DAY – 11 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY, Subject-wise Test 16, Textbook-wise Test 9 and August 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Asian elephants live only in the scrublands and tropical evergreen forest habitats. Forest elephants have uniquely adapted to the forest habitat of the Congo Basin. Savanna elephants are larger than forest elephants with tusks curved outwards. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Asian elephants, as their name suggests, live throughout Asia in grassland, deciduous forest, semi-evergreen forest, scrubland, and tropical evergreen forest habitats. Within these habitat types, Asian elephants may live anywhere from sea level to 9,800 feet above sea level. Statement 2 is correct: Forest elephants are uniquely adapted to the dense forest habitat of the Congo Basin, but are in sharp decline due to poaching for the international ivory trade. Statement 3 is correct: Savanna elephants are larger than forest elephants, and their tusks curve outwards. In addition to being smaller, forest elephants are darker and their tusks are straighter and point downward. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: Species and their habitat Approach: Statement 1 can be eliminated as Asian region has diverse habitats and the elephants are adapted to them. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Asian elephants, as their name suggests, live throughout Asia in grassland, deciduous forest, semi-evergreen forest, scrubland, and tropical evergreen forest habitats. Within these habitat types, Asian elephants may live anywhere from sea level to 9,800 feet above sea level. Statement 2 is correct: Forest elephants are uniquely adapted to the dense forest habitat of the Congo Basin, but are in sharp decline due to poaching for the international ivory trade. Statement 3 is correct: Savanna elephants are larger than forest elephants, and their tusks curve outwards. In addition to being smaller, forest elephants are darker and their tusks are straighter and point downward. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: Species and their habitat Approach: Statement 1 can be eliminated as Asian region has diverse habitats and the elephants are adapted to them.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Asian elephants live only in the scrublands and tropical evergreen forest habitats.

• Forest elephants have uniquely adapted to the forest habitat of the Congo Basin.

• Savanna elephants are larger than forest elephants with tusks curved outwards.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Asian elephants, as their name suggests, live throughout Asia in grassland, deciduous forest, semi-evergreen forest, scrubland, and tropical evergreen forest habitats. Within these habitat types, Asian elephants may live anywhere from sea level to 9,800 feet above sea level.

Statement 2 is correct: Forest elephants are uniquely adapted to the dense forest habitat of the Congo Basin, but are in sharp decline due to poaching for the international ivory trade.

Statement 3 is correct: Savanna elephants are larger than forest elephants, and their tusks curve outwards. In addition to being smaller, forest elephants are darker and their tusks are straighter and point downward.

Trend: Species and their habitat

Approach: Statement 1 can be eliminated as Asian region has diverse habitats and the elephants are adapted to them.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: Forest elephants are uniquely adapted to the dense forest habitat of the Congo Basin, but are in sharp decline due to poaching for the international ivory trade.

Trend: Species and their habitat

Approach: Statement 1 can be eliminated as Asian region has diverse habitats and the elephants are adapted to them.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework: It was adopted during the fifteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP 15). Among its key elements all the Sustainable Development Goals are to be achieved by 2030. In adopting the Framework, all Parties committed to setting national targets to implement it. How many of the statements given above are *not correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) was adopted during the fifteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP 15) following a four year consultation and negotiation process. This historic Framework, which supports the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals and builds on the Convention’s previous Strategic Plans, sets out an ambitious pathway to reach the global vision of a world living in harmony with nature by 2050. Statement 2 is not correct: Among the Framework’s key elements are 4 goals for 2050 and 23 targets for 2030. Statement 3 is correct: In adopting the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, all Parties committed to setting national targets to implement it, while all other actors have been invited to develop and communicate their own commitments. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International Bodies Approach: statement 2 can be eliminated as it is an improbable target to achieve all the 17 goals of SDG. Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) was adopted during the fifteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP 15) following a four year consultation and negotiation process. This historic Framework, which supports the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals and builds on the Convention’s previous Strategic Plans, sets out an ambitious pathway to reach the global vision of a world living in harmony with nature by 2050. Statement 2 is not correct: Among the Framework’s key elements are 4 goals for 2050 and 23 targets for 2030. Statement 3 is correct:* In adopting the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, all Parties committed to setting national targets to implement it, while all other actors have been invited to develop and communicate their own commitments. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International Bodies Approach: statement 2 can be eliminated as it is an improbable target to achieve all the 17 goals of SDG.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework:

• It was adopted during the fifteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP 15).

• Among its key elements all the Sustainable Development Goals are to be achieved by 2030.

• In adopting the Framework, all Parties committed to setting national targets to implement it.

How many of the statements given above are *not* correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) was adopted during the fifteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP 15) following a four year consultation and negotiation process.

This historic Framework, which supports the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals and builds on the Convention’s previous Strategic Plans, sets out an ambitious pathway to reach the global vision of a world living in harmony with nature by 2050.

Statement 2 is not correct: Among the Framework’s key elements are 4 goals for 2050 and 23 targets for 2030.

Statement 3 is correct: In adopting the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, all Parties committed to setting national targets to implement it, while all other actors have been invited to develop and communicate their own commitments.

Trend: International Bodies

Approach: statement 2 can be eliminated as it is an improbable target to achieve all the 17 goals of SDG.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 2 is not correct: Among the Framework’s key elements are 4 goals for 2050 and 23 targets for 2030.

Trend: International Bodies

Approach: statement 2 can be eliminated as it is an improbable target to achieve all the 17 goals of SDG.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding International Solar Alliance: It is a joint effort of India and France against climate change through deployment of solar energy solutions. With the amendment of its Framework, all member states of the United Nations are eligible to join the alliance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The ISA was conceived as a joint effort by India and France to mobilize efforts against climate change through deployment of solar energy solutions. It was conceptualized on the side-lines of the 21st Conference of Parties (COP21) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held in Paris in 2015. Statement 2 is correct: With the amendment of its Framework Agreement in 2020, all member states of the United Nations are now eligible to join the ISA. At present, 116 countries are signatories to the ISA Framework Agreement, of which 94 countries have submitted the necessary instruments of ratification to become full members of the ISA. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International Bodies Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The ISA was conceived as a joint effort by India and France to mobilize efforts against climate change through deployment of solar energy solutions. It was conceptualized on the side-lines of the 21st Conference of Parties (COP21) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held in Paris in 2015. Statement 2 is correct: With the amendment of its Framework Agreement in 2020, all member states of the United Nations are now eligible to join the ISA. At present, 116 countries are signatories to the ISA Framework Agreement, of which 94 countries have submitted the necessary instruments of ratification to become full members of the ISA. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International Bodies Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding International Solar Alliance:

• It is a joint effort of India and France against climate change through deployment of solar energy solutions.

• With the amendment of its Framework, all member states of the United Nations are eligible to join the alliance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The ISA was conceived as a joint effort by India and France to mobilize efforts against climate change through deployment of solar energy solutions.

It was conceptualized on the side-lines of the 21st Conference of Parties (COP21) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held in Paris in 2015.

Statement 2 is correct: With the amendment of its Framework Agreement in 2020, all member states of the United Nations are now eligible to join the ISA. At present, 116 countries are signatories to the ISA Framework Agreement, of which 94 countries have submitted the necessary instruments of ratification to become full members of the ISA.

Trend: International Bodies

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The ISA was conceived as a joint effort by India and France to mobilize efforts against climate change through deployment of solar energy solutions.

It was conceptualized on the side-lines of the 21st Conference of Parties (COP21) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held in Paris in 2015.

Trend: International Bodies

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points The Sukapaika River recently seen in the news is a distributary of- (a) River Mahanadi (b) River Yamuna (c) River Tungabhadra (d) River Narmada Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Sukapaika is one of the several distributaries of the mighty Mahanadi river in Odisha. It branches away from the Mahanadi at Ayatpur village in Cuttack district and flows for about 40 kilometres (km) before rejoining its parent river at Tarapur in the same district. In the process, it drains a large landmass comprising over 425 villages under 26 gram panchayats in three blocks -Cuttack Sadar, Nischintakoili and Raghunathpur. The riverbed has suffered erosion and it is full of hyacinth from Ayatpur to Tarapur. Most trees along the river have also disappeared. At some patches, cattle heads are seen to be grazing on a dry patch in the middle of it. Source: Geography Trend: Rivers and drainage system Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Sukapaika is one of the several distributaries of the mighty Mahanadi river in Odisha. It branches away from the Mahanadi at Ayatpur village in Cuttack district and flows for about 40 kilometres (km) before rejoining its parent river at Tarapur in the same district. In the process, it drains a large landmass comprising over 425 villages under 26 gram panchayats in three blocks -Cuttack Sadar, Nischintakoili and Raghunathpur. The riverbed has suffered erosion and it is full of hyacinth from Ayatpur to Tarapur. Most trees along the river have also disappeared. At some patches, cattle heads are seen to be grazing on a dry patch in the middle of it. Source: Geography Trend: Rivers and drainage system Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 4. Question

The Sukapaika River recently seen in the news is a distributary of-

• (a) River Mahanadi

• (b) River Yamuna

• (c) River Tungabhadra

• (d) River Narmada

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Sukapaika is one of the several distributaries of the mighty Mahanadi river in Odisha.

• It branches away from the Mahanadi at Ayatpur village in Cuttack district and flows for about 40 kilometres (km) before rejoining its parent river at Tarapur in the same district.

• In the process, it drains a large landmass comprising over 425 villages under 26 gram panchayats in three blocks -Cuttack Sadar, Nischintakoili and Raghunathpur.

• The riverbed has suffered erosion and it is full of hyacinth from Ayatpur to Tarapur. Most trees along the river have also disappeared.

• At some patches, cattle heads are seen to be grazing on a dry patch in the middle of it.

Trend: Rivers and drainage system

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Sukapaika is one of the several distributaries of the mighty Mahanadi river in Odisha.

• It branches away from the Mahanadi at Ayatpur village in Cuttack district and flows for about 40 kilometres (km) before rejoining its parent river at Tarapur in the same district.

