends Article 19 completely while Article 359 does not empower the suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: President can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session. An ordinance like any other legislation, can be retrospective, that is, it may come into force from a back date. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements are correct. He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session. An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone. An ordinance like any other legislation, can be retrospective, that is, it may come into force from a back date. It may modify or repeal any act of Parliament or another ordinance. It can alter or amend a tax law also. Incorrect Solution: C Both statements are correct. He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session. An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone. An ordinance like any other legislation, can be retrospective, that is, it may come into force from a back date. It may modify or repeal any act of Parliament or another ordinance. It can alter or amend a tax law also.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

• President can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.

• An ordinance like any other legislation, can be retrospective, that is, it may come into force from a back date.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session. An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.

An ordinance like any other legislation, can be retrospective, that is, it may come into force from a back date. It may modify or repeal any act of Parliament or another ordinance. It can alter or amend a tax law also.

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points What is the difference in the electoral college of the Vice-President and the President of India? Both the houses take part in the election of President, unlike the Vice-President who is elected by the Rajya Sabha alone. State legislative assemblies do not take part in the election of the Vice-President, unlike that of the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B The Vice-President, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. His Electoral College is different from the Electoral College for the election of the President in the following two respects: It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of president, only elected members). It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included). Hence Statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B The Vice-President, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. His Electoral College is different from the Electoral College for the election of the President in the following two respects: It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of president, only elected members). It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included). Hence Statement 2 is correct.

#### 10. Question

What is the difference in the electoral college of the Vice-President and the President of India?

• Both the houses take part in the election of President, unlike the Vice-President who is elected by the Rajya Sabha alone.

• State legislative assemblies do not take part in the election of the Vice-President, unlike that of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

The Vice-President, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

His Electoral College is different from the Electoral College for the election of the President in the following two respects: It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of president, only elected members).

It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included). Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution: B

It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included). Hence Statement 2 is correct.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Impeachment of the president is a quasi-judicial procedure that can be initiated only by the Lok Sabha. Impeachment charges should be passed by both Houses by a special majority. Both elected and nominated members of both the houses participate in impeachment procedure of the president. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The impeachment of the president is the quasi-judicial procedure in the parliament The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of the Parliament. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Impeachment charges should be Signed by one fourth members of the House that frames the charges That house should pass the resolution by a majority of two thirds of the total membership of the house and then sent it to the other house. The other house should also investigate and if sustains the charges, should pass the resolution by a majority of two thirds of the total membership. Hence statement 2 is correct For the impeachment procedure of the president, both nominated members of either House of the Parliament as well as elected members can participate. However, the nominated members do not participate in election of the president. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The impeachment of the president is the quasi-judicial procedure in the parliament The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of the Parliament. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Impeachment charges should be Signed by one fourth members of the House that frames the charges That house should pass the resolution by a majority of two thirds of the total membership of the house and then sent it to the other house. The other house should also investigate and if sustains the charges, should pass the resolution by a majority of two thirds of the total membership. Hence statement 2 is correct For the impeachment procedure of the president, both nominated members of either House of the Parliament as well as elected members can participate. However, the nominated members do not participate in election of the president. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Impeachment of the president is a quasi-judicial procedure that can be initiated only by the Lok Sabha.

• Impeachment charges should be passed by both Houses by a special majority.

• Both elected and nominated members of both the houses participate in impeachment procedure of the president.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The impeachment of the president is the quasi-judicial procedure in the parliament

• The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of the Parliament.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Impeachment charges should be Signed by one fourth members of the House that frames the charges

• That house should pass the resolution by a majority of two thirds of the total membership of the house and then sent it to the other house.

• The other house should also investigate and if sustains the charges, should pass the resolution by a majority of two thirds of the total membership.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• For the impeachment procedure of the president, both nominated members of either House of the Parliament as well as elected members can participate.

• However, the nominated members do not participate in election of the president.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The impeachment of the president is the quasi-judicial procedure in the parliament

• The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of the Parliament.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Impeachment charges should be Signed by one fourth members of the House that frames the charges

• That house should pass the resolution by a majority of two thirds of the total membership of the house and then sent it to the other house.

