DAY – 11 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : POLITY

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Charter Act, 1833: It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became apurely administrative body. It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. It introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 only (d) None Correct Solution: B Features of Charter Act of 1833: It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’. Hence Statement 1 is correct. It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. Hence Statement 2 is correct. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Charter Act of 1853 introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. Hence Statement 3 is *incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B Features of Charter Act of 1833: It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’. Hence Statement 1 is correct. It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. Hence Statement 2 is correct. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Charter Act of 1853 introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. Hence Statement 3 is **incorrect.*

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Charter Act, 1833:

• It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became apurely administrative body.

• It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers.

• It introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 1 only

Solution: B

Features of Charter Act of 1833:

It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.

Charter Act of 1853 introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. Hence Statement 3 is *incorrect.*

Solution: B

Features of Charter Act of 1833:

It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.

Charter Act of 1853 introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. Hence Statement 3 is *incorrect.*

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Which of these constitutional provision(s) aim at protecting the linguistic interests of minorities in the states? President can direct the government to provide compulsory financial grants and reservation in public jobs to such minorities. President can direct the official recognition of a minority language in the state. Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None Correct Solution: B There is no such provision for reservation in constitution. Endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups. The President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities. Hence Statement 1 is *incorrect. When the President (on a demand being made) is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a state desire the use of any language spoken by them to be recognized by that state, then he may direct that such language shall also be officially recognized in that state. Hence Statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B There is no such provision for reservation in constitution. Endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups. The President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.* When the President (on a demand being made) is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a state desire the use of any language spoken by them to be recognized by that state, then he may direct that such language shall also be officially recognized in that state. Hence Statement 2 is correct.**

#### 2. Question

Which of these constitutional provision(s) aim at protecting the linguistic interests of minorities in the states?

• President can direct the government to provide compulsory financial grants and reservation in public jobs to such minorities.

• President can direct the official recognition of a minority language in the state.

Which of the above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

Solution: B

There is no such provision for reservation in constitution. Endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.

The President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities. Hence Statement 1 is *incorrect.*

When the President (on a demand being made) is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a state desire the use of any language spoken by them to be recognized by that state, then he may direct that such language shall also be officially recognized in that state. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution: B

There is no such provision for reservation in constitution. Endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.

The President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities. Hence Statement 1 is *incorrect.*

When the President (on a demand being made) is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a state desire the use of any language spoken by them to be recognized by that state, then he may direct that such language shall also be officially recognized in that state. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Which of the following functions was/were performed by constituent assembly other than making Indian Constitution? It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947. It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950. It ratified the India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D All the statements given above are correct. Other Functions Performed In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly also performed the following functions: It ratified the India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949. It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947. It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950. It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950. It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950 Incorrect Solution: D All the statements given above are correct. Other Functions Performed In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly also performed the following functions: It ratified the India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949. It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947. It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950. It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950. It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950

#### 3. Question

Which of the following functions was/were performed by constituent assembly other than making Indian Constitution?

• It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947.

• It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950.

• It ratified the India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

All the statements given above are correct.

Other Functions Performed

In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly also performed the following functions:

• It ratified the India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.

• It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947.

• It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950.

• It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950.

• It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950

Solution: D

All the statements given above are correct.

Other Functions Performed

In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly also performed the following functions:

• It ratified the India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.

• It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947.

• It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950.

• It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950.

• It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Which one of the following Fundamental rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as ‘The heart and soul of the Constitution’? (a) Right to freedom of Religion (b) Right to free speech and expression (c) Right to equality (d) Right to Constitutional remedies Correct Solution: D A mere declaration of fundamental rights in the Constitution is meaningless, useless and worthless without providing an effective machinery for their enforcement, if and when they are violated. Hence, Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In other words, the right to get the Fundamental Rights protected is in itself a fundamental right. This makes the fundamental rights real. That is why Dr Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it’. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of an amendment to the Constitution. Incorrect Solution: D A mere declaration of fundamental rights in the Constitution is meaningless, useless and worthless without providing an effective machinery for their enforcement, if and when they are violated. Hence, Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In other words, the right to get the Fundamental Rights protected is in itself a fundamental right. This makes the fundamental rights real. That is why Dr Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it’. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of an amendment to the Constitution.

#### 4. Question

Which one of the following Fundamental rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as ‘The heart and soul of the Constitution’?

• (a) Right to freedom of Religion

• (b) Right to free speech and expression

• (c) Right to equality

• (d) Right to Constitutional remedies

Solution: D

A mere declaration of fundamental rights in the Constitution is meaningless, useless and worthless without providing an effective machinery for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.

Hence, Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In other words, the right to get the Fundamental Rights protected is in itself a fundamental right. This makes the fundamental rights real. That is why Dr Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it’. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of an amendment to the Constitution.

Solution: D

A mere declaration of fundamental rights in the Constitution is meaningless, useless and worthless without providing an effective machinery for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.

Hence, Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In other words, the right to get the Fundamental Rights protected is in itself a fundamental right. This makes the fundamental rights real. That is why Dr Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it’. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of an amendment to the Constitution.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points How many of the following actions of the government form(s) the part of implementation of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)? Abolition of intermediaries like Zamindars, Jagirdars, inamdars etc Nationalisation of Commercial Banks Bonded Labour System Abolition Act Maternity Benefit Act Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution. Dr B R Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution. The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution. All the four legislations given above in the options are part of implementation of DPSPs in letter and spirit. Incorrect Solution: D The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution. Dr B R Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution. The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution. All the four legislations given above in the options are part of implementation of DPSPs in letter and spirit.

#### 5. Question

How many of the following actions of the government form(s) the part of implementation of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?

• Abolition of intermediaries like Zamindars, Jagirdars, inamdars etc

• Nationalisation of Commercial Banks

• Bonded Labour System Abolition Act

• Maternity Benefit Act

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.

The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution. Dr B R Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution. The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution.

All the four legislations given above in the options are part of implementation of DPSPs in letter and spirit.

Solution: D

The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.

The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution. Dr B R Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution. The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution.

All the four legislations given above in the options are part of implementation of DPSPs in letter and spirit.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to the Government of India Act 1935: The Act introduced diarchy at the provincial level for the first time. The Act provided for the establishment of a Federal Court in Delhi to resolve disputes between provinces. The Indian Council was strengthened under this Act with additional powers to advise the Secretary of State. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C The Act abolished diarchy at the provincial level and introduced provincial autonomy. However, diarchy was introduced at the center, not the provinces. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The Act provided for the creation of a Federal Court in Delhi to resolve disputes between provinces and between the centre and provinces. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The Act abolished the Indian Council. Instead, the Secretary of State for India was to be assisted by a team of advisors and not by a strengthened council. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) Government of India Act 1935: Provincial Autonomy: Diarchy was abolished at the provincial level and provinces were given autonomy. Diarchy at Centre: Diarchy was introduced at the centre with reserved and transferred subjects. Bicameral Legislature: A bicameral federal legislature was established with the Council of States and Federal Assembly. Federal Court: The first Federal Court was set up in Delhi with one Chief Justice and six judges. Franchise & Elections: Direct elections were introduced in India for the first time with voting rights to about 10% population. Reorganization: Sindh was separated from Bombay, Burma from India, and Aden made a Crown colony. Reserve Bank of India: The Act provided for the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India. Public Service Commissions: Federal, provincial, and joint Public Service Commissions were established. Incorrect Solution: C The Act abolished diarchy at the provincial level and introduced provincial autonomy. However, diarchy was introduced at the center, not the provinces. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect) The Act provided for the creation of a Federal Court in Delhi to resolve disputes between provinces and between the centre and provinces. (Hence, statement 2 is correct) The Act abolished the Indian Council. Instead, the Secretary of State for India was to be assisted by a team of advisors and not by a strengthened council. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) Government of India Act 1935: Provincial Autonomy: Diarchy was abolished at the provincial level and provinces were given autonomy. Diarchy at Centre: Diarchy was introduced at the centre with reserved and transferred subjects. Bicameral Legislature: A bicameral federal legislature was established with the Council of States and Federal Assembly. Federal Court: The first Federal Court was set up in Delhi with one Chief Justice and six judges. Franchise & Elections: Direct elections were introduced in India for the first time with voting rights to about 10% population. Reorganization: Sindh was separated from Bombay, Burma from India, and Aden made a Crown colony. Reserve Bank of India: The Act provided for the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India. Public Service Commissions: Federal, provincial, and joint Public Service Commissions were established.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to the Government of India Act 1935:

• The Act introduced diarchy at the provincial level for the first time.

• The Act provided for the establishment of a Federal Court in Delhi to resolve disputes between provinces.