• In the process, it drains a large landmass comprising over 425 villages under 26 gram panchayats in three blocks -Cuttack Sadar, Nischintakoili and Raghunathpur.

• The riverbed has suffered erosion and it is full of hyacinth from Ayatpur to Tarapur. Most trees along the river have also disappeared.

• At some patches, cattle heads are seen to be grazing on a dry patch in the middle of it.

Trend: Rivers and drainage system

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the statements regarding the Pulikali Art form: It is an indigenous art performed during the festival of Onam. No special training is mandatory to perform this art form. Performers dance in the guise of a cheetah or Tiger. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Onam is a time when one of Kerala’s most prominent indigenous art forms, Pulikali, is performed. In some places, it is also known as Kaduvakali. The rhythmic dance is enacted by artistes who are dressed as a puli (cheetah) or a kaduva (tiger). While Pulikali is an art form performed on the outskirts of Thiruvananthapuram and Kollam, the dance in Thrissur, which has an ancestry of about 200 years, is considered the oldest. Statement 2 is not correct: It is also the most popular and classical of all types of Pulikali. Special training is mandatory to perform this art form. Statement 3 is correct: Performers who dance in the guise of a Puli or cheetah are called Pulikalikkar. The dance is performed to the rhythm of Vadyamelam or orchestra native to Kerala. Source: Art and Culture Trend: Folk art Approach: A general understanding of statement 3 can help eliminated statement 2 as such traditional art forms require specialisation and training. Incorrect Answer: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Onam is a time when one of Kerala’s most prominent indigenous art forms, Pulikali, is performed. In some places, it is also known as Kaduvakali. The rhythmic dance is enacted by artistes who are dressed as a puli (cheetah) or a kaduva (tiger). While Pulikali is an art form performed on the outskirts of Thiruvananthapuram and Kollam, the dance in Thrissur, which has an ancestry of about 200 years, is considered the oldest. Statement 2 is not correct: It is also the most popular and classical of all types of Pulikali. Special training is mandatory to perform this art form. Statement 3 is correct: Performers who dance in the guise of a Puli or cheetah are called Pulikalikkar. The dance is performed to the rhythm of Vadyamelam or orchestra native to Kerala. Source: Art and Culture Trend: Folk art Approach: A general understanding of statement 3 can help eliminated statement 2 as such traditional art forms require specialisation and training.

#### 5. Question

Consider the statements regarding the Pulikali Art form:

• It is an indigenous art performed during the festival of Onam.

• No special training is mandatory to perform this art form.

• Performers dance in the guise of a cheetah or Tiger.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Onam is a time when one of Kerala’s most prominent indigenous art forms, Pulikali, is performed.

In some places, it is also known as Kaduvakali. The rhythmic dance is enacted by artistes who are dressed as a puli (cheetah) or a kaduva (tiger).

While Pulikali is an art form performed on the outskirts of Thiruvananthapuram and Kollam, the dance in Thrissur, which has an ancestry of about 200 years, is considered the oldest.

Statement 2 is not correct: It is also the most popular and classical of all types of Pulikali. Special training is mandatory to perform this art form.

Statement 3 is correct: Performers who dance in the guise of a Puli or cheetah are called Pulikalikkar. The dance is performed to the rhythm of Vadyamelam or orchestra native to Kerala.

Trend: Folk art

Approach: A general understanding of statement 3 can help eliminated statement 2 as such traditional art forms require specialisation and training.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Onam is a time when one of Kerala’s most prominent indigenous art forms, Pulikali, is performed.

In some places, it is also known as Kaduvakali. The rhythmic dance is enacted by artistes who are dressed as a puli (cheetah) or a kaduva (tiger).

While Pulikali is an art form performed on the outskirts of Thiruvananthapuram and Kollam, the dance in Thrissur, which has an ancestry of about 200 years, is considered the oldest.

Statement 2 is not correct: It is also the most popular and classical of all types of Pulikali. Special training is mandatory to perform this art form.

Statement 3 is correct: Performers who dance in the guise of a Puli or cheetah are called Pulikalikkar. The dance is performed to the rhythm of Vadyamelam or orchestra native to Kerala.

Trend: Folk art

Approach: A general understanding of statement 3 can help eliminated statement 2 as such traditional art forms require specialisation and training.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Virtual Digital Assets (VDA): The term ‘virtual asset’ refers to any digital representation of value that can be digitally traded, transferred or used for payment. Entities dealing in VDAs will now be considered ‘reporting entities’ under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA). Exchange between virtual digital assets and fiat currencies will not be included under PMLA. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: b Virtual Digital Assets (VDA) The term ‘virtual asset’ refers to any digital representation of value that can be digitally traded, transferred or used for payment. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The notification says that the definition of ‘virtual assets’ would be the same as that in the Income-Tax Act, (it includes cryptocurrencies and non-fungible tokens as virtual assets). Recently, Ministry of Finance has brought crypto trading, safekeeping, and related financial services under the ambit of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act. Entities dealing in VDAs will now be considered ‘reporting entities’ under PMLA and subsequently must maintain KYC details of their clients and beneficial owners. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Transactions included under PMLA: Exchange between virtual digital assets and fiat currencies. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Exchange between one or more forms of virtual digital assets Transfer of virtual digital assets, safekeeping, or administration of virtual digital assets. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Terms in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Virtual Digital Assets (VDA) The term ‘virtual asset’ refers to any digital representation of value that can be digitally traded, transferred or used for payment. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The notification says that the definition of ‘virtual assets’ would be the same as that in the Income-Tax Act, (it includes cryptocurrencies and non-fungible tokens as virtual assets). Recently, Ministry of Finance has brought crypto trading, safekeeping, and related financial services under the ambit of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act. Entities dealing in VDAs will now be considered ‘reporting entities’ under PMLA and subsequently must maintain KYC details of their clients and beneficial owners. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Transactions included under PMLA: Exchange between virtual digital assets and fiat currencies. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Exchange between one or more forms of virtual digital assets Transfer of virtual digital assets, safekeeping, or administration of virtual digital assets. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Terms in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Virtual Digital Assets (VDA):

• The term ‘virtual asset’ refers to any digital representation of value that can be digitally traded, transferred or used for payment.

• Entities dealing in VDAs will now be considered ‘reporting entities’ under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA).

• Exchange between virtual digital assets and fiat currencies will not be included under PMLA.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• (c) All three

Virtual Digital Assets (VDA)

• The term ‘virtual asset’ refers to any digital representation of value that can be digitally traded, transferred or used for payment.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The notification says that the definition of ‘virtual assets’ would be the same as that in the Income-Tax Act, (it includes cryptocurrencies and non-fungible tokens as virtual assets).

• Recently, Ministry of Finance has brought crypto trading, safekeeping, and related financial services under the ambit of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act.

• Entities dealing in VDAs will now be considered ‘reporting entities’ under PMLA and subsequently must maintain KYC details of their clients and beneficial owners.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Transactions included under PMLA:

• Exchange between virtual digital assets and fiat currencies.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Exchange between one or more forms of virtual digital assets

• Transfer of virtual digital assets, safekeeping, or administration of virtual digital assets.

Trend: Terms in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Virtual Digital Assets (VDA)

• The term ‘virtual asset’ refers to any digital representation of value that can be digitally traded, transferred or used for payment.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The notification says that the definition of ‘virtual assets’ would be the same as that in the Income-Tax Act, (it includes cryptocurrencies and non-fungible tokens as virtual assets).

• Recently, Ministry of Finance has brought crypto trading, safekeeping, and related financial services under the ambit of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act.

• Entities dealing in VDAs will now be considered ‘reporting entities’ under PMLA and subsequently must maintain KYC details of their clients and beneficial owners.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Transactions included under PMLA:

• Exchange between virtual digital assets and fiat currencies.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Exchange between one or more forms of virtual digital assets

• Transfer of virtual digital assets, safekeeping, or administration of virtual digital assets.

Trend: Terms in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Recently, the “Chinese wall policy” was in news. It is associated with- (a) The barrier created by China to prevent Hongkong. (b) A virtual information barrier erected between those having insider information about the company and those who do not. (c) A policy adopted by China to protect its monuments and heritages. (d) None of these Correct Answer: b What is the Chinese wall policy? It is a virtual information barrier erected between those having insider information about the company and those who do not, in order to prevent misuse of inside information in securities trading. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Terms in news Approach: Option (a) and (c) are vague and the subject matter under them are mainstream. Option (b) clearly is explanatory and highly indicative. Incorrect Answer: b What is the Chinese wall policy? It is a virtual information barrier erected between those having insider information about the company and those who do not, in order to prevent misuse of inside information in securities trading. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Terms in news Approach: Option (a) and (c) are vague and the subject matter under them are mainstream. Option (b) clearly is explanatory and highly indicative.

#### 7. Question

Recently, the “Chinese wall policy” was in news. It is associated with-

• (a) The barrier created by China to prevent Hongkong.

• (b) A virtual information barrier erected between those having insider information about the company and those who do not.

• (c) A policy adopted by China to protect its monuments and heritages.

• (d) None of these

What is the Chinese wall policy?

It is a virtual information barrier erected between those having insider information about the company and those who do not, in order to prevent misuse of inside information in securities trading.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Terms in news

Approach: Option (a) and (c) are vague and the subject matter under them are mainstream. Option (b) clearly is explanatory and highly indicative.

What is the Chinese wall policy?

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Terms in news

Approach: Option (a) and (c) are vague and the subject matter under them are mainstream. Option (b) clearly is explanatory and highly indicative.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Swachh Sujal Shakti Samman 2023: The award is given for remarkable contributions by women leaders at the grass-root level. It falls under the Ministry of Rural Development. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Swachh Sujal Shakti Samman-2023 The award is given for remarkable contributions by women leaders at the grass-root level (Women Champions) who have contributed exceptionally to ODF Plus Model Villages, Har Ghar Jal Villages, Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen), Jal Jeevan Mission, and National Water Mission. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Swachh Sujal Shakti Samman-2023 The award is given for remarkable contributions by women leaders at the grass-root level (Women Champions) who have contributed exceptionally to ODF Plus Model Villages, Har Ghar Jal Villages, Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen), Jal Jeevan Mission, and National Water Mission. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Swachh Sujal Shakti Samman 2023:

• The award is given for remarkable contributions by women leaders at the grass-root level.