• The other house should also investigate and if sustains the charges, should pass the resolution by a majority of two thirds of the total membership.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• For the impeachment procedure of the president, both nominated members of either House of the Parliament as well as elected members can participate.

• However, the nominated members do not participate in election of the president.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: All the Ministers in the Central Council of ministers are appointed by and are collectively responsible to the Prime Minister. Any advice provided by the Council of Ministers to the President is binding in nature. No Minister can be removed when the Council of Ministers enjoy confidence of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Article 75 deals with provisions related to Central Council of Ministers The Prime Minister is appointed by the president and other ministers are appointed by the president on advice of the Prime Minister. The ministers hold office during pleasure of the president The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The 42nd and 44th Constitutional Amendment Acts have made the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers binding on the president. Hence statement 2 is correct Article 75 deals with individual responsibility of the ministers According to it, ministers hold office during pleasure of the president which means that the president can remove a Minister even at a time when the Council of Ministers enjoy confidence of the Lok Sabha. However, the president removes a Minister only on advice of the Prime Minister. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Article 75 deals with provisions related to Central Council of Ministers The Prime Minister is appointed by the president and other ministers are appointed by the president on advice of the Prime Minister. The ministers hold office during pleasure of the president The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The 42nd and 44th Constitutional Amendment Acts have made the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers binding on the president. Hence statement 2 is correct Article 75 deals with individual responsibility of the ministers According to it, ministers hold office during pleasure of the president which means that the president can remove a Minister even at a time when the Council of Ministers enjoy confidence of the Lok Sabha. However, the president removes a Minister only on advice of the Prime Minister. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• All the Ministers in the Central Council of ministers are appointed by and are collectively responsible to the Prime Minister.

• Any advice provided by the Council of Ministers to the President is binding in nature.

• No Minister can be removed when the Council of Ministers enjoy confidence of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Article 75 deals with provisions related to Central Council of Ministers

• The Prime Minister is appointed by the president and other ministers are appointed by the president on advice of the Prime Minister.

• The ministers hold office during pleasure of the president

• The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The 42nd and 44th Constitutional Amendment Acts have made the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers binding on the president.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Article 75 deals with individual responsibility of the ministers

• According to it, ministers hold office during pleasure of the president which means that the president can remove a Minister even at a time when the Council of Ministers enjoy confidence of the Lok Sabha.

• However, the president removes a Minister only on advice of the Prime Minister.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Article 75 deals with provisions related to Central Council of Ministers

• The Prime Minister is appointed by the president and other ministers are appointed by the president on advice of the Prime Minister.

• The ministers hold office during pleasure of the president

• The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The 42nd and 44th Constitutional Amendment Acts have made the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers binding on the president.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Article 75 deals with individual responsibility of the ministers

• However, the president removes a Minister only on advice of the Prime Minister.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Only elected members of the Parliament and state legislative assemblies participate in election of the Vice President. The election for the Vice President is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B The Vice President, like the President, is not directly elected by the people but by method of indirect election He/she is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both houses of the Parliament The electoral college consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament; but it does not include members of the state legislative assemblies. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The manner of election is same for both President and the Vice President The election of Vice President is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote and the voting is done by secret ballot. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Vice President, like the President, is not directly elected by the people but by method of indirect election He/she is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both houses of the Parliament The electoral college consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament; but it does not include members of the state legislative assemblies. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The manner of election is same for both President and the Vice President The election of Vice President is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote and the voting is done by secret ballot. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Only elected members of the Parliament and state legislative assemblies participate in election of the Vice President.

