DAY – 10 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : GEOGRAPHY

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Polymetallic Nodules: Deep-ocean polymetallic nodules form on or just below the vast, sediment-covered, abyssal plains of the global ocean. They are mineral concretions on the sea bottom formed of concentric layers of iron and manganese hydroxides around a core. Ferromanganese nodules are mineral concretions composed primarily of insoluble iron and manganese oxides. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Deep-ocean polymetallic nodules form on or just below the vast, sediment-covered, abyssal plains of the global ocean. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Polymetallic nodules, also called manganese nodules, are mineral concretions on the sea bottom formed of concentric layers of iron and manganese hydroxides around a core. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Ferromanganese nodules are mineral concretions composed primarily of insoluble iron and manganese oxides, with trace amounts of other minerals, including silicates, that form on the ocean seafloor and sometimes in terrestrial soils. Their formation is governed by redox oscillations, influenced by both abiotic and biotic processes. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: C Deep-ocean polymetallic nodules form on or just below the vast, sediment-covered, abyssal plains of the global ocean. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Polymetallic nodules, also called manganese nodules, are mineral concretions on the sea bottom formed of concentric layers of iron and manganese hydroxides around a core. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Ferromanganese nodules are mineral concretions composed primarily of insoluble iron and manganese oxides, with trace amounts of other minerals, including silicates, that form on the ocean seafloor and sometimes in terrestrial soils. Their formation is governed by redox oscillations, influenced by both abiotic and biotic processes. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Polymetallic Nodules:

• Deep-ocean polymetallic nodules form on or just below the vast, sediment-covered, abyssal plains of the global ocean.

• They are mineral concretions on the sea bottom formed of concentric layers of iron and manganese hydroxides around a core.

• Ferromanganese nodules are mineral concretions composed primarily of insoluble iron and manganese oxides.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Deep-ocean polymetallic nodules form on or just below the vast, sediment-covered, abyssal plains of the global ocean.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Polymetallic nodules, also called manganese nodules, are mineral concretions on the sea bottom formed of concentric layers of iron and manganese hydroxides around a core.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Ferromanganese nodules are mineral concretions composed primarily of insoluble iron and manganese oxides, with trace amounts of other minerals, including silicates, that form on the ocean seafloor and sometimes in terrestrial soils.

Their formation is governed by redox oscillations, influenced by both abiotic and biotic processes.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: C

Deep-ocean polymetallic nodules form on or just below the vast, sediment-covered, abyssal plains of the global ocean.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Polymetallic nodules, also called manganese nodules, are mineral concretions on the sea bottom formed of concentric layers of iron and manganese hydroxides around a core.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Ferromanganese nodules are mineral concretions composed primarily of insoluble iron and manganese oxides, with trace amounts of other minerals, including silicates, that form on the ocean seafloor and sometimes in terrestrial soils.

Their formation is governed by redox oscillations, influenced by both abiotic and biotic processes.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: (Intrusive landforms) (explanation) Lapoliths : dome-shaped intrusive rock Laccoliths : saucer shape or concave shaped body Batholiths : granitic in origin How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Intrusive Igneous rocks Intrusive Igneous rocks are formed when magma rises and cools within the crust. The intrusive activity of volcanoes gives rise to various forms. We see them one by one as follow. Batholiths: Batholiths are large rock masses formed due to cooling and solidification of hot magma inside the earth. It is granitic in origin. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. Laccoliths: Laccoliths are large dome-shaped intrusive rock connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. These are basically intrusive counterparts of an exposed domelike batholiths. The Karnataka plateau is spotted with dome hills of granite rocks. Most of these, now exfoliated, are examples of laccoliths. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Lapoliths: When the magma moves upwards, a saucer shape, concave shaped body called Lapolith is formed. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Incorrect Solution: A Intrusive Igneous rocks Intrusive Igneous rocks are formed when magma rises and cools within the crust. The intrusive activity of volcanoes gives rise to various forms. We see them one by one as follow. Batholiths: Batholiths are large rock masses formed due to cooling and solidification of hot magma inside the earth. It is granitic in origin. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. Laccoliths: Laccoliths are large dome-shaped intrusive rock connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. These are basically intrusive counterparts of an exposed domelike batholiths. The Karnataka plateau is spotted with dome hills of granite rocks. Most of these, now exfoliated, are examples of laccoliths. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Lapoliths: When the magma moves upwards, a saucer shape, concave shaped body called Lapolith is formed. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following pairs:

(Intrusive landforms) (explanation)

• Lapoliths : dome-shaped intrusive rock

• Laccoliths : saucer shape or concave shaped body

• Batholiths : granitic in origin

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Intrusive Igneous rocks

Intrusive Igneous rocks are formed when magma rises and cools within the crust. The intrusive activity of volcanoes gives rise to various forms. We see them one by one as follow.

• Batholiths: Batholiths are large rock masses formed due to cooling and solidification of hot magma inside the earth. It is granitic in origin.

Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

• Laccoliths: Laccoliths are large dome-shaped intrusive rock connected by a pipe-like conduit from below.

• These are basically intrusive counterparts of an exposed domelike batholiths.

• The Karnataka plateau is spotted with dome hills of granite rocks. Most of these, now exfoliated, are examples of laccoliths.

Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

• Lapoliths: When the magma moves upwards, a saucer shape, concave shaped body called Lapolith is formed.

Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

Solution: A

Intrusive Igneous rocks

Intrusive Igneous rocks are formed when magma rises and cools within the crust. The intrusive activity of volcanoes gives rise to various forms. We see them one by one as follow.

• Batholiths: Batholiths are large rock masses formed due to cooling and solidification of hot magma inside the earth. It is granitic in origin.

Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

• Laccoliths: Laccoliths are large dome-shaped intrusive rock connected by a pipe-like conduit from below.

• These are basically intrusive counterparts of an exposed domelike batholiths.

• The Karnataka plateau is spotted with dome hills of granite rocks. Most of these, now exfoliated, are examples of laccoliths.

Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

• Lapoliths: When the magma moves upwards, a saucer shape, concave shaped body called Lapolith is formed.

Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following Plateaus: Jos Plateau Katanga Plateau Bie Plateau Patagonia Plateau Altiplano Plateau How many of the above Plateaus are located to the south of Equator? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Answer: C Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Answer: C Hence, option (c) is correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following Plateaus:

• Jos Plateau

• Katanga Plateau

• Bie Plateau

• Patagonia Plateau

• Altiplano Plateau

How many of the above Plateaus are located to the south of Equator?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) All five

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Larger asteroids are called planetoids which are found in between the planets Mars and Jupiter. Comets are composed of ice particles, dust, and rocky fragments, and they revolve around the Sun in highly elliptical orbits. Which of the above statements is/are *incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Asteroids are small rocky celestial bodies that revolve around the Sun, like other planets. They are also called ‘Minor Planets’. There are lots of asteroids in the solar system. Larger asteroids are called Planetoids. These are found in between the planets Mars and Jupiter. This belt is known as ‘Asteroid belt’. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Comets: Definition: Comets are small celestial bodies made of ice, dust, and rocky materials that orbit the Sun. Structure: They have a nucleus (solid core), coma (cloud of gas and dust), and a tail that always points away from the Sun due to solar wind. Orbit: They revolve around the Sun in long, highly elliptical orbits. Visibility: Comets become visible when close to the Sun, as heat causes them to release gas and dust. Famous Example: Halley’s Comet, which appears approximately every 76 years. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution: D Asteroids are small rocky celestial bodies that revolve around the Sun, like other planets. They are also called ‘Minor Planets’. There are lots of asteroids in the solar system. Larger asteroids are called Planetoids. These are found in between the planets Mars and Jupiter. This belt is known as ‘Asteroid belt’. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Comets: Definition: Comets are small celestial bodies made of ice, dust, and rocky materials that orbit the Sun. Structure: They have a nucleus (solid core), coma (cloud of gas and dust), and a tail that always points away from the Sun due to solar wind. Orbit: They revolve around the Sun in long, highly elliptical orbits. Visibility: Comets become visible when close to the Sun, as heat causes them to release gas and dust. Famous Example: Halley’s Comet, which appears approximately every 76 years. Hence, statement 2 is correct.*

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Larger asteroids are called planetoids which are found in between the planets Mars and Jupiter.

• Comets are composed of ice particles, dust, and rocky fragments, and they revolve around the Sun in highly elliptical orbits.

Which of the above statements is/are *incorrect*?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

Asteroids are small rocky celestial bodies that revolve around the Sun, like other planets. They are also called ‘Minor Planets’. There are lots of asteroids in the solar system. Larger asteroids are called Planetoids. These are found in between the planets Mars and Jupiter. This belt is known as ‘Asteroid belt’.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Comets:

• Definition: Comets are small celestial bodies made of ice, dust, and rocky materials that orbit the Sun.

• Structure: They have a nucleus (solid core), coma (cloud of gas and dust), and a tail that always points away from the Sun due to solar wind.

• Orbit: They revolve around the Sun in long, highly elliptical orbits.

• Visibility: Comets become visible when close to the Sun, as heat causes them to release gas and dust.

• Famous Example: Halley’s Comet, which appears approximately every 76 years.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution: D

Asteroids are small rocky celestial bodies that revolve around the Sun, like other planets. They are also called ‘Minor Planets’. There are lots of asteroids in the solar system. Larger asteroids are called Planetoids. These are found in between the planets Mars and Jupiter. This belt is known as ‘Asteroid belt’.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Comets:

• Definition: Comets are small celestial bodies made of ice, dust, and rocky materials that orbit the Sun.

• Structure: They have a nucleus (solid core), coma (cloud of gas and dust), and a tail that always points away from the Sun due to solar wind.

• Orbit: They revolve around the Sun in long, highly elliptical orbits.

• Visibility: Comets become visible when close to the Sun, as heat causes them to release gas and dust.

• Famous Example: Halley’s Comet, which appears approximately every 76 years.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the eclipses: An eclipse is a complete or partial obscuration of light from a celestial body. An annular solar eclipse occurs when the moon passes centrally across the solar disc. A partial lunar eclipse can be observed when only a part of the moon’s surface is obscured by earth’s umbra. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C An eclipse is a complete or partial obscuration of light from a celestial body and it passes through the shadow of another celestial body. Hence, statement 1 is correct. A partial solar eclipse happens when the moon partially covers the disc of the sun. An annular solar eclipse occurs when the moon passes centrally across the solar disc. During a total solar eclipse, the moon’s shadow is short enough to cover the whole sun. The outer regions still glow and look bright as a ring. Such a phenomenon is called Diamond Ring. Hence, statement 2 is correct. A partial lunar eclipse can be observed when only a part of the moon’s surface is obscured by earth’s umbra. A penumbral lunar eclipse happens when the moon travels through the faint penumbral portion of the earth’s shadow. A total lunar eclipse occurs when the earth umbra obscures the entire the moon’s surface. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: C An eclipse is a complete or partial obscuration of light from a celestial body and it passes through the shadow of another celestial body. Hence, statement 1 is correct. A partial solar eclipse happens when the moon partially covers the disc of the sun. An annular solar eclipse occurs when the moon passes centrally across the solar disc. During a total solar eclipse, the moon’s shadow is short enough to cover the whole sun. The outer regions still glow and look bright as a ring. Such a phenomenon is called Diamond Ring. Hence, statement 2 is correct. A partial lunar eclipse can be observed when only a part of the moon’s surface is obscured by earth’s umbra. A penumbral lunar eclipse happens when the moon travels through the faint penumbral portion of the earth’s shadow. A total lunar eclipse occurs when the earth umbra obscures the entire the moon’s surface. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the eclipses:

• An eclipse is a complete or partial obscuration of light from a celestial body.