• It falls under the Ministry of Rural Development.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Swachh Sujal Shakti Samman-2023

The award is given for remarkable contributions by women leaders at the grass-root level (Women Champions) who have contributed exceptionally to ODF Plus Model Villages, Har Ghar Jal Villages, Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen), Jal Jeevan Mission, and National Water Mission.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Trend: Schemes in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Swachh Sujal Shakti Samman-2023

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Trend: Schemes in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points With reference to the National Green Hydrogen Mission, consider the following statements: Development of green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT per annum. An associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 125 GW by 2030. Cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports by over Rs 1 lakh crore by 2030. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: c Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important mission/schemes in energy transition Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Important mission/schemes in energy transition Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 9. Question

With reference to the National Green Hydrogen Mission, consider the following statements:

• Development of green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT per annum.

• An associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 125 GW by 2030.

• Cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports by over Rs 1 lakh crore by 2030.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Important mission/schemes in energy transition

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Important mission/schemes in energy transition

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following: Any Indian Citizen One-person companies based in India Indian Subsidiaries of foreign companies Foreign companies How many of the above are eligible to buy Electoral Bonds? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Answer: c Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in news Approach: statement 4 can be eliminated as it has no relevance in national electoral funding and donation. Incorrect Answer: c Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in news Approach: statement 4 can be eliminated as it has no relevance in national electoral funding and donation.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following:

• Any Indian Citizen

• One-person companies based in India

• Indian Subsidiaries of foreign companies

• Foreign companies

How many of the above are eligible to buy Electoral Bonds?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: statement 4 can be eliminated as it has no relevance in national electoral funding and donation.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: statement 4 can be eliminated as it has no relevance in national electoral funding and donation.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding PM-STIAC: PM-STIAC advises the Prime Minister on matters concerning science and technology, innovation, and monitoring implementation. The Union Minister of Science and Technology chairs the 21-member committee of PM-STIAC. It was constituted in 2023. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Answer: a Explanation: The Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) serves as an overarching council to assess the status of various science and technology-related matters, comprehend challenges, formulate interventions, develop a futuristic roadmap, and advise the Prime Minister accordingly. The council also oversees the implementation of these interventions by concerned S&T departments, agencies, and other government ministries. Hence, statement 1 is correct. PM-STIAC also mandates formulation, convergence, collaboration, coordination, and implementation of multi-stakeholder policy initiatives, mechanisms, reforms, and programmes. These initiatives are aimed at synergising collaborative science and technology; enabling future preparedness; formulating and coordinating S&T missions; providing an enabling ecosystem for technoentrepreneurship; driving innovation, and technology, developing innovation clusters, and fostering effective public-private linkages among other responsibilities. It is a 21-member committee chaired by the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Several missions, aligned with the national interest, have been approved by the PM-STIAC to date. Among them, the Deep Ocean Exploration Mission, AI (Artificial Intelligence) Mission, National Quantum Mission, Waste to Wealth Mission, National One Health Mission, Electric Vehicle Mission, and AGNIi Mission have been approved for implementation. It was constituted in August 2018 by replacing PM’s Scientific Advisory Committee (SAC). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: National Bodies- role and functions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) serves as an overarching council to assess the status of various science and technology-related matters, comprehend challenges, formulate interventions, develop a futuristic roadmap, and advise the Prime Minister accordingly. The council also oversees the implementation of these interventions by concerned S&T departments, agencies, and other government ministries. Hence, statement 1 is correct. PM-STIAC also mandates formulation, convergence, collaboration, coordination, and implementation of multi-stakeholder policy initiatives, mechanisms, reforms, and programmes. These initiatives are aimed at synergising collaborative science and technology; enabling future preparedness; formulating and coordinating S&T missions; providing an enabling ecosystem for technoentrepreneurship; driving innovation, and technology, developing innovation clusters, and fostering effective public-private linkages among other responsibilities. It is a 21-member committee chaired by the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Several missions, aligned with the national interest, have been approved by the PM-STIAC to date. Among them, the Deep Ocean Exploration Mission, AI (Artificial Intelligence) Mission, National Quantum Mission, Waste to Wealth Mission, National One Health Mission, Electric Vehicle Mission, and AGNIi Mission have been approved for implementation. It was constituted in August 2018 by replacing PM’s Scientific Advisory Committee (SAC). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: National Bodies- role and functions Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 11. Question

Consider the following statements regarding PM-STIAC:

• PM-STIAC advises the Prime Minister on matters concerning science and technology, innovation, and monitoring implementation.

• The Union Minister of Science and Technology chairs the 21-member committee of PM-STIAC.

• It was constituted in 2023.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Explanation:

• The Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) serves as an overarching council to assess the status of various science and technology-related matters, comprehend challenges, formulate interventions, develop a futuristic roadmap, and advise the Prime Minister accordingly. The council also oversees the implementation of these interventions by concerned S&T departments, agencies, and other government ministries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• PM-STIAC also mandates formulation, convergence, collaboration, coordination, and implementation of multi-stakeholder policy initiatives, mechanisms, reforms, and programmes. These initiatives are aimed at synergising collaborative science and technology; enabling future preparedness; formulating and coordinating S&T missions; providing an enabling ecosystem for technoentrepreneurship; driving innovation, and technology, developing innovation clusters, and fostering effective public-private linkages among other responsibilities.

• It is a 21-member committee chaired by the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Several missions, aligned with the national interest, have been approved by the PM-STIAC to date. Among them, the Deep Ocean Exploration Mission, AI (Artificial Intelligence) Mission, National Quantum Mission, Waste to Wealth Mission, National One Health Mission, Electric Vehicle Mission, and AGNIi Mission have been approved for implementation.

• It was constituted in August 2018 by replacing PM’s Scientific Advisory Committee (SAC). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: National Bodies- role and functions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• It is a 21-member committee chaired by the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• It was constituted in August 2018 by replacing PM’s Scientific Advisory Committee (SAC). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: National Bodies- role and functions

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Which of the following statements regarding quantum technology is *not correct? a) Quantum machine learning algorithms can potentially enable more efficient and accurate training of Artificial Intelligence models. b) Quantum sensors can detect extremely small changes in the environment, making them useful in areas such as medical diagnostics, environmental monitoring, and geological exploration. c) Quantum technology is not sensitive to environmental interference and their quantum properties in calculations are immune to any such interference. d) Quantum-powered AI systems could potentially arrive at conclusions that are unexpected or difficult to explain as they operate on principles that are fundamentally different from classical computing. Correct Answer: c Explanation: Quantum technology is a field of science and engineering that deals with the principles of quantum mechanics, which is the study of the behaviour of matter and energy at the smallest scale. Quantum mechanics is the branch of physics that describes the behaviour of matter and energy at the atomic and subatomic level. Advantages of Quantum Technology: Increased Computing Power: Quantum computers are very much faster than the computers we today have. They also have the capability to solve complex problems that are currently beyond our reach. Improved Security: Because they rely on principles of quantum mechanics, quantum encryption techniques are much more secure than traditional encryption methods. Faster Communication: Quantum communication networks can transmit information faster and more securely than traditional networks. Enhanced AI: Quantum machine learning algorithms can potentially enable more efficient and accurate training of Artificial Intelligence models. Better Sensing and Measurement: Quantum sensors can detect extremely small changes in the environment, making them useful in areas such as medical diagnostics, environmental monitoring, and geological exploration. Disadvantages of Quantum Technology: Expensive: The technology requires specialized equipment and materials which make it more expensive than the traditional technologies. Limited Applications: Currently, quantum technology is only useful for specific applications such as cryptography, quantum computing, and quantum communication. Sensitivity to Environment: Quantum technology is highly sensitive to environmental interference, such as temperature changes, magnetic fields, and vibrations. Qubits are easily disrupted by their surroundings which can cause them to lose their quantum properties and make mistakes in calculations. Limited Control: It is difficult to control and manipulate quantum systems. Quantum-powered AI could create unintended consequences. Quantum-powered AI systems could potentially arrive at conclusions that are unexpected or difficult to explain as they operate on principles that are fundamentally different from classical computing. Source: Science and technology Trend: Quantum technology Approach: statement (c) is highly improbable as it cannot be entirely immune to any and all environmental interferences. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: Quantum technology is a field of science and engineering that deals with the principles of quantum mechanics, which is the study of the behaviour of matter and energy at the smallest scale. Quantum mechanics is the branch of physics that describes the behaviour of matter and energy at the atomic and subatomic level. Advantages of Quantum Technology: Increased Computing Power: Quantum computers are very much faster than the computers we today have. They also have the capability to solve complex problems that are currently beyond our reach. Improved Security: Because they rely on principles of quantum mechanics, quantum encryption techniques are much more secure than traditional encryption methods. Faster Communication: Quantum communication networks can transmit information faster and more securely than traditional networks. Enhanced AI: Quantum machine learning algorithms can potentially enable more efficient and accurate training of Artificial Intelligence models. Better Sensing and Measurement: Quantum sensors can detect extremely small changes in the environment, making them useful in areas such as medical diagnostics, environmental monitoring, and geological exploration. Disadvantages of Quantum Technology: Expensive: The technology requires specialized equipment and materials which make it more expensive than the traditional technologies. Limited Applications: Currently, quantum technology is only useful for specific applications such as cryptography, quantum computing, and quantum communication. Sensitivity to Environment: Quantum technology is highly sensitive to environmental interference, such as temperature changes, magnetic fields, and vibrations. Qubits are easily disrupted by their surroundings which can cause them to lose their quantum properties and make mistakes in calculations. Limited Control:* It is difficult to control and manipulate quantum systems. Quantum-powered AI could create unintended consequences. Quantum-powered AI systems could potentially arrive at conclusions that are unexpected or difficult to explain as they operate on principles that are fundamentally different from classical computing. Source: Science and technology Trend: Quantum technology Approach: statement (c) is highly improbable as it cannot be entirely immune to any and all environmental interferences.