• The election for the Vice President is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• The Vice President, like the President, is not directly elected by the people but by method of indirect election

• He/she is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both houses of the Parliament

• The electoral college consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament; but it does not include members of the state legislative assemblies.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The manner of election is same for both President and the Vice President

• The election of Vice President is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote and the voting is done by secret ballot.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• The Vice President, like the President, is not directly elected by the people but by method of indirect election

• He/she is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both houses of the Parliament

• The electoral college consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament; but it does not include members of the state legislative assemblies.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The manner of election is same for both President and the Vice President

• The election of Vice President is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote and the voting is done by secret ballot.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: The number of seats allotted to different states in the Lok Sabha varies widely. Statement – II: Under the Constitution each state is allotted a number of seats in the Lok Sabha in a way that ratio between that number and population of the state is same for all states. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: A The number of seats in the Lok Sabha allotted to different states varies widely. For example, Uttar Pradesh has 80 seats, West Bengal has 42, Maharashtra has 48 while Arunachal Pradesh has 2 seats, Himachal Pradesh 4, Manipur and Meghalaya 2 each, Mizoram and Nagaland 1 each – i.e., the number of seats very widely. Hence statement 1 is correct For the purpose of holding direct elections to the Lok Sabha, each state is divided into territorial constituencies; in this respect, the constitution makes two provisions: Its state is allotted a number of seeds in the Lok Sabha in such a manner that the ratio between that number and its population is the same for all states this provision does not apply to a state having a population less than 6 million. Each state is divided into territorial constituencies in such a manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency and the number of seats allotted to it is the same throughout the state. Hence statement 2 is correct and it correctly explains statement 1. Incorrect Solution: A The number of seats in the Lok Sabha allotted to different states varies widely. For example, Uttar Pradesh has 80 seats, West Bengal has 42, Maharashtra has 48 while Arunachal Pradesh has 2 seats, Himachal Pradesh 4, Manipur and Meghalaya 2 each, Mizoram and Nagaland 1 each – i.e., the number of seats very widely. Hence statement 1 is correct For the purpose of holding direct elections to the Lok Sabha, each state is divided into territorial constituencies; in this respect, the constitution makes two provisions: Its state is allotted a number of seeds in the Lok Sabha in such a manner that the ratio between that number and its population is the same for all states this provision does not apply to a state having a population less than 6 million. Each state is divided into territorial constituencies in such a manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency and the number of seats allotted to it is the same throughout the state. Hence statement 2 is correct and it correctly explains statement 1.

#### 14. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I:

The number of seats allotted to different states in the Lok Sabha varies widely.

Statement – II:

Under the Constitution each state is allotted a number of seats in the Lok Sabha in a way that ratio between that number and population of the state is same for all states.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: A

• The number of seats in the Lok Sabha allotted to different states varies widely.

• For example, Uttar Pradesh has 80 seats, West Bengal has 42, Maharashtra has 48 while Arunachal Pradesh has 2 seats, Himachal Pradesh 4, Manipur and Meghalaya 2 each, Mizoram and Nagaland 1 each – i.e., the number of seats very widely.

Hence statement 1 is correct

For the purpose of holding direct elections to the Lok Sabha, each state is divided into territorial constituencies; in this respect, the constitution makes two provisions:

• Its state is allotted a number of seeds in the Lok Sabha in such a manner that the ratio between that number and its population is the same for all states this provision does not apply to a state having a population less than 6 million.

• Each state is divided into territorial constituencies in such a manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency and the number of seats allotted to it is the same throughout the state.

Hence statement 2 is correct and it correctly explains statement 1.

Solution: A

• The number of seats in the Lok Sabha allotted to different states varies widely.

Hence statement 1 is correct

For the purpose of holding direct elections to the Lok Sabha, each state is divided into territorial constituencies; in this respect, the constitution makes two provisions:

Hence statement 2 is correct and it correctly explains statement 1.

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Censure Motion: A Censure motion can be moved only against the entire Council of Ministers The reasons for its adoption should be stated in the Lok Sabha. Such a motion does not require the Council of Ministers to resign from office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C A Censure Motion can be moved in the Lok Sabha against an individual Ministers, a group of ministers or the entire Council of Ministers. Hence statement 1 is incorrect A Censure Motion should state the reason for its adoption in the Lok Sabha It is moved for censuringthe Council of Ministers for specific policies and actions If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers need not resign from the office. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C A Censure Motion can be moved in the Lok Sabha against an individual Ministers, a group of ministers or the entire Council of Ministers. Hence statement 1 is incorrect A Censure Motion should state the reason for its adoption in the Lok Sabha It is moved for censuringthe Council of Ministers for specific policies and actions If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers need not resign from the office. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Censure Motion:

• A Censure motion can be moved only against the entire Council of Ministers

• The reasons for its adoption should be stated in the Lok Sabha.