• An annular solar eclipse occurs when the moon passes centrally across the solar disc.

• A partial lunar eclipse can be observed when only a part of the moon’s surface is obscured by earth’s umbra.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

An eclipse is a complete or partial obscuration of light from a celestial body and it passes through the shadow of another celestial body.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

A partial solar eclipse happens when the moon partially covers the disc of the sun. An annular solar eclipse occurs when the moon passes centrally across the solar disc. During a total solar eclipse, the moon’s shadow is short enough to cover the whole sun. The outer regions still glow and look bright as a ring. Such a phenomenon is called Diamond Ring.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

A partial lunar eclipse can be observed when only a part of the moon’s surface is obscured by earth’s umbra. A penumbral lunar eclipse happens when the moon travels through the faint penumbral portion of the earth’s shadow. A total lunar eclipse occurs when the earth umbra obscures the entire the moon’s surface.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: C

An eclipse is a complete or partial obscuration of light from a celestial body and it passes through the shadow of another celestial body.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

A partial solar eclipse happens when the moon partially covers the disc of the sun. An annular solar eclipse occurs when the moon passes centrally across the solar disc. During a total solar eclipse, the moon’s shadow is short enough to cover the whole sun. The outer regions still glow and look bright as a ring. Such a phenomenon is called Diamond Ring.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

A partial lunar eclipse can be observed when only a part of the moon’s surface is obscured by earth’s umbra. A penumbral lunar eclipse happens when the moon travels through the faint penumbral portion of the earth’s shadow. A total lunar eclipse occurs when the earth umbra obscures the entire the moon’s surface.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Clouds: Cirrus clouds look like cotton wool which are generally formed at a height of 4,000 – 7,000 m. Stratus clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures. Nimbus clouds form at middle levels or very near to the surface of the earth. How many of the above statements are *incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes (8,000 – 12,000m). They are thin and detatched clouds having a feathery appearance. They are always white in colour. Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool. They are generally formed at a height of 4,000 – 7,000 m. They exist in patches and can be seen scattered here and there. They have a flat base. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Stratus: As their name implies, these are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky. These clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Nimbus clouds are black or dark gray. They form at middle levels or very near to the surface of the earth. These are extremely dense and opaque to the rays of the sun. Sometimes, the clouds are so low that they seem to touch the ground. Nimbus clouds are shapeless masses of thick vapour. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution: A Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes (8,000 – 12,000m). They are thin and detatched clouds having a feathery appearance. They are always white in colour. Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool. They are generally formed at a height of 4,000 – 7,000 m. They exist in patches and can be seen scattered here and there. They have a flat base. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Stratus: As their name implies, these are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky. These clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Nimbus clouds are black or dark gray. They form at middle levels or very near to the surface of the earth. These are extremely dense and opaque to the rays of the sun. Sometimes, the clouds are so low that they seem to touch the ground. Nimbus clouds are shapeless masses of thick vapour. Hence, statement 3 is correct.*

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Clouds:

• Cirrus clouds look like cotton wool which are generally formed at a height of 4,000 – 7,000 m.

• Stratus clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures.

• Nimbus clouds form at middle levels or very near to the surface of the earth.

How many of the above statements are *incorrect*?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes (8,000 – 12,000m). They are thin and detatched clouds having a feathery appearance. They are always white in colour.

Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool. They are generally formed at a height of 4,000 – 7,000 m. They exist in patches and can be seen scattered here and there. They have a flat base.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Stratus: As their name implies, these are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky. These clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Nimbus clouds are black or dark gray. They form at middle levels or very near to the surface of the earth. These are extremely dense and opaque to the rays of the sun. Sometimes, the clouds are so low that they seem to touch the ground. Nimbus clouds are shapeless masses of thick vapour.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: A

Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes (8,000 – 12,000m). They are thin and detatched clouds having a feathery appearance. They are always white in colour.

Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool. They are generally formed at a height of 4,000 – 7,000 m. They exist in patches and can be seen scattered here and there. They have a flat base.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Stratus: As their name implies, these are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky. These clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Nimbus clouds are black or dark gray. They form at middle levels or very near to the surface of the earth. These are extremely dense and opaque to the rays of the sun. Sometimes, the clouds are so low that they seem to touch the ground. Nimbus clouds are shapeless masses of thick vapour.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements Statement I: Tropical rainforest soils are generally nutrient-poor despite supporting extremely diverse plant life. Statement II: High temperature and moisture in tropical rainforests cause rapid decomposition of organic matter, preventing nutrient accumulation in soil. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Correct Solution: A Tropical rainforests often have soils that are heavily leached and lack essential nutrients like phosphorus, potassium, calcium, and magnesium. Despite this, these ecosystems sustain rich biodiversity. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The warm and humid conditions in tropical rainforests accelerate the decomposition of organic matter. This rapid breakdown means nutrients are quickly released and taken up by plants or lost through leaching, leading to nutrient-poor soils. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Tropical rainforests often have soils that are heavily leached and lack essential nutrients like phosphorus, potassium, calcium, and magnesium. Despite this, these ecosystems sustain rich biodiversity. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The warm and humid conditions in tropical rainforests accelerate the decomposition of organic matter. This rapid breakdown means nutrients are quickly released and taken up by plants or lost through leaching, leading to nutrient-poor soils. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements

Statement I:

Tropical rainforest soils are generally nutrient-poor despite supporting extremely diverse plant life.

Statement II:

High temperature and moisture in tropical rainforests cause rapid decomposition of organic matter, preventing nutrient accumulation in soil.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

• (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

• (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

Solution: A

Tropical rainforests often have soils that are heavily leached and lack essential nutrients like phosphorus, potassium, calcium, and magnesium. Despite this, these ecosystems sustain rich biodiversity.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The warm and humid conditions in tropical rainforests accelerate the decomposition of organic matter. This rapid breakdown means nutrients are quickly released and taken up by plants or lost through leaching, leading to nutrient-poor soils.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Solution: A

Tropical rainforests often have soils that are heavily leached and lack essential nutrients like phosphorus, potassium, calcium, and magnesium. Despite this, these ecosystems sustain rich biodiversity.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The warm and humid conditions in tropical rainforests accelerate the decomposition of organic matter. This rapid breakdown means nutrients are quickly released and taken up by plants or lost through leaching, leading to nutrient-poor soils.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points On June 21st, which of the following regions experiences the maximum duration of daylight? (a) Tropic of Cancer (b) Arctic Circle (c) Equator (d) 45° North latitude Correct Solution: B On June 21st, the Arctic Circle experiences the maximum duration of daylight. This is because on this date, the Earth’s North Pole is tilted directly towards the sun, resulting in 24 hours of daylight at locations within the Arctic Circle, a phenomenon known as the “Midnight Sun”. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Solution: B On June 21st, the Arctic Circle experiences the maximum duration of daylight. This is because on this date, the Earth’s North Pole is tilted directly towards the sun, resulting in 24 hours of daylight at locations within the Arctic Circle, a phenomenon known as the “Midnight Sun”. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 8. Question

On June 21st, which of the following regions experiences the maximum duration of daylight?

• (a) Tropic of Cancer

• (b) Arctic Circle

• (c) Equator

• (d) 45° North latitude

Solution: B

On June 21st, the Arctic Circle experiences the maximum duration of daylight. This is because on this date, the Earth’s North Pole is tilted directly towards the sun, resulting in 24 hours of daylight at locations within the Arctic Circle, a phenomenon known as the “Midnight Sun”.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solution: B

On June 21st, the Arctic Circle experiences the maximum duration of daylight. This is because on this date, the Earth’s North Pole is tilted directly towards the sun, resulting in 24 hours of daylight at locations within the Arctic Circle, a phenomenon known as the “Midnight Sun”.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about river systems: Antecedent drainage develops when rivers maintain their course despite tectonic uplift A river with high sinuosity will typically have a steeper gradient than one with low sinuosity Oxbow lakes are more common in the upper course of a river Knickpoints in a river’s longitudinal profile often indicate resistant rock layers How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Antecedent drainage occurs when a river maintains its pre-existing course and pattern even after the surrounding land undergoes tectonic uplift or other geological changes, essentially cutting through the newly formed landform. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Sinuosity refers to how much a river meanders. Rivers with high sinuosity (more meanders) generally have gentler gradients, while rivers with low sinuosity (straighter channels) often have steeper gradients. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Oxbow lakes typically form in the middle to lower courses of rivers, where the gradient is gentler, and meandering is more pronounced. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Knickpoints, such as waterfalls or rapids, often occur where a river encounters layers of more resistant rock, leading to a sudden change in gradient. Hence, statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution: B Antecedent drainage occurs when a river maintains its pre-existing course and pattern even after the surrounding land undergoes tectonic uplift or other geological changes, essentially cutting through the newly formed landform. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Sinuosity refers to how much a river meanders. Rivers with high sinuosity (more meanders) generally have gentler gradients, while rivers with low sinuosity (straighter channels) often have steeper gradients. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Oxbow lakes typically form in the middle to lower courses of rivers, where the gradient is gentler, and meandering is more pronounced. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. Knickpoints, such as waterfalls or rapids, often occur where a river encounters layers of more resistant rock, leading to a sudden change in gradient. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about river systems:

• Antecedent drainage develops when rivers maintain their course despite tectonic uplift

• A river with high sinuosity will typically have a steeper gradient than one with low sinuosity

• Oxbow lakes are more common in the upper course of a river

• Knickpoints in a river’s longitudinal profile often indicate resistant rock layers

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Antecedent drainage occurs when a river maintains its pre-existing course and pattern even after the surrounding land undergoes tectonic uplift or other geological changes, essentially cutting through the newly formed landform.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Sinuosity refers to how much a river meanders. Rivers with high sinuosity (more meanders) generally have gentler gradients, while rivers with low sinuosity (straighter channels) often have steeper gradients.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Oxbow lakes typically form in the middle to lower courses of rivers, where the gradient is gentler, and meandering is more pronounced.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Knickpoints, such as waterfalls or rapids, often occur where a river encounters layers of more resistant rock, leading to a sudden change in gradient.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Solution: B

Antecedent drainage occurs when a river maintains its pre-existing course and pattern even after the surrounding land undergoes tectonic uplift or other geological changes, essentially cutting through the newly formed landform.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Sinuosity refers to how much a river meanders. Rivers with high sinuosity (more meanders) generally have gentler gradients, while rivers with low sinuosity (straighter channels) often have steeper gradients.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Oxbow lakes typically form in the middle to lower courses of rivers, where the gradient is gentler, and meandering is more pronounced.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Knickpoints, such as waterfalls or rapids, often occur where a river encounters layers of more resistant rock, leading to a sudden change in gradient.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Sargasso Sea maintains its distinct boundaries despite having no land borders. Statement II: The convergence of surface currents in the North Atlantic gyre creates a clockwise circulation that concentrates floating materials in its centre. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Correct Solution: A The Sargasso Sea is unique among the world’s seas in that it is not bounded by land. Instead, it is defined by ocean currents that form its boundaries. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The North Atlantic Gyre consists of several major currents—the Gulf Stream, North Atlantic Current, Canary Current, and North Atlantic Equatorial Current—that together form a clockwise-circulating system. This circulation leads to the accumulation of floating materials, such as seaweed and marine debris, in the central region, known as the Sargasso Sea. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A The Sargasso Sea is unique among the world’s seas in that it is not bounded by land. Instead, it is defined by ocean currents that form its boundaries. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The North Atlantic Gyre consists of several major currents—the Gulf Stream, North Atlantic Current, Canary Current, and North Atlantic Equatorial Current—that together form a clockwise-circulating system. This circulation leads to the accumulation of floating materials, such as seaweed and marine debris, in the central region, known as the Sargasso Sea. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Hence, both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

The Sargasso Sea maintains its distinct boundaries despite having no land borders.

Statement II:

The convergence of surface currents in the North Atlantic gyre creates a clockwise circulation that concentrates floating materials in its centre.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

• (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

• (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

Solution: A

The Sargasso Sea is unique among the world’s seas in that it is not bounded by land. Instead, it is defined by ocean currents that form its boundaries.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The North Atlantic Gyre consists of several major currents—the Gulf Stream, North Atlantic Current, Canary Current, and North Atlantic Equatorial Current—that together form a clockwise-circulating system. This circulation leads to the accumulation of floating materials, such as seaweed and marine debris, in the central region, known as the Sargasso Sea.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Solution: A

The Sargasso Sea is unique among the world’s seas in that it is not bounded by land. Instead, it is defined by ocean currents that form its boundaries.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The North Atlantic Gyre consists of several major currents—the Gulf Stream, North Atlantic Current, Canary Current, and North Atlantic Equatorial Current—that together form a clockwise-circulating system. This circulation leads to the accumulation of floating materials, such as seaweed and marine debris, in the central region, known as the Sargasso Sea.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, both Statement I and Statement II are true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points With reference to physiography of India the term “Bugyal” refers to: (a) Nomadic tribal communities (b) Sacred groves (c) Summer grasslands in higher elevations (d) Irrigation facilities in lowlands Correct Solution: C Bugyals are summer grasslands in higher reaches. These are high altitude alpine meadows or grasslands in the Himalayas particularly in the Uttarakhand. These are known for vibrant flora and is used as grazing lands for cattle. These are found in higher elevations of the Himalayas typically between 3000 and 4000 m. These are characterized by flat or sloped terrain covered with natural green grass and seasonal flowers. During winter these meadows are snow covered but in summer them showcase variety of flowers and grasses. Hence option C is correct Incorrect Solution: C Bugyals are summer grasslands in higher reaches. These are high altitude alpine meadows or grasslands in the Himalayas particularly in the Uttarakhand. These are known for vibrant flora and is used as grazing lands for cattle. These are found in higher elevations of the Himalayas typically between 3000 and 4000 m. These are characterized by flat or sloped terrain covered with natural green grass and seasonal flowers. During winter these meadows are snow covered but in summer them showcase variety of flowers and grasses. Hence option C is correct

#### 11. Question

With reference to physiography of India the term “Bugyal” refers to:

• (a) Nomadic tribal communities

• (b) Sacred groves

• (c) Summer grasslands in higher elevations

• (d) Irrigation facilities in lowlands

Solution: C

• Bugyals are summer grasslands in higher reaches.

• These are high altitude alpine meadows or grasslands in the Himalayas particularly in the Uttarakhand.

• These are known for vibrant flora and is used as grazing lands for cattle.

• These are found in higher elevations of the Himalayas typically between 3000 and 4000 m.

• These are characterized by flat or sloped terrain covered with natural green grass and seasonal flowers.

• During winter these meadows are snow covered but in summer them showcase variety of flowers and grasses.

Hence option C is correct

Solution: C

• Bugyals are summer grasslands in higher reaches.

• These are high altitude alpine meadows or grasslands in the Himalayas particularly in the Uttarakhand.

• These are known for vibrant flora and is used as grazing lands for cattle.

• These are found in higher elevations of the Himalayas typically between 3000 and 4000 m.

• These are characterized by flat or sloped terrain covered with natural green grass and seasonal flowers.

• During winter these meadows are snow covered but in summer them showcase variety of flowers and grasses.

Hence option C is correct

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: At the Coringa mangrove, the river Godavari joins backwaters of the Bay of Bengal. The Pichavaram mangrove is located between estuaries of the Vellar and Coleroon rivers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C The Coringa is a prominent mangrove forest present at the place where river Godavari joints backwaters of the Bay of Bengal. Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary has been established here. Between this area and the sea, the Hope Island blocks the direct confluence of the sea and the Godavari; as a result, about 40% of the sanctuary is only sea backwaters and the rest of the area is intermingled with creeks and gets inundated with tidal water. Hence statement 1 is correct The Pichavaram mangrove forest near Chidambaram in Tamil Nadu is the second largest mangrove forest in the world. It is located between two prominent estuaries- the Vellar estuary in the north and Coleroon estuary in the south The Vellar- Coleroon estuarine complex forms the Killai backwater and Pichavaram mangroves. Hence statement 2 is correct Incorrect Solution: C The Coringa is a prominent mangrove forest present at the place where river Godavari joints backwaters of the Bay of Bengal. Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary has been established here. Between this area and the sea, the Hope Island blocks the direct confluence of the sea and the Godavari; as a result, about 40% of the sanctuary is only sea backwaters and the rest of the area is intermingled with creeks and gets inundated with tidal water. Hence statement 1 is correct The Pichavaram mangrove forest near Chidambaram in Tamil Nadu is the second largest mangrove forest in the world. It is located between two prominent estuaries- the Vellar estuary in the north and Coleroon estuary in the south The Vellar- Coleroon estuarine complex forms the Killai backwater and Pichavaram mangroves. Hence statement 2 is correct

#### 12. Question

Consider the following statements:

• At the Coringa mangrove, the river Godavari joins backwaters of the Bay of Bengal.

• The Pichavaram mangrove is located between estuaries of the Vellar and Coleroon rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• The Coringa is a prominent mangrove forest present at the place where river Godavari joints backwaters of the Bay of Bengal. Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary has been established here.

• Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary has been established here.

• Between this area and the sea, the Hope Island blocks the direct confluence of the sea and the Godavari; as a result, about 40% of the sanctuary is only sea backwaters and the rest of the area is intermingled with creeks and gets inundated with tidal water.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Pichavaram mangrove forest near Chidambaram in Tamil Nadu is the second largest mangrove forest in the world.

• It is located between two prominent estuaries- the Vellar estuary in the north and Coleroon estuary in the south

• The Vellar- Coleroon estuarine complex forms the Killai backwater and Pichavaram mangroves.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: C

• The Coringa is a prominent mangrove forest present at the place where river Godavari joints backwaters of the Bay of Bengal. Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary has been established here.

• Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary has been established here.

• Between this area and the sea, the Hope Island blocks the direct confluence of the sea and the Godavari; as a result, about 40% of the sanctuary is only sea backwaters and the rest of the area is intermingled with creeks and gets inundated with tidal water.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Pichavaram mangrove forest near Chidambaram in Tamil Nadu is the second largest mangrove forest in the world.

• It is located between two prominent estuaries- the Vellar estuary in the north and Coleroon estuary in the south

• The Vellar- Coleroon estuarine complex forms the Killai backwater and Pichavaram mangroves.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points The Karanpura coalfield, recently in news, is located in the state of: (a) Jharkhand (b) Haryana (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Odisha Correct Solution: A The Karanpura coalfield is situated in the Ramgarh district of Jharkhand forming and elongated strip along the Chingara fault. It covers an area of approximately 195 square kilometres with coal reserves estimated at 5757.85 million tonnes. The region primarily consists of coal, carbonaceous shale, and sand stone layers known for its significant deposits of workable coal. Recent studies using microscopic palynomorphs, organic remains and geochemical assessments have indicated significant hydrocarbon generation potential in this coal field, specially in the eastern Sirka region of Jharkhand. Hence option A is correct Incorrect Solution: A The Karanpura coalfield is situated in the Ramgarh district of Jharkhand forming and elongated strip along the Chingara fault. It covers an area of approximately 195 square kilometres with coal reserves estimated at 5757.85 million tonnes. The region primarily consists of coal, carbonaceous shale, and sand stone layers known for its significant deposits of workable coal. Recent studies using microscopic palynomorphs, organic remains and geochemical assessments have indicated significant hydrocarbon generation potential in this coal field, specially in the eastern Sirka region of Jharkhand. Hence option A is correct

#### 13. Question

The Karanpura coalfield, recently in news, is located in the state of:

• (a) Jharkhand

• (b) Haryana

• (c) Uttar Pradesh

• (d) Odisha

Solution: A

• The Karanpura coalfield is situated in the Ramgarh district of Jharkhand forming and elongated strip along the Chingara fault.

• It covers an area of approximately 195 square kilometres with coal reserves estimated at 5757.85 million tonnes.

• The region primarily consists of coal, carbonaceous shale, and sand stone layers known for its significant deposits of workable coal.

• Recent studies using microscopic palynomorphs, organic remains and geochemical assessments have indicated significant hydrocarbon generation potential in this coal field, specially in the eastern Sirka region of Jharkhand.

Hence option A is correct

Solution: A

• The Karanpura coalfield is situated in the Ramgarh district of Jharkhand forming and elongated strip along the Chingara fault.

• It covers an area of approximately 195 square kilometres with coal reserves estimated at 5757.85 million tonnes.

• The region primarily consists of coal, carbonaceous shale, and sand stone layers known for its significant deposits of workable coal.

• Recent studies using microscopic palynomorphs, organic remains and geochemical assessments have indicated significant hydrocarbon generation potential in this coal field, specially in the eastern Sirka region of Jharkhand.

Hence option A is correct

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Glacier : Location Zemu glacier : Ladakh Milam glacier : Sikkim Sonapani glacier : Uttarakhand How many of the pairs given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D The Zemu glacier is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalaya located at the base of Kanchenjunga in the Sikkim Himalayas in Sikkim It drains the east side of Kanchenjunga and is the source of water for several rivers; prominent among them is the Teesta River. Hence pair 1 is incorrect The Milam glacier is located in Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand about 15 km North East of Nanda Devi. It ranges from about 5500 m and is approximately 16 km long. It is one of the major glaciers of the Kumaon Himalayas. Hence pair 2 is incorrect The Sonapani glacier is an 11 km long glacier located in the Pir Panjal range in the Inner Himalayan region in Himachal Pradesh. It has an ice cliff forming its snout. Hence pair 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: D The Zemu glacier is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalaya located at the base of Kanchenjunga in the Sikkim Himalayas in Sikkim It drains the east side of Kanchenjunga and is the source of water for several rivers; prominent among them is the Teesta River. Hence pair 1 is incorrect The Milam glacier is located in Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand about 15 km North East of Nanda Devi. It ranges from about 5500 m and is approximately 16 km long. It is one of the major glaciers of the Kumaon Himalayas. Hence pair 2 is incorrect The Sonapani glacier is an 11 km long glacier located in the Pir Panjal range in the Inner Himalayan region in Himachal Pradesh. It has an ice cliff forming its snout. Hence pair 3 is incorrect

#### 14. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Glacier : Location

• Zemu glacier : Ladakh

• Milam glacier : Sikkim

• Sonapani glacier : Uttarakhand

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• The Zemu glacier is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalaya located at the base of Kanchenjunga in the Sikkim Himalayas in Sikkim

• It drains the east side of Kanchenjunga and is the source of water for several rivers; prominent among them is the Teesta River.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• The Milam glacier is located in Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand about 15 km North East of Nanda Devi.

• It ranges from about 5500 m and is approximately 16 km long.

• It is one of the major glaciers of the Kumaon Himalayas.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• The Sonapani glacier is an 11 km long glacier located in the Pir Panjal range in the Inner Himalayan region in Himachal Pradesh.

• It has an ice cliff forming its snout.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution: D

• The Zemu glacier is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalaya located at the base of Kanchenjunga in the Sikkim Himalayas in Sikkim

• It drains the east side of Kanchenjunga and is the source of water for several rivers; prominent among them is the Teesta River.

Hence pair 1 is incorrect

• The Milam glacier is located in Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand about 15 km North East of Nanda Devi.

• It ranges from about 5500 m and is approximately 16 km long.

• It is one of the major glaciers of the Kumaon Himalayas.

Hence pair 2 is incorrect

• The Sonapani glacier is an 11 km long glacier located in the Pir Panjal range in the Inner Himalayan region in Himachal Pradesh.

• It has an ice cliff forming its snout.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Karewas are formed by thick deposits of glacial clay and unconsolidated lacustrine deposits. Karewas are ideal for cultivation of almonds and walnuts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines. These are elevated flat toppes table lands in the Kashmir Valley formed by deposition of glacial clay and other materials particularly unconsolidated lacustrine deposits. These are the result of sedimentation that occurred over millions of years. These are 13000-18000 m thick deposits of alluvial soil and sediments like sandstone and mud stone; this makes them ideal for cultivation of saffron and several other cash crops. Kashmiri saffron which received a geographical indication tag for its colour and Aroma, is grown on these Karewas. The famous Kashmiri apple and nuts including almonds and walnuts are also grown here. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines. These are elevated flat toppes table lands in the Kashmir Valley formed by deposition of glacial clay and other materials particularly unconsolidated lacustrine deposits. These are the result of sedimentation that occurred over millions of years. These are 13000-18000 m thick deposits of alluvial soil and sediments like sandstone and mud stone; this makes them ideal for cultivation of saffron and several other cash crops. Kashmiri saffron which received a geographical indication tag for its colour and Aroma, is grown on these Karewas. The famous Kashmiri apple and nuts including almonds and walnuts are also grown here. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

#### 15. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Karewas are formed by thick deposits of glacial clay and unconsolidated lacustrine deposits.

• Karewas are ideal for cultivation of almonds and walnuts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines.

• These are elevated flat toppes table lands in the Kashmir Valley formed by deposition of glacial clay and other materials particularly unconsolidated lacustrine deposits.

• These are the result of sedimentation that occurred over millions of years.

• These are 13000-18000 m thick deposits of alluvial soil and sediments like sandstone and mud stone; this makes them ideal for cultivation of saffron and several other cash crops.

• Kashmiri saffron which received a geographical indication tag for its colour and Aroma, is grown on these Karewas.

• The famous Kashmiri apple and nuts including almonds and walnuts are also grown here.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

Solution: C

• Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines.

• These are elevated flat toppes table lands in the Kashmir Valley formed by deposition of glacial clay and other materials particularly unconsolidated lacustrine deposits.

• These are the result of sedimentation that occurred over millions of years.

• These are 13000-18000 m thick deposits of alluvial soil and sediments like sandstone and mud stone; this makes them ideal for cultivation of saffron and several other cash crops.

• Kashmiri saffron which received a geographical indication tag for its colour and Aroma, is grown on these Karewas.

• The famous Kashmiri apple and nuts including almonds and walnuts are also grown here.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Alignment of the sun and the moon at right angles to each other causes neap tides. During Neap tides, bulge of the ocean is formed due to combined gravitational pull of the sun and the moon. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Seven days after a spring tide, the sun and the moon are at right angles to each other. At this alignment, the tide that is produced are of moderate type, known as Neap Tide, meaning high tides are little lower and low tides a little higher than average Neap tides occur during first and third quarter moon when the moon appears half full. Hence statement 1 is correct Neap tides occur when the sun and the moon are at right angles to each other. When this happens, the bulge of the ocean caused by the sun partially cancels out the bulge of the ocean caused by the moon. Hence statement 2 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Seven days after a spring tide, the sun and the moon are at right angles to each other. At this alignment, the tide that is produced are of moderate type, known as Neap Tide, meaning high tides are little lower and low tides a little higher than average Neap tides occur during first and third quarter moon when the moon appears half full. Hence statement 1 is correct Neap tides occur when the sun and the moon are at right angles to each other. When this happens, the bulge of the ocean caused by the sun partially cancels out the bulge of the ocean caused by the moon. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Alignment of the sun and the moon at right angles to each other causes neap tides.

• During Neap tides, bulge of the ocean is formed due to combined gravitational pull of the sun and the moon.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Seven days after a spring tide, the sun and the moon are at right angles to each other.

• At this alignment, the tide that is produced are of moderate type, known as Neap Tide, meaning high tides are little lower and low tides a little higher than average

• Neap tides occur during first and third quarter moon when the moon appears half full.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Neap tides occur when the sun and the moon are at right angles to each other.

• When this happens, the bulge of the ocean caused by the sun partially cancels out the bulge of the ocean caused by the moon.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Seven days after a spring tide, the sun and the moon are at right angles to each other.

• At this alignment, the tide that is produced are of moderate type, known as Neap Tide, meaning high tides are little lower and low tides a little higher than average

• Neap tides occur during first and third quarter moon when the moon appears half full.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Neap tides occur when the sun and the moon are at right angles to each other.

• When this happens, the bulge of the ocean caused by the sun partially cancels out the bulge of the ocean caused by the moon.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points The Pennaiyar River Dispute, sometimes seen in news is between the states of: (a) Odisha and Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (c) Maharashtra and Goa (d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu Correct Solution: B The Pennaiyar River Dispute is between the states of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Regarding it Tamil Nadu approached the supreme court in 2018 opposing Karnataka’s construction of check dams and diversion structures on the river. Tamil Nadu argued that the river’s flowing water is a national asset and Karnataka has no right to claim its water depriving the residents of Tamil Nadu. Pennaiyar is one of the longest river in Tamil Nadu; it rises in the Nandi Hills and flows into the Bay of Bengal. It is severely polluted by industrial waste as it flows through major industrial areas in Eastern suburbs of Bangalore and the industrial parts of Hosur and Chengum. Hence option B is correct Incorrect Solution: B The Pennaiyar River Dispute is between the states of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Regarding it Tamil Nadu approached the supreme court in 2018 opposing Karnataka’s construction of check dams and diversion structures on the river. Tamil Nadu argued that the river’s flowing water is a national asset and Karnataka has no right to claim its water depriving the residents of Tamil Nadu. Pennaiyar is one of the longest river in Tamil Nadu; it rises in the Nandi Hills and flows into the Bay of Bengal. It is severely polluted by industrial waste as it flows through major industrial areas in Eastern suburbs of Bangalore and the industrial parts of Hosur and Chengum. Hence option B is correct

#### 17. Question

The Pennaiyar River Dispute, sometimes seen in news is between the states of:

• (a) Odisha and Andhra Pradesh

• (b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

• (c) Maharashtra and Goa

• (d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

Solution: B

• The Pennaiyar River Dispute is between the states of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.

• Regarding it Tamil Nadu approached the supreme court in 2018 opposing Karnataka’s construction of check dams and diversion structures on the river.

• Tamil Nadu argued that the river’s flowing water is a national asset and Karnataka has no right to claim its water depriving the residents of Tamil Nadu.

• Pennaiyar is one of the longest river in Tamil Nadu; it rises in the Nandi Hills and flows into the Bay of Bengal.

• It is severely polluted by industrial waste as it flows through major industrial areas in Eastern suburbs of Bangalore and the industrial parts of Hosur and Chengum.

Hence option B is correct

Solution: B

• The Pennaiyar River Dispute is between the states of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.

• Regarding it Tamil Nadu approached the supreme court in 2018 opposing Karnataka’s construction of check dams and diversion structures on the river.

• Tamil Nadu argued that the river’s flowing water is a national asset and Karnataka has no right to claim its water depriving the residents of Tamil Nadu.

• Pennaiyar is one of the longest river in Tamil Nadu; it rises in the Nandi Hills and flows into the Bay of Bengal.

• It is severely polluted by industrial waste as it flows through major industrial areas in Eastern suburbs of Bangalore and the industrial parts of Hosur and Chengum.

Hence option B is correct

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Cotton can be grown in black soils as well as alluvial soils. Cotton is a tropical crop that requires high temperature and annual high rainfall for optimal growth. Cotton requires saline water-logged conditions during ripening period. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Cotton grows well in the black soil present in the Deccan plateau, Malwa plateau and in Gujarat However, it also grows well in well drained alluvial soil of the Sutlej -Ganga plain and Red and laterite soils of the Peninsular region. Hence statement 1 is correct Cotton is a tropical and sub-tropical crop. Cotton requires high temperature (21–30°C), but not high rainfall; in fact, excess rainfall is harmful. Optimal rainfall is 50–100 cm, and controlled irrigation is preferable. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Cotton exhibits some amount of salt tolerance; but it is highly sensitive to water logging Hence the importance of well drained soils in cotton cultivation is very essential. Hence statement 3 is incorrect Incorrect Solution: A Cotton grows well in the black soil present in the Deccan plateau, Malwa plateau and in Gujarat However, it also grows well in well drained alluvial soil of the Sutlej -Ganga plain and Red and laterite soils of the Peninsular region. Hence statement 1 is correct Cotton is a tropical and sub-tropical crop. Cotton requires high temperature (21–30°C), but not high rainfall; in fact, excess rainfall is harmful. Optimal rainfall is 50–100 cm, and controlled irrigation is preferable. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Cotton exhibits some amount of salt tolerance; but it is highly sensitive to water logging Hence the importance of well drained soils in cotton cultivation is very essential. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

#### 18. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Cotton can be grown in black soils as well as alluvial soils.

• Cotton is a tropical crop that requires high temperature and annual high rainfall for optimal growth.

• Cotton requires saline water-logged conditions during ripening period.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Cotton grows well in the black soil present in the Deccan plateau, Malwa plateau and in Gujarat

• However, it also grows well in well drained alluvial soil of the Sutlej -Ganga plain and Red and laterite soils of the Peninsular region.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Cotton is a tropical and sub-tropical crop.

• Cotton requires high temperature (21–30°C), but not high rainfall; in fact, excess rainfall is harmful.

• Optimal rainfall is 50–100 cm, and controlled irrigation is preferable.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

• Cotton exhibits some amount of salt tolerance; but it is highly sensitive to water logging

• Hence the importance of well drained soils in cotton cultivation is very essential.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Cotton grows well in the black soil present in the Deccan plateau, Malwa plateau and in Gujarat

• However, it also grows well in well drained alluvial soil of the Sutlej -Ganga plain and Red and laterite soils of the Peninsular region.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Cotton is a tropical and sub-tropical crop.

• Cotton requires high temperature (21–30°C), but not high rainfall; in fact, excess rainfall is harmful.

• Optimal rainfall is 50–100 cm, and controlled irrigation is preferable.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

• Cotton exhibits some amount of salt tolerance; but it is highly sensitive to water logging

• Hence the importance of well drained soils in cotton cultivation is very essential.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Consider the following plants: Jamun Babool Arjun How many of the above are Medicinal plants? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Jamun is an evergreen tropical tree which has value for its fruit, Timber and ornamental purposes It is native to the Indian subcontinent and South East Asia. The Powder of jamun seed is used to control Diabetes; the juice is used to prepare vinegar which has digestive properties. Babool is a flowering tree native to Africa Middle East and the Indian subcontinent. Its leaves are used as a cure for eye sores; its gum is used as a tonic. Its bark is used (after being soaked in water) for stomach problems. Arjun is found across the Indian subcontinent, usually on river banks or near dry river beds. It is a traditional medicinal plant. Fresh juice of the leaves is a cure for ear aches and is also used to regulate blood pressure. Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct Incorrect Solution: C Jamun is an evergreen tropical tree which has value for its fruit, Timber and ornamental purposes It is native to the Indian subcontinent and South East Asia. The Powder of jamun seed is used to control Diabetes; the juice is used to prepare vinegar which has digestive properties. Babool is a flowering tree native to Africa Middle East and the Indian subcontinent. Its leaves are used as a cure for eye sores; its gum is used as a tonic. Its bark is used (after being soaked in water) for stomach problems. Arjun is found across the Indian subcontinent, usually on river banks or near dry river beds. It is a traditional medicinal plant. Fresh juice of the leaves is a cure for ear aches and is also used to regulate blood pressure. Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

#### 19. Question

Consider the following plants:

How many of the above are Medicinal plants?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Jamun is an evergreen tropical tree which has value for its fruit, Timber and ornamental purposes

• It is native to the Indian subcontinent and South East Asia.

• The Powder of jamun seed is used to control Diabetes; the juice is used to prepare vinegar which has digestive properties.

• Babool is a flowering tree native to Africa Middle East and the Indian subcontinent. Its leaves are used as a cure for eye sores; its gum is used as a tonic. Its bark is used (after being soaked in water) for stomach problems.

• Arjun is found across the Indian subcontinent, usually on river banks or near dry river beds. It is a traditional medicinal plant. Fresh juice of the leaves is a cure for ear aches and is also used to regulate blood pressure.

Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

• Jamun is an evergreen tropical tree which has value for its fruit, Timber and ornamental purposes

• It is native to the Indian subcontinent and South East Asia.

• The Powder of jamun seed is used to control Diabetes; the juice is used to prepare vinegar which has digestive properties.

• Babool is a flowering tree native to Africa Middle East and the Indian subcontinent. Its leaves are used as a cure for eye sores; its gum is used as a tonic. Its bark is used (after being soaked in water) for stomach problems.

• Arjun is found across the Indian subcontinent, usually on river banks or near dry river beds. It is a traditional medicinal plant. Fresh juice of the leaves is a cure for ear aches and is also used to regulate blood pressure.

Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement – I: Cloudburst causes flash floods. Statement – II: Rainfall over 100 mm per hour is categorised as a cloudburst event. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct Correct Solution: A A cloudburst is an intense and sudden rainfall event typically localised to a small area resulting in heavy downpour within a short period. Sometimes cloudbursts cause flash floods and landslides specially in hilly or mountaineous regions. Cloudbursts occur when warm, moist air rapidly rises due to convection; as the air ascends, it cools and the moisture condenses to form clouds In certain conditions, particularly in regions with steep topography, the clouds are unable to release moisture gradually, leading to the sudden and concentrated release of rain. Hence statement 1 is correct Rain is condensed water falling from a cloud while cloud burst is a sudden heavy rain storm. Rainfall over 100 mm per hour is categorised as a cloud burst; it is a natural phenomenon but can occur unexpectedly abruptly and rather drenching. Hence statement 2 is correct and it correctly explains statement 1. Incorrect Solution: A A cloudburst is an intense and sudden rainfall event typically localised to a small area resulting in heavy downpour within a short period. Sometimes cloudbursts cause flash floods and landslides specially in hilly or mountaineous regions. Cloudbursts occur when warm, moist air rapidly rises due to convection; as the air ascends, it cools and the moisture condenses to form clouds In certain conditions, particularly in regions with steep topography, the clouds are unable to release moisture gradually, leading to the sudden and concentrated release of rain. Hence statement 1 is correct Rain is condensed water falling from a cloud while cloud burst is a sudden heavy rain storm. Rainfall over 100 mm per hour is categorised as a cloud burst; it is a natural phenomenon but can occur unexpectedly abruptly and rather drenching. Hence statement 2 is correct and it correctly explains statement 1.

#### 20. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement – I: Cloudburst causes flash floods.

Statement – II: Rainfall over 100 mm per hour is categorised as a cloudburst event.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II explains Statement -I

• (b) Both Statement -I and Statement -II are correct but Statement -II does not explain Statement -I

• (c) Statement- I is correct but Statement -II is incorrect

• (d) Statement- I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Solution: A

• A cloudburst is an intense and sudden rainfall event typically localised to a small area resulting in heavy downpour within a short period.

• Sometimes cloudbursts cause flash floods and landslides specially in hilly or mountaineous regions.

• Cloudbursts occur when warm, moist air rapidly rises due to convection; as the air ascends, it cools and the moisture condenses to form clouds

• In certain conditions, particularly in regions with steep topography, the clouds are unable to release moisture gradually, leading to the sudden and concentrated release of rain.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Rain is condensed water falling from a cloud while cloud burst is a sudden heavy rain storm.

• Rainfall over 100 mm per hour is categorised as a cloud burst; it is a natural phenomenon but can occur unexpectedly abruptly and rather drenching.

Hence statement 2 is correct and it correctly explains statement 1.

Solution: A

• A cloudburst is an intense and sudden rainfall event typically localised to a small area resulting in heavy downpour within a short period.

• Sometimes cloudbursts cause flash floods and landslides specially in hilly or mountaineous regions.

• Cloudbursts occur when warm, moist air rapidly rises due to convection; as the air ascends, it cools and the moisture condenses to form clouds

• In certain conditions, particularly in regions with steep topography, the clouds are unable to release moisture gradually, leading to the sudden and concentrated release of rain.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Rain is condensed water falling from a cloud while cloud burst is a sudden heavy rain storm.

• Rainfall over 100 mm per hour is categorised as a cloud burst; it is a natural phenomenon but can occur unexpectedly abruptly and rather drenching.

Hence statement 2 is correct and it correctly explains statement 1.

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding DIGIPIN (Digital Postal Index Number): It is developed by the Department of Post in collaboration with IIT Hyderabad. It assigns a unique 6-digit numeric code to each address based on postal zones. DIGIPIN codes change dynamically based on administrative boundary changes. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A DIGIPIN (Digital Postal Index Number): The Department of Post, in collaboration with IIT Hyderabad, has developed DIGIPIN, a National Addressing Grid system. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.) Provides a permanent digital infrastructure for addressing, unaffected by changes in state, city, locality names, or road networks. Divides the country into 4m x 4m grid units, each assigned a unique 10-digit alphanumeric code based on geographical coordinates. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect, as it does not assign a 6-digit numeric code.) Serves as an offline addressing reference, useful for locating addresses, emergency operations, and logistics. Ensures privacy as no private address data is stored. DIGIPIN codes are permanent and do not change with administrative boundary modifications. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect as DIGIPIN codes do not change dynamically.) Enhances logistics, disaster management, and last-mile delivery, particularly in rural and unstructured areas. Incorrect Solution: A DIGIPIN (Digital Postal Index Number): The Department of Post, in collaboration with IIT Hyderabad, has developed DIGIPIN, a National Addressing Grid system. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.) Provides a permanent digital infrastructure for addressing, unaffected by changes in state, city, locality names, or road networks. Divides the country into 4m x 4m grid units, each assigned a unique 10-digit alphanumeric code based on geographical coordinates. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect, as it does not assign a 6-digit numeric code.) Serves as an offline addressing reference, useful for locating addresses, emergency operations, and logistics. Ensures privacy as no private address data is stored. DIGIPIN codes are permanent and do not change with administrative boundary modifications. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect as DIGIPIN codes do not change dynamically.) Enhances logistics, disaster management, and last-mile delivery, particularly in rural and unstructured areas.

#### 21. Question

Consider the following statements regarding DIGIPIN (Digital Postal Index Number):

• It is developed by the Department of Post in collaboration with IIT Hyderabad.

• It assigns a unique 6-digit numeric code to each address based on postal zones.

• DIGIPIN codes change dynamically based on administrative boundary changes.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

DIGIPIN (Digital Postal Index Number):

• The Department of Post, in collaboration with IIT Hyderabad, has developed DIGIPIN, a National Addressing Grid system. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.)

• Provides a permanent digital infrastructure for addressing, unaffected by changes in state, city, locality names, or road networks.

• Divides the country into 4m x 4m grid units, each assigned a unique 10-digit alphanumeric code based on geographical coordinates. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect, as it does not assign a 6-digit numeric code.)

• Serves as an offline addressing reference, useful for locating addresses, emergency operations, and logistics.

• Ensures privacy as no private address data is stored.

• DIGIPIN codes are permanent and do not change with administrative boundary modifications. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect as DIGIPIN codes do not change dynamically.)

• Enhances logistics, disaster management, and last-mile delivery, particularly in rural and unstructured areas.

Solution: A

DIGIPIN (Digital Postal Index Number):

• The Department of Post, in collaboration with IIT Hyderabad, has developed DIGIPIN, a National Addressing Grid system. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.)

• Provides a permanent digital infrastructure for addressing, unaffected by changes in state, city, locality names, or road networks.

• Divides the country into 4m x 4m grid units, each assigned a unique 10-digit alphanumeric code based on geographical coordinates. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect, as it does not assign a 6-digit numeric code.)

• Serves as an offline addressing reference, useful for locating addresses, emergency operations, and logistics.

• Ensures privacy as no private address data is stored.

• DIGIPIN codes are permanent and do not change with administrative boundary modifications. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect as DIGIPIN codes do not change dynamically.)

• Enhances logistics, disaster management, and last-mile delivery, particularly in rural and unstructured areas.

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Kartarpur Corridor: It connects the Dera Baba Nanak shrine in India with the Nankana Sahib Gurdwara in Pakistan. Indian pilgrims require a visa to visit the Darbar Sahib Gurdwara in Pakistan. The corridor was inaugurated to commemorate the 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev. It remains operational throughout the year. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Kartarpur Corridor Pakistan has completed a 420-meter-long bridge at the zero line of the Kartarpur Corridor after a delay of 2.5 years. The bridge was built due to the area’s susceptibility to flooding, ensuring safe passage for visitors to Gurdwara Darbar Sahib. Connects Darbar Sahib Gurdwara in Pakistan with Dera Baba Nanak shrine in Punjab, India. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect as it does not connect to Nankana Sahib Gurdwara.) Visa-Free Movement: Indian pilgrims do not need a visa, only a permit to cross into Pakistan. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.) Built to commemorate the 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev on November 12, 2019. (Hence, statement 3 is correct.) Operational throughout the year, allowing continuous access to pilgrims. (Hence, statement 4 is correct.) Incorrect Solution: B Kartarpur Corridor Pakistan has completed a 420-meter-long bridge at the zero line of the Kartarpur Corridor after a delay of 2.5 years. The bridge was built due to the area’s susceptibility to flooding, ensuring safe passage for visitors to Gurdwara Darbar Sahib. Connects Darbar Sahib Gurdwara in Pakistan with Dera Baba Nanak shrine in Punjab, India. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect as it does not connect to Nankana Sahib Gurdwara.) Visa-Free Movement: Indian pilgrims do not need a visa, only a permit to cross into Pakistan. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.) Built to commemorate the 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev on November 12, 2019. (Hence, statement 3 is correct.) Operational throughout the year, allowing continuous access to pilgrims. (Hence, statement 4 is correct.)

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Kartarpur Corridor:

• It connects the Dera Baba Nanak shrine in India with the Nankana Sahib Gurdwara in Pakistan.

• Indian pilgrims require a visa to visit the Darbar Sahib Gurdwara in Pakistan.

• The corridor was inaugurated to commemorate the 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev.

• It remains operational throughout the year.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Kartarpur Corridor

• Pakistan has completed a 420-meter-long bridge at the zero line of the Kartarpur Corridor after a delay of 2.5 years.

• The bridge was built due to the area’s susceptibility to flooding, ensuring safe passage for visitors to Gurdwara Darbar Sahib.

• Connects Darbar Sahib Gurdwara in Pakistan with Dera Baba Nanak shrine in Punjab, India. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect as it does not connect to Nankana Sahib Gurdwara.)

• (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect as it does not connect to Nankana Sahib Gurdwara.)

• Visa-Free Movement: Indian pilgrims do not need a visa, only a permit to cross into Pakistan. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.)

• (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.)

• Built to commemorate the 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev on November 12, 2019. (Hence, statement 3 is correct.)

• (Hence, statement 3 is correct.)

• Operational throughout the year, allowing continuous access to pilgrims. (Hence, statement 4 is correct.)

• (Hence, statement 4 is correct.)

Solution: B

Kartarpur Corridor

• Pakistan has completed a 420-meter-long bridge at the zero line of the Kartarpur Corridor after a delay of 2.5 years.

• The bridge was built due to the area’s susceptibility to flooding, ensuring safe passage for visitors to Gurdwara Darbar Sahib.

• Connects Darbar Sahib Gurdwara in Pakistan with Dera Baba Nanak shrine in Punjab, India. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect as it does not connect to Nankana Sahib Gurdwara.)

• (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect as it does not connect to Nankana Sahib Gurdwara.)

• Visa-Free Movement: Indian pilgrims do not need a visa, only a permit to cross into Pakistan. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.)

• (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.)

• Built to commemorate the 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev on November 12, 2019. (Hence, statement 3 is correct.)

• (Hence, statement 3 is correct.)

• Operational throughout the year, allowing continuous access to pilgrims. (Hence, statement 4 is correct.)

• (Hence, statement 4 is correct.)

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-1: The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is a specialized UN agency that regulates global shipping and works to prevent marine pollution. Statement-2: India proposed the establishment of the South Asian Centre of Excellence for Sustainable Maritime Transport (SACE-SMarT) at the 132nd session of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) Council to advance sustainable and technologically proficient maritime practices. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct, and Statement-2 is the correct explanation for Statement-1. (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct, but Statement-2 is not the correct explanation for Statement-1. (c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-2 is incorrect. (d) Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-2 is correct. Correct Solution: A International Maritime Organization (IMO): At the 132nd session of the IMO Council, India led global maritime discussions and proposed the establishment of the South Asian Centre of Excellence for Sustainable Maritime Transport (SACE-SMarT). SACE-SMarT aims to promote environmentally sustainable and technologically proficient maritime practices in South Asia, aligning with IMO’s global regulatory framework. (Hence, Statement-2 is correct.) The IMO is a specialized UN agency responsible for regulating global shipping and preventing marine pollution from ships. Established in 1948, operational since 1958. 175 member states and three associate members. Headquarters: London, UK. India joined in 1959. (Hence, Statement-1 is correct.) India’s proposal at IMO strengthens maritime safety, efficiency, and environmental sustainability, enhancing South Asia’s maritime infrastructure. As SACE-SMarT contributes directly to IMO’s mission, Statement-2 serves as a valid explanation for Statement-1. (Hence, Option (a) is correct.) Incorrect Solution: A International Maritime Organization (IMO): At the 132nd session of the IMO Council, India led global maritime discussions and proposed the establishment of the South Asian Centre of Excellence for Sustainable Maritime Transport (SACE-SMarT). SACE-SMarT aims to promote environmentally sustainable and technologically proficient maritime practices in South Asia, aligning with IMO’s global regulatory framework. (Hence, Statement-2 is correct.) The IMO is a specialized UN agency responsible for regulating global shipping and preventing marine pollution from ships. Established in 1948, operational since 1958. 175 member states and three associate members. Headquarters: London, UK. India joined in 1959. (Hence, Statement-1 is correct.) India’s proposal at IMO strengthens maritime safety, efficiency, and environmental sustainability, enhancing South Asia’s maritime infrastructure. As SACE-SMarT contributes directly to IMO’s mission, Statement-2 serves as a valid explanation for Statement-1. (Hence, Option (a) is correct.)

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-1:

The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is a specialized UN agency that regulates global shipping and works to prevent marine pollution.

Statement-2:

India proposed the establishment of the South Asian Centre of Excellence for Sustainable Maritime Transport (SACE-SMarT) at the 132nd session of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) Council to advance sustainable and technologically proficient maritime practices.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct, and Statement-2 is the correct explanation for Statement-1.

• (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct, but Statement-2 is not the correct explanation for Statement-1.

• (c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-2 is incorrect.

• (d) Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-2 is correct.

Solution: A

International Maritime Organization (IMO):

• At the 132nd session of the IMO Council, India led global maritime discussions and proposed the establishment of the South Asian Centre of Excellence for Sustainable Maritime Transport (SACE-SMarT).

• SACE-SMarT aims to promote environmentally sustainable and technologically proficient maritime practices in South Asia, aligning with IMO’s global regulatory framework. (Hence, Statement-2 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement-2 is correct.)

• The IMO is a specialized UN agency responsible for regulating global shipping and preventing marine pollution from ships. Established in 1948, operational since 1958. 175 member states and three associate members. Headquarters: London, UK. India joined in 1959. (Hence, Statement-1 is correct.)

• Established in 1948, operational since 1958.

• 175 member states and three associate members.

• Headquarters: London, UK.

• India joined in 1959.

• (Hence, Statement-1 is correct.)

• India’s proposal at IMO strengthens maritime safety, efficiency, and environmental sustainability, enhancing South Asia’s maritime infrastructure.

As SACE-SMarT contributes directly to IMO’s mission, Statement-2 serves as a valid explanation for Statement-1. (Hence, Option (a) is correct.)

Solution: A

International Maritime Organization (IMO):

• At the 132nd session of the IMO Council, India led global maritime discussions and proposed the establishment of the South Asian Centre of Excellence for Sustainable Maritime Transport (SACE-SMarT).

• SACE-SMarT aims to promote environmentally sustainable and technologically proficient maritime practices in South Asia, aligning with IMO’s global regulatory framework. (Hence, Statement-2 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement-2 is correct.)

• The IMO is a specialized UN agency responsible for regulating global shipping and preventing marine pollution from ships. Established in 1948, operational since 1958. 175 member states and three associate members. Headquarters: London, UK. India joined in 1959. (Hence, Statement-1 is correct.)

• Established in 1948, operational since 1958.

• 175 member states and three associate members.

• Headquarters: London, UK.

• India joined in 1959.

• (Hence, Statement-1 is correct.)

• India’s proposal at IMO strengthens maritime safety, efficiency, and environmental sustainability, enhancing South Asia’s maritime infrastructure.

As SACE-SMarT contributes directly to IMO’s mission, Statement-2 serves as a valid explanation for Statement-1. (Hence, Option (a) is correct.)

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Project Nexus: Project Nexus is an initiative of the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) Innovation Hub to enable instant cross-border retail payments. Under this initiative, India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) will be linked with the Fast Payment Systems (FPSs) of Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Project Nexus: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has joined Project Nexus, an international initiative to enable instant cross-border retail payments by linking domestic Fast Payments Systems (FPSs) of multiple countries. India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) will be linked with the FPSs of Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand, with potential expansion to more countries. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.) Conceptualized by the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) Innovation Hub, Project Nexus aims to standardize connectivity between different instant payment systems (IPS) globally. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.) This initiative will streamline cross-border payments, allowing transactions to be completed within 60 seconds. The platform simplifies the process by enabling a single connection to Nexus, linking all participating countries, thereby accelerating the growth of instant cross-border payments. Incorrect Solution: C Project Nexus: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has joined Project Nexus, an international initiative to enable instant cross-border retail payments by linking domestic Fast Payments Systems (FPSs) of multiple countries. India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) will be linked with the FPSs of Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand, with potential expansion to more countries. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.) Conceptualized by the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) Innovation Hub, Project Nexus aims to standardize connectivity between different instant payment systems (IPS) globally. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.) This initiative will streamline cross-border payments, allowing transactions to be completed within 60 seconds. The platform simplifies the process by enabling a single connection to Nexus, linking all participating countries, thereby accelerating the growth of instant cross-border payments.

#### 24. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Project Nexus:

• Project Nexus is an initiative of the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) Innovation Hub to enable instant cross-border retail payments.

• Under this initiative, India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) will be linked with the Fast Payment Systems (FPSs) of Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Project Nexus:

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has joined Project Nexus, an international initiative to enable instant cross-border retail payments by linking domestic Fast Payments Systems (FPSs) of multiple countries.

• India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) will be linked with the FPSs of Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand, with potential expansion to more countries. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.)

• Conceptualized by the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) Innovation Hub, Project Nexus aims to standardize connectivity between different instant payment systems (IPS) globally. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• This initiative will streamline cross-border payments, allowing transactions to be completed within 60 seconds.

• The platform simplifies the process by enabling a single connection to Nexus, linking all participating countries, thereby accelerating the growth of instant cross-border payments.

Solution: C

Project Nexus:

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has joined Project Nexus, an international initiative to enable instant cross-border retail payments by linking domestic Fast Payments Systems (FPSs) of multiple countries.

• India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) will be linked with the FPSs of Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand, with potential expansion to more countries. (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 2 is correct.)

• Conceptualized by the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) Innovation Hub, Project Nexus aims to standardize connectivity between different instant payment systems (IPS) globally. (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)

• This initiative will streamline cross-border payments, allowing transactions to be completed within 60 seconds.

• The platform simplifies the process by enabling a single connection to Nexus, linking all participating countries, thereby accelerating the growth of instant cross-border payments.

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points Botswana shares a land border with which of the following countries? (a) South Africa, Namibia, Zimbabwe, and Zambia (b) Angola, Namibia, Zimbabwe, and Zambia (c) South Africa, Mozambique, Zimbabwe, and Zambia (d) Malawi, Namibia, Zimbabwe, and Angola Correct Solution: A Botswana: Botswana is a landlocked country in Southern Africa, predominantly inhabited by the Tswana ethnic group. Borders South Africa, Namibia, and Zimbabwe, and is connected to Zambia via the Kazungula Bridge. (Hence, option A is correct.) Major geographical features: Kalahari Desert covers a large part of the country. Okavango Delta, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, becomes a lush animal habitat during seasonal floods. Central Kalahari Game Reserve is home to giraffes, cheetahs, hyenas, wild dogs, and other wildlife. Incorrect Solution: A Botswana: Botswana is a landlocked country in Southern Africa, predominantly inhabited by the Tswana ethnic group. Borders South Africa, Namibia, and Zimbabwe, and is connected to Zambia via the Kazungula Bridge. (Hence, option A is correct.) Major geographical features: Kalahari Desert covers a large part of the country. Okavango Delta, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, becomes a lush animal habitat during seasonal floods. Central Kalahari Game Reserve is home to giraffes, cheetahs, hyenas, wild dogs, and other wildlife.

#### 25. Question

Botswana shares a land border with which of the following countries?

• (a) South Africa, Namibia, Zimbabwe, and Zambia

• (b) Angola, Namibia, Zimbabwe, and Zambia

• (c) South Africa, Mozambique, Zimbabwe, and Zambia

• (d) Malawi, Namibia, Zimbabwe, and Angola

Solution: A

Botswana:

• Botswana is a landlocked country in Southern Africa, predominantly inhabited by the Tswana ethnic group.

• Borders South Africa, Namibia, and Zimbabwe, and is connected to Zambia via the Kazungula Bridge. (Hence, option A is correct.)

• Major geographical features: Kalahari Desert covers a large part of the country. Okavango Delta, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, becomes a lush animal habitat during seasonal floods.

• Kalahari Desert covers a large part of the country.

• Okavango Delta, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, becomes a lush animal habitat during seasonal floods.

• Central Kalahari Game Reserve is home to giraffes, cheetahs, hyenas, wild dogs, and other wildlife.

Solution: A

Botswana:

• Botswana is a landlocked country in Southern Africa, predominantly inhabited by the Tswana ethnic group.

• Borders South Africa, Namibia, and Zimbabwe, and is connected to Zambia via the Kazungula Bridge. (Hence, option A is correct.)

• Major geographical features: Kalahari Desert covers a large part of the country. Okavango Delta, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, becomes a lush animal habitat during seasonal floods.

• Kalahari Desert covers a large part of the country.

• Okavango Delta, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, becomes a lush animal habitat during seasonal floods.

• Central Kalahari Game Reserve is home to giraffes, cheetahs, hyenas, wild dogs, and other wildlife.

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points The metaverse is a concept from science fiction that many people in the technology industry envision as the successor to today’s internet. It’s only a vision at this point, but technology companies like Facebook are aiming to make it the setting for many online activities, including work, play, studying and shopping. Facebook is so sold on the concept that it is renaming itself, Meta, to highlight its push to dominate the metaverse. Metaverse is a portmanteau of meta, meaning transcendent, and verse, from the universe. Sci-fi novelist Neal Stephenson coined the term in his 1992 novel “Snow Crash” to describe the virtual world in which the protagonist, Hiro Protagonist, socializes, shops and vanquishes real-world enemies through his avatar. The concept predates “Snow Crash” and was popularized as “cyberspace” in William Gibson’s groundbreaking 1984 novel “Neuromancer.” If the metaverse does become a reality, who builds it, and how, is extremely important to the future of the economy and society as a whole. Facebook is aiming to play a leading role in shaping the metaverse, in part by investing heavily in virtual reality. Which one of the below statements *captures the essenceof the passage? The way people socialize in society will change if technology related to the metaverse is realized. The boundary between the virtual world and the real world will become lesser when metaverse is implemented. There is a need to standardize and regulate the growth and trajectory of metaverse technology in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only. c) 2 and 3 only. d) All of the above. Correct Correct Option: D Justification: Statements 1 and 2 are correct since the metaverse would fundamentally change how people would operate in the virtual world. There would be greater immersion when the metaverse is realized. Both statements 1 and 2 capture this essence. Statement 3 is also correct since, in the last part of the passage, there is a rather indirect reference to what appears the need to regulate the growth of metaverse in the society. Incorrect Correct Option: D Justification:* Statements 1 and 2 are correct since the metaverse would fundamentally change how people would operate in the virtual world. There would be greater immersion when the metaverse is realized. Both statements 1 and 2 capture this essence. Statement 3 is also correct since, in the last part of the passage, there is a rather indirect reference to what appears the need to regulate the growth of metaverse in the society.

#### 26. Question

The metaverse is a concept from science fiction that many people in the technology industry envision as the successor to today’s internet. It’s only a vision at this point, but technology companies like Facebook are aiming to make it the setting for many online activities, including work, play, studying and shopping. Facebook is so sold on the concept that it is renaming itself, Meta, to highlight its push to dominate the metaverse.

Metaverse is a portmanteau of meta, meaning transcendent, and verse, from the universe. Sci-fi novelist Neal Stephenson coined the term in his 1992 novel “Snow Crash” to describe the virtual world in which the protagonist, Hiro Protagonist, socializes, shops and vanquishes real-world enemies through his avatar. The concept predates “Snow Crash” and was popularized as “cyberspace” in William Gibson’s groundbreaking 1984 novel “Neuromancer.”

If the metaverse does become a reality, who builds it, and how, is extremely important to the future of the economy and society as a whole. Facebook is aiming to play a leading role in shaping the metaverse, in part by investing heavily in virtual reality.

Which one of the below statements *captures the essence*of the passage?

• The way people socialize in society will change if technology related to the metaverse is realized.

• The boundary between the virtual world and the real world will become lesser when metaverse is implemented.

• There is a need to standardize and regulate the growth and trajectory of metaverse technology in the world.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 only

• b) 1 and 2 only.

• c) 2 and 3 only.

• d) All of the above.

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct since the metaverse would fundamentally change how people would operate in the virtual world. There would be greater immersion when the metaverse is realized. Both statements 1 and 2 capture this essence.

Statement 3 is also correct since, in the last part of the passage, there is a rather indirect reference to what appears the need to regulate the growth of metaverse in the society.

Correct Option: D

Justification:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct since the metaverse would fundamentally change how people would operate in the virtual world. There would be greater immersion when the metaverse is realized. Both statements 1 and 2 capture this essence.

Statement 3 is also correct since, in the last part of the passage, there is a rather indirect reference to what appears the need to regulate the growth of metaverse in the society.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points A milkman bought 15 litres of milk and mixed it with 3 litres of mineral water (which is not free). He claims to his customers, who do not know about mixing, that he is making a profit of 10% only. However, his actual profit is 20%. What is the ratio of the cost of milk/litre and water/litre. a) 2:3 b) 3:4 c) 2:1 d) 3:2 Correct Correct Option: C Justification: Let the CP of milk be Rs. 100/litre As he is claiming 10% profit, SP of the total mixture = Rs. [(15 + 3) 110] = Rs. 1980 Actual profit = 20% Let actual CP be Rs. x. Then, x + 20% of x = Rs. 1980 Solving for x, we get x = Rs. 1650 So, Actual CP = Total CP of milk + Total CP of water Or, Total CP of water = Rs. 1650 – (15 100) = Rs. 150 Or, CP of water = Rs. 50/litre Required ratio = 100:50 = 2:1 Hence, option C is correct. Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: Let the CP of milk be Rs. 100/litre As he is claiming 10% profit, SP of the total mixture = Rs. [(15 + 3) 110] = Rs. 1980 Actual profit = 20% Let actual CP be Rs. x. Then, x + 20% of x = Rs. 1980 Solving for x, we get x = Rs. 1650 So, Actual CP = Total CP of milk + Total CP of water Or, Total CP of water = Rs. 1650 – (15 100) = Rs. 150 Or, CP of water = Rs. 50/litre Required ratio = 100:50 = 2:1 Hence, option C is correct.

#### 27. Question

A milkman bought 15 litres of milk and mixed it with 3 litres of mineral water (which is not free). He claims to his customers, who do not know about mixing, that he is making a profit of 10% only. However, his actual profit is 20%. What is the ratio of the cost of milk/litre and water/litre.

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Let the CP of milk be Rs. 100/litre

As he is claiming 10% profit, SP of the total mixture = Rs. [(15 + 3) * 110] = Rs. 1980

Actual profit = 20%

Let actual CP be Rs. x.

Then, x + 20% of x = Rs. 1980

Solving for x, we get x = Rs. 1650

So, Actual CP = Total CP of milk + Total CP of water

Or, Total CP of water = Rs. 1650 – (15 * 100) = Rs. 150

Or, CP of water = Rs. 50/litre

Required ratio = 100:50 = 2:1

Hence, option C is correct.

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Let the CP of milk be Rs. 100/litre

As he is claiming 10% profit, SP of the total mixture = Rs. [(15 + 3) * 110] = Rs. 1980

Actual profit = 20%

Let actual CP be Rs. x.

Then, x + 20% of x = Rs. 1980

Solving for x, we get x = Rs. 1650

So, Actual CP = Total CP of milk + Total CP of water

Or, Total CP of water = Rs. 1650 – (15 * 100) = Rs. 150

Or, CP of water = Rs. 50/litre

Required ratio = 100:50 = 2:1

Hence, option C is correct.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points Anunay is climbing up the moving escalator that is going up. He takes 90 steps to reach the top while Vineet is coming down the same escalator. The ratio of the speed of Anunay and Vineet is 5:7. If both of them start together and take the same time to reach the other end of the escalator then find out the number of steps in the escalator. a) 110 b) 108 c) 106 d) 104 Correct Correct Option: B Justification: Let the speed of Anunay and Vineet be ‘ 5x’ and ‘7x ‘ steps per second respectively. Let escalator’s speed be ” y” steps per second. Let “t” be the time taken to reach at the other end by Anunay and Vineet. Total equivalent number of steps taken by Anunay considering the help of escalator =5xt + yt Total equivalent number of steps taken by Vineet considering the resistance from escalator =7xt − yt On equating the number of steps, we get ⇒ 5xt + yt = 7xt − yt ⇒ 2xt = 2yt ⇒ x = y When Anunay takes 90 steps, the escalator would have moved by 90y/5x steps i.e.90/5=18 steps in the same time. Therefore, the number of steps in the escalator = 90+18 = 108. Incorrect Correct Option: B Justification: Let the speed of Anunay and Vineet be ‘ 5x’ and ‘7x ‘ steps per second respectively. Let escalator’s speed be ” y” steps per second. Let “t” be the time taken to reach at the other end by Anunay and Vineet. Total equivalent number of steps taken by Anunay considering the help of escalator =5xt + yt Total equivalent number of steps taken by Vineet considering the resistance from escalator =7xt − yt On equating the number of steps, we get ⇒ 5xt + yt = 7xt − yt ⇒ 2xt = 2yt ⇒ x = y When Anunay takes 90 steps, the escalator would have moved by 90y/5x steps i.e.90/5=18 steps in the same time. Therefore, the number of steps in the escalator = 90+18 = 108.

#### 28. Question

Anunay is climbing up the moving escalator that is going up. He takes 90 steps to reach the top while Vineet is coming down the same escalator. The ratio of the speed of Anunay and Vineet is 5:7. If both of them start together and take the same time to reach the other end of the escalator then find out the number of steps in the escalator.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Let the speed of Anunay and Vineet be ‘ 5x’ and ‘7x ‘ steps per second respectively.

Let escalator’s speed be ” y” steps per second.

Let “t” be the time taken to reach at the other end by Anunay and Vineet.

Total equivalent number of steps taken by Anunay considering the help of escalator =5xt + yt

Total equivalent number of steps taken by Vineet considering the resistance from escalator =7xt − yt

On equating the number of steps, we get

⇒ 5xt + yt = 7xt − yt

⇒ 2xt = 2yt

⇒ x = y

When Anunay takes 90 steps, the escalator would have moved by 90y/5x steps

i.e.90/5=18 steps in the same time.

Therefore, the number of steps in the escalator = 90+18 = 108.

Correct Option: B

Justification:

Let the speed of Anunay and Vineet be ‘ 5x’ and ‘7x ‘ steps per second respectively.

Let escalator’s speed be ” y” steps per second.

Let “t” be the time taken to reach at the other end by Anunay and Vineet.

Total equivalent number of steps taken by Anunay considering the help of escalator =5xt + yt

Total equivalent number of steps taken by Vineet considering the resistance from escalator =7xt − yt

On equating the number of steps, we get

⇒ 5xt + yt = 7xt − yt

⇒ 2xt = 2yt

⇒ x = y

When Anunay takes 90 steps, the escalator would have moved by 90y/5x steps

i.e.90/5=18 steps in the same time.

Therefore, the number of steps in the escalator = 90+18 = 108.

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Anil mixes cocoa with sugar in the ratio 3:2 to prepare mixture A, and coffee with sugar in the ratio 7:3 to prepare mixture B. He combines mixtures A and B in the ratio 2:3 to make a new mixture C. If he mixes C with an equal amount of milk to make a drink, then the percentage of sugar in this drink will be? a) 17% b) 16% c) 21% d) 24% Correct Correct Option: A Justification: Let the volume of mixture A be 200 ml, which implies the quantity of cocoa in the mixture is 120 ml, and the quantity of sugar In the mixture 80 ml. Similarly, let the volume of the mixture be 300 ml, which implies the quantity of coffee, and sugar in the mixture is 210, and 90 ml, respectively. Now we combine mixture A, and B in the ratio of 2:3 (if 200 ml mixture A, then 300 ml of mixture B). Hence, the volume of the mixture C is (200+300) = 500 ml, and the quantity of the sugar is (90+80) = 170 ml. Now he mixes C with an equal amount of milk to make a drink, which implies the quantity of the final mixture is (500+500) = 1000 ml. The quantity of sugar in the final mixture is 170 ml. Hence, the percentage is 17% The correct option is A Incorrect Correct Option: A Justification: Let the volume of mixture A be 200 ml, which implies the quantity of cocoa in the mixture is 120 ml, and the quantity of sugar In the mixture 80 ml. Similarly, let the volume of the mixture be 300 ml, which implies the quantity of coffee, and sugar in the mixture is 210, and 90 ml, respectively. Now we combine mixture A, and B in the ratio of 2:3 (if 200 ml mixture A, then 300 ml of mixture B). Hence, the volume of the mixture C is (200+300) = 500 ml, and the quantity of the sugar is (90+80) = 170 ml. Now he mixes C with an equal amount of milk to make a drink, which implies the quantity of the final mixture is (500+500) = 1000 ml. The quantity of sugar in the final mixture is 170 ml. Hence, the percentage is 17% The correct option is A

#### 29. Question

Anil mixes cocoa with sugar in the ratio 3:2 to prepare mixture A, and coffee with sugar in the ratio 7:3 to prepare mixture B. He combines mixtures A and B in the ratio 2:3 to make a new mixture C. If he mixes C with an equal amount of milk to make a drink, then the percentage of sugar in this drink will be?

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Let the volume of mixture A be 200 ml, which implies the quantity of cocoa in the mixture is 120 ml, and the quantity of sugar In the mixture 80 ml. Similarly, let the volume of the mixture be 300 ml, which implies the quantity of coffee, and sugar in the mixture is 210, and 90 ml, respectively. Now we combine mixture A, and B in the ratio of 2:3 (if 200 ml mixture A, then 300 ml of mixture B). Hence, the volume of the mixture C is (200+300) = 500 ml, and the quantity of the sugar is (90+80) = 170 ml. Now he mixes C with an equal amount of milk to make a drink, which implies the quantity of the final mixture is (500+500) = 1000 ml. The quantity of sugar in the final mixture is 170 ml. Hence, the percentage is 17% The correct option is A

Correct Option: A

Justification:

Let the volume of mixture A be 200 ml, which implies the quantity of cocoa in the mixture is 120 ml, and the quantity of sugar In the mixture 80 ml. Similarly, let the volume of the mixture be 300 ml, which implies the quantity of coffee, and sugar in the mixture is 210, and 90 ml, respectively. Now we combine mixture A, and B in the ratio of 2:3 (if 200 ml mixture A, then 300 ml of mixture B). Hence, the volume of the mixture C is (200+300) = 500 ml, and the quantity of the sugar is (90+80) = 170 ml. Now he mixes C with an equal amount of milk to make a drink, which implies the quantity of the final mixture is (500+500) = 1000 ml. The quantity of sugar in the final mixture is 170 ml. Hence, the percentage is 17% The correct option is A

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points Two alcohol solutions, A and B, are mixed in the proportion 1:3 by volume. The volume of the mixture is then doubled by adding solution A such that the resulting mixture has 72% alcohol. If solution A has 60% alcohol, then the percentage of alcohol in solution B is a) 90% b) 94% c) 92% d) 89% Correct Correct Option: C Justification: Initially let’s consider A and B as one component The volume of the mixture is doubled by adding A(60% alcohol) i.e they are mixed in 1:1 ratio and the resultant mixture has 72% alcohol. Let the percentage of alcohol in component 1 be ‘x’. Using allegations, (72-60)/(x-72) = 1/1 => x= 84 Percentage of alcohol in A = 60% => Let’s percentage of alcohol in B = x% The resultant mixture has 84% alcohol. ratio = 1:3 Using allegations, (x-84)/(84-60) =1/3 => x= 92% Incorrect Correct Option: C Justification: Initially let’s consider A and B as one component The volume of the mixture is doubled by adding A(60% alcohol) i.e they are mixed in 1:1 ratio and the resultant mixture has 72% alcohol. Let the percentage of alcohol in component 1 be ‘x’. Using allegations, (72-60)/(x-72) = 1/1 => x= 84 Percentage of alcohol in A = 60% => Let’s percentage of alcohol in B = x% The resultant mixture has 84% alcohol. ratio = 1:3 Using allegations, (x-84)/(84-60) =1/3 => x= 92%

#### 30. Question

Two alcohol solutions, A and B, are mixed in the proportion 1:3 by volume. The volume of the mixture is then doubled by adding solution A such that the resulting mixture has 72% alcohol. If solution A has 60% alcohol, then the percentage of alcohol in solution B is

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Initially let’s consider A and B as one component

The volume of the mixture is doubled by adding A(60% alcohol) i.e they are mixed in 1:1 ratio and the resultant mixture has 72% alcohol.

Let the percentage of alcohol in component 1 be ‘x’.

Using allegations, (72-60)/(x-72) = 1/1 => x= 84

Percentage of alcohol in A = 60% => Let’s percentage of alcohol in B = x%

The resultant mixture has 84% alcohol. ratio = 1:3

Using allegations, (x-84)/(84-60) =1/3

Correct Option: C

Justification:

Initially let’s consider A and B as one component

The volume of the mixture is doubled by adding A(60% alcohol) i.e they are mixed in 1:1 ratio and the resultant mixture has 72% alcohol.

Let the percentage of alcohol in component 1 be ‘x’.

Using allegations, (72-60)/(x-72) = 1/1 => x= 84

Percentage of alcohol in A = 60% => Let’s percentage of alcohol in B = x%

The resultant mixture has 84% alcohol. ratio = 1:3

Using allegations, (x-84)/(84-60) =1/3

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