#### 12. Question

Which of the following statements regarding quantum technology is *not* correct?

• a) Quantum machine learning algorithms can potentially enable more efficient and accurate training of Artificial Intelligence models.

• b) Quantum sensors can detect extremely small changes in the environment, making them useful in areas such as medical diagnostics, environmental monitoring, and geological exploration.

• c) Quantum technology is not sensitive to environmental interference and their quantum properties in calculations are immune to any such interference.

• d) Quantum-powered AI systems could potentially arrive at conclusions that are unexpected or difficult to explain as they operate on principles that are fundamentally different from classical computing.

Explanation:

• Quantum technology is a field of science and engineering that deals with the principles of quantum mechanics, which is the study of the behaviour of matter and energy at the smallest scale.

• Quantum mechanics is the branch of physics that describes the behaviour of matter and energy at the atomic and subatomic level.

• Advantages of Quantum Technology:

• Increased Computing Power: Quantum computers are very much faster than the computers we today have. They also have the capability to solve complex problems that are currently beyond our reach.

• Improved Security: Because they rely on principles of quantum mechanics, quantum encryption techniques are much more secure than traditional encryption methods.

• Faster Communication: Quantum communication networks can transmit information faster and more securely than traditional networks.

• Enhanced AI: Quantum machine learning algorithms can potentially enable more efficient and accurate training of Artificial Intelligence models.

• Better Sensing and Measurement: Quantum sensors can detect extremely small changes in the environment, making them useful in areas such as medical diagnostics, environmental monitoring, and geological exploration.

• Disadvantages of Quantum Technology:

• Expensive: The technology requires specialized equipment and materials which make it more expensive than the traditional technologies.

• Limited Applications: Currently, quantum technology is only useful for specific applications such as cryptography, quantum computing, and quantum communication.

• Sensitivity to Environment: Quantum technology is highly sensitive to environmental interference, such as temperature changes, magnetic fields, and vibrations. Qubits are easily disrupted by their surroundings which can cause them to lose their quantum properties and make mistakes in calculations.

• Limited Control: It is difficult to control and manipulate quantum systems. Quantum-powered AI could create unintended consequences.

• Quantum-powered AI systems could potentially arrive at conclusions that are unexpected or difficult to explain as they operate on principles that are fundamentally different from classical computing.

Trend: Quantum technology

Approach: statement (c) is highly improbable as it cannot be entirely immune to any and all environmental interferences.

Explanation:

• Quantum technology is a field of science and engineering that deals with the principles of quantum mechanics, which is the study of the behaviour of matter and energy at the smallest scale.

• Quantum mechanics is the branch of physics that describes the behaviour of matter and energy at the atomic and subatomic level.

• Advantages of Quantum Technology:

• Improved Security: Because they rely on principles of quantum mechanics, quantum encryption techniques are much more secure than traditional encryption methods.

• Faster Communication: Quantum communication networks can transmit information faster and more securely than traditional networks.

• Enhanced AI: Quantum machine learning algorithms can potentially enable more efficient and accurate training of Artificial Intelligence models.

• Disadvantages of Quantum Technology:

• Expensive: The technology requires specialized equipment and materials which make it more expensive than the traditional technologies.

• Limited Applications: Currently, quantum technology is only useful for specific applications such as cryptography, quantum computing, and quantum communication.

• Limited Control: It is difficult to control and manipulate quantum systems. Quantum-powered AI could create unintended consequences.

Trend: Quantum technology

Approach: statement (c) is highly improbable as it cannot be entirely immune to any and all environmental interferences.

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points With reference to ‘National Quantum Mission’, consider the following statements: The mission is planned for 2023-2031 and aims to create a vibrant and innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT) in India. India will be the second country to have a dedicated quantum mission. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: In April, 2023, the union cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has approved the National Quantum Mission (NQM) to aid scientific and industrial research and development in quantum technology. It’ll be implemented by the Department of Science & Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science & Technology. The mission planned for 2023-2031 aims to seed, nurture, and scale up scientific and industrial R&D and create a vibrant & innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT).Hence, statement 1 is correct. With the launch of this mission, India will be the seventh country to have a dedicated quantum mission after the US, Austria, Finland, France, Canada and China. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Quantum technologies & applications is one of the 9 missions of national importance, being driven by the Prime Minister’s Science and Technology Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) through the Principal Scientific Advisor’s office. Salient features of NQM: It will target developing intermediate scale quantum computers with 50-100 physical qubits in 5 years and 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years. The mission will help develop magnetometers with high sensitivity for precision timing (atomic clocks), communications, and navigation. Satellite based secure quantum communications between ground stations over a range of 2000 km within India. Long distance secure quantum communications with other countries Inter-city quantum key distribution over 2000 km Multi-node Quantum network with quantum memories Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) would be set up in top academic and National R&D institutes on the domains of Quantum Technology: Quantum computation Quantum communication Quantum Sensing & Metrology Quantum Materials & Devices Source: Science and technology Trend: Quantum technology Approach: superlative term in statement 2 (second) considering there are several countries with much advanced technology and innovation. Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: In April, 2023, the union cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has approved the National Quantum Mission (NQM) to aid scientific and industrial research and development in quantum technology. It’ll be implemented by the Department of Science & Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science & Technology. The mission planned for 2023-2031 aims to seed, nurture, and scale up scientific and industrial R&D and create a vibrant & innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT).Hence, statement 1 is correct. With the launch of this mission, India will be the seventh country to have a dedicated quantum mission after the US, Austria, Finland, France, Canada and China. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Quantum technologies & applications is one of the 9 missions of national importance, being driven by the Prime Minister’s Science and Technology Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) through the Principal Scientific Advisor’s office. Salient features of NQM: It will target developing intermediate scale quantum computers with 50-100 physical qubits in 5 years and 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years. The mission will help develop magnetometers with high sensitivity for precision timing (atomic clocks), communications, and navigation. Satellite based secure quantum communications between ground stations over a range of 2000 km within India. Long distance secure quantum communications with other countries Inter-city quantum key distribution over 2000 km Multi-node Quantum network with quantum memories Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) would be set up in top academic and National R&D institutes on the domains of Quantum Technology: Quantum computation Quantum communication Quantum Sensing & Metrology Quantum Materials & Devices Source: Science and technology Trend: Quantum technology Approach: superlative term in statement 2 (second) considering there are several countries with much advanced technology and innovation.

#### 13. Question

With reference to ‘National Quantum Mission’, consider the following statements:

• The mission is planned for 2023-2031 and aims to create a vibrant and innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT) in India.

• India will be the second country to have a dedicated quantum mission.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• In April, 2023, the union cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has approved the National Quantum Mission (NQM) to aid scientific and industrial research and development in quantum technology.

• It’ll be implemented by the Department of Science & Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science & Technology.

• The mission planned for 2023-2031 aims to seed, nurture, and scale up scientific and industrial R&D and create a vibrant & innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT).Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• With the launch of this mission, India will be the seventh country to have a dedicated quantum mission after the US, Austria, Finland, France, Canada and China. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Quantum technologies & applications is one of the 9 missions of national importance, being driven by the Prime Minister’s Science and Technology Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) through the Principal Scientific Advisor’s office.

• Salient features of NQM:

• It will target developing intermediate scale quantum computers with 50-100 physical qubits in 5 years and 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years.

• The mission will help develop magnetometers with high sensitivity for precision timing (atomic clocks), communications, and navigation.

• Satellite based secure quantum communications between ground stations over a range of 2000 km within India.

• Long distance secure quantum communications with other countries

• Inter-city quantum key distribution over 2000 km

• Multi-node Quantum network with quantum memories

• Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) would be set up in top academic and National R&D institutes on the domains of Quantum Technology:

• Quantum computation

• Quantum communication

• Quantum Sensing & Metrology

• Quantum Materials & Devices

Trend: Quantum technology

Approach: superlative term in statement 2 (second) considering there are several countries with much advanced technology and innovation.

Explanation:

• It’ll be implemented by the Department of Science & Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science & Technology.

• Salient features of NQM:

• It will target developing intermediate scale quantum computers with 50-100 physical qubits in 5 years and 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years.

• The mission will help develop magnetometers with high sensitivity for precision timing (atomic clocks), communications, and navigation.

• Satellite based secure quantum communications between ground stations over a range of 2000 km within India.

• Long distance secure quantum communications with other countries

• Inter-city quantum key distribution over 2000 km

• Multi-node Quantum network with quantum memories

• Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) would be set up in top academic and National R&D institutes on the domains of Quantum Technology:

• Quantum computation

• Quantum communication

• Quantum Sensing & Metrology

• Quantum Materials & Devices

Trend: Quantum technology

Approach: superlative term in statement 2 (second) considering there are several countries with much advanced technology and innovation.

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following: Gravity Electromagnetism Nuclear force Coriolis How many of the above are considered as fundamental forces of the nature? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: c Explanation: The Four Fundamental Forces of Nature are Gravitational force, Weak Nuclear force, Electromagnetic force and Strong Nuclear force. Every day, whether we realize it or not, the four fundamental forces act on us. Everything that happens in the universe is governed by these forces. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic Concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The Four Fundamental Forces of Nature are Gravitational force, Weak Nuclear force, Electromagnetic force and Strong Nuclear force. Every day, whether we realize it or not, the four fundamental forces act on us. Everything that happens in the universe is governed by these forces. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic Concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 14. Question

Consider the following:

• Electromagnetism

• Nuclear force

How many of the above are considered as fundamental forces of the nature?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The Four Fundamental Forces of Nature are Gravitational force, Weak Nuclear force, Electromagnetic force and Strong Nuclear force. Every day, whether we realize it or not, the four fundamental forces act on us. Everything that happens in the universe is governed by these forces.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic Concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic Concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points With reference to ‘One week One Lab ‘campaign, consider the following statements: The One Week One lab campaign was launched by the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR). The One Week-One Lab program aims to make laboratory research accessible to the general public. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: c Explanation: The One Week One lab campaign of the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), will highlight India’s global excellence in technology, innovation and Start-ups. Hence, statement 1 is correct. One week-one laboratory program is a meaningful initiative to build a self-reliant India. The program will inspire the future generation to contribute to the efforts of nation-building. The One Week-One Lab program aims to make laboratory research accessible to the general public. During the campaign each CSIR lab shall be organizing week-long events including industry & start-up meet, students connect, society connect, display of technologies, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: schemes/initiatives in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The One Week One lab campaign of the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), will highlight India’s global excellence in technology, innovation and Start-ups. Hence, statement 1 is correct. One week-one laboratory program is a meaningful initiative to build a self-reliant India. The program will inspire the future generation to contribute to the efforts of nation-building. The One Week-One Lab program aims to make laboratory research accessible to the general public. During the campaign each CSIR lab shall be organizing week-long events including industry & start-up meet, students connect, society connect, display of technologies, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: schemes/initiatives in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 15. Question

With reference to ‘One week One Lab ‘campaign, consider the following statements:

• The One Week One lab campaign was launched by the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR).

• The One Week-One Lab program aims to make laboratory research accessible to the general public.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The One Week One lab campaign of the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), will highlight India’s global excellence in technology, innovation and Start-ups. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• One week-one laboratory program is a meaningful initiative to build a self-reliant India. The program will inspire the future generation to contribute to the efforts of nation-building. The One Week-One Lab program aims to make laboratory research accessible to the general public.

• During the campaign each CSIR lab shall be organizing week-long events including industry & start-up meet, students connect, society connect, display of technologies, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: schemes/initiatives in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: schemes/initiatives in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Stem cell therapy may be used to repair damaged organs instead of replacing the organ. Statement-II: Unlike muscle cells, blood cells, and nerve cells, which do not normally replicate themselves, stem cells can replicate or proliferate multiple times. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: a Explanation: Stem cell therapy, also known as regenerative medicine, promotes the repair response of diseased, dysfunctional or injured tissue using stem cells or their derivatives. It is the next chapter in organ transplantation and uses cells instead of donor organs, which are limited in supply. A stem cell is a cell with the unique ability to develop into specialized cell types in the body. In the future they may be used to replace cells and tissues that have been damaged or lost due to disease. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Stem cells provide new cells for the body as it grows, and replace specialized cells that are damaged or lost. They have two unique properties that enable them to do this: They can divide over and over again to produce new cells. As they divide, they can change into the other types of cell that make up the body. Unlike muscle cells, blood cells, and nerve cells, which do not normally replicate themselves, stem cells can replicate or proliferate multiple times. Embryonic stem cells are the most powerful because they can develop into every type of cell in the body. Stem cells can divide and renew themselves for an extended period of time. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Types: Totipotent – It is the ability to differentiate into any cell type. Examples include the zygote formed after fertilisation and the first few cells produced by zygote division. Pluripotent – These cells have the ability to differentiate into nearly all cell types. Embryonic stem cells and cells derived from the mesoderm, endoderm, and ectoderm germ layers that form in the early stages of embryonic stem cell differentiation are examples. Multipotent – It is the ability to differentiate into a closely related family of cells is referred to as multipotency. Hematopoietic (adult) stem cells, which can differentiate into red and white blood cells or platelets, are one example. In stem cell transplants, stem cells replace cells damaged by chemotherapy or disease or serve as a way for the donor’s immune system to fight some types of cancer and blood-related diseases, such as leukemia, lymphoma, neuroblastoma and multiple myeloma. Hence, statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Question on Stem cells has been asked in UPSC prelims 2012 Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: Stem cell therapy, also known as regenerative medicine, promotes the repair response of diseased, dysfunctional or injured tissue using stem cells or their derivatives. It is the next chapter in organ transplantation and uses cells instead of donor organs, which are limited in supply. A stem cell is a cell with the unique ability to develop into specialized cell types in the body. In the future they may be used to replace cells and tissues that have been damaged or lost due to disease. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Stem cells provide new cells for the body as it grows, and replace specialized cells that are damaged or lost. They have two unique properties that enable them to do this: They can divide over and over again to produce new cells. As they divide, they can change into the other types of cell that make up the body. Unlike muscle cells, blood cells, and nerve cells, which do not normally replicate themselves, stem cells can replicate or proliferate multiple times. Embryonic stem cells are the most powerful because they can develop into every type of cell in the body. Stem cells can divide and renew themselves for an extended period of time. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Types: Totipotent – It is the ability to differentiate into any cell type. Examples include the zygote formed after fertilisation and the first few cells produced by zygote division. Pluripotent – These cells have the ability to differentiate into nearly all cell types. Embryonic stem cells and cells derived from the mesoderm, endoderm, and ectoderm germ layers that form in the early stages of embryonic stem cell differentiation are examples. Multipotent – It is the ability to differentiate into a closely related family of cells is referred to as multipotency. Hematopoietic (adult) stem cells, which can differentiate into red and white blood cells or platelets, are one example. In stem cell transplants, stem cells replace cells damaged by chemotherapy or disease or serve as a way for the donor’s immune system to fight some types of cancer and blood-related diseases, such as leukemia, lymphoma, neuroblastoma and multiple myeloma. Hence, statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Question on Stem cells has been asked in UPSC prelims 2012 Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Stem cell therapy may be used to repair damaged organs instead of replacing the organ.

Statement-II:

Unlike muscle cells, blood cells, and nerve cells, which do not normally replicate themselves, stem cells can replicate or proliferate multiple times.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

• Stem cell therapy, also known as regenerative medicine, promotes the repair response of diseased, dysfunctional or injured tissue using stem cells or their derivatives. It is the next chapter in organ transplantation and uses cells instead of donor organs, which are limited in supply.

• A stem cell is a cell with the unique ability to develop into specialized cell types in the body. In the future they may be used to replace cells and tissues that have been damaged or lost due to disease. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Stem cells provide new cells for the body as it grows, and replace specialized cells that are damaged or lost. They have two unique properties that enable them to do this:

• They can divide over and over again to produce new cells.

• As they divide, they can change into the other types of cell that make up the body.

• Unlike muscle cells, blood cells, and nerve cells, which do not normally replicate themselves, stem cells can replicate or proliferate multiple times.

• Embryonic stem cells are the most powerful because they can develop into every type of cell in the body. Stem cells can divide and renew themselves for an extended period of time. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Totipotent – It is the ability to differentiate into any cell type. Examples include the zygote formed after fertilisation and the first few cells produced by zygote division.

• Pluripotent – These cells have the ability to differentiate into nearly all cell types. Embryonic stem cells and cells derived from the mesoderm, endoderm, and ectoderm germ layers that form in the early stages of embryonic stem cell differentiation are examples.

• Multipotent – It is the ability to differentiate into a closely related family of cells is referred to as multipotency. Hematopoietic (adult) stem cells, which can differentiate into red and white blood cells or platelets, are one example.

• In stem cell transplants, stem cells replace cells damaged by chemotherapy or disease or serve as a way for the donor’s immune system to fight some types of cancer and blood-related diseases, such as leukemia, lymphoma, neuroblastoma and multiple myeloma. Hence, statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Question on Stem cells has been asked in UPSC prelims 2012

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Stem cells provide new cells for the body as it grows, and replace specialized cells that are damaged or lost. They have two unique properties that enable them to do this:

• They can divide over and over again to produce new cells.

• As they divide, they can change into the other types of cell that make up the body.

• Unlike muscle cells, blood cells, and nerve cells, which do not normally replicate themselves, stem cells can replicate or proliferate multiple times.

• Totipotent – It is the ability to differentiate into any cell type. Examples include the zygote formed after fertilisation and the first few cells produced by zygote division.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: Question on Stem cells has been asked in UPSC prelims 2012

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: LUPEX is a collaborative mission between ISRO and JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency). The objectives of LUPEX mission include study of the polar region of Planet Mars. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: a Explanation: LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration) is a collaborative mission between ISRO and JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency) scheduled for 2024-25.Hence, statement 1 is correct. Target Area : Polar regions of the Moon, including permanently shaded regions Objectives: Explore lunar Polar Regions, investigate water abundance, study lunar surface conditions, and potential for establishing long-term stations. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Components : Launch vehicle and rover (contributed by JAXA),Lander (provided by ISRO) Importance: Aims to study regions of the Moon not well-illuminated by the Sun, Focuses on understanding water distribution and potential for future exploration Investigate conditions for potential lunar habitats Contributes to India’s lunar exploration capabilities. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Space exploration Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration) is a collaborative mission between ISRO and JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency) scheduled for 2024-25.Hence, statement 1 is correct. Target Area : Polar regions of the Moon, including permanently shaded regions Objectives: Explore lunar Polar Regions, investigate water abundance, study lunar surface conditions, and potential for establishing long-term stations. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Components : Launch vehicle and rover (contributed by JAXA),Lander (provided by ISRO) Importance: Aims to study regions of the Moon not well-illuminated by the Sun, Focuses on understanding water distribution and potential for future exploration Investigate conditions for potential lunar habitats Contributes to India’s lunar exploration capabilities. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Space exploration Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 17. Question

Consider the following statements:

• LUPEX is a collaborative mission between ISRO and JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency).

• The objectives of LUPEX mission include study of the polar region of Planet Mars.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration) is a collaborative mission between ISRO and JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency) scheduled for 2024-25.Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Target Area : Polar regions of the Moon, including permanently shaded regions

• Objectives: Explore lunar Polar Regions, investigate water abundance, study lunar surface conditions, and potential for establishing long-term stations. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Components : Launch vehicle and rover (contributed by JAXA),Lander (provided by ISRO)

• Importance:

• Aims to study regions of the Moon not well-illuminated by the Sun,

• Focuses on understanding water distribution and potential for future exploration

• Investigate conditions for potential lunar habitats

• Contributes to India’s lunar exploration capabilities.

Trend: Space exploration

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration) is a collaborative mission between ISRO and JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency) scheduled for 2024-25.Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Target Area : Polar regions of the Moon, including permanently shaded regions

• Objectives: Explore lunar Polar Regions, investigate water abundance, study lunar surface conditions, and potential for establishing long-term stations. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Components : Launch vehicle and rover (contributed by JAXA),Lander (provided by ISRO)

• Importance:

• Aims to study regions of the Moon not well-illuminated by the Sun,

• Focuses on understanding water distribution and potential for future exploration

• Investigate conditions for potential lunar habitats

• Contributes to India’s lunar exploration capabilities.

Trend: Space exploration

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points What is ‘Casgevy’, recently seen in news? a) An astronomical project launched by NASA b) Supersonic guided missile introduced by Israel c) Supercomputer used by Apple Inc. d) New gene therapy Correct Answer: d Explanation: The UK drug regulator recently approved Casgevy, a gene therapy for sickle cell disease and thalassaemia, marking a breakthrough as the world’s first licensed therapy using Crispr-Cas9 gene editing technology. Casgevy edits the faulty gene causing these blood disorders, potentially providing a lifelong cure. The therapy, targets the BCL11A gene to increase foetal haemoglobin production, reducing severe pain crises and the need for transfusions. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Questions of regenerative therapies and their properties are crecurrent in UPSC prelims Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The UK drug regulator recently approved Casgevy, a gene therapy for sickle cell disease and thalassaemia, marking a breakthrough as the world’s first licensed therapy using Crispr-Cas9 gene editing technology. Casgevy edits the faulty gene causing these blood disorders, potentially providing a lifelong cure. The therapy, targets the BCL11A gene to increase foetal haemoglobin production, reducing severe pain crises and the need for transfusions. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Science and technology Trend: Questions of regenerative therapies and their properties are crecurrent in UPSC prelims Approach: applied knowledge

#### 18. Question

What is ‘Casgevy’, recently seen in news?

• a) An astronomical project launched by NASA

• b) Supersonic guided missile introduced by Israel

• c) Supercomputer used by Apple Inc.

• d) New gene therapy

Explanation:

• The UK drug regulator recently approved Casgevy, a gene therapy for sickle cell disease and thalassaemia, marking a breakthrough as the world’s first licensed therapy using Crispr-Cas9 gene editing technology.

• Casgevy edits the faulty gene causing these blood disorders, potentially providing a lifelong cure. The therapy, targets the BCL11A gene to increase foetal haemoglobin production, reducing severe pain crises and the need for transfusions.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Questions of regenerative therapies and their properties are crecurrent in UPSC prelims

Approach: applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: Questions of regenerative therapies and their properties are crecurrent in UPSC prelims

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points The Centre for Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR) is an initiative by _____________to establish centres that focus on harnessing the potential of the Fourth Industrial Revolution. a) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India. b) World Economic Forum (WEF) c) World Bank d) European Union Correct Answer: b Explanation: Telangana has signed an agreement with the World Economic Forum (WEF) to establish the Centre for Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR) in the state capital, Hyderabad. What is C4IR? C4IR stands for the Centre for Fourth Industrial Revolution. It is an initiative by the World Economic Forum (WEF) to establish centres that focus on harnessing the potential of the Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR) technologies and driving collaboration between governments, businesses, and academia to address global challenges and opportunities. The collaboration aims to leverage technology for advancements in the life sciences and healthcare sector, with a focus on reaching healthcare targets for the state’s population. The Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR), also known as the Digital Revolution, is characterized by the integration of technologies that blend the physical, digital, and biological realms. Coined by Klaus Schwab, Founder and Executive Chairman of the WEF, 4IR includes technologies such as IoT, robotics, VR, AI, quantum computing, and 3D printing. It brings about advancements in technology, boosts productivity and efficiency, contributes to economic growth, and facilitates good governance. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Initiatives/schemes in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Telangana has signed an agreement with the World Economic Forum (WEF) to establish the Centre for Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR) in the state capital, Hyderabad. What is C4IR? C4IR stands for the Centre for Fourth Industrial Revolution. It is an initiative by the World Economic Forum (WEF) to establish centres that focus on harnessing the potential of the Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR) technologies and driving collaboration between governments, businesses, and academia to address global challenges and opportunities. The collaboration aims to leverage technology for advancements in the life sciences and healthcare sector, with a focus on reaching healthcare targets for the state’s population. The Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR), also known as the Digital Revolution, is characterized by the integration of technologies that blend the physical, digital, and biological realms. Coined by Klaus Schwab, Founder and Executive Chairman of the WEF, 4IR includes technologies such as IoT, robotics, VR, AI, quantum computing, and 3D printing. It brings about advancements in technology, boosts productivity and efficiency, contributes to economic growth, and facilitates good governance. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Initiatives/schemes in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 19. Question

The Centre for Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR) is an initiative by _____________to establish centres that focus on harnessing the potential of the Fourth Industrial Revolution.

• a) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India.

• b) World Economic Forum (WEF)

• c) World Bank

• d) European Union

Explanation:

• Telangana has signed an agreement with the World Economic Forum (WEF) to establish the

• Centre for Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR) in the state capital, Hyderabad.

• What is C4IR?

• C4IR stands for the Centre for Fourth Industrial Revolution. It is an initiative by the World Economic Forum (WEF) to establish centres that focus on harnessing the potential of the Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR) technologies and driving collaboration between governments, businesses, and academia to address global challenges and opportunities.

• The collaboration aims to leverage technology for advancements in the life sciences and healthcare sector, with a focus on reaching healthcare targets for the state’s population.

• The Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR), also known as the Digital Revolution, is characterized by the integration of technologies that blend the physical, digital, and biological realms. Coined by Klaus Schwab, Founder and Executive Chairman of the WEF, 4IR includes technologies such as IoT, robotics, VR, AI, quantum computing, and 3D printing. It brings about advancements in technology, boosts productivity and efficiency, contributes to economic growth, and facilitates good governance.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Initiatives/schemes in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Telangana has signed an agreement with the World Economic Forum (WEF) to establish the

• Centre for Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR) in the state capital, Hyderabad.

• What is C4IR?

• The collaboration aims to leverage technology for advancements in the life sciences and healthcare sector, with a focus on reaching healthcare targets for the state’s population.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Initiatives/schemes in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points which of the following is correct regarding Indian Ocean geoid low (IOGL)? a) An area of the ocean where the density of water is very low. b) An area of the ocean which experiences low pull of gravity. c) An area of the ocean with less than 220 Dobson units of Ozone above it. d) An area of the ocean where the temperature of water is very low. Correct Answer: b Explanation: A recent study suggests that the colossal and mysterious “Gravity Hole” in the Indian Ocean may be the remnants of an ancient sea (Tethys Sea). What is Gravity Hole? A “Gravity Hole” refers to a large gravity anomaly, an area where gravity is significantly different from the surrounding regions. It is characterized by a substantial decrease in gravitational pull compared to the expected value based on the Earth’s normal gravitational field. The causes of gravity holes can vary, including geological structures, variations in mass distribution, or other factors that affect the gravitational field in a particular area. The phenomenon is estimated to have formed approximately 20 million years ago and is expected to endure for millions more. Indian Ocean geoid low (IOGL): The Gravity Hole in the Indian Ocean, about 1,200 kilometres southwest of the southernmost tip of India, and has such a low pull of gravity that the sea level of the Indian Ocean over the “hole” is around 106 metres below the global average. This pronounced dip in the ocean is called Indian Ocean geoid low (IOGL) and was discovered in 1948 Known as the Indian Ocean geoid low (IOGL), this vast depression spans over 2 million square miles and lies more than 600 miles beneath the Earth’s crust. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: geographical phenomena Approach: The key term in the question “geoid low” can be connected to gravitational anomalies. Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: A recent study suggests that the colossal and mysterious “Gravity Hole” in the Indian Ocean may be the remnants of an ancient sea (Tethys Sea). What is Gravity Hole? A “Gravity Hole” refers to a large gravity anomaly, an area where gravity is significantly different from the surrounding regions. It is characterized by a substantial decrease in gravitational pull compared to the expected value based on the Earth’s normal gravitational field. The causes of gravity holes can vary, including geological structures, variations in mass distribution, or other factors that affect the gravitational field in a particular area. The phenomenon is estimated to have formed approximately 20 million years ago and is expected to endure for millions more. Indian Ocean geoid low (IOGL): The Gravity Hole in the Indian Ocean, about 1,200 kilometres southwest of the southernmost tip of India, and has such a low pull of gravity that the sea level of the Indian Ocean over the “hole” is around 106 metres below the global average. This pronounced dip in the ocean is called Indian Ocean geoid low (IOGL) and was discovered in 1948 Known as the Indian Ocean geoid low (IOGL), this vast depression spans over 2 million square miles and lies more than 600 miles beneath the Earth’s crust. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Current Affairs Trend: geographical phenomena Approach: The key term in the question “geoid low” can be connected to gravitational anomalies.

#### 20. Question

which of the following is correct regarding Indian Ocean geoid low (IOGL)?

• a) An area of the ocean where the density of water is very low.

• b) An area of the ocean which experiences low pull of gravity.

• c) An area of the ocean with less than 220 Dobson units of Ozone above it.

• d) An area of the ocean where the temperature of water is very low.

Explanation:

• A recent study suggests that the colossal and mysterious “Gravity Hole” in the Indian Ocean may be the remnants of an ancient sea (Tethys Sea).

• What is Gravity Hole?

• A “Gravity Hole” refers to a large gravity anomaly, an area where gravity is significantly different from the surrounding regions. It is characterized by a substantial decrease in gravitational pull compared to the expected value based on the Earth’s normal gravitational field.

• The causes of gravity holes can vary, including geological structures, variations in mass distribution, or other factors that affect the gravitational field in a particular area.

• The phenomenon is estimated to have formed approximately 20 million years ago and is expected to endure for millions more.

• Indian Ocean geoid low (IOGL):

• The Gravity Hole in the Indian Ocean, about 1,200 kilometres southwest of the southernmost tip of India, and has such a low pull of gravity that the sea level of the Indian Ocean over the “hole” is around 106 metres below the global average. This pronounced dip in the ocean is called Indian Ocean geoid low (IOGL) and was discovered in 1948

• Known as the Indian Ocean geoid low (IOGL), this vast depression spans over 2 million square miles and lies more than 600 miles beneath the Earth’s crust.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: geographical phenomena

Approach: The key term in the question “geoid low” can be connected to gravitational anomalies.

Explanation:

• A recent study suggests that the colossal and mysterious “Gravity Hole” in the Indian Ocean may be the remnants of an ancient sea (Tethys Sea).

• What is Gravity Hole?

• The causes of gravity holes can vary, including geological structures, variations in mass distribution, or other factors that affect the gravitational field in a particular area.

• The phenomenon is estimated to have formed approximately 20 million years ago and is expected to endure for millions more.

• Indian Ocean geoid low (IOGL):

• Known as the Indian Ocean geoid low (IOGL), this vast depression spans over 2 million square miles and lies more than 600 miles beneath the Earth’s crust.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: geographical phenomena

Approach: The key term in the question “geoid low” can be connected to gravitational anomalies.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following about the Micro Small and Medium Entreprise (MSME) Sector in India. Less than 10% of MSMEs in India are women-owned. Less than 5% of MSMEs have access to institutional credits. Only about 10% of MSME employees enjoy formally or contractual social security cover. How many of the statements above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: India’s MSME sector is diverse in terms of size, technology use, product range, and target markets. About 20% of MSMEs in India are women-owned, providing a platform for female participation and development. Income distribution MSMEs, as a labour-intensive sector employing both genders, increase purchasing power and contribute to income redistribution. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: MSME sector Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: India’s MSME sector is diverse in terms of size, technology use, product range, and target markets. About 20% of MSMEs in India are women-owned, providing a platform for female participation and development. Income distribution MSMEs, as a labour-intensive sector employing both genders, increase purchasing power and contribute to income redistribution. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: MSME sector Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 21. Question

Consider the following about the Micro Small and Medium Entreprise (MSME) Sector in India.

• Less than 10% of MSMEs in India are women-owned.

• Less than 5% of MSMEs have access to institutional credits.

• Only about 10% of MSME employees enjoy formally or contractual social security cover.

How many of the statements above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Justification: India’s MSME sector is diverse in terms of size, technology use, product range, and target markets.

About 20% of MSMEs in India are women-owned, providing a platform for female participation and development. Income distribution MSMEs, as a labour-intensive sector employing both genders, increase purchasing power and contribute to income redistribution.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: MSME sector

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: b)

Justification: India’s MSME sector is diverse in terms of size, technology use, product range, and target markets.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: MSME sector

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points India’s GDP is calculated using which of these methods? Based on economic activity (at factor cost) Based on expenditure (at market prices) Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: India’s GDP is calculated with two different methods, one based on economic activity (at factor cost), and the second on expenditure (at market prices). The factor cost method assesses the performance of eight different industries. The expenditure-based method indicates how different areas of the economy are performing, such as trade, investments, and personal consumption. India’s GDP is calculated by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), which is part of the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation (MoSPI). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Basic concepts of Economy Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: India’s GDP is calculated with two different methods, one based on economic activity (at factor cost), and the second on expenditure (at market prices). The factor cost method assesses the performance of eight different industries. The expenditure-based method indicates how different areas of the economy are performing, such as trade, investments, and personal consumption. India’s GDP is calculated by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), which is part of the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation (MoSPI). Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Basic concepts of Economy Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 22. Question

India’s GDP is calculated using which of these methods?

• Based on economic activity (at factor cost)

• Based on expenditure (at market prices)

Which of the above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: India’s GDP is calculated with two different methods, one based on economic activity (at factor cost), and the second on expenditure (at market prices). The factor cost method assesses the performance of eight different industries. The expenditure-based method indicates how different areas of the economy are performing, such as trade, investments, and personal consumption.

India’s GDP is calculated by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), which is part of the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation (MoSPI).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Basic concepts of Economy

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: c)

India’s GDP is calculated by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), which is part of the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation (MoSPI).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Basic concepts of Economy

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Recently the Indian government imposed restrictions on the minimum amount of rice and wheat exports? To keep domestic supply robust and tackle food price inflation To prevent grain spoilage in the Buffer Stocks of the Public Distribution System To prevent illicit ungraded exports Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: b) Justification: The reasons are: Enhancing Domestic Supply: The government’s goal is to reduce exports to ensure an adequate supply of grains within the country. o There are concerns about depleting rice stocks, especially in light of the free-foodgrains scheme’s continuation pressure (Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana) (S2 is incorrect.) Impact of monsoon/El Nino: It includes potential declines in rice production in several Indian states. El Nino may affect new crop arrivals. Tackling Inflation: Retail food inflation was at 11.5% in July, and the government is taking measures to control rising food prices. Preventing Illicit Exports: The minimum export price rule is meant to prevent illegal exports of non-basmati white rice from being misrepresented as basmati rice. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Buffer stock/MSP Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: The reasons are: Enhancing Domestic Supply: The government’s goal is to reduce exports to ensure an adequate supply of grains within the country. o There are concerns about depleting rice stocks, especially in light of the free-foodgrains scheme’s continuation pressure (Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana) (S2 is incorrect.) Impact of monsoon/El Nino: It includes potential declines in rice production in several Indian states. El Nino may affect new crop arrivals. Tackling Inflation: Retail food inflation was at 11.5% in July, and the government is taking measures to control rising food prices. Preventing Illicit Exports: The minimum export price rule is meant to prevent illegal exports of non-basmati white rice from being misrepresented as basmati rice. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Buffer stock/MSP Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 23. Question

Recently the Indian government imposed restrictions on the minimum amount of rice and wheat exports?

• To keep domestic supply robust and tackle food price inflation

• To prevent grain spoilage in the Buffer Stocks of the Public Distribution System

• To prevent illicit ungraded exports

Which of the above is/are correct?

• b) 1 and 3 only

• c) 1, 2 and 3

• d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: b)

Justification: The reasons are:

• Enhancing Domestic Supply: The government’s goal is to reduce exports to ensure an adequate supply of grains within the country.

o There are concerns about depleting rice stocks, especially in light of the free-foodgrains scheme’s continuation pressure (Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana) (S2 is incorrect.)

• Impact of monsoon/El Nino: It includes potential declines in rice production in several Indian states. El Nino may affect new crop arrivals.

• Tackling Inflation: Retail food inflation was at 11.5% in July, and the government is taking measures to control rising food prices.

• Preventing Illicit Exports: The minimum export price rule is meant to prevent illegal exports of non-basmati white rice from being misrepresented as basmati rice.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Buffer stock/MSP

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: b)

Justification: The reasons are:

• Enhancing Domestic Supply: The government’s goal is to reduce exports to ensure an adequate supply of grains within the country.

o There are concerns about depleting rice stocks, especially in light of the free-foodgrains scheme’s continuation pressure (Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana) (S2 is incorrect.)

• Impact of monsoon/El Nino: It includes potential declines in rice production in several Indian states. El Nino may affect new crop arrivals.

• Tackling Inflation: Retail food inflation was at 11.5% in July, and the government is taking measures to control rising food prices.

• Preventing Illicit Exports: The minimum export price rule is meant to prevent illegal exports of non-basmati white rice from being misrepresented as basmati rice.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Buffer stock/MSP

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points What is/are the benefits of using Banking Correspondents (BCs)? They provide crucial last-mile connectivity, bridging the gap to underserved rural communities. BCs contribute to improving financial literacy by providing guidance on using formal banking services. Women from Self-Help Groups (SHGs) serving as Business Correspondents (BC Sakhis) and Bank Sakhis have played essential roles, including disbursing funds during difficult circumstances, such as the COVID-19 lockdown. How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Banking Correspondents (BCs) are agents who work on behalf of banks and other financial institutions to provide banking services to underserved communities, including rural areas, where traditional bank branches are often scarce. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Basic concepts Approach: All three statements are highly probable and are allied functions of BCs Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Banking Correspondents (BCs) are agents who work on behalf of banks and other financial institutions to provide banking services to underserved communities, including rural areas, where traditional bank branches are often scarce. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Basic concepts Approach: All three statements are highly probable and are allied functions of BCs

#### 24. Question

What is/are the benefits of using Banking Correspondents (BCs)?

• They provide crucial last-mile connectivity, bridging the gap to underserved rural communities.

• BCs contribute to improving financial literacy by providing guidance on using formal banking services.

• Women from Self-Help Groups (SHGs) serving as Business Correspondents (BC Sakhis) and Bank Sakhis have played essential roles, including disbursing funds during difficult circumstances, such as the COVID-19 lockdown.

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification: Banking Correspondents (BCs) are agents who work on behalf of banks and other financial institutions to provide banking services to underserved communities, including rural areas, where traditional bank branches are often scarce.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: All three statements are highly probable and are allied functions of BCs

Solution: c)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: All three statements are highly probable and are allied functions of BCs

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points In India, which of the following is/are contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions? Decomposing food waste in landfills Using synthetic fertilizers in rice cultivation Livestock rearing Production and disposal of food packaging materials How many of the statements above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Learning: Consider the table below: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Climate change/GHGs/Pollutants Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: d) Learning: Consider the table below: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf Trend: Climate change/GHGs/Pollutants Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 25. Question

In India, which of the following is/are contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions?

• Decomposing food waste in landfills

• Using synthetic fertilizers in rice cultivation

• Livestock rearing

• Production and disposal of food packaging materials

How many of the statements above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: d)

Learning: Consider the table below:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Climate change/GHGs/Pollutants

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: d)

Learning: Consider the table below:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/CA-30-SEP-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Trend: Climate change/GHGs/Pollutants

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points Incomes of A and B are in the ratio 4 : 7 and their spending are in the ratio 6 : 11. If A saves one third of his income, then what will be the ratio of their savings. A. 12 : 13 B. 13 : 12 C. 18 : 19 D. 12 : 19 Correct Answer D) 12/19 Let the income of A 4x, B 7x And expenditure be: A → 6y……..(i) B → 11y A spending = A’s earning – A’s savings A’s expenditure = 4x –4x/3= (8/3)x ………….(ii) (i) = (ii) 6y =(8/3)x ⇒ x/y= 9/4 Reqd. Ratio = (4x –6y)/ (7x-11y) = [4x –( 4x/9) 6]/ [ 7x-( 4x/9) 11] = 36-24 / 63-44 = 12/19 Hence, option D is correct. Incorrect Answer D) 12/19 Let the income of A 4x, B 7x And expenditure be: A → 6y……..(i) B → 11y A spending = A’s earning – A’s savings A’s expenditure = 4x –4x/3= (8/3)x ………….(ii) (i) = (ii) 6y =(8/3)x ⇒ x/y= 9/4 Reqd. Ratio = (4x –6y)/ (7x-11y) = [4x –( 4x/9) 6]/ [ 7x-( 4x/9) 11] = 36-24 / 63-44 = 12/19 Hence, option D is correct.

#### 26. Question

Incomes of A and B are in the ratio 4 : 7 and their spending are in the ratio 6 : 11. If A saves one third of his income, then what will be the ratio of their savings.

• A. 12 : 13

• B. 13 : 12

• C. 18 : 19

• D. 12 : 19

Answer D) 12/19

Let the income of A 4x,

B 7x And expenditure be: A → 6y……..(i)

B → 11y A spending = A’s earning – A’s savings

A’s expenditure = 4x –4x/3= (8/3)x ………….(ii)

(i) = (ii)

6y =(8/3)x ⇒ x/y= 9/4

Reqd. Ratio = (4x –6y)/ (7x-11y)

= [4x –( 4x/9) 6]/ [ 7x-( 4x/9) 11]

= 36-24 / 63-44

Hence, option D is correct.

Answer D) 12/19

Let the income of A 4x,

B 7x And expenditure be: A → 6y……..(i)

B → 11y A spending = A’s earning – A’s savings

A’s expenditure = 4x –4x/3= (8/3)x ………….(ii)

(i) = (ii)

6y =(8/3)x ⇒ x/y= 9/4

Reqd. Ratio = (4x –6y)/ (7x-11y)

= [4x –( 4x/9) 6]/ [ 7x-( 4x/9) 11]

= 36-24 / 63-44

Hence, option D is correct.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points In the Mysore Zoo, there are some ducks and some rabbits. If the head are counted there are 160, while the legs are 450. What will be numbers of Rabbit in the zoo? A. 65 B. 60 C. 95 D. 85 Correct Answer A) 65 Let, Ducks = x, Rabbit = y As, Duck has 2 legs and rabbit has 4 legs, Both have one head, 2x + 4y = 450 …1 x + y = 160 2x + 2y = 320 …. 2 Equation 1 – Equation 2 2y = 130 y = 65 Hence, option A is correct. Incorrect Answer A) 65 Let, Ducks = x, Rabbit = y As, Duck has 2 legs and rabbit has 4 legs, Both have one head, 2x + 4y = 450 …1 x + y = 160 2x + 2y = 320 …. 2 Equation 1 – Equation 2 2y = 130 y = 65 Hence, option A is correct.

#### 27. Question

In the Mysore Zoo, there are some ducks and some rabbits. If the head are counted there

are 160, while the legs are 450. What will be numbers of Rabbit in the zoo?

Answer A) 65

Let, Ducks = x, Rabbit = y

As, Duck has 2 legs and rabbit has 4 legs,

Both have one head,

2x + 4y = 450 …1

x + y = 160

2x + 2y = 320 …. 2

Equation 1 – Equation 2

Hence, option A is correct.

Answer A) 65

Let, Ducks = x, Rabbit = y

As, Duck has 2 legs and rabbit has 4 legs,

Both have one head,

2x + 4y = 450 …1

x + y = 160

2x + 2y = 320 …. 2

Equation 1 – Equation 2

Hence, option A is correct.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points A person spends Rs.8100 in buying some tables at Rs.1200 each and some chairs at Rs.300 each. The ratio of the number of chairs to that of tables when the maximum possible number of tables is purchased. (A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 2 : 1 Correct Ans: B) 1:2 Maximum possible number of tables = 6. [∴ 1200 × 6 = 7200]. Number of chairs purchased = (8100–7200) /300 = 900/300 = 3. Hence, required ratio = 3 : 6 = 1 : 2. Incorrect Ans: B) 1:2 Maximum possible number of tables = 6. [∴ 1200 × 6 = 7200]. Number of chairs purchased = (8100–7200) /300 = 900/300 = 3. Hence, required ratio = 3 : 6 = 1 : 2.

#### 28. Question

A person spends Rs.8100 in buying some tables at Rs.1200 each and some chairs at Rs.300 each. The ratio of the number of chairs to that of tables when the maximum possible number of tables is purchased.

Ans: B) 1:2

Maximum possible number of tables = 6.

[∴ 1200 × 6 = 7200].

Number of chairs purchased =

(8100–7200) /300 = 900/300 = 3.

Hence, required ratio = 3 : 6 = 1 : 2.

Ans: B) 1:2

Maximum possible number of tables = 6.

[∴ 1200 × 6 = 7200].

Number of chairs purchased =

(8100–7200) /300 = 900/300 = 3.

Hence, required ratio = 3 : 6 = 1 : 2.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Data can be useful when it provides anonymous, aggregated, and statistical information about issues without identifying the individuals. Unfortunately, there has been a dangerous trend towards creating a 360-degree profile of each person by integrating all of their interactions with government agencies into a unified database. This approach has been perfected by social media platforms and technology companies, and the government is now trying to do the same. The difference is that when technology companies do this, we get targeted advertising, but if the government does it, we get targeted surveillance. Which of the following is the most crucial and scientific inference that can be made from the above passage? A. Data is the new oil, but not safe oil B. Digital space is arming State with more power which is absolute also C. Public service delivery should come without surveillance risks D. State has less authority in collecting data than corporate since with later people submit voluntarily Correct Answer: C In the Above passage- Option A – It is halfhearted truth as per passage, the passage hold that Data can be useful when it provides anonymous, aggregated, and statistical information about issues without identifying the individuals. So it is not always unsafe. Option B – The statement is true but not very explicitly mentioned in the passage it is confined to the surveillance and not the absolute authority. So option B is not correct. Option C – It is most scientific inference because passage apprehends of the surveillance by the state using the 360 profile of the individual and personal information. Option D – The statement is opposite state has more authority to collect the data because state has legal authority which corporates does not have. Incorrect Answer: C In the Above passage- Option A – It is halfhearted truth as per passage, the passage hold that Data can be useful when it provides anonymous, aggregated, and statistical information about issues without identifying the individuals. So it is not always unsafe. Option B – The statement is true but not very explicitly mentioned in the passage it is confined to the surveillance and not the absolute authority. So option B is not correct. Option C – It is most scientific inference because passage apprehends of the surveillance by the state using the 360 profile of the individual and personal information. Option D – The statement is opposite state has more authority to collect the data because state has legal authority which corporates does not have.

#### 29. Question

Data can be useful when it provides anonymous, aggregated, and statistical information about issues without identifying the individuals. Unfortunately, there has been a dangerous trend towards creating a 360-degree profile of each person by integrating all of their interactions with government agencies into a unified database. This approach has been perfected by social media platforms and technology companies, and the government is now trying to do the same. The difference is that when technology companies do this, we get targeted advertising, but if the government does it, we get targeted surveillance.

Which of the following is the most crucial and scientific inference that can be made from the above passage?

• A. Data is the new oil, but not safe oil

• B. Digital space is arming State with more power which is absolute also

• C. Public service delivery should come without surveillance risks

• D. State has less authority in collecting data than corporate since with later people submit voluntarily

In the Above passage-

Option A – It is halfhearted truth as per passage, the passage hold that Data can be useful when it provides anonymous, aggregated, and statistical information about issues without identifying the individuals. So it is not always unsafe.

Option B – The statement is true but not very explicitly mentioned in the passage it is confined to the surveillance and not the absolute authority. So option B is not correct.

Option C – It is most scientific inference because passage apprehends of the surveillance by the state using the 360 profile of the individual and personal information.

Option D – The statement is opposite state has more authority to collect the data because state has legal authority which corporates does not have.

In the Above passage-

Option B – The statement is true but not very explicitly mentioned in the passage it is confined to the surveillance and not the absolute authority. So option B is not correct.

Option C – It is most scientific inference because passage apprehends of the surveillance by the state using the 360 profile of the individual and personal information.

Option D – The statement is opposite state has more authority to collect the data because state has legal authority which corporates does not have.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Data can be useful when it provides anonymous, aggregated, and statistical information about issues without identifying the individuals. Unfortunately, there has been a dangerous trend towards creating a 360-degree profile of each person by integrating all of their interactions with government agencies into a unified database. This approach has been perfected by social media platforms and technology companies, and the government is now trying to do the same. The difference is that when technology companies do this, we get targeted advertising, but if the government does it, we get targeted surveillance. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Companies do targeted advertising and State does targeted surveillance with help of data Companies should pay royalty for using data of public Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Statement 1 – It is true because companies are more concerned of more consumer subscription so they target advertisement but state target the political and other choices of the people through surveillance. Statement 2 – This statement is out of the context of the passage so it cannot be considered as correct assumption. Incorrect Answer: A Statement 1 – It is true because companies are more concerned of more consumer subscription so they target advertisement but state target the political and other choices of the people through surveillance. Statement 2 – This statement is out of the context of the passage so it cannot be considered as correct assumption.

#### 30. Question

On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:

• Companies do targeted advertising and State does targeted surveillance with help of data Companies should pay royalty for using data of public

• Companies do targeted advertising and State does targeted surveillance with help of data

• Companies should pay royalty for using data of public

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• C. Both 1 and 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 – It is true because companies are more concerned of more consumer subscription so they target advertisement but state target the political and other choices of the people through surveillance.

Statement 2 – This statement is out of the context of the passage so it cannot be considered as correct assumption.

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