• Such a motion does not require the Council of Ministers to resign from office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• A Censure Motion can be moved in the Lok Sabha against an individual Ministers, a group of ministers or the entire Council of Ministers.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• A Censure Motion should state the reason for its adoption in the Lok Sabha

• It is moved for censuringthe Council of Ministers for specific policies and actions

• If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers need not resign from the office.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

• A Censure Motion can be moved in the Lok Sabha against an individual Ministers, a group of ministers or the entire Council of Ministers.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• A Censure Motion should state the reason for its adoption in the Lok Sabha

• It is moved for censuringthe Council of Ministers for specific policies and actions

• If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers need not resign from the office.

Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The privileges and pension of the Supreme Court judges are determined by the Parliament. The administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated fund of India. The judges of supreme court hold their office during pleasure of the president. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A The salaries, allowances leave and pension of the judges of supreme court are determined from time to time by the Parliament. They cannot be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment except during a financial emergency. The retired chief justice and judges are entitled to 50% of their last drawn salary as monthly pension. Hence statement 1 is correct The salaries, Allowances and pensions of the judges and the staff as well as all the administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India Thus, these are non-votable by the Parliament, although members can discuss these. Hence statement 2 is correct The Constitution provides that Supreme Court judges hold office until the age of 65 years. Hence, they are provided with security of tenure. They can be removed from office by the president only in manner and on grounds mentioned by the Constitution. This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the president though they are appointed by him. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The salaries, allowances leave and pension of the judges of supreme court are determined from time to time by the Parliament. They cannot be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment except during a financial emergency. The retired chief justice and judges are entitled to 50% of their last drawn salary as monthly pension. Hence statement 1 is correct The salaries, Allowances and pensions of the judges and the staff as well as all the administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India Thus, these are non-votable by the Parliament, although members can discuss these. Hence statement 2 is correct The Constitution provides that Supreme Court judges hold office until the age of 65 years. Hence, they are provided with security of tenure. They can be removed from office by the president only in manner and on grounds mentioned by the Constitution. This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the president though they are appointed by him. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The privileges and pension of the Supreme Court judges are determined by the Parliament.

• The administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated fund of India.

• The judges of supreme court hold their office during pleasure of the president.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• The salaries, allowances leave and pension of the judges of supreme court are determined from time to time by the Parliament.

• They cannot be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment except during a financial emergency.

• The retired chief justice and judges are entitled to 50% of their last drawn salary as monthly pension.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The salaries, Allowances and pensions of the judges and the staff as well as all the administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India

• Thus, these are non-votable by the Parliament, although members can discuss these.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Constitution provides that Supreme Court judges hold office until the age of 65 years.

• Hence, they are provided with security of tenure.

• They can be removed from office by the president only in manner and on grounds mentioned by the Constitution.

• This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the president though they are appointed by him.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• The salaries, allowances leave and pension of the judges of supreme court are determined from time to time by the Parliament.

• They cannot be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment except during a financial emergency.

• The retired chief justice and judges are entitled to 50% of their last drawn salary as monthly pension.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The salaries, Allowances and pensions of the judges and the staff as well as all the administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India

• Thus, these are non-votable by the Parliament, although members can discuss these.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• The Constitution provides that Supreme Court judges hold office until the age of 65 years.

• Hence, they are provided with security of tenure.

• They can be removed from office by the president only in manner and on grounds mentioned by the Constitution.