• The Indian Council was strengthened under this Act with additional powers to advise the Secretary of State.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• The Act abolished diarchy at the provincial level and introduced provincial autonomy. However, diarchy was introduced at the center, not the provinces. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• The Act provided for the creation of a Federal Court in Delhi to resolve disputes between provinces and between the centre and provinces. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The Act abolished the Indian Council. Instead, the Secretary of State for India was to be assisted by a team of advisors and not by a strengthened council. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• Government of India Act 1935: Provincial Autonomy: Diarchy was abolished at the provincial level and provinces were given autonomy. Diarchy at Centre: Diarchy was introduced at the centre with reserved and transferred subjects. Bicameral Legislature: A bicameral federal legislature was established with the Council of States and Federal Assembly. Federal Court: The first Federal Court was set up in Delhi with one Chief Justice and six judges. Franchise & Elections: Direct elections were introduced in India for the first time with voting rights to about 10% population. Reorganization: Sindh was separated from Bombay, Burma from India, and Aden made a Crown colony. Reserve Bank of India: The Act provided for the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India. Public Service Commissions: Federal, provincial, and joint Public Service Commissions were established.

• Provincial Autonomy: Diarchy was abolished at the provincial level and provinces were given autonomy.

• Diarchy at Centre: Diarchy was introduced at the centre with reserved and transferred subjects.

• Bicameral Legislature: A bicameral federal legislature was established with the Council of States and Federal Assembly.

• Federal Court: The first Federal Court was set up in Delhi with one Chief Justice and six judges.

• Franchise & Elections: Direct elections were introduced in India for the first time with voting rights to about 10% population.

• Reorganization: Sindh was separated from Bombay, Burma from India, and Aden made a Crown colony.

• Reserve Bank of India: The Act provided for the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India.

• Public Service Commissions: Federal, provincial, and joint Public Service Commissions were established.

Solution: C

• The Act abolished diarchy at the provincial level and introduced provincial autonomy. However, diarchy was introduced at the center, not the provinces. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)

• The Act provided for the creation of a Federal Court in Delhi to resolve disputes between provinces and between the centre and provinces. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

• The Act abolished the Indian Council. Instead, the Secretary of State for India was to be assisted by a team of advisors and not by a strengthened council. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect)

• Government of India Act 1935: Provincial Autonomy: Diarchy was abolished at the provincial level and provinces were given autonomy. Diarchy at Centre: Diarchy was introduced at the centre with reserved and transferred subjects. Bicameral Legislature: A bicameral federal legislature was established with the Council of States and Federal Assembly. Federal Court: The first Federal Court was set up in Delhi with one Chief Justice and six judges. Franchise & Elections: Direct elections were introduced in India for the first time with voting rights to about 10% population. Reorganization: Sindh was separated from Bombay, Burma from India, and Aden made a Crown colony. Reserve Bank of India: The Act provided for the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India. Public Service Commissions: Federal, provincial, and joint Public Service Commissions were established.

• Provincial Autonomy: Diarchy was abolished at the provincial level and provinces were given autonomy.

• Diarchy at Centre: Diarchy was introduced at the centre with reserved and transferred subjects.

• Bicameral Legislature: A bicameral federal legislature was established with the Council of States and Federal Assembly.

• Federal Court: The first Federal Court was set up in Delhi with one Chief Justice and six judges.

• Franchise & Elections: Direct elections were introduced in India for the first time with voting rights to about 10% population.

• Reorganization: Sindh was separated from Bombay, Burma from India, and Aden made a Crown colony.

• Reserve Bank of India: The Act provided for the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India.

• Public Service Commissions: Federal, provincial, and joint Public Service Commissions were established.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points How many of the following is/are the features of Parliamentary Form of government? Collective responsibility of the executive to the President. Dissolution of the lower House Membership of the ministers in the legislature Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states. The features of parliamentary government in India are: (a) Presence of nominal and real executives; (b) Majority party rule, (c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. (d) Membership of the ministers in the legislature, Hence, statement 3 is correct. (e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister, (f) Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly). Hence, statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states. The features of parliamentary government in India are: (a) Presence of nominal and real executives; (b) Majority party rule, (c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. (d) Membership of the ministers in the legislature, Hence, statement 3 is correct. (e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister, (f) Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly). Hence, statement 2 is correct

#### 7. Question

How many of the following is/are the features of Parliamentary Form of government?

• Collective responsibility of the executive to the President.

• Dissolution of the lower House

• Membership of the ministers in the legislature

Select the correct answer using the code given below

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.

The features of parliamentary government in India are: (a) Presence of nominal and real executives; (b) Majority party rule, (c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. (d) Membership of the ministers in the legislature, Hence, statement 3 is correct. (e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister, (f) Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly). Hence, statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.

The features of parliamentary government in India are: (a) Presence of nominal and real executives; (b) Majority party rule, (c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. (d) Membership of the ministers in the legislature, Hence, statement 3 is correct. (e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister, (f) Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly). Hence, statement 2 is correct

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements The original constitution did not provide for the fundamental duties of the citizens. Rights and duties of the citizens are co-relative and inseparable The 96th Constitutional AmendmentAct of 2002 added one more fundamental duty How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The original constitution did not provide for the fundamental duties of the citizens. Hence Statement 1 is correct. These were added during the operation of internal emergency (1975–77) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. Rights and duties of the citizens are co-relative and inseparable Hence, statement 2 is correct. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 added one more fundamental duty. Hence Statement 3 is *incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B The original constitution did not provide for the fundamental duties of the citizens. Hence Statement 1 is correct. These were added during the operation of internal emergency (1975–77) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. Rights and duties of the citizens are co-relative and inseparable Hence, statement 2 is correct. The 86th Constitutional Amendment* Act of 2002 added one more fundamental duty. Hence Statement 3 is *incorrect. *

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements

• The original constitution did not provide for the fundamental duties of the citizens.

• Rights and duties of the citizens are co-relative and inseparable

• The 96th Constitutional AmendmentAct of 2002 added one more fundamental duty

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

The original constitution did not provide for the fundamental duties of the citizens. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

These were added during the operation of internal emergency (1975–77) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.

Rights and duties of the citizens are co-relative and inseparable

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 added one more fundamental duty. Hence Statement 3 is *incorrect.*

Solution: B

The original constitution did not provide for the fundamental duties of the citizens. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

These were added during the operation of internal emergency (1975–77) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.

Rights and duties of the citizens are co-relative and inseparable

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 added one more fundamental duty. Hence Statement 3 is *incorrect.*

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Eighth Schedule recognizes which of the following languages? English Sanskrit Magadi Hindi Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: A Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages. They are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. Hence, statement 2 and statement 4 are correct. English is not recognized under 8th schedule, even though it is the official language of India. So, statement 1 is incorrect. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili (Not Magadhi) and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: A Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages. They are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. Hence, statement 2 and statement 4 are correct. English is not recognized under 8th schedule, even though it is the official language of India. So, statement 1 is incorrect. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili (Not Magadhi) and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 9. Question

Eighth Schedule recognizes which of the following languages?

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

• (a) 2 and 4 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: A

Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages.

They are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.

Hence, statement 2 and statement 4 are correct.

English is not recognized under 8th schedule, even though it is the official language of India. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili (Not Magadhi) and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: A

Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages.

They are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.

Hence, statement 2 and statement 4 are correct.

English is not recognized under 8th schedule, even though it is the official language of India. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili (Not Magadhi) and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points How many of the following rights and privileges constitution confers on the citizens of India and denies the same to aliens? Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment Cultural and educational rights Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C All the above statements are correct. The Constitution confers the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to aliens): 1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article15). 2. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16). 3. Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19). 4. Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29 and 30). 5. Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly. 6. Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament and the state legislature. 7. Eligibility to hold certain public offices, that is, President of India, Vice-President of India, judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts, governor of states, attorney general of India and advocate general of states. Incorrect Solution: C All the above statements are correct. The Constitution confers the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to aliens): 1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article15). 2. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16). 3. Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19). 4. Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29 and 30). 5. Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly. 6. Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament and the state legislature. 7. Eligibility to hold certain public offices, that is, President of India, Vice-President of India, judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts, governor of states, attorney general of India and advocate general of states.

#### 10. Question

How many of the following rights and privileges constitution confers on the citizens of India and denies the same to aliens?

• Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth

• Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment

• Cultural and educational rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

All the above statements are correct.

The Constitution confers the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to aliens): 1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article15). 2. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16). 3. Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19). 4. Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29 and 30). 5. Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly. 6. Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament and the state legislature. 7. Eligibility to hold certain public offices, that is, President of India, Vice-President of India, judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts, governor of states, attorney general of India and advocate general of states.

Solution: C

All the above statements are correct.

