DAY – 12 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY, Subject-wise Test 27, Textbook-wise Test 7,8,9 and September 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points What does the term “Deepfake” primarily refer to? (a) A high-accuracy facial recognition system used for security purposes. (b) Digital manipulation where artificial intelligence and machine learning algorithms generate or alter video and audio content to make it appear real. (c) An advanced cybersecurity measure to protect against identity theft. (d) A technique used in deep learning to enhance the resolution of images. Correct Solution: B Deepfake technology, a sophisticated form of artificial intelligence-driven digital manipulation, creates hyper-realistic video and audio content that convincingly depicts people saying or doing things they never did. This technology utilizes advanced machine learning and deep learning algorithms, particularly generative adversarial networks (GANs), to analyze and replicate the nuances of human expressions, movements, and voice. The result is synthetic media that can be almost indistinguishable from genuine content at first glance. Source: Current Affairs Trend: terms in news Approach: Only option (b) suggests false/misrepresentation w.r.t the key term given in the question. Incorrect Solution: B Deepfake technology, a sophisticated form of artificial intelligence-driven digital manipulation, creates hyper-realistic video and audio content that convincingly depicts people saying or doing things they never did. This technology utilizes advanced machine learning and deep learning algorithms, particularly generative adversarial networks (GANs), to analyze and replicate the nuances of human expressions, movements, and voice. The result is synthetic media that can be almost indistinguishable from genuine content at first glance. Source: Current Affairs Trend: terms in news Approach: Only option (b) suggests false/misrepresentation w.r.t the key term given in the question.

#### 1. Question

What does the term “Deepfake” primarily refer to?

• (a) A high-accuracy facial recognition system used for security purposes.

• (b) Digital manipulation where artificial intelligence and machine learning algorithms generate or alter video and audio content to make it appear real.

• (c) An advanced cybersecurity measure to protect against identity theft.

• (d) A technique used in deep learning to enhance the resolution of images.

Solution: B

Deepfake technology, a sophisticated form of artificial intelligence-driven digital manipulation, creates hyper-realistic video and audio content that convincingly depicts people saying or doing things they never did. This technology utilizes advanced machine learning and deep learning algorithms, particularly generative adversarial networks (GANs), to analyze and replicate the nuances of human expressions, movements, and voice. The result is synthetic media that can be almost indistinguishable from genuine content at first glance.

Trend: terms in news

Approach: Only option (b) suggests false/misrepresentation w.r.t the key term given in the question.

Solution: B

Trend: terms in news

Approach: Only option (b) suggests false/misrepresentation w.r.t the key term given in the question.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which recent development in Blockchain technology is significant for improving supply chain transparency? (a) Proof of Work algorithms (b) Smart Contracts (c) Cross-chain interoperability (d) Non-Fungible tokens Correct Solution: B Smart contracts in blockchain technology have become significant for improving supply chain transparency. A smart contract is a self-executing contract with the terms of the agreement directly written into code. They are deployed on a blockchain and run when predetermined conditions are met. In the context of supply chains, smart contracts can be used to automate and verify compliance with agreements at every step of the supply chain without the need for intermediaries. This ensures a transparent, auditable, and secure record of transactions, making it easier to verify the authenticity of products and track their journey from origin to consumer. Source: Current Affairs Trend: terms in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: B Smart contracts in blockchain technology have become significant for improving supply chain transparency. A smart contract is a self-executing contract with the terms of the agreement directly written into code. They are deployed on a blockchain and run when predetermined conditions are met. In the context of supply chains, smart contracts can be used to automate and verify compliance with agreements at every step of the supply chain without the need for intermediaries. This ensures a transparent, auditable, and secure record of transactions, making it easier to verify the authenticity of products and track their journey from origin to consumer. Source: Current Affairs Trend: terms in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 2. Question

Which recent development in Blockchain technology is significant for improving supply chain transparency?

• (a) Proof of Work algorithms

• (b) Smart Contracts

• (c) Cross-chain interoperability

• (d) Non-Fungible tokens

Solution: B

Smart contracts in blockchain technology have become significant for improving supply chain transparency. A smart contract is a self-executing contract with the terms of the agreement directly written into code. They are deployed on a blockchain and run when predetermined conditions are met. In the context of supply chains, smart contracts can be used to automate and verify compliance with agreements at every step of the supply chain without the need for intermediaries. This ensures a transparent, auditable, and secure record of transactions, making it easier to verify the authenticity of products and track their journey from origin to consumer.

Trend: terms in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: B

Trend: terms in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Edge Computing: Edge Computing is unsuitable for remote locations with limited or no connectivity to a centralized cloud. It enables real-time data analytics and decision-making at the edge of the network. The deployment of 5G technology is expected to hinder the growth of Edge Computing due to increased centralization. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Edge Computing is particularly suitable for remote locations with limited or no connectivity to a centralized cloud because it processes data locally, thereby reducing the need for long-distance communication with centralized data centers. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. One of the key benefits of Edge Computing is its ability to perform real-time data analytics and decision-making at the edge of the network. This is because data does not need to traverse over long distances to a centralized cloud for processing, which reduces latency and enables immediate insights and actions. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The deployment of 5G technology is expected to bolster the growth of Edge Computing. 5G’s high speed, large capacity, and particularly its low latency complement Edge Computing by allowing faster data transmission to and from the edge of the network, thus facilitating more effective real-time applications. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Source: Science and technology Trend: terms in news Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: A Edge Computing is particularly suitable for remote locations with limited or no connectivity to a centralized cloud because it processes data locally, thereby reducing the need for long-distance communication with centralized data centers. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. One of the key benefits of Edge Computing is its ability to perform real-time data analytics and decision-making at the edge of the network. This is because data does not need to traverse over long distances to a centralized cloud for processing, which reduces latency and enables immediate insights and actions. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The deployment of 5G technology is expected to bolster the growth of Edge Computing. 5G’s high speed, large capacity, and particularly its low latency complement Edge Computing by allowing faster data transmission to and from the edge of the network, thus facilitating more effective real-time applications. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Source: Science and technology Trend: terms in news Approach: applied knowledge

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Edge Computing:

• Edge Computing is unsuitable for remote locations with limited or no connectivity to a centralized cloud.

• It enables real-time data analytics and decision-making at the edge of the network.

• The deployment of 5G technology is expected to hinder the growth of Edge Computing due to increased centralization.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Edge Computing is particularly suitable for remote locations with limited or no connectivity to a centralized cloud because it processes data locally, thereby reducing the need for long-distance communication with centralized data centers.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

One of the key benefits of Edge Computing is its ability to perform real-time data analytics and decision-making at the edge of the network. This is because data does not need to traverse over long distances to a centralized cloud for processing, which reduces latency and enables immediate insights and actions.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The deployment of 5G technology is expected to bolster the growth of Edge Computing. 5G’s high speed, large capacity, and particularly its low latency complement Edge Computing by allowing faster data transmission to and from the edge of the network, thus facilitating more effective real-time applications.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Trend: terms in news

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Trend: terms in news

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points What is the primary function of Decentralized Finance (DeFi) within blockchain technology? (a) Adheres to established financial regulations. (b) Connects conventional and blockchain finance. (c) Enables finance without central intermediaries (d) Relies on centralized data for transactional clarity and efficiency. Correct Solution: C DeFi is a transformative aspect of blockchain that uses smart contracts to conduct financial transactions and offer services like lending, borrowing, and trading without traditional central entities such as banks. It allows for more open access to financial services, leveraging the decentralized nature of blockchain technology to promote financial inclusion and innovation. Source: https://research.stlouisfed.org/publications/review/2021/02/05/decentralized-finance-on-blockchain-and-smart-contract-based-financial-markets Trend: Blockchain technology Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C DeFi is a transformative aspect of blockchain that uses smart contracts to conduct financial transactions and offer services like lending, borrowing, and trading without traditional central entities such as banks. It allows for more open access to financial services, leveraging the decentralized nature of blockchain technology to promote financial inclusion and innovation. Source: https://research.stlouisfed.org/publications/review/2021/02/05/decentralized-finance-on-blockchain-and-smart-contract-based-financial-markets Trend: Blockchain technology Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 4. Question

What is the primary function of Decentralized Finance (DeFi) within blockchain technology?

• (a) Adheres to established financial regulations.

• (b) Connects conventional and blockchain finance.

• (c) Enables finance without central intermediaries

• (d) Relies on centralized data for transactional clarity and efficiency.

Solution: C

DeFi is a transformative aspect of blockchain that uses smart contracts to conduct financial transactions and offer services like lending, borrowing, and trading without traditional central entities such as banks. It allows for more open access to financial services, leveraging the decentralized nature of blockchain technology to promote financial inclusion and innovation.

Trend: Blockchain technology

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

Trend: Blockchain technology

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points With reference to CAR T-cell therapy, consider the following statements: CAR T-cell therapy reengineers a patient’s T cells to target cancer. Administered CAR T-cells have a limited active presence in the body, necessitating further doses. CAR T-cell therapy is extensively successful in treating a range of solid tumours. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A CAR T-cell therapy is a type of treatment where a patient’s T cells, a part of the immune system, are changed in the laboratory so they can bind to cancer cells and kill them. In this therapy, blood from a patient is taken, and the T cells are separated from the rest of the blood. These cells are then genetically engineered to produce special structures called chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) on their surface. When these CAR T cells are reinfused into the patient’s body, they can now lock on to a specific antigen on the patient’s cancer cells and destroy them. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Administered CAR T-cells can persist in the body for an extended period, and there have been instances where they remain active for years, providing ongoing surveillance against cancer recurrence. This means that additional doses are not generally required unless the cancer returns or does not respond to the initial treatment. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. While CAR T-cell therapy has shown high rates of success in certain hematological malignancies, such as some types of lymphomas and leukemias, its effectiveness in solid tumours has been more challenging to establish. Solid tumours present a more complex environment for CAR T-cells, and the therapy has not yet achieved extensive success in this area. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and medicine Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: A CAR T-cell therapy is a type of treatment where a patient’s T cells, a part of the immune system, are changed in the laboratory so they can bind to cancer cells and kill them. In this therapy, blood from a patient is taken, and the T cells are separated from the rest of the blood. These cells are then genetically engineered to produce special structures called chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) on their surface. When these CAR T cells are reinfused into the patient’s body, they can now lock on to a specific antigen on the patient’s cancer cells and destroy them. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Administered CAR T-cells can persist in the body for an extended period, and there have been instances where they remain active for years, providing ongoing surveillance against cancer recurrence. This means that additional doses are not generally required unless the cancer returns or does not respond to the initial treatment. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. While CAR T-cell therapy has shown high rates of success in certain hematological malignancies, such as some types of lymphomas and leukemias, its effectiveness in solid tumours has been more challenging to establish. Solid tumours present a more complex environment for CAR T-cells, and the therapy has not yet achieved extensive success in this area. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and medicine Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 5. Question

With reference to CAR T-cell therapy, consider the following statements:

• CAR T-cell therapy reengineers a patient’s T cells to target cancer.