• This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the president though they are appointed by him.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following situations: When more than 6 months have lapsed after a bill being passed by one House has been transmitted to another House and is still pending with the second House. When a bill after being passed by both Houses have been sent to the president for his assent and the president has sent it back again for reconsideration of the two Houses. When a disagreement arises between the two Houses regarding amendments to be made in a bill. In how many of the above situations, a joined sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament can be held? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between two houses over the passage of a bill. A deadlock is deemed to have been taken place under any one of the following three situations after a bill has been passed by one house and transmitted to the other house: If the bill is rejected by the other house. If the houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill If more than 6 months have elapsed from the date of receipt of the bill by the other house without the bill being passed by it. In the above three situations, the president can summon both the houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill. The provision of joint sitting is applicable only to ordinary bills or financial bills and not for money bills and Constitutional Amendment bills. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between two houses over the passage of a bill. A deadlock is deemed to have been taken place under any one of the following three situations after a bill has been passed by one house and transmitted to the other house: If the bill is rejected by the other house. If the houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill If more than 6 months have elapsed from the date of receipt of the bill by the other house without the bill being passed by it. In the above three situations, the president can summon both the houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill. The provision of joint sitting is applicable only to ordinary bills or financial bills and not for money bills and Constitutional Amendment bills. Hence option B is correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following situations:

• When more than 6 months have lapsed after a bill being passed by one House has been transmitted to another House and is still pending with the second House.

• When a bill after being passed by both Houses have been sent to the president for his assent and the president has sent it back again for reconsideration of the two Houses.

• When a disagreement arises between the two Houses regarding amendments to be made in a bill.

In how many of the above situations, a joined sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament can be held?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between two houses over the passage of a bill. A deadlock is deemed to have been taken place under any one of the following three situations after a bill has been passed by one house and transmitted to the other house:

• If the bill is rejected by the other house.

• If the houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill

• If more than 6 months have elapsed from the date of receipt of the bill by the other house without the bill being passed by it.

In the above three situations, the president can summon both the houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill. The provision of joint sitting is applicable only to ordinary bills or financial bills and not for money bills and Constitutional Amendment bills.

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• If the bill is rejected by the other house.

• If the houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill

• If more than 6 months have elapsed from the date of receipt of the bill by the other house without the bill being passed by it.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Unlike the president, ordinance making power of the Governor is a discretionary power. Ordinances issued by both the President and the Governor can continue for six months from reassembly of the Parliament or state legislature, respectively. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D The ordinance making power of the president is not a discretionary power; he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only when such an advice has been provided by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. The ordinance making power of the Governor is not a discretionary power that is, he can also promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. Hence statement 1 is incorrect An ordinance issued by either the president or the Governor ceases to operate on the expiry of 6 weeks from reassembly of the Parliament or the state legislature as the case maybe. Such an ordinance can also terminate even earlier than the prescribed 6 weeks if both Houses of the Parliament or Legislative Assembly (with agreed to by the Legislative Council for bicameral legislature) passes resolution disapproving it. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The ordinance making power of the president is not a discretionary power; he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only when such an advice has been provided by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. The ordinance making power of the Governor is not a discretionary power that is, he can also promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. Hence statement 1 is incorrect An ordinance issued by either the president or the Governor ceases to operate on the expiry of 6 weeks from reassembly of the Parliament or the state legislature as the case maybe. Such an ordinance can also terminate even earlier than the prescribed 6 weeks if both Houses of the Parliament or Legislative Assembly (with agreed to by the Legislative Council for bicameral legislature) passes resolution disapproving it. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Unlike the president, ordinance making power of the Governor is a discretionary power.

• Ordinances issued by both the President and the Governor can continue for six months from reassembly of the Parliament or state legislature, respectively.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• The ordinance making power of the president is not a discretionary power; he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only when such an advice has been provided by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

• The ordinance making power of the Governor is not a discretionary power that is, he can also promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• An ordinance issued by either the president or the Governor ceases to operate on the expiry of 6 weeks from reassembly of the Parliament or the state legislature as the case maybe.

• Such an ordinance can also terminate even earlier than the prescribed 6 weeks if both Houses of the Parliament or Legislative Assembly (with agreed to by the Legislative Council for bicameral legislature) passes resolution disapproving it.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: D