The Constitution confers the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to aliens): 1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article15). 2. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16). 3. Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19). 4. Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29 and 30). 5. Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly. 6. Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament and the state legislature. 7. Eligibility to hold certain public offices, that is, President of India, Vice-President of India, judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts, governor of states, attorney general of India and advocate general of states.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Constituent Assembly was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru. None of the princely states joined the Constituent Assembly before independence. The Constituent Assembly met as a legislative body under chairmanship of GV Mavlankar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946 The Muslim League boycotted the meeting and insisted on a separate state of Pakistan On December 11, 1946, Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as permanent chairman or president of the Assembly. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The representatives of the princely states who stayed away from the constituent assembly earlier, gradually joined it in 1947. On April 28, 1947, representatives of the six States of Baroda, Bikaner, Jaipur, Patiala, Rewa and Udaipur were part of the Assembly. After acceptance of Mountbatten plan of June 3 1947 for the partition of the country, representatives of most of other princely states to their seats in the Assembly. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Under the Indian Independence Act of 1947, the Assembly was made a fully sovereign body It also became a legislative body that is two separate functions were assigned to it – making of constitution and enacting ordinary laws for the country When the Assembly met as a constituent body, it was headed by Dr Rajendra Prasad and when it met as a legislative body, it was headed by G.V. Mavlankar. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946 The Muslim League boycotted the meeting and insisted on a separate state of Pakistan On December 11, 1946, Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as permanent chairman or president of the Assembly. Hence statement 1 is incorrect The representatives of the princely states who stayed away from the constituent assembly earlier, gradually joined it in 1947. On April 28, 1947, representatives of the six States of Baroda, Bikaner, Jaipur, Patiala, Rewa and Udaipur were part of the Assembly. After acceptance of Mountbatten plan of June 3 1947 for the partition of the country, representatives of most of other princely states to their seats in the Assembly. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Under the Indian Independence Act of 1947, the Assembly was made a fully sovereign body It also became a legislative body that is two separate functions were assigned to it – making of constitution and enacting ordinary laws for the country When the Assembly met as a constituent body, it was headed by Dr Rajendra Prasad and when it met as a legislative body, it was headed by G.V. Mavlankar. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Constituent Assembly was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru.

• None of the princely states joined the Constituent Assembly before independence.

• The Constituent Assembly met as a legislative body under chairmanship of GV Mavlankar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946

• The Muslim League boycotted the meeting and insisted on a separate state of Pakistan

• On December 11, 1946, Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as permanent chairman or president of the Assembly.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The representatives of the princely states who stayed away from the constituent assembly earlier, gradually joined it in 1947.

• On April 28, 1947, representatives of the six States of Baroda, Bikaner, Jaipur, Patiala, Rewa and Udaipur were part of the Assembly.

• After acceptance of Mountbatten plan of June 3 1947 for the partition of the country, representatives of most of other princely states to their seats in the Assembly.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Under the Indian Independence Act of 1947, the Assembly was made a fully sovereign body

• It also became a legislative body that is two separate functions were assigned to it – making of constitution and enacting ordinary laws for the country

• When the Assembly met as a constituent body, it was headed by Dr Rajendra Prasad and when it met as a legislative body, it was headed by G.V. Mavlankar.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946

• The Muslim League boycotted the meeting and insisted on a separate state of Pakistan

• On December 11, 1946, Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as permanent chairman or president of the Assembly.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The representatives of the princely states who stayed away from the constituent assembly earlier, gradually joined it in 1947.

• On April 28, 1947, representatives of the six States of Baroda, Bikaner, Jaipur, Patiala, Rewa and Udaipur were part of the Assembly.

• After acceptance of Mountbatten plan of June 3 1947 for the partition of the country, representatives of most of other princely states to their seats in the Assembly.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Under the Indian Independence Act of 1947, the Assembly was made a fully sovereign body

• It also became a legislative body that is two separate functions were assigned to it – making of constitution and enacting ordinary laws for the country

• When the Assembly met as a constituent body, it was headed by Dr Rajendra Prasad and when it met as a legislative body, it was headed by G.V. Mavlankar.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding Schedules of the Indian Constitution: Schedule : Dealing with Third : Oaths of Union and State ministers Sixth : Administration of Scheduled areas Eleventh : Responsibility of municipalities How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Third schedule of the constitution deals with forms of oath or affirmations for: The Union ministers The candidates for election to the parliament Members of Parliament Judges of the supreme court Comptroller and Auditor General of India State ministers Candidates for election to the state legislature Judges of High Courts Hence pair 1 is correct The Sixth schedule of the Constitution contains provisions related to administration of tribal area in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The Fifth schedule contains provisions relating to administration of Control of Scheduled areas and Scheduled Tribes. Hence pair 2 is incorrect The Eleventh Schedule of the constitution specifies the powers, authority and responsibility of Panchayats. It has 29 Matters; it was added by the 73rd Amendment Act 1992. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A The Third schedule of the constitution deals with forms of oath or affirmations for: The Union ministers The candidates for election to the parliament Members of Parliament Judges of the supreme court Comptroller and Auditor General of India State ministers Candidates for election to the state legislature Judges of High Courts Hence pair 1 is correct The Sixth schedule of the Constitution contains provisions related to administration of tribal area in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The Fifth schedule contains provisions relating to administration of Control of Scheduled areas and Scheduled Tribes. Hence pair 2 is incorrect The Eleventh Schedule of the constitution specifies the powers, authority and responsibility of Panchayats. It has 29 Matters; it was added by the 73rd Amendment Act 1992. Hence pair 3 is incorrect

#### 12. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding Schedules of the Indian Constitution:

Schedule : Dealing with

• Third : Oaths of Union and State ministers

• Sixth : Administration of Scheduled areas

• Eleventh : Responsibility of municipalities

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

The Third schedule of the constitution deals with forms of oath or affirmations for:

• The Union ministers

• The candidates for election to the parliament

• Members of Parliament

• Judges of the supreme court

• Comptroller and Auditor General of India

• State ministers

• Candidates for election to the state legislature

• Judges of High Courts

Hence pair 1 is correct

• The Sixth schedule of the Constitution contains provisions related to administration of tribal area in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

• The Fifth schedule contains provisions relating to administration of Control of Scheduled areas and Scheduled Tribes.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• The Eleventh Schedule of the constitution specifies the powers, authority and responsibility of Panchayats.

• It has 29 Matters; it was added by the 73rd Amendment Act 1992.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

The Third schedule of the constitution deals with forms of oath or affirmations for:

• The Union ministers

• The candidates for election to the parliament

• Members of Parliament

• Judges of the supreme court

• Comptroller and Auditor General of India

• State ministers

• Candidates for election to the state legislature

• Judges of High Courts

Hence pair 1 is correct

• The Sixth schedule of the Constitution contains provisions related to administration of tribal area in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

• The Fifth schedule contains provisions relating to administration of Control of Scheduled areas and Scheduled Tribes.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• The Eleventh Schedule of the constitution specifies the powers, authority and responsibility of Panchayats.

• It has 29 Matters; it was added by the 73rd Amendment Act 1992.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Amendment of the Constitution of India: An Amendment Bill can be introduced by a Minister only. Each House of the Parliament has to separately pass an Amendment Bill by a special majority. Under the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act 1971, the president is bound to give ascent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The procedure for amendment of the Constitution of India has been laid down in Article 368. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of the Parliament and not in state legislatures. A bill can be introduced either by a Minister or a private member and does not require prior permission of the president. Hence statement 1 is incorrect An amendment be must be passed by each House by a special majority that is a majority of total membership of the House and a majority of two thirds of the House present and voting. Hence statement 2 is correct After duly passed by both Houses of the Parliament and ratified by State legislatures where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for his assent. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional Amendment Bill. Hence statement 3 is correct Incorrect Solution: B The procedure for amendment of the Constitution of India has been laid down in Article 368. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of the Parliament and not in state legislatures. A bill can be introduced either by a Minister or a private member and does not require prior permission of the president. Hence statement 1 is incorrect An amendment be must be passed by each House by a special majority that is a majority of total membership of the House and a majority of two thirds of the House present and voting. Hence statement 2 is correct After duly passed by both Houses of the Parliament and ratified by State legislatures where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for his assent. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional Amendment Bill. Hence statement 3 is correct

#### 13. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Amendment of the Constitution of India:

• An Amendment Bill can be introduced by a Minister only.

• Each House of the Parliament has to separately pass an Amendment Bill by a special majority.

• Under the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act 1971, the president is bound to give ascent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The procedure for amendment of the Constitution of India has been laid down in Article 368.

• An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of the Parliament and not in state legislatures.

• A bill can be introduced either by a Minister or a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• An amendment be must be passed by each House by a special majority that is a majority of total membership of the House and a majority of two thirds of the House present and voting.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• After duly passed by both Houses of the Parliament and ratified by State legislatures where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for his assent.

• The president must give his assent to the bill.

• He can neither withhold his assent nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.

• The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional Amendment Bill.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: B

• The procedure for amendment of the Constitution of India has been laid down in Article 368.

• An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of the Parliament and not in state legislatures.

• A bill can be introduced either by a Minister or a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• An amendment be must be passed by each House by a special majority that is a majority of total membership of the House and a majority of two thirds of the House present and voting.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• After duly passed by both Houses of the Parliament and ratified by State legislatures where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for his assent.

• The president must give his assent to the bill.

• He can neither withhold his assent nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.

• The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional Amendment Bill.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following articles of the Constitution of India: Article 15 Article 16 Article 23 Article 26 Article 44 How many of the above articles promote secular character of the Indian state? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Solution: C Article 15 of the constitution provides that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion Article 16 promotes equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment Article 26 provides that every religious denomination or any of its sections shall have the right to manage its religious affairs Article 44 provides that the state shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a uniform Civil Code Hence options 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar and any other similar forms of forced labour. (Does not directly promote secularism) Hence option 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C Article 15 of the constitution provides that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion Article 16 promotes equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment Article 26 provides that every religious denomination or any of its sections shall have the right to manage its religious affairs Article 44 provides that the state shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a uniform Civil Code Hence options 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar and any other similar forms of forced labour. (Does not directly promote secularism) Hence option 3 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following articles of the Constitution of India:

• Article 15

• Article 16

• Article 23

• Article 26

• Article 44

How many of the above articles promote secular character of the Indian state?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Solution: C

• Article 15 of the constitution provides that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion

• Article 16 promotes equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment

• Article 26 provides that every religious denomination or any of its sections shall have the right to manage its religious affairs

• Article 44 provides that the state shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a uniform Civil Code

Hence options 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct

• Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar and any other similar forms of forced labour. (Does not directly promote secularism)

Hence option 3 is incorrect

Solution: C

• Article 15 of the constitution provides that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion

• Article 16 promotes equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment

• Article 26 provides that every religious denomination or any of its sections shall have the right to manage its religious affairs

• Article 44 provides that the state shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a uniform Civil Code

Hence options 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct

• Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar and any other similar forms of forced labour. (Does not directly promote secularism)

Hence option 3 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the term Recall as a Device of direct democracy? (a) A Procedure when a particular legislation is referred to the electorate for settlement by direct votes. (b) A procedure to obtain opinion of the people on any issue related to the public. (c) Method by which people can propose a bill to the legislature for enactment. (d) A method by means of which voters can remove a representative before his tenure if he fails to discharge his duties. Correct Solution: D Democratic polity is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty that is position of Supreme Power by the people. Democracy is of two types- direct and indirect In direct democracy, the people exercise their Supreme power directly as in case of Switzerland There are four devices of direct democracy which are Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite. Recall is a method by means of which the voters can remove a representative or an officer before the expiry of his term when he fails to discharge his duties properly Referendum is a procedure by which a proposed legislation is referred to the electorate for settlement by their direct votes Initiative is a method by which the people can propose a bill to the legislature for enactment Plebiscite is the method of obtaining opinion of people on any issue of public importance; it is generally used to solve territorial disputes. Hence option D is correct Incorrect Solution: D Democratic polity is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty that is position of Supreme Power by the people. Democracy is of two types- direct and indirect In direct democracy, the people exercise their Supreme power directly as in case of Switzerland There are four devices of direct democracy which are Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite. Recall is a method by means of which the voters can remove a representative or an officer before the expiry of his term when he fails to discharge his duties properly Referendum is a procedure by which a proposed legislation is referred to the electorate for settlement by their direct votes Initiative is a method by which the people can propose a bill to the legislature for enactment Plebiscite is the method of obtaining opinion of people on any issue of public importance; it is generally used to solve territorial disputes. Hence option D is correct

#### 15. Question

Which of the following best describes the term Recall as a Device of direct democracy?

• (a) A Procedure when a particular legislation is referred to the electorate for settlement by direct votes.

• (b) A procedure to obtain opinion of the people on any issue related to the public.

• (c) Method by which people can propose a bill to the legislature for enactment.

• (d) A method by means of which voters can remove a representative before his tenure if he fails to discharge his duties.

Solution: D

• Democratic polity is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty that is position of Supreme Power by the people.

• Democracy is of two types- direct and indirect

• In direct democracy, the people exercise their Supreme power directly as in case of Switzerland

• There are four devices of direct democracy which are Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite.

• Recall is a method by means of which the voters can remove a representative or an officer before the expiry of his term when he fails to discharge his duties properly

• Referendum is a procedure by which a proposed legislation is referred to the electorate for settlement by their direct votes

• Initiative is a method by which the people can propose a bill to the legislature for enactment

• Plebiscite is the method of obtaining opinion of people on any issue of public importance; it is generally used to solve territorial disputes.

Hence option D is correct

Solution: D

• Democratic polity is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty that is position of Supreme Power by the people.

• Democracy is of two types- direct and indirect

• In direct democracy, the people exercise their Supreme power directly as in case of Switzerland

• There are four devices of direct democracy which are Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite.

• Recall is a method by means of which the voters can remove a representative or an officer before the expiry of his term when he fails to discharge his duties properly

• Referendum is a procedure by which a proposed legislation is referred to the electorate for settlement by their direct votes

• Initiative is a method by which the people can propose a bill to the legislature for enactment

• Plebiscite is the method of obtaining opinion of people on any issue of public importance; it is generally used to solve territorial disputes.

Hence option D is correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: An Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card holder is eligible for appointment as teaching facility in All India Institute of Medical Science (AIIMS) set up under Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana. Statement – II: An OCI card holder is an Indian citizen. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: C An OCI card holder is eligible for appointment as teaching faculty in IITs, IIMs, NITs, IISERs, IISC, Central University and the new AIIMS setup under them Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana. The OCI card holders shall have the same rights and privileges as a foreigner in respect of all other economic and educational fields not specified in the notification issued by the central government or the rights and privileges not covered by the notifications issued by the Reserve Bank of India under the Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999. Hence statement 1 is correct An OCI card holder is not an Indian citizen without proper registration. As part the Citizenship Act 1955, a person registered as an OCI card holder for 5 years and who is ordinarily resident in India for 12 months before making an application for registration, is eligible for grant of Indian citizenship Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: C An OCI card holder is eligible for appointment as teaching faculty in IITs, IIMs, NITs, IISERs, IISC, Central University and the new AIIMS setup under them Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana. The OCI card holders shall have the same rights and privileges as a foreigner in respect of all other economic and educational fields not specified in the notification issued by the central government or the rights and privileges not covered by the notifications issued by the Reserve Bank of India under the Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999. Hence statement 1 is correct An OCI card holder is not an Indian citizen without proper registration. As part the Citizenship Act 1955, a person registered as an OCI card holder for 5 years and who is ordinarily resident in India for 12 months before making an application for registration, is eligible for grant of Indian citizenship Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I:

An Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card holder is eligible for appointment as teaching facility in All India Institute of Medical Science (AIIMS) set up under Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana.

Statement – II:

An OCI card holder is an Indian citizen.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: C

• An OCI card holder is eligible for appointment as teaching faculty in IITs, IIMs, NITs, IISERs, IISC, Central University and the new AIIMS setup under them Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana.

• The OCI card holders shall have the same rights and privileges as a foreigner in respect of all other economic and educational fields not specified in the notification issued by the central government or the rights and privileges not covered by the notifications issued by the Reserve Bank of India under the Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• An OCI card holder is not an Indian citizen without proper registration.

• As part the Citizenship Act 1955, a person registered as an OCI card holder for 5 years and who is ordinarily resident in India for 12 months before making an application for registration, is eligible for grant of Indian citizenship

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: C

• An OCI card holder is eligible for appointment as teaching faculty in IITs, IIMs, NITs, IISERs, IISC, Central University and the new AIIMS setup under them Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana.

• The OCI card holders shall have the same rights and privileges as a foreigner in respect of all other economic and educational fields not specified in the notification issued by the central government or the rights and privileges not covered by the notifications issued by the Reserve Bank of India under the Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• An OCI card holder is not an Indian citizen without proper registration.

• As part the Citizenship Act 1955, a person registered as an OCI card holder for 5 years and who is ordinarily resident in India for 12 months before making an application for registration, is eligible for grant of Indian citizenship

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The writ of Prohibition can be issued by a higher Court to a Tribunal. The writ of Prohibition cannot be issued against administrative authorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Justification: The term Prohibition literally means to forbid. It is issued by a higher Court to a Lower court or Tribunal to prevent the later from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping of jurisdiction that it does not posses It basically directs inactivity. Hence statement 1 is correct The writ of Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: C Justification: The term Prohibition literally means to forbid. It is issued by a higher Court to a Lower court or Tribunal to prevent the later from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping of jurisdiction that it does not posses It basically directs inactivity. Hence statement 1 is correct The writ of Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The writ of Prohibition can be issued by a higher Court to a Tribunal.

• The writ of Prohibition cannot be issued against administrative authorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Justification:

• The term Prohibition literally means to forbid.

• It is issued by a higher Court to a Lower court or Tribunal to prevent the later from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping of jurisdiction that it does not posses

• It basically directs inactivity.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The writ of Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.

• It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: C

Justification:

• The term Prohibition literally means to forbid.

• It is issued by a higher Court to a Lower court or Tribunal to prevent the later from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping of jurisdiction that it does not posses

• It basically directs inactivity.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The writ of Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.

• It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Article 22 of the Constitution: An individual arrested for criminal activity under ordinary law should be informed the grounds of arrest. The provision of preventive detention is applicable for Indian citizens only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Justification: Article 22 has two parts; the first part deals with cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with cases of preventive detention law The first part of the article confers certain rights on a person who is arrested or detained under ordinary law Such a person has the right to be informed of the ground of arrest However, the Supreme Court has ruled that detention in this part of the article do not cover arrest under orders of a court or civil arrest. The rules apply only to an act of criminal or quasi criminal nature or some activity prejudicial to public interest. Hence statement 1 is correct The second part of particle 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Justification: Article 22 has two parts; the first part deals with cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with cases of preventive detention law The first part of the article confers certain rights on a person who is arrested or detained under ordinary law Such a person has the right to be informed of the ground of arrest However, the Supreme Court has ruled that detention in this part of the article do not cover arrest under orders of a court or civil arrest. The rules apply only to an act of criminal or quasi criminal nature or some activity prejudicial to public interest. Hence statement 1 is correct The second part of particle 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Article 22 of the Constitution:

• An individual arrested for criminal activity under ordinary law should be informed the grounds of arrest.

• The provision of preventive detention is applicable for Indian citizens only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Justification:

• Article 22 has two parts; the first part deals with cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with cases of preventive detention law

• The first part of the article confers certain rights on a person who is arrested or detained under ordinary law

• Such a person has the right to be informed of the ground of arrest

• However, the Supreme Court has ruled that detention in this part of the article do not cover arrest under orders of a court or civil arrest.

• The rules apply only to an act of criminal or quasi criminal nature or some activity prejudicial to public interest.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The second part of particle 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law

• This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

Justification:

• Article 22 has two parts; the first part deals with cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with cases of preventive detention law

• The first part of the article confers certain rights on a person who is arrested or detained under ordinary law

• Such a person has the right to be informed of the ground of arrest

• However, the Supreme Court has ruled that detention in this part of the article do not cover arrest under orders of a court or civil arrest.

• The rules apply only to an act of criminal or quasi criminal nature or some activity prejudicial to public interest.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The second part of particle 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law

• This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs with reference to sources of the Indian Constitution: Feature of Indian Constitution: Source Concurrent List : Australian Constitution Presidential Election : Irish Constitution Judicial Review : British Constitution How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The feature of concurrent list has been taken from the Constitution of Australia Along with it, freedom of trade, commerce and joint sitting of the Houses of the Parliament have also been borrowed from Australian constitution. Hence pair 1 is correct The method of election of the president has been borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland Also, the Directive Principles of State Policy, nomination of members to Rajya Sabha has been taken from Irish constitution. Hence pair 2 is correct The concept of judicial review has been borrowed from the Constitution of United States. Along with it, Fundamental Rights, independence of judiciary, impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges and the post of vice president have also been borrowed from US Constitution. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: B The feature of concurrent list has been taken from the Constitution of Australia Along with it, freedom of trade, commerce and joint sitting of the Houses of the Parliament have also been borrowed from Australian constitution. Hence pair 1 is correct The method of election of the president has been borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland Also, the Directive Principles of State Policy, nomination of members to Rajya Sabha has been taken from Irish constitution. Hence pair 2 is correct The concept of judicial review has been borrowed from the Constitution of United States. Along with it, Fundamental Rights, independence of judiciary, impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges and the post of vice president have also been borrowed from US Constitution. Hence pair 3 is incorrect

#### 19. Question

Consider the following pairs with reference to sources of the Indian Constitution:

Feature of Indian Constitution: Source

• Concurrent List : Australian Constitution

• Presidential Election : Irish Constitution

• Judicial Review : British Constitution

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The feature of concurrent list has been taken from the Constitution of Australia

• Along with it, freedom of trade, commerce and joint sitting of the Houses of the Parliament have also been borrowed from Australian constitution.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• The method of election of the president has been borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland

• Also, the Directive Principles of State Policy, nomination of members to Rajya Sabha has been taken from Irish constitution.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• The concept of judicial review has been borrowed from the Constitution of United States.

• Along with it, Fundamental Rights, independence of judiciary, impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges and the post of vice president have also been borrowed from US Constitution.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• The feature of concurrent list has been taken from the Constitution of Australia

• Along with it, freedom of trade, commerce and joint sitting of the Houses of the Parliament have also been borrowed from Australian constitution.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• The method of election of the president has been borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland

• Also, the Directive Principles of State Policy, nomination of members to Rajya Sabha has been taken from Irish constitution.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• The concept of judicial review has been borrowed from the Constitution of United States.

• Along with it, Fundamental Rights, independence of judiciary, impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges and the post of vice president have also been borrowed from US Constitution.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following Directive Principles: Minimization of income inequalities Provision of free legal aid to the poor Protection of forests and wildlife Promote participation of workers in management of industries How many of the above were added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added a Directive Principle which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38). Hence option 1 is incorrect The 42nd Amendment Act 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list; they require the State: To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39) To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39A) To take steps to secure participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43A) To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48A) Hence options 2, 3 and 4 are correct Incorrect Solution: C The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added a Directive Principle which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38). Hence option 1 is incorrect The 42nd Amendment Act 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list; they require the State: To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39) To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39A) To take steps to secure participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43A) To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48A) Hence options 2, 3 and 4 are correct

#### 20. Question

Consider the following Directive Principles:

• Minimization of income inequalities

• Provision of free legal aid to the poor

• Protection of forests and wildlife

• Promote participation of workers in management of industries

How many of the above were added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added a Directive Principle which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).

Hence option 1 is incorrect

The 42nd Amendment Act 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list; they require the State:

• To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39)

• To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39A)

• To take steps to secure participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43A)

• To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48A)

Hence options 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Solution: C

• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added a Directive Principle which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).

Hence option 1 is incorrect

The 42nd Amendment Act 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list; they require the State:

• To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39)

• To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39A)

• To take steps to secure participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43A)

• To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48A)

Hence options 2, 3 and 4 are correct

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements Statement-I: The United Nations has declared 2025 as the International Year of Quantum Science and Technology. Statement-II: This declaration marks the 75th anniversary of the discovery of quantum mechanics by Albert Einstein. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: C International Year of Quantum Science and Technology: The United Nations has declared 2025 as the International Year of Quantum Science and Technology to highlight the advancements and impact of quantum mechanics. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.) This declaration marks the centenary of Werner Heisenberg’s foundational paper on quantum mechanics (1925). (Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.) Quantum computing is based on the principles of quantum mechanics, using qubits instead of classical bits. Qubits can exist in both 0 and 1 simultaneously (superposition), enabling exponentially faster computations than traditional computers for certain problems. Incorrect Solution: C International Year of Quantum Science and Technology: The United Nations has declared 2025 as the International Year of Quantum Science and Technology to highlight the advancements and impact of quantum mechanics. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.) This declaration marks the centenary of Werner Heisenberg’s foundational paper on quantum mechanics (1925). (Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.) Quantum computing is based on the principles of quantum mechanics, using qubits instead of classical bits. Qubits can exist in both 0 and 1 simultaneously (superposition), enabling exponentially faster computations than traditional computers for certain problems.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements

Statement-I:

The United Nations has declared 2025 as the International Year of Quantum Science and Technology.

Statement-II:

This declaration marks the 75th anniversary of the discovery of quantum mechanics by Albert Einstein.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: C

International Year of Quantum Science and Technology:

• The United Nations has declared 2025 as the International Year of Quantum Science and Technology to highlight the advancements and impact of quantum mechanics. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• This declaration marks the centenary of Werner Heisenberg’s foundational paper on quantum mechanics (1925). (Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.)

• (Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.)

• Quantum computing is based on the principles of quantum mechanics, using qubits instead of classical bits.

• Qubits can exist in both 0 and 1 simultaneously (superposition), enabling exponentially faster computations than traditional computers for certain problems.

Solution: C

International Year of Quantum Science and Technology:

• The United Nations has declared 2025 as the International Year of Quantum Science and Technology to highlight the advancements and impact of quantum mechanics. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• This declaration marks the centenary of Werner Heisenberg’s foundational paper on quantum mechanics (1925). (Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.)

• (Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.)

• Quantum computing is based on the principles of quantum mechanics, using qubits instead of classical bits.

• Qubits can exist in both 0 and 1 simultaneously (superposition), enabling exponentially faster computations than traditional computers for certain problems.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The United Nations declared 21st June as the International Day of Yoga (IDY) in 2014, following a resolution proposed by India and endorsed by 175 member states. Statement-II: The 10th International Day of Yoga (IDY) in 2024 is being celebrated with the theme “Yoga for Self and Society,” highlighting its impact on individual well-being and social harmony. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: B International Day of Yoga (IDY): The United Nations declared 21st June as the International Day of Yoga (IDY) in 2014 following a resolution proposed by India and endorsed by 175 member states. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.) The 10th International Day of Yoga (IDY) is being celebrated on 21st June 2024 with the theme “Yoga for Self and Society,” emphasizing its benefits for both individuals and communities. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.) The first IDY was celebrated in 2015 with the theme “Yoga for Harmony and Peace.” The inaugural event in New Delhi set two Guinness World Records for: The largest yoga session with 35,985 participants. The most nationalities (84) participating in a single yoga session. IDY is observed worldwide to promote holistic health practices and global well-being through yoga. Although both statements are correct, Statement-II does not explain why the UN declared June 21 as IDY in 2014. The declaration was based on India’s initiative and global acceptance — not on the 2024 theme. Incorrect Solution: B International Day of Yoga (IDY): The United Nations declared 21st June as the International Day of Yoga (IDY) in 2014 following a resolution proposed by India and endorsed by 175 member states. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.) The 10th International Day of Yoga (IDY) is being celebrated on 21st June 2024 with the theme “Yoga for Self and Society,” emphasizing its benefits for both individuals and communities. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.) The first IDY was celebrated in 2015 with the theme “Yoga for Harmony and Peace.” The inaugural event in New Delhi set two Guinness World Records for: The largest yoga session with 35,985 participants. The most nationalities (84) participating in a single yoga session. IDY is observed worldwide to promote holistic health practices and global well-being through yoga. Although both statements are correct, Statement-II does not explain why the UN declared June 21 as IDY in 2014. The declaration was based on India’s initiative and global acceptance — not on the 2024 theme.

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

The United Nations declared 21st June as the International Day of Yoga (IDY) in 2014, following a resolution proposed by India and endorsed by 175 member states.

Statement-II:

The 10th International Day of Yoga (IDY) in 2024 is being celebrated with the theme “Yoga for Self and Society,” highlighting its impact on individual well-being and social harmony.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: B

International Day of Yoga (IDY):

• The United Nations declared 21st June as the International Day of Yoga (IDY) in 2014 following a resolution proposed by India and endorsed by 175 member states. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• The 10th International Day of Yoga (IDY) is being celebrated on 21st June 2024 with the theme “Yoga for Self and Society,” emphasizing its benefits for both individuals and communities. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.)

• The first IDY was celebrated in 2015 with the theme “Yoga for Harmony and Peace.”

• The inaugural event in New Delhi set two Guinness World Records for: The largest yoga session with 35,985 participants. The most nationalities (84) participating in a single yoga session.

• The largest yoga session with 35,985 participants.

• The most nationalities (84) participating in a single yoga session.

• IDY is observed worldwide to promote holistic health practices and global well-being through yoga.

• Although both statements are correct, Statement-II does not explain why the UN declared June 21 as IDY in 2014. The declaration was based on India’s initiative and global acceptance — not on the 2024 theme.

Solution: B

International Day of Yoga (IDY):

• The United Nations declared 21st June as the International Day of Yoga (IDY) in 2014 following a resolution proposed by India and endorsed by 175 member states. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• The 10th International Day of Yoga (IDY) is being celebrated on 21st June 2024 with the theme “Yoga for Self and Society,” emphasizing its benefits for both individuals and communities. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.)

• The first IDY was celebrated in 2015 with the theme “Yoga for Harmony and Peace.”

• The inaugural event in New Delhi set two Guinness World Records for: The largest yoga session with 35,985 participants. The most nationalities (84) participating in a single yoga session.

• The largest yoga session with 35,985 participants.

• The most nationalities (84) participating in a single yoga session.

• IDY is observed worldwide to promote holistic health practices and global well-being through yoga.

• Although both statements are correct, Statement-II does not explain why the UN declared June 21 as IDY in 2014. The declaration was based on India’s initiative and global acceptance — not on the 2024 theme.

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha: The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha. The Constitution mandates that the Deputy Speaker must be elected within six months of the formation of a new Lok Sabha. The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker when the position is vacant. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: A Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha: The Deputy Speaker is responsible for performing the duties of the Speaker when the position is vacant, as outlined in Articles 93 and 95(1) of the Constitution. (Hence, Statement 3 is correct.) The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.) The Constitution mandates the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker “as soon as may be,” but no specific timeframe is provided for their appointment. (Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.) The Deputy Speaker is typically elected during the second session of a newly formed Lok Sabha, but delays in appointment have occurred due to the lack of a fixed deadline. Incorrect Solution: A Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha: The Deputy Speaker is responsible for performing the duties of the Speaker when the position is vacant, as outlined in Articles 93 and 95(1) of the Constitution. (Hence, Statement 3 is correct.) The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.) The Constitution mandates the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker “as soon as may be,” but no specific timeframe is provided for their appointment. (Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.) The Deputy Speaker is typically elected during the second session of a newly formed Lok Sabha, but delays in appointment have occurred due to the lack of a fixed deadline.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha:

• The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha.

• The Constitution mandates that the Deputy Speaker must be elected within six months of the formation of a new Lok Sabha.

• The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker when the position is vacant.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: A

Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha:

• The Deputy Speaker is responsible for performing the duties of the Speaker when the position is vacant, as outlined in Articles 93 and 95(1) of the Constitution. (Hence, Statement 3 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 3 is correct.)

• The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• The Constitution mandates the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker “as soon as may be,” but no specific timeframe is provided for their appointment. (Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.)

• (Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.)

• The Deputy Speaker is typically elected during the second session of a newly formed Lok Sabha, but delays in appointment have occurred due to the lack of a fixed deadline.

Solution: A

Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha:

• The Deputy Speaker is responsible for performing the duties of the Speaker when the position is vacant, as outlined in Articles 93 and 95(1) of the Constitution. (Hence, Statement 3 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 3 is correct.)

• The Deputy Speaker is elected by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• The Constitution mandates the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker “as soon as may be,” but no specific timeframe is provided for their appointment. (Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.)

• (Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.)

• The Deputy Speaker is typically elected during the second session of a newly formed Lok Sabha, but delays in appointment have occurred due to the lack of a fixed deadline.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for organic products: This is the first bilateral agreement for organic products between India and Taiwan. Under this agreement, organic products certified under India’s National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) can be sold in Taiwan with the “India Organic” logo. This agreement applies to all agricultural products, including genetically modified (GM) crops. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for Organic Products: India and Taiwan have signed a Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for organic products, marking the first bilateral agreement between the two nations for organic trade. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.) Implemented by: Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) of India. Agriculture and Food Agency (AFA) of Taiwan. Key Provisions: Organic products certified under India’s National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) can be sold in Taiwan with the “India Organic” logo. Organic products from Taiwan meeting its Organic Agriculture Promotion Act standards can be sold in India with the “Taiwan Organic” logo. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.) The agreement applies only to organic products and does not include genetically modified (GM) crops. This ensures that only certified organic products are traded under the MRA. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.) Significance of the Agreement: Facilitates mutual acceptance of organic certification between India and Taiwan. Boosts exports of key Indian organic products like rice, processed food, green/black/herbal tea, and medicinal plant products. Enhances trade opportunities for organic farmers and businesses in both countries. Incorrect Solution: B Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for Organic Products: India and Taiwan have signed a Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for organic products, marking the first bilateral agreement between the two nations for organic trade. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.) Implemented by: Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) of India. Agriculture and Food Agency (AFA) of Taiwan. Key Provisions: Organic products certified under India’s National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) can be sold in Taiwan with the “India Organic” logo. Organic products from Taiwan meeting its Organic Agriculture Promotion Act standards can be sold in India with the “Taiwan Organic” logo. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.) The agreement applies only to organic products and does not include genetically modified (GM) crops. This ensures that only certified organic products are traded under the MRA. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.) Significance of the Agreement: Facilitates mutual acceptance of organic certification between India and Taiwan. Boosts exports of key Indian organic products like rice, processed food, green/black/herbal tea, and medicinal plant products. Enhances trade opportunities for organic farmers and businesses in both countries.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for organic products:

• This is the first bilateral agreement for organic products between India and Taiwan.

• Under this agreement, organic products certified under India’s National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) can be sold in Taiwan with the “India Organic” logo.

• This agreement applies to all agricultural products, including genetically modified (GM) crops.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for Organic Products:

• India and Taiwan have signed a Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for organic products, marking the first bilateral agreement between the two nations for organic trade. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• Implemented by: Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) of India. Agriculture and Food Agency (AFA) of Taiwan.

• Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) of India.

• Agriculture and Food Agency (AFA) of Taiwan.

• Key Provisions: Organic products certified under India’s National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) can be sold in Taiwan with the “India Organic” logo. Organic products from Taiwan meeting its Organic Agriculture Promotion Act standards can be sold in India with the “Taiwan Organic” logo. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.)

• Organic products certified under India’s National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) can be sold in Taiwan with the “India Organic” logo.

• Organic products from Taiwan meeting its Organic Agriculture Promotion Act standards can be sold in India with the “Taiwan Organic” logo.

• (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.)

• The agreement applies only to organic products and does not include genetically modified (GM) crops. This ensures that only certified organic products are traded under the MRA. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.)

• This ensures that only certified organic products are traded under the MRA.

• (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.)

• Significance of the Agreement: Facilitates mutual acceptance of organic certification between India and Taiwan. Boosts exports of key Indian organic products like rice, processed food, green/black/herbal tea, and medicinal plant products. Enhances trade opportunities for organic farmers and businesses in both countries.

• Facilitates mutual acceptance of organic certification between India and Taiwan.

• Boosts exports of key Indian organic products like rice, processed food, green/black/herbal tea, and medicinal plant products.

• Enhances trade opportunities for organic farmers and businesses in both countries.

Solution: B

Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for Organic Products:

• India and Taiwan have signed a Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for organic products, marking the first bilateral agreement between the two nations for organic trade. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• Implemented by: Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) of India. Agriculture and Food Agency (AFA) of Taiwan.

• Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) of India.

• Agriculture and Food Agency (AFA) of Taiwan.

• Key Provisions: Organic products certified under India’s National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) can be sold in Taiwan with the “India Organic” logo. Organic products from Taiwan meeting its Organic Agriculture Promotion Act standards can be sold in India with the “Taiwan Organic” logo. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.)

• Organic products certified under India’s National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) can be sold in Taiwan with the “India Organic” logo.

• Organic products from Taiwan meeting its Organic Agriculture Promotion Act standards can be sold in India with the “Taiwan Organic” logo.

• (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.)

• The agreement applies only to organic products and does not include genetically modified (GM) crops. This ensures that only certified organic products are traded under the MRA. (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.)

• This ensures that only certified organic products are traded under the MRA.

• (Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.)

• Significance of the Agreement: Facilitates mutual acceptance of organic certification between India and Taiwan. Boosts exports of key Indian organic products like rice, processed food, green/black/herbal tea, and medicinal plant products. Enhances trade opportunities for organic farmers and businesses in both countries.

• Facilitates mutual acceptance of organic certification between India and Taiwan.

• Boosts exports of key Indian organic products like rice, processed food, green/black/herbal tea, and medicinal plant products.

• Enhances trade opportunities for organic farmers and businesses in both countries.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes “Zombie Start-ups”? (a) Start-ups that have successfully scaled but face temporary financial difficulties. (b) Newly established companies that receive continuous government funding for research and development. (c) Start-ups that focus exclusively on developing artificial intelligence and automation technologies. (d) Companies that remain operational but struggle to grow, innovate, or generate significant revenue. Correct Solution: D Zombie Start-ups: Context: Koo, an Indian social media platform, is shutting down due to unsuccessful deals with larger companies and media houses. Launched in 2020, Koo gained traction amid tensions between the Indian government and Twitter. Despite offering multi-language support and attracting prominent users, Koo faced declining active users, increasing losses, and weak investor sentiment. The company laid off 30% of its workforce in 2023 before ceasing operations. What are Zombie Start-ups? Zombie start-ups are companies that remain operational but struggle to grow, innovate, or generate significant revenue. (Hence, option D is correct) They are often unable to attract further investment or reach profitability. These companies continue to exist due to prior funding or minimal operational costs. They lack scalability and momentum, making them vulnerable to shutdowns. Incorrect Solution: D Zombie Start-ups: Context: Koo, an Indian social media platform, is shutting down due to unsuccessful deals with larger companies and media houses. Launched in 2020, Koo gained traction amid tensions between the Indian government and Twitter. Despite offering multi-language support and attracting prominent users, Koo faced declining active users, increasing losses, and weak investor sentiment. The company laid off 30% of its workforce in 2023 before ceasing operations. What are Zombie Start-ups? Zombie start-ups are companies that remain operational but struggle to grow, innovate, or generate significant revenue. (Hence, option D is correct) They are often unable to attract further investment or reach profitability. These companies continue to exist due to prior funding or minimal operational costs. They lack scalability and momentum, making them vulnerable to shutdowns.

#### 25. Question

Which of the following best describes “Zombie Start-ups”?

• (a) Start-ups that have successfully scaled but face temporary financial difficulties.

• (b) Newly established companies that receive continuous government funding for research and development.

• (c) Start-ups that focus exclusively on developing artificial intelligence and automation technologies.

• (d) Companies that remain operational but struggle to grow, innovate, or generate significant revenue.

Solution: D

Zombie Start-ups:

Context:

• Koo, an Indian social media platform, is shutting down due to unsuccessful deals with larger companies and media houses. Launched in 2020, Koo gained traction amid tensions between the Indian government and Twitter. Despite offering multi-language support and attracting prominent users, Koo faced declining active users, increasing losses, and weak investor sentiment. The company laid off 30% of its workforce in 2023 before ceasing operations.

• Koo, an Indian social media platform, is shutting down due to unsuccessful deals with larger companies and media houses.

• Launched in 2020, Koo gained traction amid tensions between the Indian government and Twitter.

• Despite offering multi-language support and attracting prominent users, Koo faced declining active users, increasing losses, and weak investor sentiment.

• The company laid off 30% of its workforce in 2023 before ceasing operations.

What are Zombie Start-ups?

• Zombie start-ups are companies that remain operational but struggle to grow, innovate, or generate significant revenue. (Hence, option D is correct) They are often unable to attract further investment or reach profitability. These companies continue to exist due to prior funding or minimal operational costs. They lack scalability and momentum, making them vulnerable to shutdowns.

• Zombie start-ups are companies that remain operational but struggle to grow, innovate, or generate significant revenue. (Hence, option D is correct)

• They are often unable to attract further investment or reach profitability.

• These companies continue to exist due to prior funding or minimal operational costs.

• They lack scalability and momentum, making them vulnerable to shutdowns.

Solution: D

Zombie Start-ups:

Context:

• Koo, an Indian social media platform, is shutting down due to unsuccessful deals with larger companies and media houses. Launched in 2020, Koo gained traction amid tensions between the Indian government and Twitter. Despite offering multi-language support and attracting prominent users, Koo faced declining active users, increasing losses, and weak investor sentiment. The company laid off 30% of its workforce in 2023 before ceasing operations.

• Koo, an Indian social media platform, is shutting down due to unsuccessful deals with larger companies and media houses.

• Launched in 2020, Koo gained traction amid tensions between the Indian government and Twitter.

• Despite offering multi-language support and attracting prominent users, Koo faced declining active users, increasing losses, and weak investor sentiment.

• The company laid off 30% of its workforce in 2023 before ceasing operations.

What are Zombie Start-ups?

• Zombie start-ups are companies that remain operational but struggle to grow, innovate, or generate significant revenue. (Hence, option D is correct) They are often unable to attract further investment or reach profitability. These companies continue to exist due to prior funding or minimal operational costs. They lack scalability and momentum, making them vulnerable to shutdowns.

• Zombie start-ups are companies that remain operational but struggle to grow, innovate, or generate significant revenue. (Hence, option D is correct)

• They are often unable to attract further investment or reach profitability.

• These companies continue to exist due to prior funding or minimal operational costs.

• They lack scalability and momentum, making them vulnerable to shutdowns.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points One of the primary drivers of India’s economic growth lies in the thriving manufacturing sector, particularly through the contribution of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). These small-scale units play a pivotal role in boosting economic development, generating employment opportunities, increasing income levels, and streamlining supply chain operations. To ensure the sustainability and efficiency of MSMEs, it is imperative to not only enhance automation within production processes for improved efficiency but also to provide avenues for accessing broader markets and integrating into both national and global supply chains. In today’s digital age, e-commerce platforms emerge as indispensable tools, offering cost-effective solutions for MSMEs to expand their reach and seize opportunities on a global scale. Which of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational, and practical suggestion implied by the passage given above? a) MSMEs must invest significantly in digital transformation to effectively access the global market. b) It is crucial to offer MSMEs additional avenues to reach larger markets and integrate with national and international supply chains. c) Promoting collaboration and partnerships with e-commerce marketplaces and other companies can help MSMEs access global markets more efficiently. d) Better automation in the production process is required for greater efficiencies on the input side to make MSMEs sustainable and effective. Correct Correct Option: B Justification: Option (a) is incorrect because while digital transformation is important, it’s not the sole solution implied by the passage. Other factors like market access and supply chain integration are also emphasized. Option (c) is incorrect as it focuses solely on collaboration with e-commerce platforms, neglecting other aspects such as automation and supply chain integration mentioned in the passage. Option (d) is incorrect because although automation is mentioned as one aspect, it’s not the primary focus, and the passage stresses the importance of broader market access and supply chain integration alongside automation. Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: Option (a) is incorrect because while digital transformation is important, it’s not the sole solution implied by the passage. Other factors like market access and supply chain integration are also emphasized. Option (c) is incorrect as it focuses solely on collaboration with e-commerce platforms, neglecting other aspects such as automation and supply chain integration mentioned in the passage. Option (d) is incorrect because although automation is mentioned as one aspect, it’s not the primary focus, and the passage stresses the importance of broader market access and supply chain integration alongside automation.

#### 26. Question

One of the primary drivers of India’s economic growth lies in the thriving manufacturing sector, particularly through the contribution of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). These small-scale units play a pivotal role in boosting economic development, generating employment opportunities, increasing income levels, and streamlining supply chain operations. To ensure the sustainability and efficiency of MSMEs, it is imperative to not only enhance automation within production processes for improved efficiency but also to provide avenues for accessing broader markets and integrating into both national and global supply chains. In today’s digital age, e-commerce platforms emerge as indispensable tools, offering cost-effective solutions for MSMEs to expand their reach and seize opportunities on a global scale.

Which of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational, and practical suggestion implied by the passage given above?

• a) MSMEs must invest significantly in digital transformation to effectively access the global market.

• b) It is crucial to offer MSMEs additional avenues to reach larger markets and integrate with national and international supply chains.

• c) Promoting collaboration and partnerships with e-commerce marketplaces and other companies can help MSMEs access global markets more efficiently.

• d) Better automation in the production process is required for greater efficiencies on the input side to make MSMEs sustainable and effective.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Option (a) is incorrect because while digital transformation is important, it’s not the sole solution implied by the passage. Other factors like market access and supply chain integration are also emphasized.

Option (c) is incorrect as it focuses solely on collaboration with e-commerce platforms, neglecting other aspects such as automation and supply chain integration mentioned in the passage.

Option (d) is incorrect because although automation is mentioned as one aspect, it’s not the primary focus, and the passage stresses the importance of broader market access and supply chain integration alongside automation.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Option (a) is incorrect because while digital transformation is important, it’s not the sole solution implied by the passage. Other factors like market access and supply chain integration are also emphasized.

Option (c) is incorrect as it focuses solely on collaboration with e-commerce platforms, neglecting other aspects such as automation and supply chain integration mentioned in the passage.

Option (d) is incorrect because although automation is mentioned as one aspect, it’s not the primary focus, and the passage stresses the importance of broader market access and supply chain integration alongside automation.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points The ratio of age of A to B is 6:7 and also the ratio of age of C to B is 17:14. If the average of their ages is 43 years, then find the ratio of ages B 3 years ago to age of C after 1 year. a) 4:5 b) 2:5 c) 1:5 d) 3:4 Correct Correct Option: D Justification: Ratio of age of A and B = 6 : 7 ratio of age of B and C = 14 : 17 ratio of age of A, B and C = 12 : 14 : 17 Average of A, B and C = 43 years total age = 43 3 = 129 present age of B = 129 14/43 = 42 present age of C = 129 17/43 = 51 ratio of B and C = (42-3) : (51+1) = 3 : 4 Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification: Ratio of age of A and B = 6 : 7 ratio of age of B and C = 14 : 17 ratio of age of A, B and C = 12 : 14 : 17 Average of A, B and C = 43 years total age = 43 3 = 129 present age of B = 129 14/43 = 42 present age of C = 129 17/43 = 51 ratio of B and C = (42-3) : (51+1) = 3 : 4

#### 27. Question

The ratio of age of A to B is 6:7 and also the ratio of age of C to B is 17:14. If the average of their ages is 43 years, then find the ratio of ages B 3 years ago to age of C after 1 year.

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Ratio of age of A and B = 6 : 7

ratio of age of B and C = 14 : 17

ratio of age of A, B and C = 12 : 14 : 17

Average of A, B and C = 43 years

total age = 43 * 3 = 129

present age of B = 129 * 14/43 = 42

present age of C = 129 * 17/43 = 51

ratio of B and C = (42-3) : (51+1) = 3 : 4

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Ratio of age of A and B = 6 : 7

ratio of age of B and C = 14 : 17

ratio of age of A, B and C = 12 : 14 : 17

Average of A, B and C = 43 years

total age = 43 * 3 = 129

present age of B = 129 * 14/43 = 42

present age of C = 129 * 17/43 = 51

ratio of B and C = (42-3) : (51+1) = 3 : 4

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Chance that Sapna tells truth is 35% and for Rohit is 75%. In what percent they likely to contradict each other in the same question? a) 9/40 b) 15/25 c) 25/40 d) 23/40 Correct Correct Option: D Justification: P(A) = 35/100=7/20 and P(B) = 75/100=3/4. Now they are contradicting means one lies and other speaks truth. So, Probability = 7/201/4 + 13/20 3/4 =7/80+39/80=46/80=23/40 Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification: P(A) = 35/100=7/20 and P(B) = 75/100=3/4. Now they are contradicting means one lies and other speaks truth. So, Probability = 7/201/4 + 13/20 3/4 =7/80+39/80=46/80=23/40

#### 28. Question

Chance that Sapna tells truth is 35% and for Rohit is 75%. In what percent they likely to contradict each other in the same question?

Correct Option: D

Justification:

P(A) = 35/100=7/20 and P(B) = 75/100=3/4.

Now they are contradicting means one lies and other speaks truth. So,

Probability = 7/201/4 + 13/20 3/4

=7/80+39/80=46/80=23/40

Correct Option: D

Justification:

P(A) = 35/100=7/20 and P(B) = 75/100=3/4.

Now they are contradicting means one lies and other speaks truth. So,

Probability = 7/201/4 + 13/20 3/4

=7/80+39/80=46/80=23/40

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points A mixture 120L contains milk & water in the ratio 5 : 7. 48L of mixture taken out and some amount of milk & water added in remaining mixture which is in the ratio 1 : 3. If new ratio of milk & water in resulting mixture is 3 : 5, then find amount of water added in resulting mixture? a) 6L b) 18L c) 24L d) 28L Correct Correct Option: B Justification: Milk in mixture = 120 ×5/12=50? Water in mixture = 120 ×7/12= 70? Let milk & water added in mixture is x & 3x respectively [50−48× (5/12) +?]/[ 70−48 ×(7/12)+3?] = 3/5 30+?/42+3? = 3/5 150 + 5x = 126 + 9x 4x = 24 x = 6 l Amount of water added in resulting mixture = 6 ×3=18 Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: Milk in mixture = 120 ×5/12=50? Water in mixture = 120 ×7/12= 70? Let milk & water added in mixture is x & 3x respectively [50−48× (5/12) +?]/[ 70−48 ×(7/12)+3?] = 3/5 30+?/42+3? = 3/5 150 + 5x = 126 + 9x 4x = 24 x = 6 l Amount of water added in resulting mixture = 6 ×3=18

#### 29. Question

A mixture 120L contains milk & water in the ratio 5 : 7. 48L of mixture taken out and some amount of milk & water added in remaining mixture which is in the ratio 1 : 3. If new ratio of milk & water in resulting mixture is 3 : 5, then find amount of water added in resulting mixture?

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Milk in mixture = 120 ×5/12=50?

Water in mixture = 120 ×7/12= 70?

Let milk & water added in mixture is x & 3x respectively

[50−48× (5/12) +?]/[ 70−48 ×(7/12)+3?] = 3/5

30+?/42+3? = 3/5

150 + 5x = 126 + 9x

Amount of water added in resulting mixture = 6 ×3=18

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Milk in mixture = 120 ×5/12=50?

Water in mixture = 120 ×7/12= 70?

Let milk & water added in mixture is x & 3x respectively

[50−48× (5/12) +?]/[ 70−48 ×(7/12)+3?] = 3/5

30+?/42+3? = 3/5

150 + 5x = 126 + 9x

Amount of water added in resulting mixture = 6 ×3=18

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Two jar A and B contain a mixture of two liquids, X and Y in the ratio of 2:3 and 4:5 respectively. If mixture from jar A and B are mixed in the ratio of 1:2 then, find the ratio of X and Y in final mixture. a) 70:51 b) 58:77 c) 61:77 d) 77:58 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: Jar A x : y 2 : 3….(i) Jar B ⅓ x : y 4:5….(ii) On equating the ratio – Multiple (i) by 9 and Multiple (ii) by 5. Jar A Jar B X 18 20 Y 27 25 When 1 Part of Jar A and 2 Part of Jar B mixed Required Ratio = 18×1+20×2 / 27×1+25×2 Required Ratio = 58/77 Or, From mixture and allegation [(4/9)−?]/[?−(2/5)] =1/2 8/9+2/5=3? (40+18) /45=3? ?=58/135 Required ratio= 58/ (135−58) =58/77 Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: Jar A x : y 2 : 3….(i) Jar B ⅓ x : y 4:5….(ii) On equating the ratio – Multiple (i) by 9 and Multiple (ii) by 5. Jar A Jar B X 18 20 Y 27 25 When 1 Part of Jar A and 2 Part of Jar B mixed Required Ratio = 18×1+20×2 / 27×1+25×2 Required Ratio = 58/77 Or, From mixture and allegation [(4/9)−?]/[?−(2/5)] =1/2 8/9+2/5=3? (40+18) /45=3? ?=58/135 Required ratio= 58/ (135−58) =58/77

#### 30. Question

Two jar A and B contain a mixture of two liquids, X and Y in the ratio of 2:3 and 4:5 respectively. If mixture from jar A and B are mixed in the ratio of 1:2 then, find the ratio of X and Y in final mixture.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

2 : 3….(i)

On equating the ratio –

Multiple (i) by 9 and Multiple (ii) by 5.

Jar A Jar B

When 1 Part of Jar A and 2 Part of Jar B mixed

Required Ratio = 18×1+20×2 / 27×1+25×2

Required Ratio = 58/77

From mixture and allegation

[(4/9)−?]/[?−(2/5)] =1/2

8/9+2/5=3?

(40+18) /45=3?

Required ratio= 58/ (135−58) =58/77

Correct Option: B

Justification:

2 : 3….(i)

On equating the ratio –

Multiple (i) by 9 and Multiple (ii) by 5.

Jar A Jar B

When 1 Part of Jar A and 2 Part of Jar B mixed

Required Ratio = 18×1+20×2 / 27×1+25×2

Required Ratio = 58/77

From mixture and allegation

[(4/9)−?]/[?−(2/5)] =1/2

8/9+2/5=3?

(40+18) /45=3?

Required ratio= 58/ (135−58) =58/77

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