• Administered CAR T-cells have a limited active presence in the body, necessitating further doses.

• CAR T-cell therapy is extensively successful in treating a range of solid tumours.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

CAR T-cell therapy is a type of treatment where a patient’s T cells, a part of the immune system, are changed in the laboratory so they can bind to cancer cells and kill them. In this therapy, blood from a patient is taken, and the T cells are separated from the rest of the blood. These cells are then genetically engineered to produce special structures called chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) on their surface. When these CAR T cells are reinfused into the patient’s body, they can now lock on to a specific antigen on the patient’s cancer cells and destroy them.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Administered CAR T-cells can persist in the body for an extended period, and there have been instances where they remain active for years, providing ongoing surveillance against cancer recurrence. This means that additional doses are not generally required unless the cancer returns or does not respond to the initial treatment.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

While CAR T-cell therapy has shown high rates of success in certain hematological malignancies, such as some types of lymphomas and leukemias, its effectiveness in solid tumours has been more challenging to establish. Solid tumours present a more complex environment for CAR T-cells, and the therapy has not yet achieved extensive success in this area.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Trend: Healthcare and medicine

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Trend: Healthcare and medicine

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points With reference to Thalassaemia, consider the following statements: People with thalassaemia produce too little haemoglobin, which is used by red blood cells to carry oxygen around the body. People suffering from Thalassemia often suffer from excess iron content in their body. A person will have thalassaemia if they inherit faulty genes from both the parents. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: Thalassaemia is the name for a group of inherited conditions that affect a substance in the blood called People with thalassaemia produce either no or too little haemoglobin, which is used by red blood cells to carry oxygen around the body. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Cause: It is caused by faulty genes that affect the production of haemoglobin. A child can only be born with thalassaemia if they inherit these faulty genes from both parents. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Symptoms: Anaemia – severe tiredness, weakness, shortness of breath, pounding, fluttering or irregular heartbeats (palpitations) and pale skin caused by the lack of haemoglobin. Too much iron in the body – this is caused by the regular blood transfusions used to treat anaemia and can cause problems with the heart, liver and hormone levels if untreated. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Some people may also have delayed growth, weak and fragile bones (osteoporosis), and reduced fertility. Treatments: Blood transfusions – regular blood transfusions treat and prevent anaemia; in severe cases these are needed around once a month. Chelation therapy – treatment with medicine to remove the excess iron from the body that builds up as a result of having regular blood transfusions The only possible cure for thalassaemia is a stem cell or bone marrow transplant, but this is not done very often because of the risks involved. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and medicine Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Thalassaemia is the name for a group of inherited conditions that affect a substance in the blood called People with thalassaemia produce either no or too little haemoglobin, which is used by red blood cells to carry oxygen around the body. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Cause: It is caused by faulty genes that affect the production of haemoglobin. A child can only be born with thalassaemia if they inherit these faulty genes from both parents. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Symptoms: Anaemia – severe tiredness, weakness, shortness of breath, pounding, fluttering or irregular heartbeats (palpitations) and pale skin caused by the lack of haemoglobin. Too much iron in the body – this is caused by the regular blood transfusions used to treat anaemia and can cause problems with the heart, liver and hormone levels if untreated. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Some people may also have delayed growth, weak and fragile bones (osteoporosis), and reduced fertility. Treatments: Blood transfusions – regular blood transfusions treat and prevent anaemia; in severe cases these are needed around once a month. Chelation therapy – treatment with medicine to remove the excess iron from the body that builds up as a result of having regular blood transfusions The only possible cure for thalassaemia is a stem cell or bone marrow transplant, but this is not done very often because of the risks involved. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Healthcare and medicine Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 6. Question

With reference to Thalassaemia, consider the following statements:

• People with thalassaemia produce too little haemoglobin, which is used by red blood cells to carry oxygen around the body.

• People suffering from Thalassemia often suffer from excess iron content in their body.

• A person will have thalassaemia if they inherit faulty genes from both the parents.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Thalassaemia is the name for a group of inherited conditions that affect a substance in the blood called People with thalassaemia produce either no or too little haemoglobin, which is used by red blood cells to carry oxygen around the body. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It is caused by faulty genes that affect the production of haemoglobin.

• A child can only be born with thalassaemia if they inherit these faulty genes from both parents. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Anaemia – severe tiredness, weakness, shortness of breath, pounding, fluttering or irregular heartbeats (palpitations) and pale skin caused by the lack of haemoglobin.

• Too much iron in the body – this is caused by the regular blood transfusions used to treat anaemia and can cause problems with the heart, liver and hormone levels if untreated. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Some people may also have delayed growth, weak and fragile bones (osteoporosis), and reduced fertility.

• Treatments:

• Blood transfusions – regular blood transfusions treat and prevent anaemia; in severe cases these are needed around once a month.

• Chelation therapy – treatment with medicine to remove the excess iron from the body that builds up as a result of having regular blood transfusions

• The only possible cure for thalassaemia is a stem cell or bone marrow transplant, but this is not done very often because of the risks involved.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Healthcare and medicine

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• It is caused by faulty genes that affect the production of haemoglobin.

• A child can only be born with thalassaemia if they inherit these faulty genes from both parents. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Anaemia – severe tiredness, weakness, shortness of breath, pounding, fluttering or irregular heartbeats (palpitations) and pale skin caused by the lack of haemoglobin.

• Some people may also have delayed growth, weak and fragile bones (osteoporosis), and reduced fertility.

• Treatments:

• Blood transfusions – regular blood transfusions treat and prevent anaemia; in severe cases these are needed around once a month.

• Chelation therapy – treatment with medicine to remove the excess iron from the body that builds up as a result of having regular blood transfusions

• The only possible cure for thalassaemia is a stem cell or bone marrow transplant, but this is not done very often because of the risks involved.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Healthcare and medicine

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding National Sickle Cell Anaemia Eradication Mission: It was announced as part of the interim budget 2024 to eliminate sickle cell disease (SCD) as a public health problem in India before 2047. The mission will entail universal screening of seven crore people in the 0-40 years age group in affected tribal areas and counselling through collaborative efforts of central ministries and state governments. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: b Explanation: National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission was announced as part of the Union Budget 2023 to eliminate sickle cell disease (SCD) as a public health problem in India before 2047. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The overall aim is to enable access to affordable and quality health care to all SCD patients, and to lower the prevalence through awareness, change of practices and screening interventions. The mission will entail awareness creation, universal screening of seven crore people in the 0-40 years age group in affected tribal areas and counselling through collaborative efforts of central ministries and state governments. Hence, statement 2 is correct Initially, the focus shall be on 17 states with higher prevalence of SCD. Sickle Cell Anaemia: It is an inherited blood disorder. It affects haemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells that delivers oxygen to cells throughout the body. People with this disease have atypical haemoglobin molecules called haemoglobin S, which can distort red blood cells into a sickle, or crescent, shape. These sickle cells also become rigid and sticky, which can slow or block blood flow. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes/initiatives in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission was announced as part of the Union Budget 2023 to eliminate sickle cell disease (SCD) as a public health problem in India before 2047. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The overall aim is to enable access to affordable and quality health care to all SCD patients, and to lower the prevalence through awareness, change of practices and screening interventions. The mission will entail awareness creation, universal screening of seven crore people in the 0-40 years age group in affected tribal areas and counselling through collaborative efforts of central ministries and state governments. Hence, statement 2 is correct Initially, the focus shall be on 17 states with higher prevalence of SCD. Sickle Cell Anaemia: It is an inherited blood disorder. It affects haemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells that delivers oxygen to cells throughout the body. People with this disease have atypical haemoglobin molecules called haemoglobin S, which can distort red blood cells into a sickle, or crescent, shape. These sickle cells also become rigid and sticky, which can slow or block blood flow. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes/initiatives in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding National Sickle Cell Anaemia Eradication Mission:

• It was announced as part of the interim budget 2024 to eliminate sickle cell disease (SCD) as a public health problem in India before 2047.

• The mission will entail universal screening of seven crore people in the 0-40 years age group in affected tribal areas and counselling through collaborative efforts of central ministries and state governments.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission was announced as part of the Union Budget 2023 to eliminate sickle cell disease (SCD) as a public health problem in India before 2047. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The overall aim is to enable access to affordable and quality health care to all SCD patients, and to lower the prevalence through awareness, change of practices and screening interventions.

• The mission will entail awareness creation, universal screening of seven crore people in the 0-40 years age group in affected tribal areas and counselling through collaborative efforts of central ministries and state governments. Hence, statement 2 is correct

• Initially, the focus shall be on 17 states with higher prevalence of SCD.

• Sickle Cell Anaemia:

• It is an inherited blood disorder.

• It affects haemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells that delivers oxygen to cells throughout the body.

• People with this disease have atypical haemoglobin molecules called haemoglobin S, which can distort red blood cells into a sickle, or crescent, shape.

• These sickle cells also become rigid and sticky, which can slow or block blood flow.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Schemes/initiatives in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The overall aim is to enable access to affordable and quality health care to all SCD patients, and to lower the prevalence through awareness, change of practices and screening interventions.

• Initially, the focus shall be on 17 states with higher prevalence of SCD.

• Sickle Cell Anaemia:

• It is an inherited blood disorder.

• It affects haemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells that delivers oxygen to cells throughout the body.

• People with this disease have atypical haemoglobin molecules called haemoglobin S, which can distort red blood cells into a sickle, or crescent, shape.

• These sickle cells also become rigid and sticky, which can slow or block blood flow.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Schemes/initiatives in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statement are* not correct regarding ‘Semi- cryogenic Engine’? a) They are a type of rocket engine that uses only gaseous propellants. b) They operate at temperatures higher than cryogenic engines. c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b) Correct Answer: a Explanation: An intermediate configuration of a 2000 kN semi-cryogenic engine was recently tested at a newly commissioned Semi-cryogenic Integrated Engine & Stage Test facility at ISRO Propulsion Complex (IPRC) in Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu by ISRO. Semi-cryogenic engines are a type of rocket engine that use a combination of liquid and gaseous propellants. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. They are called “semi-cryogenic” because they operate at temperatures higher than cryogenic engines but still colder than traditional liquid rocket engines. Hence, statement 2 is correct. A semi-cryogenic engine uses refined kerosene instead of liquid hydrogen. Liquid oxygen is used as an oxidizer. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Defence technology Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: An intermediate configuration of a 2000 kN semi-cryogenic engine was recently tested at a newly commissioned Semi-cryogenic Integrated Engine & Stage Test facility at ISRO Propulsion Complex (IPRC) in Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu by ISRO. Semi-cryogenic engines are a type of rocket engine that use a combination of liquid and gaseous propellants. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. They are called “semi-cryogenic” because they operate at temperatures higher than cryogenic engines but still colder than traditional liquid rocket engines. Hence, statement 2 is correct. A semi-cryogenic engine uses refined kerosene instead of liquid hydrogen. Liquid oxygen is used as an oxidizer. Hence, option (a) is correct. * Source: Science and technology Trend: Defence technology Approach: applied knowledge

#### 8. Question

Which of the following statement are* not* correct regarding ‘Semi- cryogenic Engine’?

• a) They are a type of rocket engine that uses only gaseous propellants.

• b) They operate at temperatures higher than cryogenic engines.

• c) Both (a) and (b)

• d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Explanation:

• An intermediate configuration of a 2000 kN semi-cryogenic engine was recently tested at a newly commissioned Semi-cryogenic Integrated Engine & Stage Test facility at ISRO Propulsion Complex (IPRC) in Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu by ISRO.

• Semi-cryogenic engines are a type of rocket engine that use a combination of liquid and gaseous propellants. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• They are called “semi-cryogenic” because they operate at temperatures higher than cryogenic engines but still colder than traditional liquid rocket engines. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• A semi-cryogenic engine uses refined kerosene instead of liquid hydrogen. Liquid oxygen is used as an oxidizer.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Defence technology

Approach: applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Semi-cryogenic engines are a type of rocket engine that use a combination of liquid and gaseous propellants. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• A semi-cryogenic engine uses refined kerosene instead of liquid hydrogen. Liquid oxygen is used as an oxidizer.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Defence technology

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A Brain-Computer Interface (BCI) is a technology that enables direct communication between the brain and external devices, without using traditional neuromuscular pathways. Statement-II: BCIs typically involve the use of sensors to detect brain activity, which is then translated into commands or actions, allowing individuals to control devices or interact with the external world using their thoughts. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Correct Answer: a Explanation: Recently, Elon Musk made an announcement concerning the successful implantation of a Neural link device in a human subject. The device is roughly the size of a large coin, specifically designed for implantation in the skull for brain-computer interface. A Brain-Computer Interface (BCI) is a technology that enables direct communication between the brain and external devices, such as computers or prosthetics, without using traditional neuromuscular pathways like nerves and muscles. Hence, statement 1 is correct. BCIs typically involve the use of sensors to detect brain activity, which is then translated into commands or actions, allowing individuals to control devices or interact with the external world using their thoughts. Hence, statement 2 is correct and is the correct explanation of statement 1. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: terms in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Recently, Elon Musk made an announcement concerning the successful implantation of a Neural link device in a human subject. The device is roughly the size of a large coin, specifically designed for implantation in the skull for brain-computer interface. A Brain-Computer Interface (BCI) is a technology that enables direct communication between the brain and external devices, such as computers or prosthetics, without using traditional neuromuscular pathways like nerves and muscles. Hence, statement 1 is correct. BCIs typically involve the use of sensors to detect brain activity, which is then translated into commands or actions, allowing individuals to control devices or interact with the external world using their thoughts. Hence, statement 2 is correct and is the correct explanation of statement 1. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: terms in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

A Brain-Computer Interface (BCI) is a technology that enables direct communication between the brain and external devices, without using traditional neuromuscular pathways.

Statement-II:

BCIs typically involve the use of sensors to detect brain activity, which is then translated into commands or actions, allowing individuals to control devices or interact with the external world using their thoughts.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Explanation:

• Recently, Elon Musk made an announcement concerning the successful implantation of a Neural link device in a human subject. The device is roughly the size of a large coin, specifically designed for implantation in the skull for brain-computer interface.

• A Brain-Computer Interface (BCI) is a technology that enables direct communication between the brain and external devices, such as computers or prosthetics, without using traditional neuromuscular pathways like nerves and muscles. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• BCIs typically involve the use of sensors to detect brain activity, which is then translated into commands or actions, allowing individuals to control devices or interact with the external world using their thoughts. Hence, statement 2 is correct and is the correct explanation of statement 1.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: terms in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: terms in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points What will be the main impact of generative AI in the coming years? a) It will start making decisions and completely replace humans in a variety of sectors. b) It will increase productivity by many folds c) It will increase security through Block chain and distributed ledger technology d) It will automate repetitive tasks and liberate humans from dull, robotic jobs Correct Answer: d Explanation: GAI is a rapidly growing branch of AI that focuses on generating new content (such as images, audio, text, etc.) based on patterns and rules learned from data. By automating tasks that previously required human intervention, generative AI saves valuable time and reduces operational costs. For instance, in architecture and design, AI algorithms can generate building designs based on given specifications, significantly speeding up the design process. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Basic concepts on AI Approach: option (a) is an extreme statement, as technology cannot replace humans in entirety, (b) and (c) are vague statements. Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: GAI is a rapidly growing branch of AI that focuses on generating new content (such as images, audio, text, etc.) based on patterns and rules learned from data. By automating tasks that previously required human intervention, generative AI saves valuable time and reduces operational costs. For instance, in architecture and design, AI algorithms can generate building designs based on given specifications, significantly speeding up the design process. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Basic concepts on AI Approach: option (a) is an extreme statement, as technology cannot replace humans in entirety, (b) and (c) are vague statements.

#### 10. Question

What will be the main impact of generative AI in the coming years?

• a) It will start making decisions and completely replace humans in a variety of sectors.

• b) It will increase productivity by many folds

• c) It will increase security through Block chain and distributed ledger technology

• d) It will automate repetitive tasks and liberate humans from dull, robotic jobs

Explanation:

• GAI is a rapidly growing branch of AI that focuses on generating new content (such as images, audio, text, etc.) based on patterns and rules learned from data.

• By automating tasks that previously required human intervention, generative AI saves valuable time and reduces operational costs. For instance, in architecture and design, AI algorithms can generate building designs based on given specifications, significantly speeding up the design process.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on AI

Approach: option (a) is an extreme statement, as technology cannot replace humans in entirety, (b) and (c) are vague statements.

Explanation:

• GAI is a rapidly growing branch of AI that focuses on generating new content (such as images, audio, text, etc.) based on patterns and rules learned from data.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on AI

Approach: option (a) is an extreme statement, as technology cannot replace humans in entirety, (b) and (c) are vague statements.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points With reference to Generative AI (GAI), consider the following statements: It can engage in human-like conversations. It can create articles, stories, and even poetry. It can generate realistic images and videos How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: c Explanation: Generative AI has a wide range of applications across different industries: Natural Language Processing (NLP): It’s used for text generation, language translation, and chatbots that can engage in human-like conversations. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Content Generation: Generative AI can create articles, stories, and even poetry. It’s used by content creators to assist in writing. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Image and Video Generation: It can generate realistic images and videos, which are valuable in fields like entertainment and design. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Data Augmentation: In data science, it’s used to create synthetic data for training machine learning models. Healthcare: Generative AI helps in generating medical reports, simulating disease progression, and drug discovery. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Basic concepts on AI Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Generative AI has a wide range of applications across different industries: Natural Language Processing (NLP): It’s used for text generation, language translation, and chatbots that can engage in human-like conversations. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Content Generation: Generative AI can create articles, stories, and even poetry. It’s used by content creators to assist in writing. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Image and Video Generation: It can generate realistic images and videos, which are valuable in fields like entertainment and design. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Data Augmentation: In data science, it’s used to create synthetic data for training machine learning models. Healthcare: Generative AI helps in generating medical reports, simulating disease progression, and drug discovery. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Basic concepts on AI Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 11. Question

With reference to Generative AI (GAI), consider the following statements:

• It can engage in human-like conversations.

• It can create articles, stories, and even poetry.

• It can generate realistic images and videos

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• Generative AI has a wide range of applications across different industries:

• Natural Language Processing (NLP): It’s used for text generation, language translation, and chatbots that can engage in human-like conversations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Content Generation: Generative AI can create articles, stories, and even poetry. It’s used by content creators to assist in writing. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Image and Video Generation: It can generate realistic images and videos, which are valuable in fields like entertainment and design. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Data Augmentation: In data science, it’s used to create synthetic data for training machine learning models.

• Healthcare: Generative AI helps in generating medical reports, simulating disease progression, and drug discovery.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on AI

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Generative AI has a wide range of applications across different industries:

• Natural Language Processing (NLP): It’s used for text generation, language translation, and chatbots that can engage in human-like conversations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Content Generation: Generative AI can create articles, stories, and even poetry. It’s used by content creators to assist in writing. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Image and Video Generation: It can generate realistic images and videos, which are valuable in fields like entertainment and design. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Data Augmentation: In data science, it’s used to create synthetic data for training machine learning models.

• Healthcare: Generative AI helps in generating medical reports, simulating disease progression, and drug discovery.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts on AI

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Which of the following are the applications of geospatial intelligence? Early evacuations of people from areas threatened by natural hazards. Gathering information about enemy troop movements and military deployments. Reduce traffic congestions in urban areas. Early detection of biological hazards like spread of covid pandemic. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1,2 and 3 only d) 1,2,3 and 4 Correct Answer: c Explanation: Geospatial intelligence is the collection and integration of data from various technologies like satellites, sensors, and aerial images to create real-time maps and simulations. It aids in identifying and managing threats, supporting emergency response, environmental monitoring, logistics, and more. Emergency Preparedness Monitoring natural disasters such as Cyclones, and hurricanes to allocate resources efficiently, issue timely storm warnings, and order evacuations as needed. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Military and Civilian Applications Reporting on military movements, and troop deployments, and providing valuable spatial data for civilian applications such as global supply chain optimization and logistics management. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Environmental Monitoring Tracking climate-related variables like temperature, precipitation, and ice to anticipate and prepare for environmental disturbances, including heatwaves, floods, and polar ice melt. Transportation and Logistics Utilizing GPS-generated spatial data to enhance transportation and logistics operations. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Autonomous Vehicles Supporting the development of autonomous vehicles by offering high resolution imagery for road analysis, and traffic management. Digital Twins Creating virtual replicas of real-world systems, such as cities and buildings, which can be updated in real-time to simulate changes in various conditions, aiding decision-making across different sectors, including military and urban planning. Geospatial technology uses tools like GIS (Geographic Information System), GPS (Global Positioning System), and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis of Geospatial data. It is not possible to detect biological hazards like a pandemic using geospatial intelligence. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct. Status of geospatial data and technology in India: India has a robust ecosystem in geospatial, with the Survey of India (SoI), the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), Remote Sensing Application Centres (RSACs), and the National Informatics Centre (NIC) in particular, and all ministries and departments, in general, using geospatial technology. Source: Science and technology Trend: Remote sensing Approach: Statement 4 can be eliminated as it suggests an extreme possibility. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Geospatial intelligence is the collection and integration of data from various technologies like satellites, sensors, and aerial images to create real-time maps and simulations. It aids in identifying and managing threats, supporting emergency response, environmental monitoring, logistics, and more. Emergency Preparedness Monitoring natural disasters such as Cyclones, and hurricanes to allocate resources efficiently, issue timely storm warnings, and order evacuations as needed. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Military and Civilian Applications Reporting on military movements, and troop deployments, and providing valuable spatial data for civilian applications such as global supply chain optimization and logistics management. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Environmental Monitoring Tracking climate-related variables like temperature, precipitation, and ice to anticipate and prepare for environmental disturbances, including heatwaves, floods, and polar ice melt. Transportation and Logistics Utilizing GPS-generated spatial data to enhance transportation and logistics operations. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Autonomous Vehicles Supporting the development of autonomous vehicles by offering high resolution imagery for road analysis, and traffic management. Digital Twins Creating virtual replicas of real-world systems, such as cities and buildings, which can be updated in real-time to simulate changes in various conditions, aiding decision-making across different sectors, including military and urban planning. Geospatial technology uses tools like GIS (Geographic Information System), GPS (Global Positioning System), and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis of Geospatial data. It is not possible to detect biological hazards like a pandemic using geospatial intelligence. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is correct. Status of geospatial data and technology in India: India has a robust ecosystem in geospatial, with the Survey of India (SoI), the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), Remote Sensing Application Centres (RSACs), and the National Informatics Centre (NIC) in particular, and all ministries and departments, in general, using geospatial technology. Source: Science and technology Trend: Remote sensing Approach: Statement 4 can be eliminated as it suggests an extreme possibility.

#### 12. Question

Which of the following are the applications of geospatial intelligence?

• Early evacuations of people from areas threatened by natural hazards.

• Gathering information about enemy troop movements and military deployments.

• Reduce traffic congestions in urban areas.

• Early detection of biological hazards like spread of covid pandemic.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 3 only

• b) 2 and 4 only

• c) 1,2 and 3 only

• d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation:

• Geospatial intelligence is the collection and integration of data from various technologies like satellites, sensors, and aerial images to create real-time maps and simulations. It aids in identifying and managing threats, supporting emergency response, environmental monitoring, logistics, and more.

Emergency Preparedness | Monitoring natural disasters such as Cyclones, and hurricanes to allocate resources efficiently, issue timely storm warnings, and order evacuations as needed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Military and Civilian Applications | Reporting on military movements, and troop deployments, and providing valuable spatial data for civilian applications such as global supply chain optimization and logistics management. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Environmental Monitoring | Tracking climate-related variables like temperature, precipitation, and ice to anticipate and prepare for environmental disturbances, including heatwaves, floods, and polar ice melt.

Transportation and Logistics | Utilizing GPS-generated spatial data to enhance transportation and logistics operations. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Autonomous Vehicles | Supporting the development of autonomous vehicles by offering high resolution imagery for road analysis, and traffic management.

Digital Twins | Creating virtual replicas of real-world systems, such as cities and buildings, which can be updated in real-time to simulate changes in various conditions, aiding decision-making across different sectors, including military and urban planning.

resources efficiently, issue timely storm warnings, and order evacuations

as needed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

providing valuable spatial data for civilian applications such as global

supply chain optimization and logistics management. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

ice to anticipate and prepare for environmental disturbances, including

heatwaves, floods, and polar ice melt.

buildings, which can be updated in real-time to simulate changes in various conditions, aiding decision-making across different sectors,

including military and urban planning.

• Geospatial technology uses tools like GIS (Geographic Information System), GPS (Global Positioning System), and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis of Geospatial data. It is not possible to detect biological hazards like a pandemic using geospatial intelligence. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Status of geospatial data and technology in India:

India has a robust ecosystem in geospatial, with the Survey of India (SoI), the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), Remote Sensing Application Centres (RSACs), and the National Informatics Centre (NIC) in particular, and all ministries and departments, in general, using geospatial technology.

Trend: Remote sensing

Approach: Statement 4 can be eliminated as it suggests an extreme possibility.

Explanation:

Transportation and Logistics | Utilizing GPS-generated spatial data to enhance transportation and logistics operations. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Autonomous Vehicles | Supporting the development of autonomous vehicles by offering high resolution imagery for road analysis, and traffic management.

resources efficiently, issue timely storm warnings, and order evacuations

as needed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

providing valuable spatial data for civilian applications such as global

supply chain optimization and logistics management. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

ice to anticipate and prepare for environmental disturbances, including

heatwaves, floods, and polar ice melt.

buildings, which can be updated in real-time to simulate changes in various conditions, aiding decision-making across different sectors,

including military and urban planning.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Status of geospatial data and technology in India:

Trend: Remote sensing

Approach: Statement 4 can be eliminated as it suggests an extreme possibility.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points The world’s largest telescope to detect ‘ghost particles’ is being constructed by which country? a) India b) China c) Japan d) Germany Correct Answer: b Explanation: China is constructing the world’s largest “ghost particle” detector, a massive underwater telescope in the South China Sea, designed to detect neutrinos, which are often referred to as “ghost particles.” The telescope, named “Trident,” is expected to span 7.5 cubic kilometres and be 10,000 times more sensitive than existing underwater telescopes. It is being built in the South China Sea to detect neutrinos, which can interact with water molecules. Neutrinos are subatomic particles that have very little mass and no charge, and they interact very weakly with other particles, making them challenging to detect .The significance of detecting neutrinos lies in their mysterious behaviour and their potential role in solving scientific mysteries. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: space exploration Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: China is constructing the world’s largest “ghost particle” detector, a massive underwater telescope in the South China Sea, designed to detect neutrinos, which are often referred to as “ghost particles.” The telescope, named “Trident,” is expected to span 7.5 cubic kilometres and be 10,000 times more sensitive than existing underwater telescopes. It is being built in the South China Sea to detect neutrinos, which can interact with water molecules. Neutrinos are subatomic particles that have very little mass and no charge, and they interact very weakly with other particles, making them challenging to detect .The significance of detecting neutrinos lies in their mysterious behaviour and their potential role in solving scientific mysteries. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: space exploration Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 13. Question

The world’s largest telescope to detect ‘ghost particles’ is being constructed by which country?

• d) Germany

Explanation:

• China is constructing the world’s largest “ghost particle” detector, a massive underwater telescope in the South China Sea, designed to detect neutrinos, which are often referred to as “ghost particles.”

• The telescope, named “Trident,” is expected to span 7.5 cubic kilometres and be 10,000 times more sensitive than existing underwater telescopes.

• It is being built in the South China Sea to detect neutrinos, which can interact with water molecules.

• Neutrinos are subatomic particles that have very little mass and no charge, and they interact very weakly with other particles, making them challenging to detect .The significance of detecting neutrinos lies in their mysterious behaviour and their potential role in solving scientific mysteries.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: space exploration

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The telescope, named “Trident,” is expected to span 7.5 cubic kilometres and be 10,000 times more sensitive than existing underwater telescopes.

• It is being built in the South China Sea to detect neutrinos, which can interact with water molecules.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: space exploration

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: 1. Prachand Light Combat Helicopter 2.Pralay Artillery gun 3.Varunastra Heavy weight torpedo 4.Astra Ait-to-air missile How many of the above are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: Prachand is India’s first indigenous multi-role combat helicopter. It was developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). Hence, pair 1 is correct. ‘Pralay’ is a surface-to-surface missile in the Army’s inventory and will form a key part of India’s Rocket Force, alongside the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile. ‘Pralay’ has a strike range of 150 to 500 kilometres and can carry a conventional warhead of 350 kg to 700 kg. (Dhanush is the artillery gun). Hence, pair 2 is incorrect. Varunastra is an indigenous heavy-weight torpedo, built by DRDO. It is an indigenously designed and developed ship-launched anti-submarine torpedo. It was designed and developed by the Vizag-based Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL) under the DRDO and is manufactured by Bharat Dynamics Ltd (BDL). Hence, pair 3 is correct. Astra is a family of Indian air-to-air missiles. It’s the first indigenous air-to-air missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The Astra is a beyond-visual-range (BVRAAM) missile that uses radar guidance to navigate and position the target. Hence, pair 4 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Defence technology Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Prachand is India’s first indigenous multi-role combat helicopter. It was developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). Hence, pair 1 is correct. ‘Pralay’ is a surface-to-surface missile in the Army’s inventory and will form a key part of India’s Rocket Force, alongside the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile. ‘Pralay’ has a strike range of 150 to 500 kilometres and can carry a conventional warhead of 350 kg to 700 kg. (Dhanush is the artillery gun). Hence, pair 2 is incorrect. Varunastra is an indigenous heavy-weight torpedo, built by DRDO. It is an indigenously designed and developed ship-launched anti-submarine torpedo. It was designed and developed by the Vizag-based Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL) under the DRDO and is manufactured by Bharat Dynamics Ltd (BDL). Hence, pair 3 is correct. Astra is a family of Indian air-to-air missiles. It’s the first indigenous air-to-air missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The Astra is a beyond-visual-range (BVRAAM) missile that uses radar guidance to navigate and position the target. Hence, pair 4 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Defence technology Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 14. Question

Consider the following pairs:

1.Prachand | Light Combat Helicopter

2.Pralay | Artillery gun

3.Varunastra | Heavy weight torpedo

4.Astra | Ait-to-air missile

How many of the above are correctly matched?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Prachand is India’s first indigenous multi-role combat helicopter. It was developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). Hence, pair 1 is correct.

• ‘Pralay’ is a surface-to-surface missile in the Army’s inventory and will form a key part of India’s Rocket Force, alongside the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile. ‘Pralay’ has a strike range of 150 to 500 kilometres and can carry a conventional warhead of 350 kg to 700 kg. (Dhanush is the artillery gun). Hence, pair 2 is incorrect.

• Varunastra is an indigenous heavy-weight torpedo, built by DRDO. It is an indigenously designed and developed ship-launched anti-submarine torpedo. It was designed and developed by the Vizag-based Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL) under the DRDO and is manufactured by Bharat Dynamics Ltd (BDL). Hence, pair 3 is correct.

• Astra is a family of Indian air-to-air missiles. It’s the first indigenous air-to-air missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The Astra is a beyond-visual-range (BVRAAM) missile that uses radar guidance to navigate and position the target. Hence, pair 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Defence technology

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Prachand is India’s first indigenous multi-role combat helicopter. It was developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). Hence, pair 1 is correct.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Defence technology

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points What is ‘Amaterasu’, recently seen in news? a) High energy cosmic ray b) Nuclear powered submarine c) A microorganism of Arctic region d) A new galaxy millions of light years away Correct Answer: a Explanation: Japanese scientists discovered a high-energy cosmic-ray event named ‘Amaterasu,’ making it the second-highest-energy cosmic ray ever detected. The energy level of Amaterasu is about 40 million times higher than that produced by the Large Hadron Collider. The discovery of such ultra-high-energy cosmic rays (UHECRs) could contribute to understanding cosmic phenomena and subatomic particles better, as well as potentially challenging existing theories in high-energy particle physics. Amaterasu’s unique characteristic is that it appears to have originated from an empty region of the universe, presenting intriguing possibilities for unknown astronomical phenomena. The study of these cosmic rays may offer insights into the sources of cosmic rays and enhance our understanding of high-energy physics beyond the Standard Model. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Defence technology Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Japanese scientists discovered a high-energy cosmic-ray event named ‘Amaterasu,’ making it the second-highest-energy cosmic ray ever detected. The energy level of Amaterasu is about 40 million times higher than that produced by the Large Hadron Collider. The discovery of such ultra-high-energy cosmic rays (UHECRs) could contribute to understanding cosmic phenomena and subatomic particles better, as well as potentially challenging existing theories in high-energy particle physics. Amaterasu’s unique characteristic is that it appears to have originated from an empty region of the universe, presenting intriguing possibilities for unknown astronomical phenomena. The study of these cosmic rays may offer insights into the sources of cosmic rays and enhance our understanding of high-energy physics beyond the Standard Model. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and Technology Trend: Defence technology Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 15. Question

What is ‘Amaterasu’, recently seen in news?

• a) High energy cosmic ray

• b) Nuclear powered submarine

• c) A microorganism of Arctic region

• d) A new galaxy millions of light years away

Explanation:

• Japanese scientists discovered a high-energy cosmic-ray event named ‘Amaterasu,’ making it the second-highest-energy cosmic ray ever detected.

• The energy level of Amaterasu is about 40 million times higher than that produced by the Large Hadron Collider.

• The discovery of such ultra-high-energy cosmic rays (UHECRs) could contribute to understanding cosmic phenomena and subatomic particles better, as well as potentially challenging existing theories in high-energy particle physics.

• Amaterasu’s unique characteristic is that it appears to have originated from an empty region of the universe, presenting intriguing possibilities for unknown astronomical phenomena.

• The study of these cosmic rays may offer insights into the sources of cosmic rays and enhance our understanding of high-energy physics beyond the Standard Model.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Defence technology

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Japanese scientists discovered a high-energy cosmic-ray event named ‘Amaterasu,’ making it the second-highest-energy cosmic ray ever detected.

• The energy level of Amaterasu is about 40 million times higher than that produced by the Large Hadron Collider.

• Amaterasu’s unique characteristic is that it appears to have originated from an empty region of the universe, presenting intriguing possibilities for unknown astronomical phenomena.

• The study of these cosmic rays may offer insights into the sources of cosmic rays and enhance our understanding of high-energy physics beyond the Standard Model.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Defence technology

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements best describes the objective of the Project “UDBHAV”? (a) Its objective is to synthesize ancient wisdom with contemporary military practices to address modern security challenges. (b) It is a reformative step to establish clear ownership of property in rural inhabited areas by mapping of land parcels. (c) It aims for comprehensive rehabilitation and upliftment of transgender persons engaged in the act of Begging’. (d) Its objective is to involve training institutions to improve socioeconomic conditions of the Scheduled Castes. Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Project UDBHAV’ was launched during the inauguration of the Indian Military Heritage Festival. The objective of the Project is to synthesize ancient wisdom with contemporary military practices, forging a unique and holistic approach to address modern security challenges. It is a visionary initiative by the Indian Army that seeks to integrate age-old wisdom with contemporary military pedagogy. The ancient Indian knowledge system is rooted in a 5000 years old civilizational legacy, which has attached great value to knowledge; witnessed by its amazingly large body of intellectual texts, world’s largest collection of manuscripts, thinkers and schools in so many domains of knowledge. Project UDBHAV will facilitate in-depth understanding of our knowledge systems and philosophies and also aim to comprehend their enduring connect, relevance and applicability in the modern day. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Project UDBHAV’ was launched during the inauguration of the Indian Military Heritage Festival. The objective of the Project is to synthesize ancient wisdom with contemporary military practices, forging a unique and holistic approach to address modern security challenges. It is a visionary initiative by the Indian Army that seeks to integrate age-old wisdom with contemporary military pedagogy. The ancient Indian knowledge system is rooted in a 5000 years old civilizational legacy, which has attached great value to knowledge; witnessed by its amazingly large body of intellectual texts, world’s largest collection of manuscripts, thinkers and schools in so many domains of knowledge. Project UDBHAV will facilitate in-depth understanding of our knowledge systems and philosophies and also aim to comprehend their enduring connect, relevance and applicability in the modern day. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 16. Question

Which one of the following statements best describes the objective of the Project “UDBHAV”?

• (a) Its objective is to synthesize ancient wisdom with contemporary military practices to address modern security challenges.

• (b) It is a reformative step to establish clear ownership of property in rural inhabited areas by mapping of land parcels.

• (c) It aims for comprehensive rehabilitation and upliftment of transgender persons engaged in the act of Begging’.

• (d) Its objective is to involve training institutions to improve socioeconomic conditions of the Scheduled Castes.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Project UDBHAV’ was launched during the inauguration of the Indian Military Heritage Festival.

• The objective of the Project is to synthesize ancient wisdom with contemporary military practices, forging a unique and holistic approach to address modern security challenges.

• It is a visionary initiative by the Indian Army that seeks to integrate age-old wisdom with contemporary military pedagogy.

• The ancient Indian knowledge system is rooted in a 5000 years old civilizational legacy, which has attached great value to knowledge; witnessed by its amazingly large body of intellectual texts, world’s largest collection of manuscripts, thinkers and schools in so many domains of knowledge.

• Project UDBHAV will facilitate in-depth understanding of our knowledge systems and philosophies and also aim to comprehend their enduring connect, relevance and applicability in the modern day.

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Project UDBHAV’ was launched during the inauguration of the Indian Military Heritage Festival.

• The objective of the Project is to synthesize ancient wisdom with contemporary military practices, forging a unique and holistic approach to address modern security challenges.

• It is a visionary initiative by the Indian Army that seeks to integrate age-old wisdom with contemporary military pedagogy.

• Project UDBHAV will facilitate in-depth understanding of our knowledge systems and philosophies and also aim to comprehend their enduring connect, relevance and applicability in the modern day.

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points With reference to the Angel tax, consider the following statements: It is levied when an unlisted company issues shares to an investor at a price lower than its fair market value. Angel tax provisions are not applicable to non-resident investors. Start-ups registered with the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade are excluded from its provisions. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Angel tax is a tax levied on capital raised by unlisted companies. The angel tax, applies when unlisted companies issue shares at a price higher than their fair market value. Since this was impacting investments made by angel investors in a big way, this became popularly known as ‘angel tax’. This tax provision was introduced in Finance Act, 2012 and became applicable since April 1, 2013. Statement 2 is not correct: Angel tax provisions were applicable only for investments received from resident investors. However, Finance Bill 2023 has now extended its applicability to non-resident investors as well. Accordingly, such eligible start-ups will not be impacted by the amended angel tax provisions. However, there are many unregistered start-ups and hence this provision has a potential to significantly impact capital flows to start-ups and foreign direct investment in general. Statement 3 is correct: Start-ups which are registered with the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade are excluded from the purview of angel tax provisions. Source: Indian Economy Trend: Trade and commerce Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Angel tax is a tax levied on capital raised by unlisted companies. The angel tax, applies when unlisted companies issue shares at a price higher than their fair market value. Since this was impacting investments made by angel investors in a big way, this became popularly known as ‘angel tax’. This tax provision was introduced in Finance Act, 2012 and became applicable since April 1, 2013. Statement 2 is not correct: Angel tax provisions were applicable only for investments received from resident investors. However, Finance Bill 2023 has now extended its applicability to non-resident investors as well. Accordingly, such eligible start-ups will not be impacted by the amended angel tax provisions. However, there are many unregistered start-ups and hence this provision has a potential to significantly impact capital flows to start-ups and foreign direct investment in general. Statement 3 is correct: Start-ups which are registered with the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade are excluded from the purview of angel tax provisions. Source: Indian Economy Trend: Trade and commerce Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 17. Question

With reference to the Angel tax, consider the following statements:

• It is levied when an unlisted company issues shares to an investor at a price lower than its fair market value.

• Angel tax provisions are not applicable to non-resident investors.

• Start-ups registered with the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade are excluded from its provisions.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Angel tax is a tax levied on capital raised by unlisted companies. The angel tax, applies when unlisted companies issue shares at a price higher than their fair market value.

Since this was impacting investments made by angel investors in a big way, this became popularly known as ‘angel tax’.

This tax provision was introduced in Finance Act, 2012 and became applicable since April 1, 2013.

Statement 2 is not correct: Angel tax provisions were applicable only for investments received from resident investors. However, Finance Bill 2023 has now extended its applicability to non-resident investors as well.

Accordingly, such eligible start-ups will not be impacted by the amended angel tax provisions.

However, there are many unregistered start-ups and hence this provision has a potential to significantly impact capital flows to start-ups and foreign direct investment in general.

Statement 3 is correct: Start-ups which are registered with the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade are excluded from the purview of angel tax provisions.

Trend: Trade and commerce

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Since this was impacting investments made by angel investors in a big way, this became popularly known as ‘angel tax’.

This tax provision was introduced in Finance Act, 2012 and became applicable since April 1, 2013.

Accordingly, such eligible start-ups will not be impacted by the amended angel tax provisions.

However, there are many unregistered start-ups and hence this provision has a potential to significantly impact capital flows to start-ups and foreign direct investment in general.

Statement 3 is correct: Start-ups which are registered with the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade are excluded from the purview of angel tax provisions.

Trend: Trade and commerce

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points With reference to the Konarak Sun Temple, consider the following statements: It is the culmination of Kalinga temple architecture. It was the first Sun temple to be built in ancient India. A chariot of the Sun God is represented drawn by horses. The Chandrabhaga Fair is held in association with the temple. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: C Explanation: The Sun Temple at Konârak, located on the eastern shores of the Indian subcontinent, is an outstanding examples of temple architecture. Statement 1 is correct: The Sun Temple is the culmination of Kalingan temple architecture, with all its defining elements in complete and perfect form. The Sun Temple is an exceptional testimony, in physical form, to the 13th-century Hindu Kingdom of Orissa, under the reign of Narasimha Deva I (AD 1238-1264). Statement 2 is not correct: Directly and materially linked to the Brahman beliefs, Konârak is the invaluable link in the history of the diffusion of the cult of Surya, which originating in Kashmir during the 8th century, finally reached the shores of Eastern India. Statement 3 is correct: A masterpiece of creative genius in both conception and realisation, the temple represents a chariot of the Sun God, with twelve pairs of wheels drawn by seven horses evoking its movement across the heavens. I Statement 4 is correct: The Konark Temple Chandrabhaga Mela is held annually during the auspicious occasion of Magha Saptami, which usually falls in February. Source: Art and Culture Trend: Temple architecture Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: The Sun Temple at Konârak, located on the eastern shores of the Indian subcontinent, is an outstanding examples of temple architecture. Statement 1 is correct: The Sun Temple is the culmination of Kalingan temple architecture, with all its defining elements in complete and perfect form. The Sun Temple is an exceptional testimony, in physical form, to the 13th-century Hindu Kingdom of Orissa, under the reign of Narasimha Deva I (AD 1238-1264). Statement 2 is not correct: Directly and materially linked to the Brahman beliefs, Konârak is the invaluable link in the history of the diffusion of the cult of Surya, which originating in Kashmir during the 8th century, finally reached the shores of Eastern India. Statement 3 is correct: A masterpiece of creative genius in both conception and realisation, the temple represents a chariot of the Sun God, with twelve pairs of wheels drawn by seven horses evoking its movement across the heavens. I Statement 4 is correct: The Konark Temple Chandrabhaga Mela is held annually during the auspicious occasion of Magha Saptami, which usually falls in February. Source: Art and Culture Trend: Temple architecture Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 18. Question

With reference to the Konarak Sun Temple, consider the following statements:

• It is the culmination of Kalinga temple architecture.

• It was the first Sun temple to be built in ancient India.

• A chariot of the Sun God is represented drawn by horses.

• The Chandrabhaga Fair is held in association with the temple.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Sun Temple at Konârak, located on the eastern shores of the Indian subcontinent, is an outstanding examples of temple architecture.

Statement 1 is correct: The Sun Temple is the culmination of Kalingan temple architecture, with all its defining elements in complete and perfect form.

The Sun Temple is an exceptional testimony, in physical form, to the 13th-century Hindu Kingdom of Orissa, under the reign of Narasimha Deva I (AD 1238-1264).

Statement 2 is not correct: Directly and materially linked to the Brahman beliefs, Konârak is the invaluable link in the history of the diffusion of the cult of Surya, which originating in Kashmir during the 8th century, finally reached the shores of Eastern India.

Statement 3 is correct: A masterpiece of creative genius in both conception and realisation, the temple represents a chariot of the Sun God, with twelve pairs of wheels drawn by seven horses evoking its movement across the heavens. I

Statement 4 is correct: The Konark Temple Chandrabhaga Mela is held annually during the auspicious occasion of Magha Saptami, which usually falls in February.

Trend: Temple architecture

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Sun Temple at Konârak, located on the eastern shores of the Indian subcontinent, is an outstanding examples of temple architecture.

Statement 1 is correct: The Sun Temple is the culmination of Kalingan temple architecture, with all its defining elements in complete and perfect form.

The Sun Temple is an exceptional testimony, in physical form, to the 13th-century Hindu Kingdom of Orissa, under the reign of Narasimha Deva I (AD 1238-1264).

Statement 4 is correct: The Konark Temple Chandrabhaga Mela is held annually during the auspicious occasion of Magha Saptami, which usually falls in February.

Trend: Temple architecture

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points With reference to Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary, consider the following statements: It shares its boundary with Namdapha Tiger Reserve. It is a catchment area of the tributaries of Lohit River. It partially harbours the Ramsar Wetland site, Loktak Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the South-Eastern part of Lohit District of Arunachal Pradesh. The name Kamlang comes from the River Kamlang, which flows through the Sanctuary and joins Brahmaputra. Statement 1 is correct: Kamlang Tiger Reserve with its shared boundary with Namdapha Tiger Reserve in its south and adjoining reserve forests constitutes a relatively undisturbed and contiguous landscape. Statement 2 is correct: The reserve is catchment area of Kamlang, Lang and Lati rivers, which are tributaries of mighty Lohit River. Statement 3 is not correct: It also harbors a lake, called Glaw Lake spread over an area of 82 ha. It is not a Ramsar Site. Source: Geography Trend: National Parks and geophysical features Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the South-Eastern part of Lohit District of Arunachal Pradesh. The name Kamlang comes from the River Kamlang, which flows through the Sanctuary and joins Brahmaputra. Statement 1 is correct: Kamlang Tiger Reserve with its shared boundary with Namdapha Tiger Reserve in its south and adjoining reserve forests constitutes a relatively undisturbed and contiguous landscape. Statement 2 is correct: The reserve is catchment area of Kamlang, Lang and Lati rivers, which are tributaries of mighty Lohit River. Statement 3 is not correct: It also harbors a lake, called Glaw Lake spread over an area of 82 ha. It is not a Ramsar Site. Source: Geography Trend: National Parks and geophysical features Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 19. Question

With reference to Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary, consider the following statements:

• It shares its boundary with Namdapha Tiger Reserve.

• It is a catchment area of the tributaries of Lohit River.

• It partially harbours the Ramsar Wetland site, Loktak Lake.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the South-Eastern part of Lohit District of Arunachal Pradesh. The name Kamlang comes from the River Kamlang, which flows through the Sanctuary and joins Brahmaputra.

Statement 1 is correct: Kamlang Tiger Reserve with its shared boundary with Namdapha Tiger Reserve in its south and adjoining reserve forests constitutes a relatively undisturbed and contiguous landscape.

Statement 2 is correct: The reserve is catchment area of Kamlang, Lang and Lati rivers, which are tributaries of mighty Lohit River.

Statement 3 is not correct: It also harbors a lake, called Glaw Lake spread over an area of 82 ha. It is not a Ramsar Site.

Trend: National Parks and geophysical features

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: The reserve is catchment area of Kamlang, Lang and Lati rivers, which are tributaries of mighty Lohit River.

Statement 3 is not correct: It also harbors a lake, called Glaw Lake spread over an area of 82 ha. It is not a Ramsar Site.

Trend: National Parks and geophysical features

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points With reference to Fish Mint, consider the following statements: It is endemic to Meghalaya. It grows in moist soils and is resistant to flooding. It is called ja mardoh in a native language. It can reduce the severity of the lung disease. How many of the statements given above are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: It is considered to be a native of southeast Asia. Statement 2 is correct: It grows easily in moist soils and is resistant to flooding. Statement 3 is correct: In Meghalaya, it is called ja mardoh and is used in salads or cooked with vegetables. In Manipur, where it is called tokning-khok, its leaves and roots are used for garnishing eromba. Statement 4 is correct: The plant is a potential alternative treatment choice that may reduce the severity of the lung disease. Addition of an essential oil extracted from the plant to the cell models mitigated asthma development and prevented airway narrowing. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Biodiversity/terms in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: It is considered to be a native of southeast Asia. Statement 2 is correct: It grows easily in moist soils and is resistant to flooding. Statement 3 is correct: In Meghalaya, it is called ja mardoh and is used in salads or cooked with vegetables. In Manipur, where it is called tokning-khok, its leaves and roots are used for garnishing eromba. Statement 4 is correct: *The plant is a potential alternative treatment choice that may reduce the severity of the lung disease. Addition of an essential oil extracted from the plant to the cell models mitigated asthma development and prevented airway narrowing. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Biodiversity/terms in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 20. Question

With reference to Fish Mint, consider the following statements:

• It is endemic to Meghalaya.

• It grows in moist soils and is resistant to flooding.

• It is called ja mardoh in a native language.

• It can reduce the severity of the lung disease.

How many of the statements given above are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: It is considered to be a native of southeast Asia.

Statement 2 is correct: It grows easily in moist soils and is resistant to flooding.

Statement 3 is correct: In Meghalaya, it is called ja mardoh and is used in salads or cooked with vegetables.

In Manipur, where it is called tokning-khok, its leaves and roots are used for garnishing eromba.

Statement 4 is correct: The plant is a potential alternative treatment choice that may reduce the severity of the lung disease.

Addition of an essential oil extracted from the plant to the cell models mitigated asthma development and prevented airway narrowing.

Trend: Biodiversity/terms in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: It is considered to be a native of southeast Asia.

Statement 2 is correct: It grows easily in moist soils and is resistant to flooding.

Statement 3 is correct: In Meghalaya, it is called ja mardoh and is used in salads or cooked with vegetables.

In Manipur, where it is called tokning-khok, its leaves and roots are used for garnishing eromba.

Statement 4 is correct: The plant is a potential alternative treatment choice that may reduce the severity of the lung disease.

Addition of an essential oil extracted from the plant to the cell models mitigated asthma development and prevented airway narrowing.

Trend: Biodiversity/terms in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Sand is categorized as a “major mineral” under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulations) Act, 1957, and its control lies with the State Governments. The Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change has issued “Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines 2016” to promote environmentally friendly sand mining practices. The International Seabed Authority (ISA), governed by a UN treaty, regulates mineral exploration and extraction, but India is not a party to the treaty. How many of the statements above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Learning: Sand is categorized as a “minor mineral” under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulations) Act, 1957, and its control lies with the State Governments. The primary sources of sand are rivers and coastal areas, and its demand has surged due to India’s construction and infrastructure development activities. The Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change has issued “Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines 2016” to promote environmentally friendly sand mining practices. The International Seabed Authority (ISA), governed by a UN treaty, regulates mineral exploration and extraction, but India is not a party to the treaty. India, as a party to the treaty, has exclusive rights to explore polymetallic nodules in the Central Indian Ocean Basin spanning over 75,000 sq. km. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important minerals Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: b) Learning: Sand is categorized as a “minor mineral” under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulations) Act, 1957, and its control lies with the State Governments. The primary sources of sand are rivers and coastal areas, and its demand has surged due to India’s construction and infrastructure development activities. The Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change has issued “Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines 2016” to promote environmentally friendly sand mining practices. The International Seabed Authority (ISA), governed by a UN treaty, regulates mineral exploration and extraction, but India is not a party to the treaty. India, as a party to the treaty, has exclusive rights to explore polymetallic nodules in the Central Indian Ocean Basin spanning over 75,000 sq. km. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important minerals Approach: applied knowledge

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Sand is categorized as a “major mineral” under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulations) Act, 1957, and its control lies with the State Governments.

• The Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change has issued “Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines 2016” to promote environmentally friendly sand mining practices.

• The International Seabed Authority (ISA), governed by a UN treaty, regulates mineral exploration and extraction, but India is not a party to the treaty.

How many of the statements above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Learning: Sand is categorized as a “minor mineral” under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulations) Act, 1957, and its control lies with the State Governments. The primary sources of sand are rivers and coastal areas, and its demand has surged due to India’s construction and infrastructure development activities.

The Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change has issued “Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines 2016” to promote environmentally friendly sand mining practices.

The International Seabed Authority (ISA), governed by a UN treaty, regulates mineral exploration and extraction, but India is not a party to the treaty. India, as a party to the treaty, has exclusive rights to explore polymetallic nodules in the Central Indian Ocean Basin spanning over 75,000 sq. km.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important minerals

Approach: applied knowledge

Solution: b)

The Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change has issued “Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines 2016” to promote environmentally friendly sand mining practices.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important minerals

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Patents in India are governed by the Patent Act 1970. Which of following is /are the criteria for granting patents in India? It should involve an inventive step, representing a technical advancement compared to existing knowledge, and not obvious to a person skilled in the relevant field. The invention should be capable of industrial application. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: Patents are granted for new and useful inventions and are intended to encourage innovation by providing legal protection and exclusive rights to inventors. Granted by: Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM) under the DPIIT (Ministry of Commerce & Industry) Patents in India are governed by “The Patent Act 1970, ” which was amended in 2005 to comply with TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights). Criteria for issuing patents in India include: Novelty: The invention must be new and not previously published or publicly known or used in India. Non-Obviousness: It should involve an inventive step, representing a technical advancement com- pared to existing knowledge, and not obvious to a person skilled in the relevant field. Industrial Use: The invention should be capable of industrial application. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Patents are granted for new and useful inventions and are intended to encourage innovation by providing legal protection and exclusive rights to inventors. Granted by: Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM) under the DPIIT (Ministry of Commerce & Industry) Patents in India are governed by “The Patent Act 1970, ” which was amended in 2005 to comply with TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights). Criteria for issuing patents in India include: Novelty: The invention must be new and not previously published or publicly known or used in India. Non-Obviousness: It should involve an inventive step, representing a technical advancement com- pared to existing knowledge, and not obvious to a person skilled in the relevant field. Industrial Use: The invention should be capable of industrial application. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Important Legislations Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 22. Question

Patents in India are governed by the Patent Act 1970. Which of following is /are the criteria for granting patents in India?

• It should involve an inventive step, representing a technical advancement compared to existing knowledge, and not obvious to a person skilled in the relevant field.

• The invention should be capable of industrial application.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: Patents are granted for new and useful inventions and are intended to encourage innovation by providing legal protection and exclusive rights to inventors.

• Granted by: Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM) under the DPIIT (Ministry of Commerce & Industry)

• Patents in India are governed by “The Patent Act 1970, ” which was amended in 2005 to comply with TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights). Criteria for issuing patents in India include:

• Novelty: The invention must be new and not previously published or publicly known or used in India.

• Non-Obviousness: It should involve an inventive step, representing a technical advancement com- pared to existing knowledge, and not obvious to a person skilled in the relevant field.

• Industrial Use: The invention should be capable of industrial application.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: c)

Justification: Patents are granted for new and useful inventions and are intended to encourage innovation by providing legal protection and exclusive rights to inventors.

• Granted by: Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM) under the DPIIT (Ministry of Commerce & Industry)

• Novelty: The invention must be new and not previously published or publicly known or used in India.

• Non-Obviousness: It should involve an inventive step, representing a technical advancement com- pared to existing knowledge, and not obvious to a person skilled in the relevant field.

• Industrial Use: The invention should be capable of industrial application.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Important Legislations

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Cottonseed oil is the third-largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India, following mustard and soyabean. Cottonseed oil is the most used oil in feed cake production. Cotton fibre accounts for nearly two-thirds of the total consumption in the India’s textile industry. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: b) Justification: After harvesting cotton (Kapas), the breakdown is approximately 36% fibre, 62% seeds, and 2% waste. o Cottonseed is essential for vegetable oil and feed cake production. Market Contribution: Cottonseed oil is the third-largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India, following mustard and soyabean. It also ranks second in feed cake production, with soybeans leading. Textile Dominance: Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two- thirds of the total consumption. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Foodgrains-oilseeds Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: After harvesting cotton (Kapas), the breakdown is approximately 36% fibre, 62% seeds, and 2% waste. o Cottonseed is essential for vegetable oil and feed cake production. Market Contribution: Cottonseed oil is the third-largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India, following mustard and soyabean. It also ranks second in feed cake production, with soybeans leading. Textile Dominance: Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two- thirds of the total consumption. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Foodgrains-oilseeds Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Cottonseed oil is the third-largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India, following mustard and soyabean.

• Cottonseed oil is the most used oil in feed cake production.

• Cotton fibre accounts for nearly two-thirds of the total consumption in the India’s textile industry.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• b) 1 and 3 only

• c) 1, 2 and 3

• d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: b)

Justification: After harvesting cotton (Kapas), the breakdown is approximately 36% fibre, 62% seeds, and 2% waste.

o Cottonseed is essential for vegetable oil and feed cake production.

• Market Contribution: Cottonseed oil is the third-largest domestically produced vegetable oil in India, following mustard and soyabean. It also ranks second in feed cake production, with soybeans leading.

• Textile Dominance: Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two- thirds of the total consumption.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Foodgrains-oilseeds

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: b)

Justification: After harvesting cotton (Kapas), the breakdown is approximately 36% fibre, 62% seeds, and 2% waste.

o Cottonseed is essential for vegetable oil and feed cake production.

• Textile Dominance: Cotton is the dominant fibre in India’s textile industry, accounting for about two- thirds of the total consumption.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Foodgrains-oilseeds

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points What is/are some of the key applications of geospatial intelligence in India? Timely warnings on natural disasters Assisting in post-disaster efforts by identifying damaged areas Tracking climate-related variables like heatwaves and floods How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: C Justification: Here are some such applications: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Remote sensing Approach: Basic concepts on remote sensing Incorrect Solution: C Justification: Here are some such applications: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Remote sensing Approach: Basic concepts on remote sensing

#### 24. Question

What is/are some of the key applications of geospatial intelligence in India?

• Timely warnings on natural disasters

• Assisting in post-disaster efforts by identifying damaged areas

• Tracking climate-related variables like heatwaves and floods

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: C

Justification: Here are some such applications:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Remote sensing

Approach: Basic concepts on remote sensing

Solution: C

Justification: Here are some such applications:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Remote sensing

Approach: Basic concepts on remote sensing

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following states grow several different kinds of millets, including foxtail millet, finger millet, pearl millet and sorghum? Uttar Pradesh Haryana Karnataka How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Justification: Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Foodgrains- Millets Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: a) Justification: Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Foodgrains- Millets Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 25. Question

Which of the following states grow several different kinds of millets, including foxtail millet, finger millet, pearl millet and sorghum?

• Uttar Pradesh

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Foodgrains- Millets

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: a)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Foodgrains- Millets

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points X and Y invested in a business. They earned some profit which they divided in the ratio of 2 : 3. If X invested Rs. 40,000, the amount invested by Y is : (a) Rs. 45,000 (b) Rs. 50,000 (c) Rs. 60,000 (d) Rs. 80,000 Correct Ans. C) 60000 Suppose Y invested Rs. y. Then, 40000/y = 2/3 or y = (40000 × 3/2) = 60000. Incorrect Ans. C) 60000 Suppose Y invested Rs. y. Then, 40000/y = 2/3 or y = (40000 × 3/2) = 60000.

#### 26. Question

X and Y invested in a business. They earned some profit which they divided in the ratio of 2 : 3. If X invested Rs. 40,000, the amount invested by Y is :

• (a) Rs. 45,000

• (b) Rs. 50,000

• (c) Rs. 60,000

• (d) Rs. 80,000

Ans. C) 60000

Suppose Y invested Rs. y.

Then, 40000/y = 2/3

or y = (40000 × 3/2) = 60000.

Ans. C) 60000

Suppose Y invested Rs. y.

Then, 40000/y = 2/3

or y = (40000 × 3/2) = 60000.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points In a mixture, the ratio of the alcohol and water is 6 : 5. When 22 litre mixture are replaced by water, the ratio becomes 9 : 13. Find the quantity of water after replacement. A) 62 litres B) 50 litres C) 40 litres D) 52 litres Correct Correct Option: D) 52 litres Let alcohol = 6x, water = 5x According to the question, 6x – 22 × (6/11) : 5x – 22 × (5/11)+ 22 = 9 : 13 6x – 12 : 5x – 10 + 22 = 9 : 13 13 (6x – 12) = 9 (5x + 12) 78x – 156 = 45x + 108 78x – 45x = 156 + 108 33x = 264 x = 8 Water after replacement = 5 × 8 – 10 + 22 = 40 + 22 = 52 litre Hence, option D is correct. Incorrect Correct Option: D) 52 litres Let alcohol = 6x, water = 5x According to the question, 6x – 22 × (6/11) : 5x – 22 × (5/11)+ 22 = 9 : 13 6x – 12 : 5x – 10 + 22 = 9 : 13 13 (6x – 12) = 9 (5x + 12) 78x – 156 = 45x + 108 78x – 45x = 156 + 108 33x = 264 x = 8 Water after replacement = 5 × 8 – 10 + 22 = 40 + 22 = 52 litre Hence, option D is correct.

#### 27. Question

In a mixture, the ratio of the alcohol and water is 6 : 5. When 22 litre mixture are replaced by water, the ratio becomes 9 : 13. Find the quantity of water after replacement.

• A) 62 litres

• B) 50 litres

• C) 40 litres

• D) 52 litres

Correct Option: D) 52 litres

Let alcohol = 6x, water = 5x

According to the question,

6x – 22 × (6/11) : 5x – 22 × (5/11)+ 22 = 9 : 13

6x – 12 : 5x – 10 + 22 = 9 : 13

13 (6x – 12) = 9 (5x + 12)

78x – 156 = 45x + 108

78x – 45x = 156 + 108

Water after replacement = 5 × 8 – 10 + 22 = 40 + 22 = 52 litre

Hence, option D is correct.

Correct Option: D) 52 litres

Let alcohol = 6x, water = 5x

According to the question,

6x – 22 × (6/11) : 5x – 22 × (5/11)+ 22 = 9 : 13

6x – 12 : 5x – 10 + 22 = 9 : 13

13 (6x – 12) = 9 (5x + 12)

78x – 156 = 45x + 108

78x – 45x = 156 + 108

Water after replacement = 5 × 8 – 10 + 22 = 40 + 22 = 52 litre

Hence, option D is correct.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Three numbers are in the ratio 5 : 6 : 7. If the sum of their squares is 990, then the numbers are A. 10, 12 and 21 B. 25, 30 and 35 C. 15, 18 and 21 D. 20, 24 and 28 Correct Answer C) 15, 18 and 21 Let the Numbers be 5x, 6x and 7x ∴ (5x)2 + (6x) 2 + (7x) 2 = 990 ⇒ 25x2 + 36x2 + 49x2 = 990 ⇒ 110x2 = 990 ⇒ x2 = 9 ⇒ x = 3 ∴ Numbers = 15, 18 and 21. Approach II: Pick each of the options. Add unit digits of the squares of unit digit of the numbers given in a particular option and match the resultant unit digit with the unit digit of the given total; 0 in 990. Squares of the unit digits of the numbers (15, 18, 21) given in option C are 5, 4 and 1 which on addition give us 10 the unit digit of which is 0. Hence, option C is the correct answer Incorrect Answer C) 15, 18 and 21 Let the Numbers be 5x, 6x and 7x ∴ (5x)2 + (6x) 2 + (7x) 2 = 990 ⇒ 25x2 + 36x2 + 49x2 = 990 ⇒ 110x2 = 990 ⇒ x2 = 9 ⇒ x = 3 ∴ Numbers = 15, 18 and 21. Approach II: Pick each of the options. Add unit digits of the squares of unit digit of the numbers given in a particular option and match the resultant unit digit with the unit digit of the given total; 0 in 990. Squares of the unit digits of the numbers (15, 18, 21) given in option C are 5, 4 and 1 which on addition give us 10 the unit digit of which is 0. Hence, option C is the correct answer

#### 28. Question

Three numbers are in the ratio 5 : 6 : 7. If the sum of their squares is 990, then

the numbers are

• A. 10, 12 and 21

• B. 25, 30 and 35

• C. 15, 18 and 21

• D. 20, 24 and 28

Answer C) 15, 18 and 21

Let the Numbers be 5x, 6x and 7x

∴ (5x)2 + (6x) 2 + (7x) 2 = 990

⇒ 25x2 + 36x2 + 49x2 = 990

⇒ 110x2 = 990

∴ Numbers = 15, 18 and 21.

Approach II: Pick each of the options. Add unit digits of the squares of unit digit of the numbers given in a particular option and match the resultant unit digit with the unit digit of the given total; 0 in 990.

Squares of the unit digits of the numbers (15, 18, 21) given in option C are 5, 4 and 1 which on addition give us 10 the unit digit of which is 0.

Hence, option C is the correct answer

Answer C) 15, 18 and 21

Let the Numbers be 5x, 6x and 7x

∴ (5x)2 + (6x) 2 + (7x) 2 = 990

⇒ 25x2 + 36x2 + 49x2 = 990

⇒ 110x2 = 990

∴ Numbers = 15, 18 and 21.

Squares of the unit digits of the numbers (15, 18, 21) given in option C are 5, 4 and 1 which on addition give us 10 the unit digit of which is 0.

Hence, option C is the correct answer

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points For poverty reduction, we have built up an elaborate ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution. Time has come to dismantle this ecosystem — an ecosystem that is biased against the poor farmer, against climate change mitigation and also against efficient use of water and energy. Which of the following is the most significant, practical and scientific inference that can be made from the above passage? A. Poverty is no longer about food, so free up the food producers rather than keeping them as prisoners of policy B. Poverty is not chosen but imposed C. We have always considered food consumption as the ultimate criterion of poverty D. We have always considered food consumption as the only criterion of poverty Correct Answer: A Option B – the statement is random and not related to the passage so it cannot he be the inference from the passage. Option C – This is true that food consumption has been considered as important criterion but in this passage it is not explicitly mentioned so it cannot be the most practical inference. Option A – As passage talks about dismantling the ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution so the inference can be drawn that Poverty is no longer about food, so free up the food producers rather than keeping them as prisoners of policy Incorrect Answer: A Option B – the statement is random and not related to the passage so it cannot he be the inference from the passage. Option C – This is true that food consumption has been considered as important criterion but in this passage it is not explicitly mentioned so it cannot be the most practical inference. Option A – As passage talks about dismantling the ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution so the inference can be drawn that Poverty is no longer about food, so free up the food producers rather than keeping them as prisoners of policy

#### 29. Question

For poverty reduction, we have built up an elaborate ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution. Time has come to dismantle this ecosystem — an ecosystem that is biased against the poor farmer, against climate change mitigation and also against efficient use of water and energy.

Which of the following is the most significant, practical and scientific inference that can be made from the above passage?

• A. Poverty is no longer about food, so free up the food producers rather than keeping them as prisoners of policy

• B. Poverty is not chosen but imposed

• C. We have always considered food consumption as the ultimate criterion of poverty

• D. We have always considered food consumption as the only criterion of poverty

Option B – the statement is random and not related to the passage so it cannot he be the inference from the passage.

Option C – This is true that food consumption has been considered as important criterion but in this passage it is not explicitly mentioned so it cannot be the most practical inference.

Option A – As passage talks about dismantling the ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution so the inference can be drawn that Poverty is no longer about food, so free up the food producers rather than keeping them as prisoners of policy

Option B – the statement is random and not related to the passage so it cannot he be the inference from the passage.

Option C – This is true that food consumption has been considered as important criterion but in this passage it is not explicitly mentioned so it cannot be the most practical inference.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points For poverty reduction, we have built up an elaborate ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution. Time has come to dismantle this ecosystem — an ecosystem that is biased against the poor farmer, against climate change mitigation and also against efficient use of water and energy. On the basis of above passage, following assumptions have been made: Poverty is now not just about food but living standards The focus should shift to quality, not quantity. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C In the above passage Assumption 1 – As passage talks of the dismantling the ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution so it can be assumed that along with food living standard is equally important. Poverty cannot only be confined to the food. Assumption 2 – This assumption is also valid because till now we were focusing on quantity through food production and distribution but the passage supports for dismantling of such programmes which are prisonor of policy. Incorrect Answer: C In the above passage Assumption 1 – As passage talks of the dismantling the ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution so it can be assumed that along with food living standard is equally important. Poverty cannot only be confined to the food. Assumption 2 – This assumption is also valid because till now we were focusing on quantity through food production and distribution but the passage supports for dismantling of such programmes which are prisonor of policy.

#### 30. Question

On the basis of above passage, following assumptions have been made:

• Poverty is now not just about food but living standards The focus should shift to quality, not quantity.

• Poverty is now not just about food but living standards

• The focus should shift to quality, not quantity.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• C. Both 1 and 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

In the above passage

Assumption 1 – As passage talks of the dismantling the ecosystem of food production, consumption, and distribution so it can be assumed that along with food living standard is equally important. Poverty cannot only be confined to the food.

Assumption 2 – This assumption is also valid because till now we were focusing on quantity through food production and distribution but the passage supports for dismantling of such programmes which are prisonor of policy.