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• An ordinance issued by either the president or the Governor ceases to operate on the expiry of 6 weeks from reassembly of the Parliament or the state legislature as the case maybe.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Under Suspensive veto, the president neither ratifies nor rejects a bill and the bill gets suspended. An Absolute veto to can be exercised by the president only in case of a private member’s bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D A suspensive veto is exercised by the president when he or she returns a bill for reconsideration of the Parliament; However, if the bill is again passed by the Parliament with or without amendment, and again presented to the president, it is obligatory for the President to give his assent to the bill. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Absolute veto refers to power of the president to withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament; the bill then ends and does not become an act. This veto is exercised in the two cases: With respect to private member’s bill With respect to government bills when the cabinet resigns. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D A suspensive veto is exercised by the president when he or she returns a bill for reconsideration of the Parliament; However, if the bill is again passed by the Parliament with or without amendment, and again presented to the president, it is obligatory for the President to give his assent to the bill. Hence statement 1 is incorrect Absolute veto refers to power of the president to withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament; the bill then ends and does not become an act. This veto is exercised in the two cases: With respect to private member’s bill With respect to government bills when the cabinet resigns. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Under Suspensive veto, the president neither ratifies nor rejects a bill and the bill gets suspended.

• An Absolute veto to can be exercised by the president only in case of a private member’s bill.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• A suspensive veto is exercised by the president when he or she returns a bill for reconsideration of the Parliament;

• However, if the bill is again passed by the Parliament with or without amendment, and again presented to the president, it is obligatory for the President to give his assent to the bill.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Absolute veto refers to power of the president to withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament; the bill then ends and does not become an act. This veto is exercised in the two cases:

• With respect to private member’s bill

• With respect to government bills when the cabinet resigns.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: D

• A suspensive veto is exercised by the president when he or she returns a bill for reconsideration of the Parliament;

• However, if the bill is again passed by the Parliament with or without amendment, and again presented to the president, it is obligatory for the President to give his assent to the bill.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

Absolute veto refers to power of the president to withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament; the bill then ends and does not become an act. This veto is exercised in the two cases:

• With respect to private member’s bill

• With respect to government bills when the cabinet resigns.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Presiding Officers of the Lok Sabha: The Institution of Deputy speaker of Lok Sabha originated under provisions of Government of India Act 1919. As per the Constitution, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker can never vote in the first instance in the House. Both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker should be selected from the ruling party only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C The Institutions of speaker and deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act 1919. This act was based on the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms. Hence statement 1 is correct The speaker of Lok Sabha does not vote in the first instance and can exercise a casting vote in case of a tie. Like this speaker that deputy speaker while presiding over the House, cannot vote in the first instance and can only exercise a casting bored in case of a tie. However, when the speaker presides over the house, the deputy speaker is like any other ordinary member and can participate in the proceedings and vote on any question before the house. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Usually, the speaker comes from the ruling party while the post of deputy speaker goes to the opposition party or opposition Alliance However there has been certain exceptional cases in this regard. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C The Institutions of speaker and deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act 1919. This act was based on the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms. Hence statement 1 is correct The speaker of Lok Sabha does not vote in the first instance and can exercise a casting vote in case of a tie. Like this speaker that deputy speaker while presiding over the House, cannot vote in the first instance and can only exercise a casting bored in case of a tie. However, when the speaker presides over the house, the deputy speaker is like any other ordinary member and can participate in the proceedings and vote on any question before the house. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Usually, the speaker comes from the ruling party while the post of deputy speaker goes to the opposition party or opposition Alliance However there has been certain exceptional cases in this regard. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Presiding Officers of the Lok Sabha:

• The Institution of Deputy speaker of Lok Sabha originated under provisions of Government of India Act 1919.

• As per the Constitution, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker can never vote in the first instance in the House.

• Both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker should be selected from the ruling party only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• The Institutions of speaker and deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act 1919.

• This act was based on the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The speaker of Lok Sabha does not vote in the first instance and can exercise a casting vote in case of a tie.

• Like this speaker that deputy speaker while presiding over the House, cannot vote in the first instance and can only exercise a casting bored in case of a tie.

• However, when the speaker presides over the house, the deputy speaker is like any other ordinary member and can participate in the proceedings and vote on any question before the house.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Usually, the speaker comes from the ruling party while the post of deputy speaker goes to the opposition party or opposition Alliance

• However there has been certain exceptional cases in this regard.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: C

• The Institutions of speaker and deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act 1919.

• This act was based on the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The speaker of Lok Sabha does not vote in the first instance and can exercise a casting vote in case of a tie.

• Like this speaker that deputy speaker while presiding over the House, cannot vote in the first instance and can only exercise a casting bored in case of a tie.

• However, when the speaker presides over the house, the deputy speaker is like any other ordinary member and can participate in the proceedings and vote on any question before the house.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Usually, the speaker comes from the ruling party while the post of deputy speaker goes to the opposition party or opposition Alliance

• However there has been certain exceptional cases in this regard.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) is a financial product that holds a collection of assets and is traded on stock exchanges like individual stocks. An Inverse ETF is designed to provide returns that move in the opposite direction of a specific index, allowing investors to benefit from market declines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C ETFs and Inverse ETFs: Context: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed new asset classes for high-risk investors, including strategies like long-short equity funds and Inverse ETFs. This move is aimed at giving investors access to more advanced investment strategies. Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF): An ETF is a type of investment fund that holds a collection of assets like stocks, bonds, or commodities and is traded on stock exchanges like individual stocks. ETFs offer investors a way to diversify their portfolios with a single investment. Known for lower fees and ease of trading, making them a cost-effective investment option. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct) Inverse ETF: An Inverse ETF is designed to provide returns that move in the opposite direction of a specific index or benchmark. If the underlying index declines, the Inverse ETF aims to increase in value by the same percentage, allowing investors to profit from market downturns. Inverse ETFs are mainly used by high-risk investors seeking to capitalize on market declines or short-term market volatility. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct) Incorrect Solution: C ETFs and Inverse ETFs: Context: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed new asset classes for high-risk investors, including strategies like long-short equity funds and Inverse ETFs. This move is aimed at giving investors access to more advanced investment strategies. Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF): An ETF is a type of investment fund that holds a collection of assets like stocks, bonds, or commodities and is traded on stock exchanges like individual stocks. ETFs offer investors a way to diversify their portfolios with a single investment. Known for lower fees and ease of trading, making them a cost-effective investment option. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct) Inverse ETF: An Inverse ETF is designed to provide returns that move in the opposite direction of a specific index or benchmark. If the underlying index declines, the Inverse ETF aims to increase in value by the same percentage, allowing investors to profit from market downturns. Inverse ETFs are mainly used by high-risk investors seeking to capitalize on market declines or short-term market volatility. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct)

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements

• Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) is a financial product that holds a collection of assets and is traded on stock exchanges like individual stocks.

• An Inverse ETF is designed to provide returns that move in the opposite direction of a specific index, allowing investors to benefit from market declines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

ETFs and Inverse ETFs:

• Context: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed new asset classes for high-risk investors, including strategies like long-short equity funds and Inverse ETFs. This move is aimed at giving investors access to more advanced investment strategies.

• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has proposed new asset classes for high-risk investors, including strategies like long-short equity funds and Inverse ETFs.

• This move is aimed at giving investors access to more advanced investment strategies.

• Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF): An ETF is a type of investment fund that holds a collection of assets like stocks, bonds, or commodities and is traded on stock exchanges like individual stocks. ETFs offer investors a way to diversify their portfolios with a single investment. Known for lower fees and ease of trading, making them a cost-effective investment option. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct)

• An ETF is a type of investment fund that holds a collection of assets like stocks, bonds, or commodities and is traded on stock exchanges like individual stocks.

• ETFs offer investors a way to diversify their portfolios with a single investment.

• Known for lower fees and ease of trading, making them a cost-effective investment option. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct)

• Inverse ETF: An Inverse ETF is designed to provide returns that move in the opposite direction of a specific index or benchmark. If the underlying index declines, the Inverse ETF aims to increase in value by the same percentage, allowing investors to profit from market downturns. Inverse ETFs are mainly used by high-risk investors seeking to capitalize on market declines or short-term market volatility. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct)

• An Inverse ETF is designed to provide returns that move in the opposite direction of a specific index or benchmark.

• If the underlying index declines, the Inverse ETF aims to increase in value by the same percentage, allowing investors to profit from market downturns.

• Inverse ETFs are mainly used by high-risk investors seeking to capitalize on market declines or short-term market volatility. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct)