DAY – 10 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – GEOGRAPHY, Subject-wise Test 5,6,20, Textbook-wise Test 8 and August 2023 CA

INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024

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• Question 1 of 30 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: A rare disease is defined as a condition that affects fewer than 200,000 people. India has no definition of rare diseases due to the lack of epidemiological data. Haemophilia and Thalassemia are considered as rare diseases in India. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: A rare disease can be defined as a condition that affects fewer than 200,000 people. The same definition is used by the National Organisation for Rare Disorders (NORD). The US National Institutes of Health (NIH) has listed 7,000 rare diseases. Statement 2 is correct: India does not have a definition of rare diseases because there is a lack of epidemiological data on their incidence and prevalence. Rare diseases include genetic diseases, rare cancers, infectious tropical diseases, and degenerative diseases. Statement 3 is correct: In India, roughly 450 rare diseases have been recorded from tertiary hospitals, of which the most common are Haemophilia, Thalassemia, Sickle-cell anaemia, auto-immune diseases, Gaucher’s disease, and cystic fibrosis. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Genetic diseases Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: A rare disease can be defined as a condition that affects fewer than 200,000 people. The same definition is used by the National Organisation for Rare Disorders (NORD). The US National Institutes of Health (NIH) has listed 7,000 rare diseases. Statement 2 is correct: India does not have a definition of rare diseases because there is a lack of epidemiological data on their incidence and prevalence. Rare diseases include genetic diseases, rare cancers, infectious tropical diseases, and degenerative diseases. Statement 3 is correct: In India, roughly 450 rare diseases have been recorded from tertiary hospitals, of which the most common are Haemophilia, Thalassemia, Sickle-cell anaemia, auto-immune diseases, Gaucher’s disease, and cystic fibrosis. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Genetic diseases Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• A rare disease is defined as a condition that affects fewer than 200,000 people.

• India has no definition of rare diseases due to the lack of epidemiological data.

• Haemophilia and Thalassemia are considered as rare diseases in India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: A rare disease can be defined as a condition that affects fewer than 200,000 people. The same definition is used by the National Organisation for Rare Disorders (NORD). The US National Institutes of Health (NIH) has listed 7,000 rare diseases.

Statement 2 is correct: India does not have a definition of rare diseases because there is a lack of epidemiological data on their incidence and prevalence. Rare diseases include genetic diseases, rare cancers, infectious tropical diseases, and degenerative diseases.

Statement 3 is correct: In India, roughly 450 rare diseases have been recorded from tertiary hospitals, of which the most common are Haemophilia, Thalassemia, Sickle-cell anaemia, auto-immune diseases, Gaucher’s disease, and cystic fibrosis.

Trend: Genetic diseases

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: C

Explanation:

Trend: Genetic diseases

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 2 of 30 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Northern Sea Route: It is the shortest shipping route for freight transportation between Europe and countries of the Asia-Pacific region. The Route begins at the boundary between the Barents and the Kara Seas and ends at the Isthmus of Panama. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Northern Sea Route (NSR), the shortest shipping route for freight transportation between Europe and countries of the Asia-Pacific region, straddles four seas of the Arctic Ocean. Statement 2 is not correct: Running to 5,600 km, the Route begins at the boundary between the Barents and the Kara seas (Kara Strait) and ends in the Bering Strait (Provideniya Bay). Distance savings along the NSR can be as high as 50% compared to the currently used shipping lanes via Suez or Panama.” The 2021 blockage of the Suez Canal, which forms part of the widely-used maritime route involving Europe and Asia, has led to greater attention on the NSR. Source: Geography Trend: Strategic routes and sea lines of communication Approach: Isthmus of Panama lies between Caribbean sea and pacific ocean Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Northern Sea Route (NSR), the shortest shipping route for freight transportation between Europe and countries of the Asia-Pacific region, straddles four seas of the Arctic Ocean. Statement 2 is not correct: Running to 5,600 km, the Route begins at the boundary between the Barents and the Kara seas (Kara Strait) and ends in the Bering Strait (Provideniya Bay). Distance savings along the NSR can be as high as 50% compared to the currently used shipping lanes via Suez or Panama.” The 2021 blockage of the Suez Canal, which forms part of the widely-used maritime route involving Europe and Asia, has led to greater attention on the NSR. Source: Geography Trend: Strategic routes and sea lines of communication Approach: Isthmus of Panama lies between Caribbean sea and pacific ocean

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Northern Sea Route:

• It is the shortest shipping route for freight transportation between Europe and countries of the Asia-Pacific region.

• The Route begins at the boundary between the Barents and the Kara Seas and ends at the Isthmus of Panama.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Northern Sea Route (NSR), the shortest shipping route for freight transportation between Europe and countries of the Asia-Pacific region, straddles four seas of the Arctic Ocean.

Statement 2 is not correct: Running to 5,600 km, the Route begins at the boundary between the Barents and the Kara seas (Kara Strait) and ends in the Bering Strait (Provideniya Bay).

Distance savings along the NSR can be as high as 50% compared to the currently used shipping lanes via Suez or Panama.”

The 2021 blockage of the Suez Canal, which forms part of the widely-used maritime route involving Europe and Asia, has led to greater attention on the NSR.

Trend: Strategic routes and sea lines of communication

Approach: Isthmus of Panama lies between Caribbean sea and pacific ocean

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 2 is not correct: Running to 5,600 km, the Route begins at the boundary between the Barents and the Kara seas (Kara Strait) and ends in the Bering Strait (Provideniya Bay).

Distance savings along the NSR can be as high as 50% compared to the currently used shipping lanes via Suez or Panama.”

The 2021 blockage of the Suez Canal, which forms part of the widely-used maritime route involving Europe and Asia, has led to greater attention on the NSR.

Trend: Strategic routes and sea lines of communication

Approach: Isthmus of Panama lies between Caribbean sea and pacific ocean

• Question 3 of 30 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statement: It is an initiative/Programme by the Indian Government to set up Compressed Biogas production plants, and make it available for market use for automotive by inviting expressions of interest through potential investors. The Initiative/Programme is- (a) The SATAT Initiative (b) The PM KUSUM Programme (c) The MISHTI Initiative (d) The PM-PRANAM Programme Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The SATAT Scheme (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) is an initiative by the government of India with the objective of setting up Compressed Biogas production plants, and make it available for market use for automotive by inviting expression of interest through potential investors. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Option (a) is correct: The SATAT Scheme (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) is an initiative by the government of India with the objective of setting up Compressed Biogas production plants, and make it available for market use for automotive by inviting expression of interest through potential investors. Source: Current Affairs Trend: Schemes in news Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statement:

It is an initiative/Programme by the Indian Government to set up Compressed Biogas production plants, and make it available for market use for automotive by inviting expressions of interest through potential investors.

The Initiative/Programme is-

• (a) The SATAT Initiative

• (b) The PM KUSUM Programme

• (c) The MISHTI Initiative

• (d) The PM-PRANAM Programme

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The SATAT Scheme (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) is an initiative by the government of India with the objective of setting up Compressed Biogas production plants, and make it available for market use for automotive by inviting expression of interest through potential investors.

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 4 of 30 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Gulf Cooperation Council: It was formed by an agreement among Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Iran, and Iraq. It is a political union comprising of all the Arab countries of the Persian Gulf. It aims to have a common market and a single economic nationality. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The GCC was formed in 1981 by an agreement among Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Oman, Kuwait, Qatar and the United Arab Emirates (UAE), that was concluded in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. Statement 2 is not correct: It is an economic and political union comprising of all the Arab countries of the Persian Gulf except Iraq. The six members of the GCC are Saudi Arabia (absolute monarchy), Qatar (constitutional monarchy), Oman (absolute monarchy), UAE (federal monarchy), Bahrain, and Kuwait (constitutional monarchies). Statement 3 is correct: The GCC aims of having a common market and economic nationality by making plans to have a single currency. Such a currency may be known as Khaleeji. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International Bodies Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: A Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The GCC was formed in 1981 by an agreement among Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Oman, Kuwait, Qatar and the United Arab Emirates (UAE), that was concluded in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. Statement 2 is not correct: It is an economic and political union comprising of all the Arab countries of the Persian Gulf except Iraq. The six members of the GCC are Saudi Arabia (absolute monarchy), Qatar (constitutional monarchy), Oman (absolute monarchy), UAE (federal monarchy), Bahrain, and Kuwait (constitutional monarchies). Statement 3 is correct: The GCC aims of having a common market and economic nationality by making plans to have a single currency. Such a currency may be known as Khaleeji. Source: Current Affairs Trend: International Bodies Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Gulf Cooperation Council:

• It was formed by an agreement among Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Iran, and Iraq.

• It is a political union comprising of all the Arab countries of the Persian Gulf.

• It aims to have a common market and a single economic nationality.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: The GCC was formed in 1981 by an agreement among Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Oman, Kuwait, Qatar and the United Arab Emirates (UAE), that was concluded in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.

Statement 2 is not correct: It is an economic and political union comprising of all the Arab countries of the Persian Gulf except Iraq.

The six members of the GCC are Saudi Arabia (absolute monarchy), Qatar (constitutional monarchy), Oman (absolute monarchy), UAE (federal monarchy), Bahrain, and Kuwait (constitutional monarchies).

Statement 3 is correct: The GCC aims of having a common market and economic nationality by making plans to have a single currency. Such a currency may be known as Khaleeji.

Trend: International Bodies

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 2 is not correct: It is an economic and political union comprising of all the Arab countries of the Persian Gulf except Iraq.

The six members of the GCC are Saudi Arabia (absolute monarchy), Qatar (constitutional monarchy), Oman (absolute monarchy), UAE (federal monarchy), Bahrain, and Kuwait (constitutional monarchies).

Statement 3 is correct: The GCC aims of having a common market and economic nationality by making plans to have a single currency. Such a currency may be known as Khaleeji.

Trend: International Bodies

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 5 of 30 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the River Cities Alliance: It is open to all the river cities of the Indian Subcontinent. It has been formulated under the Ganga-Mekong Cooperation. It is indicative of the commercial linkages among the member countries. Which of the statements given above is/are *not correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: C Explanation: The River Cities Alliance (RCA) has been launched with the objective to provide the member cities with a platform to discuss and exchange information on aspects that are vital for sustainable management of urban rivers, sharing best practices and supporting innovation. Statement 1 is correct: The Alliance is open to all river cities of India. Any river city can join the Alliance at any time. The alliance has been launched initially with 30 cities State Governments are implementing Action Plans for restoration of water quality of the identified polluted river stretches. Statement 2 is not correct: RCA is envisaged as a facilitatory platform for initiating river-sensitive planning and development. Namami Gange through its integrated and comprehensive framework has been working towards rejuvenating Ganga river basin. As cities start to implement the river-sensitive development agenda, the River Cities Alliance will support them to learn from each other and inspire others to take up progressive action on this front. Statement 3 is not correct: The alliance was launched initially with 30 Indian cities and hence does not cover any member countries. Source: Current Affairs Trend: schemes/initiatives in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: C Explanation: The River Cities Alliance (RCA) has been launched with the objective to provide the member cities with a platform to discuss and exchange information on aspects that are vital for sustainable management of urban rivers, sharing best practices and supporting innovation. Statement 1 is correct: The Alliance is open to all river cities of India. Any river city can join the Alliance at any time. The alliance has been launched initially with 30 cities State Governments are implementing Action Plans for restoration of water quality of the identified polluted river stretches. Statement 2 is not correct: RCA is envisaged as a facilitatory platform for initiating river-sensitive planning and development. Namami Gange through its integrated and comprehensive framework has been working towards rejuvenating Ganga river basin. As cities start to implement the river-sensitive development agenda, the River Cities Alliance will support them to learn from each other and inspire others to take up progressive action on this front. Statement 3 is not correct:* The alliance was launched initially with 30 Indian cities and hence does not cover any member countries. Source: Current Affairs Trend: schemes/initiatives in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the River Cities Alliance:

• It is open to all the river cities of the Indian Subcontinent.

• It has been formulated under the Ganga-Mekong Cooperation.

• It is indicative of the commercial linkages among the member countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are *not* correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

The River Cities Alliance (RCA) has been launched with the objective to provide the member cities with a platform to discuss and exchange information on aspects that are vital for sustainable management of urban rivers, sharing best practices and supporting innovation.

Statement 1 is correct: The Alliance is open to all river cities of India. Any river city can join the Alliance at any time. The alliance has been launched initially with 30 cities

State Governments are implementing Action Plans for restoration of water quality of the identified polluted river stretches.

Statement 2 is not correct: RCA is envisaged as a facilitatory platform for initiating river-sensitive planning and development. Namami Gange through its integrated and comprehensive framework has been working towards rejuvenating Ganga river basin.

As cities start to implement the river-sensitive development agenda, the River Cities Alliance will support them to learn from each other and inspire others to take up progressive action on this front.

Statement 3 is not correct: The alliance was launched initially with 30 Indian cities and hence does not cover any member countries.

Trend: schemes/initiatives in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Alliance is open to all river cities of India. Any river city can join the Alliance at any time. The alliance has been launched initially with 30 cities

State Governments are implementing Action Plans for restoration of water quality of the identified polluted river stretches.

Statement 3 is not correct: The alliance was launched initially with 30 Indian cities and hence does not cover any member countries.

Trend: schemes/initiatives in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 6 of 30 6. Question 1 points Consider the following Biosphere Reserves: Nanda Devi Sundarbans Simlipal Pachmarhi How many of the above are part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: D What are Biosphere reserves? Biosphere reserves are areas designated by UNESCO to promote the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable development, and scientific research. They consist of three zones: a core zone for the strict protection of ecosystems a buffer zone where people live and work in harmony with nature a transition zone for sustainable activities. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: National Parks and Biosphere Reserves Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: D What are Biosphere reserves? Biosphere reserves are areas designated by UNESCO to promote the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable development, and scientific research. They consist of three zones: a core zone for the strict protection of ecosystems a buffer zone where people live and work in harmony with nature a transition zone for sustainable activities. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: National Parks and Biosphere Reserves Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 6. Question

Consider the following Biosphere Reserves:

• Nanda Devi

• Sundarbans

How many of the above are part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: D

What are Biosphere reserves?

Biosphere reserves are areas designated by UNESCO to promote the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable development, and scientific research. They consist of three zones:

• a core zone for the strict protection of ecosystems

• a buffer zone where people live and work in harmony with nature

• a transition zone for sustainable activities.

Trend: National Parks and Biosphere Reserves

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: D

What are Biosphere reserves?

Biosphere reserves are areas designated by UNESCO to promote the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable development, and scientific research. They consist of three zones:

• a core zone for the strict protection of ecosystems

• a buffer zone where people live and work in harmony with nature

• a transition zone for sustainable activities.

Trend: National Parks and Biosphere Reserves

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 7 of 30 7. Question 1 points The Brahmaputra River enters India through which state? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam (c) West Bengal (d) Sikkim Correct Solution: A The Brahmaputra Valley has an average width of about 80 Km. The main river of the valley, Brahmaputra is one of the largest rivers in the world and rank fifth with respect to its average discharge. The river originates from the Kailash ranges of Himalayas at an elevation of 5300 M. After flowing through Tibet it enters India through Arunachal Pradesh and flows through Assam and Bangladesh before it joins Bay of Bengal. Source: Geography Trend: River system and drainage pattern Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: A The Brahmaputra Valley has an average width of about 80 Km. The main river of the valley, Brahmaputra is one of the largest rivers in the world and rank fifth with respect to its average discharge. The river originates from the Kailash ranges of Himalayas at an elevation of 5300 M. After flowing through Tibet it enters India through Arunachal Pradesh and flows through Assam and Bangladesh before it joins Bay of Bengal. Source: Geography Trend: River system and drainage pattern Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 7. Question

The Brahmaputra River enters India through which state?

• (a) Arunachal Pradesh

• (c) West Bengal

• (d) Sikkim

Solution: A

The Brahmaputra Valley has an average width of about 80 Km. The main river of the valley, Brahmaputra is one of the largest rivers in the world and rank fifth with respect to its average discharge. The river originates from the Kailash ranges of Himalayas at an elevation of 5300 M. After flowing through Tibet it enters India through Arunachal Pradesh and flows through Assam and Bangladesh before it joins Bay of Bengal.

Trend: River system and drainage pattern

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: A

Trend: River system and drainage pattern

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 8 of 30 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The retreating monsoon season is generally characterized by dry weather in most parts of India. The Rabi crop season in India coincides with the southwest monsoon. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A The retreating monsoon, or the Northeast monsoon, is the phase of the monsoon season in India that is generally marked by the withdrawal of the Southwest monsoon, occurring approximately between October and December. As the Southwest monsoon winds retreat from the northern parts of India, they typically take the moisture with them, leading to a decrease in rainfall and thereby resulting in drier weather conditions for most parts of India. However, it’s important to note that this does not apply to the entire country. The Northeast monsoon can bring significant rainfall to some parts of South India, particularly the eastern coast of Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Rabi crop season in India generally runs from October to March. The sowing of Rabi crops begins around the time the southwest monsoon winds retreat, and harvesting takes place in the spring. Rabi crops depend on the winter rainfall from the western disturbances in the north and the retreating northeast monsoon in the southeast. Thus, Rabi crops do not coincide with the southwest monsoon, which occurs from June to September and is crucial for the Kharif cropping season. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Source: Geography Trend: Questions on Monsoon have been recurrent in UPSC prelims Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Solution: A The retreating monsoon, or the Northeast monsoon, is the phase of the monsoon season in India that is generally marked by the withdrawal of the Southwest monsoon, occurring approximately between October and December. As the Southwest monsoon winds retreat from the northern parts of India, they typically take the moisture with them, leading to a decrease in rainfall and thereby resulting in drier weather conditions for most parts of India. However, it’s important to note that this does not apply to the entire country. The Northeast monsoon can bring significant rainfall to some parts of South India, particularly the eastern coast of Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Rabi crop season in India generally runs from October to March. The sowing of Rabi crops begins around the time the southwest monsoon winds retreat, and harvesting takes place in the spring. Rabi crops depend on the winter rainfall from the western disturbances in the north and the retreating northeast monsoon in the southeast. Thus, Rabi crops do not coincide with the southwest monsoon, which occurs from June to September and is crucial for the Kharif cropping season. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Source: Geography Trend: Questions on Monsoon have been recurrent in UPSC prelims Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The retreating monsoon season is generally characterized by dry weather in most parts of India.

• The Rabi crop season in India coincides with the southwest monsoon.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

The retreating monsoon, or the Northeast monsoon, is the phase of the monsoon season in India that is generally marked by the withdrawal of the Southwest monsoon, occurring approximately between October and December.

As the Southwest monsoon winds retreat from the northern parts of India, they typically take the moisture with them, leading to a decrease in rainfall and thereby resulting in drier weather conditions for most parts of India. However, it’s important to note that this does not apply to the entire country. The Northeast monsoon can bring significant rainfall to some parts of South India, particularly the eastern coast of Tamil Nadu.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Rabi crop season in India generally runs from October to March. The sowing of Rabi crops begins around the time the southwest monsoon winds retreat, and harvesting takes place in the spring. Rabi crops depend on the winter rainfall from the western disturbances in the north and the retreating northeast monsoon in the southeast. Thus, Rabi crops do not coincide with the southwest monsoon, which occurs from June to September and is crucial for the Kharif cropping season.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Trend: Questions on Monsoon have been recurrent in UPSC prelims

Approach: Applied knowledge

Solution: A

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Trend: Questions on Monsoon have been recurrent in UPSC prelims

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 9 of 30 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Bauxite is the primary ore for aluminium and is predominantly found in the Eastern Ghats. Jharia in Jharkhand is one of the largest coal reserves in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements are correct. Bauxite is indeed the primary ore from which aluminium is extracted. In India, bauxite deposits are predominantly found in the hilly regions of the Eastern Ghats, as well as the Western Ghats, and the plateau region of the country. Significant bauxite reserves are located in states like Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Gujarat, among others, many of which are part of the Eastern Ghats range. Jharia is well-known for its rich coalfields and is one of the largest coal reserves in India. It has been mining coal for over a century and has some of the highest-quality bituminous coal in India. The coal mines in the Jharia Coalfield are managed by the Bharat Coking Coal Limited (BCCL), and this area is also infamous for its continuing series of underground coal fire. Source: Geography Trend: Important minerals and associated region Approach: chotanagpur plateau region is rich in mineral resources Incorrect Solution: C Both statements are correct. Bauxite is indeed the primary ore from which aluminium is extracted. In India, bauxite deposits are predominantly found in the hilly regions of the Eastern Ghats, as well as the Western Ghats, and the plateau region of the country. Significant bauxite reserves are located in states like Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Gujarat, among others, many of which are part of the Eastern Ghats range. Jharia is well-known for its rich coalfields and is one of the largest coal reserves in India. It has been mining coal for over a century and has some of the highest-quality bituminous coal in India. The coal mines in the Jharia Coalfield are managed by the Bharat Coking Coal Limited (BCCL), and this area is also infamous for its continuing series of underground coal fire. Source: Geography Trend: Important minerals and associated region Approach: chotanagpur plateau region is rich in mineral resources

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Bauxite is the primary ore for aluminium and is predominantly found in the Eastern Ghats.

• Jharia in Jharkhand is one of the largest coal reserves in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

Bauxite is indeed the primary ore from which aluminium is extracted. In India, bauxite deposits are predominantly found in the hilly regions of the Eastern Ghats, as well as the Western Ghats, and the plateau region of the country. Significant bauxite reserves are located in states like Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Gujarat, among others, many of which are part of the Eastern Ghats range.

Jharia is well-known for its rich coalfields and is one of the largest coal reserves in India. It has been mining coal for over a century and has some of the highest-quality bituminous coal in India. The coal mines in the Jharia Coalfield are managed by the Bharat Coking Coal Limited (BCCL), and this area is also infamous for its continuing series of underground coal fire.

Trend: Important minerals and associated region

Approach: chotanagpur plateau region is rich in mineral resources

Solution: C

Both statements are correct.

Trend: Important minerals and associated region

Approach: chotanagpur plateau region is rich in mineral resources

• Question 10 of 30 10. Question 1 points Which one of the following tribal groups is primarily located in the desert regions of Rajasthan? (a) Siddis (b) Chenchus (c) Bhils (d) Maldharis Correct Solution: C The Bhils are one of the largest tribal communities in India and are prominently found in Rajasthan, especially in the southern parts of the state, which includes areas that are part of the Thar Desert region. They are known for their rich cultural heritage, including traditional arts, music, and dance. The Siddi community in India is mainly located in the states of Karnataka, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh. The Chenchu tribe is an indigenous Adivasi tribe of South India, particularly in the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. They are traditionally forest dwellers and hunter-gatherers The Maldharis are a nomadic tribal herdsmen group primarily found in Gujarat. They are known for their pastoral lifestyle, living in the Banni grasslands and the Gir forest Source: Geography Trend: Tribes and PVTGs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: C The Bhils are one of the largest tribal communities in India and are prominently found in Rajasthan, especially in the southern parts of the state, which includes areas that are part of the Thar Desert region. They are known for their rich cultural heritage, including traditional arts, music, and dance. The Siddi community in India is mainly located in the states of Karnataka, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh. The Chenchu tribe is an indigenous Adivasi tribe of South India, particularly in the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. They are traditionally forest dwellers and hunter-gatherers The Maldharis are a nomadic tribal herdsmen group primarily found in Gujarat. They are known for their pastoral lifestyle, living in the Banni grasslands and the Gir forest Source: Geography Trend: Tribes and PVTGs Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 10. Question

Which one of the following tribal groups is primarily located in the desert regions of Rajasthan?

• (a) Siddis

• (b) Chenchus

• (d) Maldharis

Solution: C

The Bhils are one of the largest tribal communities in India and are prominently found in Rajasthan, especially in the southern parts of the state, which includes areas that are part of the Thar Desert region. They are known for their rich cultural heritage, including traditional arts, music, and dance.

The Siddi community in India is mainly located in the states of Karnataka, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh.

The Chenchu tribe is an indigenous Adivasi tribe of South India, particularly in the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. They are traditionally forest dwellers and hunter-gatherers

The Maldharis are a nomadic tribal herdsmen group primarily found in Gujarat. They are known for their pastoral lifestyle, living in the Banni grasslands and the Gir forest

Trend: Tribes and PVTGs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: C

The Siddi community in India is mainly located in the states of Karnataka, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh.

The Chenchu tribe is an indigenous Adivasi tribe of South India, particularly in the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. They are traditionally forest dwellers and hunter-gatherers

The Maldharis are a nomadic tribal herdsmen group primarily found in Gujarat. They are known for their pastoral lifestyle, living in the Banni grasslands and the Gir forest

Trend: Tribes and PVTGs

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 11 of 30 11. Question 1 points Why does earth have a layered structure? a) Because the surface of the Earth melted repeatedly by the impacts of large asteroids. b) Because after the Big Bang, temperature dropped to 4,500K (Kelvin) and gave rise to atomic matter. c) Because the materials that earth is made of is not uniform and differ in their composition. d) None of the above. Correct Answer: c Explanation: The earth has a layered structure. From the outermost end of the atmosphere to the centre of the earth, the material that exists is not uniform. The atmospheric matter has the least density. From the surface to deeper depths, the earth’s interior has different zones and each of these contains materials with different characteristics. During earth’s formation cooling and differentiation of the Earth’s layers occurred. Dense materials sank to the center, forming an iron-nickel rich core. Lighter buoyant silicate-rich magma rose to the surface. The remaining material between the core and the magma formed Earth’s thickest layer, called the mantle, which is composed mainly of iron, magnesium, calcium-rich silicate minerals Eventually, the magma cooled to form a thin layer of silica/aluminum-rich crust. Oceanic crust is composed of dense basalt and gabbro. Continental crust is less dense and has a granitic composition overall. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Option (a) and (b) can be eliminated as they are improbable, the exact figure (4500 k) for drop in temperature cannot be quantified considering the occurrence of the event billions of years ago. Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The earth has a layered structure. From the outermost end of the atmosphere to the centre of the earth, the material that exists is not uniform. The atmospheric matter has the least density. From the surface to deeper depths, the earth’s interior has different zones and each of these contains materials with different characteristics. During earth’s formation cooling and differentiation of the Earth’s layers occurred. Dense materials sank to the center, forming an iron-nickel rich core. Lighter buoyant silicate-rich magma rose to the surface. The remaining material between the core and the magma formed Earth’s thickest layer, called the mantle, which is composed mainly of iron, magnesium, calcium-rich silicate minerals Eventually, the magma cooled to form a thin layer of silica/aluminum-rich crust. Oceanic crust is composed of dense basalt and gabbro. Continental crust is less dense and has a granitic composition overall. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Basic concepts Approach: Option (a) and (b) can be eliminated as they are improbable, the exact figure (4500 k) for drop in temperature cannot be quantified considering the occurrence of the event billions of years ago.

#### 11. Question

Why does earth have a layered structure?

• a) Because the surface of the Earth melted repeatedly by the impacts of large asteroids.

• b) Because after the Big Bang, temperature dropped to 4,500K (Kelvin) and gave rise to atomic matter.

• c) Because the materials that earth is made of is not uniform and differ in their composition.

• d) None of the above.

Explanation:

• The earth has a layered structure. From the outermost end of the atmosphere to the centre of the earth, the material that exists is not uniform. The atmospheric matter has the least density. From the surface to deeper depths, the earth’s interior has different zones and each of these contains materials with different characteristics.

• During earth’s formation cooling and differentiation of the Earth’s layers occurred. Dense materials sank to the center, forming an iron-nickel rich core. Lighter buoyant silicate-rich magma rose to the surface. The remaining material between the core and the magma formed Earth’s thickest layer, called the mantle, which is composed mainly of iron, magnesium, calcium-rich silicate minerals

• Eventually, the magma cooled to form a thin layer of silica/aluminum-rich crust. Oceanic crust is composed of dense basalt and gabbro. Continental crust is less dense and has a granitic composition overall.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

Approach: Option (a) and (b) can be eliminated as they are improbable, the exact figure (4500 k) for drop in temperature cannot be quantified considering the occurrence of the event billions of years ago.

Explanation:

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: Basic concepts

• Question 12 of 30 12. Question 1 points Consider the following: Deep Earth Mining Volcanoes Meteors Seismic activity How many of the above are indirect source of information about earth’s interior? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: b Explanation: The earth’s radius is 6,370 km. No one can reach the centre of the earth and make observations or collect samples of the material. Under such conditions, most of our knowledge about the interior of the earth is largely based on estimates and inferences (indirect). Yet, a part of the information is obtained through direct observations and analysis of materials. Direct sources: Deep earth mining and drilling reveal the nature of rocks deep down the surface. But as mining and drilling are not practically possible beyond a certain depth, they don’t reveal much information about the earth’s interior. Volcanic eruption forms another source of obtaining direct information. As and when the molten material (magma) is thrown onto the surface of the earth, during volcanic eruption it becomes available for laboratory analysis. Indirect sources: Analysis of properties of matter indirectly provides information about the interior. Increase in pressure and temperature with depth: temperature and pressure increase with the increasing distance from the surface towards the interior in deeper depths. Moreover, it is also known that the density of the material also increases with depth. It is possible to find the rate of change of these characteristics. Knowing the total thickness of the earth, scientists have estimated the values of temperature, pressure and the density of materials at different depths. Meteors: Another source of information are meteors that at times reach the earth. The material that becomes available for analysis from meteors, is not from the interior of the earth. The material and the structure observed in the meteors are similar to that of the earth. They are solid bodies developed out of materials same as, or similar to, our planet. Hence, this becomes yet another source of information about the interior of the earth. The other indirect sources include gravitation, magnetic field, and seismic activity: The study of seismic waves provides picture of the layered interior. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The earth’s radius is 6,370 km. No one can reach the centre of the earth and make observations or collect samples of the material. Under such conditions, most of our knowledge about the interior of the earth is largely based on estimates and inferences (indirect). Yet, a part of the information is obtained through direct observations and analysis of materials. Direct sources: Deep earth mining and drilling reveal the nature of rocks deep down the surface. But as mining and drilling are not practically possible beyond a certain depth, they don’t reveal much information about the earth’s interior. Volcanic eruption forms another source of obtaining direct information. As and when the molten material (magma) is thrown onto the surface of the earth, during volcanic eruption it becomes available for laboratory analysis. Indirect sources: Analysis of properties of matter indirectly provides information about the interior. Increase in pressure and temperature with depth: temperature and pressure increase with the increasing distance from the surface towards the interior in deeper depths. Moreover, it is also known that the density of the material also increases with depth. It is possible to find the rate of change of these characteristics. Knowing the total thickness of the earth, scientists have estimated the values of temperature, pressure and the density of materials at different depths. Meteors: Another source of information are meteors that at times reach the earth. The material that becomes available for analysis from meteors, is not from the interior of the earth. The material and the structure observed in the meteors are similar to that of the earth. They are solid bodies developed out of materials same as, or similar to, our planet. Hence, this becomes yet another source of information about the interior of the earth. The other indirect sources include gravitation, magnetic field, and seismic activity: The study of seismic waves provides picture of the layered interior. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: basic concepts Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 12. Question

Consider the following:

• Deep Earth Mining

• Seismic activity

How many of the above are indirect source of information about earth’s interior?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• The earth’s radius is 6,370 km. No one can reach the centre of the earth and make observations or collect samples of the material. Under such conditions, most of our knowledge about the interior of the earth is largely based on estimates and inferences (indirect). Yet, a part of the information is obtained through direct observations and analysis of materials.

• Direct sources:

• Deep earth mining and drilling reveal the nature of rocks deep down the surface. But as mining and drilling are not practically possible beyond a certain depth, they don’t reveal much information about the earth’s interior.

• Volcanic eruption forms another source of obtaining direct information. As and when the molten material (magma) is thrown onto the surface of the earth, during volcanic eruption it becomes available for laboratory analysis.

• Indirect sources: Analysis of properties of matter indirectly provides information about the interior.

• Increase in pressure and temperature with depth: temperature and pressure increase with the increasing distance from the surface towards the interior in deeper depths. Moreover, it is also known that the density of the material also increases with depth. It is possible to find the rate of change of these characteristics. Knowing the total thickness of the earth, scientists have estimated the values of temperature, pressure and the density of materials at different depths.

• Meteors: Another source of information are meteors that at times reach the earth. The material that becomes available for analysis from meteors, is not from the interior of the earth. The material and the structure observed in the meteors are similar to that of the earth. They are solid bodies developed out of materials same as, or similar to, our planet. Hence, this becomes yet another source of information about the interior of the earth.

• The other indirect sources include gravitation, magnetic field, and seismic activity: The study of seismic waves provides picture of the layered interior.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Direct sources:

• Indirect sources: Analysis of properties of matter indirectly provides information about the interior.

• The other indirect sources include gravitation, magnetic field, and seismic activity: The study of seismic waves provides picture of the layered interior.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 13 of 30 13. Question 1 points Why is the gravitation force different at different latitudes? a) Because the materials that composes the interior of earth have different density. b) Because of the distance from the centre at the equator being greater than that at the poles. c) Both (a) and (b). d) Neither (a) nor (b) Correct Answer: c Explanation: The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator. This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator being greater than that at the poles. The gravity values also differ according to the mass of material. The uneven distribution of mass of material within the earth influences this value. The reading of the gravity at different places is influenced by many other factors. These readings differ from the expected values. Such a difference is called gravity anomaly. Gravity anomalies give us information about the distribution of mass of the material in the crust of the earth. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: basic concepts Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: c Explanation: The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator. This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator being greater than that at the poles. The gravity values also differ according to the mass of material. The uneven distribution of mass of material within the earth influences this value. The reading of the gravity at different places is influenced by many other factors. These readings differ from the expected values. Such a difference is called gravity anomaly. Gravity anomalies give us information about the distribution of mass of the material in the crust of the earth. Hence, option (c) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: basic concepts Approach: applied knowledge

#### 13. Question

Why is the gravitation force different at different latitudes?

• a) Because the materials that composes the interior of earth have different density.

• b) Because of the distance from the centre at the equator being greater than that at the poles.

• c) Both (a) and (b).

• d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Explanation:

• The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator.

• This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator being greater than that at the poles.

• The gravity values also differ according to the mass of material. The uneven distribution of mass of material within the earth influences this value. The reading of the gravity at different places is influenced by many other factors. These readings differ from the expected values. Such a difference is called gravity anomaly. Gravity anomalies give us information about the distribution of mass of the material in the crust of the earth.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: applied knowledge

Explanation:

• The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator.

• This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator being greater than that at the poles.

• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 14 of 30 14. Question 1 points Which of the following is the deepest trench in the Indian Ocean? a) Sunda Trench b) Diamantina Trench c) Amirante Trench d) Ob Trench Correct Answer: b Explanation: The Diamantina Trenchis the deepest point in the Indian Ocean. – It is located in the eastern part of the ocean, near the coast of Indonesia. – The trench is roughly 8,047 meters (26,401 feet) deep. It is the deepest trench of the Indian Ocean, deeper than the better-known Sunda/Java Trench. The other significant trenches in the Indian Ocean are Java or Sunda Trench (7,450m deep), Ob Trench (6,875m deep), Mauritius Trench, Amirante Trench etc. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Significant properties of Indian Ocean Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: The Diamantina Trenchis the deepest point in the Indian Ocean. – It is located in the eastern part of the ocean, near the coast of Indonesia. – The trench is roughly 8,047 meters (26,401 feet) deep. It is the deepest trench of the Indian Ocean, deeper than the better-known Sunda/Java Trench. The other significant trenches in the Indian Ocean are Java or Sunda Trench (7,450m deep), Ob Trench (6,875m deep), Mauritius Trench, Amirante Trench etc. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Significant properties of Indian Ocean Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 14. Question

Which of the following is the deepest trench in the Indian Ocean?

• a) Sunda Trench

• b) Diamantina Trench

• c) Amirante Trench

• d) Ob Trench

Explanation:

• The Diamantina Trenchis the deepest point in the Indian Ocean. – It is located in the eastern part of the ocean, near the coast of Indonesia. – The trench is roughly 8,047 meters (26,401 feet) deep. It is the deepest trench of the Indian Ocean, deeper than the better-known Sunda/Java Trench.

• The other significant trenches in the Indian Ocean are Java or Sunda Trench (7,450m deep), Ob Trench (6,875m deep), Mauritius Trench, Amirante Trench etc.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Significant properties of Indian Ocean

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The other significant trenches in the Indian Ocean are Java or Sunda Trench (7,450m deep), Ob Trench (6,875m deep), Mauritius Trench, Amirante Trench etc.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Significant properties of Indian Ocean

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 15 of 30 15. Question 1 points The most explosive volcanoes of the earth which usually tend to collapse on themselves rather than building any tall structure are called as: a) Composite volcanoes b) Caldera volcanoes c) Shield volcanoes d) Mid-oceanic ridge volcanoes Correct Answer: b Explanation: Caldera Volcanoes: These are the most explosive of the earth’s volcanoes. They are usually so explosive that when they erupt they tend to collapse on themselves rather than building any tall structure. The collapsed depressions are called calderas. Their explosiveness indicates that the magma chamber supplying the lava is not only huge but is also in close vicinity. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Volcanoes- basic features Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: b Explanation: Caldera Volcanoes: These are the most explosive of the earth’s volcanoes. They are usually so explosive that when they erupt they tend to collapse on themselves rather than building any tall structure. The collapsed depressions are called calderas. Their explosiveness indicates that the magma chamber supplying the lava is not only huge but is also in close vicinity. Hence, option (b) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: Volcanoes- basic features Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 15. Question

The most explosive volcanoes of the earth which usually tend to collapse on themselves rather than building any tall structure are called as:

• a) Composite volcanoes

• b) Caldera volcanoes

• c) Shield volcanoes

• d) Mid-oceanic ridge volcanoes

Explanation:

• Caldera Volcanoes: These are the most explosive of the earth’s volcanoes. They are usually so explosive that when they erupt they tend to collapse on themselves rather than building any tall structure. The collapsed depressions are called calderas. Their explosiveness indicates that the magma chamber supplying the lava is not only huge but is also in close vicinity.

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Volcanoes- basic features

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Trend: Volcanoes- basic features

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 16 of 30 16. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Primary waves are the fastest among the seismic waves and hence are recorded first on the seismograph. Statement-II: Primary waves are compression waves that apply a force in the direction of propagation and hence transmit their energy quite easily through the medium and thus travel quickly. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Answer: a Explanation: The seismic waves or earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves. Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through the interior of the earth. Hence, the name body waves. There are two types of body waves: P-waves or primary waves (longitudinal in nature ― wave propagation is similar to sound waves), and S-waves or secondary waves (transverse in nature ― wave propagation is similar to ripples on the surface of the water). Why do P-waves travel faster than S-waves? P-waves are about 1.7 times faster than the S-waves. Hence, statement 1 is correct. P-waves are compression waves that apply a force in the direction of propagation and hence transmit their energy quite easily through the medium and thus travel quickly. Hence, statement 2 is correct and is the correct explanation of statement 1. On the other hand, S-waves are transverse waves or shear waves (motion of the medium is perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave) and are hence less easily transmitted through the medium. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The seismic waves or earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves. Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through the interior of the earth. Hence, the name body waves. There are two types of body waves: P-waves or primary waves (longitudinal in nature ― wave propagation is similar to sound waves), and S-waves or secondary waves (transverse in nature ― wave propagation is similar to ripples on the surface of the water). Why do P-waves travel faster than S-waves? P-waves are about 1.7 times faster than the S-waves. Hence, statement 1 is correct. P-waves are compression waves that apply a force in the direction of propagation and hence transmit their energy quite easily through the medium and thus travel quickly. Hence, statement 2 is correct and is the correct explanation of statement 1. On the other hand, S-waves are transverse waves or shear waves (motion of the medium is perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave) and are hence less easily transmitted through the medium. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 16. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Primary waves are the fastest among the seismic waves and hence are recorded first on the seismograph.

Statement-II:

Primary waves are compression waves that apply a force in the direction of propagation and hence transmit their energy quite easily through the medium and thus travel quickly.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

• The seismic waves or earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves.

• Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through the interior of the earth. Hence, the name body waves.

• There are two types of body waves:

• P-waves or primary waves (longitudinal in nature ― wave propagation is similar to sound waves), and

• S-waves or secondary waves (transverse in nature ― wave propagation is similar to ripples on the surface of the water).

• Why do P-waves travel faster than S-waves?

• P-waves are about 1.7 times faster than the S-waves. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• P-waves are compression waves that apply a force in the direction of propagation and hence transmit their energy quite easily through the medium and thus travel quickly. Hence, statement 2 is correct and is the correct explanation of statement 1.

• On the other hand, S-waves are transverse waves or shear waves (motion of the medium is perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave) and are hence less easily transmitted through the medium.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The seismic waves or earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves.

• Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through the interior of the earth. Hence, the name body waves.

• There are two types of body waves:

• P-waves or primary waves (longitudinal in nature ― wave propagation is similar to sound waves), and

• S-waves or secondary waves (transverse in nature ― wave propagation is similar to ripples on the surface of the water).

• Why do P-waves travel faster than S-waves?

• P-waves are about 1.7 times faster than the S-waves. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 17 of 30 17. Question 1 points A Hanging Valley is a landform created due to the action of: a) Wind b) River c) Ocean d) Glacier Correct Answer: d Explanation: A hanging valley is a tributary valley with the floor at a higher relief than the main channel into which it flows. They are most commonly associated with U-shaped valleys when a tributary glacier flows into a glacier of larger volume. The main glacier erodes a deep U-shaped valley with nearly vertical sides while the tributary glacier, with a smaller volume of ice, makes a shallower U-shaped valley. Since the surfaces of the glaciers were originally at the same elevation, the shallower valley appears to be ‘hanging’ above the main valley. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: types of landforms Approach: applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: A hanging valley is a tributary valley with the floor at a higher relief than the main channel into which it flows. They are most commonly associated with U-shaped valleys when a tributary glacier flows into a glacier of larger volume. The main glacier erodes a deep U-shaped valley with nearly vertical sides while the tributary glacier, with a smaller volume of ice, makes a shallower U-shaped valley. Since the surfaces of the glaciers were originally at the same elevation, the shallower valley appears to be ‘hanging’ above the main valley. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: types of landforms Approach: applied knowledge

#### 17. Question

A Hanging Valley is a landform created due to the action of:

• d) Glacier

Explanation:

• A hanging valley is a tributary valley with the floor at a higher relief than the main channel into which it flows. They are most commonly associated with U-shaped valleys when a tributary glacier flows into a glacier of larger volume. The main glacier erodes a deep U-shaped valley with nearly vertical sides while the tributary glacier, with a smaller volume of ice, makes a shallower U-shaped valley. Since the surfaces of the glaciers were originally at the same elevation, the shallower valley appears to be ‘hanging’ above the main valley.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: types of landforms

Approach: applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: types of landforms

Approach: applied knowledge

• Question 18 of 30 18. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Discontinuity Transition Zones Conrad Discontinuity : between upper and lower Crust. Mohorovicic Discontinuity : between the Crust and Mantle. Gutenberg Discontinuity : between Mantle and Core. Lehman Discontinuity : between Outer core and Inner core. Which of the above given pairs are correctly matched? a) 3 and 4 only b) 1,2 and 4 only c) 1,3, and 4 only d) 1,2,3 and 4 Correct Answer: d Explanation: The structure of the earth is divided into four major components: the crust, the mantle, the outer core, and the inner core. Each layer has a unique chemical composition, physical state, and can impact life on Earth’s surface. All these layers are separated from each other through a transition zone. These transition zones are called discontinuities. There are five discontinuities/ Transition Zones inside the earth: Conrad Discontinuity: Transition zone between upper and lower Crust. Mohorovicic Discontinuity: Transition zone between the Crust and Mantle. Repiti Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer mantle and Inner mantle. Gutenberg Discontinuity: Transition zone between Mantle and Core. Lehman Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer core and Inner core. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: The structure of the earth is divided into four major components: the crust, the mantle, the outer core, and the inner core. Each layer has a unique chemical composition, physical state, and can impact life on Earth’s surface. All these layers are separated from each other through a transition zone. These transition zones are called discontinuities. There are five discontinuities/ Transition Zones inside the earth: Conrad Discontinuity: Transition zone between upper and lower Crust. Mohorovicic Discontinuity: Transition zone between the Crust and Mantle. Repiti Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer mantle and Inner mantle. Gutenberg Discontinuity: Transition zone between Mantle and Core. Lehman Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer core and Inner core. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 18. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Discontinuity Transition Zones

• Conrad Discontinuity : between upper and lower Crust.

• Mohorovicic Discontinuity : between the Crust and Mantle.

• Gutenberg Discontinuity : between Mantle and Core.

• Lehman Discontinuity : between Outer core and Inner core.

Which of the above given pairs are correctly matched?

• a) 3 and 4 only

• b) 1,2 and 4 only

• c) 1,3, and 4 only

• d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation:

• The structure of the earth is divided into four major components: the crust, the mantle, the outer core, and the inner core. Each layer has a unique chemical composition, physical state, and can impact life on Earth’s surface. All these layers are separated from each other through a transition zone. These transition zones are called discontinuities.

• There are five discontinuities/ Transition Zones inside the earth:

• Conrad Discontinuity: Transition zone between upper and lower Crust.

• Mohorovicic Discontinuity: Transition zone between the Crust and Mantle.

• Repiti Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer mantle and Inner mantle.

• Gutenberg Discontinuity: Transition zone between Mantle and Core.

• Lehman Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer core and Inner core.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• There are five discontinuities/ Transition Zones inside the earth:

• Conrad Discontinuity: Transition zone between upper and lower Crust.

• Mohorovicic Discontinuity: Transition zone between the Crust and Mantle.

• Repiti Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer mantle and Inner mantle.

• Gutenberg Discontinuity: Transition zone between Mantle and Core.

• Lehman Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer core and Inner core.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 19 of 30 19. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the term ‘Hypolimnion’? a) The water at the bottom of a lake b) The stagnant water accumulated due to melting of the glacier c) Top layer water in a mangrove d) Water with very high biological oxygen demand Correct Answer: a Explanation: The top band of a lake is called the epilimnion; while the middle band is called the thermocline and holds water whose temperature varies with depth. The bottom band is called the hypolimnion and holds cool, stagnant water which is all the same temperature. The hypolimnion or under lake is the dense, bottom layer of water in a thermally-stratified lake. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Answer: a Explanation: The top band of a lake is called the epilimnion; while the middle band is called the thermocline and holds water whose temperature varies with depth. The bottom band is called the hypolimnion and holds cool, stagnant water which is all the same temperature. The hypolimnion or under lake is the dense, bottom layer of water in a thermally-stratified lake. Hence, option (a) is correct. Source: Environment and Ecology Trend: basic concepts Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 19. Question

Which of the following best describes the term ‘Hypolimnion’?

• a) The water at the bottom of a lake

• b) The stagnant water accumulated due to melting of the glacier

• c) Top layer water in a mangrove

• d) Water with very high biological oxygen demand

Explanation:

• The top band of a lake is called the epilimnion; while the middle band is called the thermocline and holds water whose temperature varies with depth.

• The bottom band is called the hypolimnion and holds cool, stagnant water which is all the same temperature. The hypolimnion or under lake is the dense, bottom layer of water in a thermally-stratified lake.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Explanation:

• The top band of a lake is called the epilimnion; while the middle band is called the thermocline and holds water whose temperature varies with depth.

• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Trend: basic concepts

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 20 of 30 20. Question 1 points Which of the following come under ‘diastrophism’ which shapes the crust of the earth? Folding Volcanoes Plate tectonics Earth quakes How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Answer: d Explanation: Diastrophism: All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism. They include: Orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust; Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust; Earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements; Plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates. In the process of orogeny, the crust is severely deformed into folds. Due to epeirogeny, there may be simple deformation. Orogeny is a mountain building process whereas epeirogeny is continental building process. Through the processes of orogeny, epeirogeny, earthquakes and plate tectonics, there can be faulting and fracturing of the crust. All these processes cause pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes which in turn induce metamorphism of rocks. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: physical features of Earth Approach: Applied knowledge Incorrect Answer: d Explanation: Diastrophism: All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism. They include: Orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust; Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust; Earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements; Plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates. In the process of orogeny, the crust is severely deformed into folds. Due to epeirogeny, there may be simple deformation. Orogeny is a mountain building process whereas epeirogeny is continental building process. Through the processes of orogeny, epeirogeny, earthquakes and plate tectonics, there can be faulting and fracturing of the crust. All these processes cause pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes which in turn induce metamorphism of rocks. Hence, option (d) is correct. Source: Geography Trend: physical features of Earth Approach: Applied knowledge

#### 20. Question

Which of the following come under ‘diastrophism’ which shapes the crust of the earth?

• Plate tectonics

• Earth quakes

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Explanation:

• Diastrophism: All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism.

• They include:

• Orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust;

• Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust;

• Earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements;

• Plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates. In the process of orogeny, the crust is severely deformed into folds.

• Due to epeirogeny, there may be simple deformation. Orogeny is a mountain building process whereas epeirogeny is continental building process. Through the processes of orogeny, epeirogeny, earthquakes and plate tectonics, there can be faulting and fracturing of the crust. All these processes cause pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes which in turn induce metamorphism of rocks.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: physical features of Earth

Approach: Applied knowledge

Explanation:

• Diastrophism: All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism.

• They include:

• Orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust;

• Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust;

• Earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements;

• Plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates. In the process of orogeny, the crust is severely deformed into folds.

• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Trend: physical features of Earth

Approach: Applied knowledge

• Question 21 of 30 21. Question 1 points The Jal Jeevan Mission is a demand-driven scheme, but prioritises Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTCs) in which of these areas? Drought-prone villages Areas with poor water quality Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) villages How many of the above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf Trend: Schemes in news Approach: All the mentioned areas come under priority villages. Hence, (c) would be the correct option Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf Trend: Schemes in news Approach: All the mentioned areas come under priority villages. Hence, (c) would be the correct option

#### 21. Question

The Jal Jeevan Mission is a demand-driven scheme, but prioritises Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTCs) in which of these areas?

• Drought-prone villages

• Areas with poor water quality

• Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) villages

How many of the above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: All the mentioned areas come under priority villages. Hence, (c) would be the correct option

Solution: c)

Justification:

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf

Trend: Schemes in news

Approach: All the mentioned areas come under priority villages. Hence, (c) would be the correct option

• Question 22 of 30 22. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The term “minority” is not defined in the Indian Constitution. There was no provision for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities in the original constitution of India. Which of the statements above is/are correct? a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: c) Justification: The term “minority” is not defined in the Indian Constitution. However, the Constitution recognizes only religious and linguistic minorities. Constitutional Provisions: Article 29 preserves distinct language, script, and culture; Article 30 grants education institution rights. Article 350-B: Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities established by the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956. The National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992 defines minorities as notified by the Central government. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf Trend: significant terms and their definition in constitution (office of profit UPSC prelims 2019) Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: c) Justification: The term “minority” is not defined in the Indian Constitution. However, the Constitution recognizes only religious and linguistic minorities. Constitutional Provisions: Article 29 preserves distinct language, script, and culture; Article 30 grants education institution rights. Article 350-B: Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities established by the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956. The National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992 defines minorities as notified by the Central government. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf Trend: significant terms and their definition in constitution (office of profit UPSC prelims 2019) Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 22. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The term “minority” is not defined in the Indian Constitution.

• There was no provision for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities in the original constitution of India.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Justification: The term “minority” is not defined in the Indian Constitution. However, the Constitution recognizes only religious and linguistic minorities.

• Constitutional Provisions: Article 29 preserves distinct language, script, and culture; Article 30 grants education institution rights.

• Article 350-B: Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities established by the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956.

• The National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992 defines minorities as notified by the Central government.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf

Trend: significant terms and their definition in constitution (office of profit UPSC prelims 2019)

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: c)

Justification: The term “minority” is not defined in the Indian Constitution. However, the Constitution recognizes only religious and linguistic minorities.

• Constitutional Provisions: Article 29 preserves distinct language, script, and culture; Article 30 grants education institution rights.

• Article 350-B: Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities established by the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956.

• The National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992 defines minorities as notified by the Central government.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf

Trend: significant terms and their definition in constitution (office of profit UPSC prelims 2019)

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 23 of 30 23. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Internet shutdown orders are regulated by the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rules, 2017, which do not have a statutory backing. In Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India (2020), SC stated indefinite internet shutdowns are illegal, requiring necessity and proportionality. Which of the statements above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Learning: Internet shutdown orders are regulated by the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rules, 2017, which fall under the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885. These rules allow for the temporary suspension of telecom services in a specific area during public emergencies. Senior officials from the Home Ministry at both central and state levels are authorized to issue shut- down orders. In Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India (2020), SC stated indefinite internet shutdowns are illegal, requiring necessity and proportionality. The Union govt amended 2017 Rules in Nov 2020, capping shutdowns at 15 days. In Dec 2021, the Standing Committee on Communication and IT proposed further amendments. The committee suggested a comprehensive review of Rules, technology-oriented changes, and uniform guidelines for states/ UTs to minimize public disruption. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf Trend: significant legislations Approach: statement 1 can be eliminated as rules, regulations and bye-laws are framed under a specific parent statute. Incorrect Solution: b) Learning: Internet shutdown orders are regulated by the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rules, 2017, which fall under the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885. These rules allow for the temporary suspension of telecom services in a specific area during public emergencies. Senior officials from the Home Ministry at both central and state levels are authorized to issue shut- down orders. In Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India (2020), SC stated indefinite internet shutdowns are illegal, requiring necessity and proportionality. The Union govt amended 2017 Rules in Nov 2020, capping shutdowns at 15 days. In Dec 2021, the Standing Committee on Communication and IT proposed further amendments. The committee suggested a comprehensive review of Rules, technology-oriented changes, and uniform guidelines for states/ UTs to minimize public disruption. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf Trend: significant legislations Approach: statement 1 can be eliminated as rules, regulations and bye-laws are framed under a specific parent statute.

#### 23. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Internet shutdown orders are regulated by the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rules, 2017, which do not have a statutory backing.

• In Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India (2020), SC stated indefinite internet shutdowns are illegal, requiring necessity and proportionality.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Learning: Internet shutdown orders are regulated by the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rules, 2017, which fall under the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885. These rules allow for the temporary suspension of telecom services in a specific area during public emergencies.

Senior officials from the Home Ministry at both central and state levels are authorized to issue shut- down orders.

In Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India (2020), SC stated indefinite internet shutdowns are illegal, requiring necessity and proportionality.

• The Union govt amended 2017 Rules in Nov 2020, capping shutdowns at 15 days.

• In Dec 2021, the Standing Committee on Communication and IT proposed further amendments. The committee suggested a comprehensive review of Rules, technology-oriented changes, and uniform guidelines for states/ UTs to minimize public disruption.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf

Trend: significant legislations

Approach: statement 1 can be eliminated as rules, regulations and bye-laws are framed under a specific parent statute.

Solution: b)

Senior officials from the Home Ministry at both central and state levels are authorized to issue shut- down orders.

In Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India (2020), SC stated indefinite internet shutdowns are illegal, requiring necessity and proportionality.

• The Union govt amended 2017 Rules in Nov 2020, capping shutdowns at 15 days.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf

Trend: significant legislations

Approach: statement 1 can be eliminated as rules, regulations and bye-laws are framed under a specific parent statute.

• Question 24 of 30 24. Question 1 points The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) under the Department of Science and Technology (DST) was set up for promoting basic research in science and engineering and to provide financial assistance to: individual scientists academic institutions R&D laboratories S&T start-ups How many of the above are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Justification: SERB is a statutory body under the Department of Science and Technology (DST) established in 2009 (by the SERB Act, 2008). It was set up for promoting basic research in science and engineering and to provide financial assistance to scientists, academic institutions, R&D laboratories, S&T start-ups, etc. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf Trend: Schemes in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question Incorrect Solution: d) Justification: SERB is a statutory body under the Department of Science and Technology (DST) established in 2009 (by the SERB Act, 2008). It was set up for promoting basic research in science and engineering and to provide financial assistance to scientists, academic institutions, R&D laboratories, S&T start-ups, etc. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf Trend: Schemes in News Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

#### 24. Question

The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) under the Department of Science and Technology (DST) was set up for promoting basic research in science and engineering and to provide financial assistance to:

• individual scientists

• academic institutions

• R&D laboratories

• S&T start-ups

How many of the above are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: d)

Justification: SERB is a statutory body under the Department of Science and Technology (DST) established in 2009 (by the SERB Act, 2008).

It was set up for promoting basic research in science and engineering and to provide financial assistance to scientists, academic institutions, R&D laboratories, S&T start-ups, etc.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf

Trend: Schemes in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

Solution: d)

Justification: SERB is a statutory body under the Department of Science and Technology (DST) established in 2009 (by the SERB Act, 2008).

It was set up for promoting basic research in science and engineering and to provide financial assistance to scientists, academic institutions, R&D laboratories, S&T start-ups, etc.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf

Trend: Schemes in News

Approach: Factual/knowledge based question

• Question 25 of 30 25. Question 1 points The low melting point of Gallium makes it suitable for use in thermometers semiconductors light emitting diodes Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1 and 2 only d) None Correct Solution: b) Justification: Gallium is a soft, silvery metal that is often found in small amounts in various minerals. Gallium has a low melting point, making it useful for applications such as thermometers and as a component in alloys. It is also used in the manufacture of semiconductors, LEDs, and various electronic devices. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf + July current affairs Trend: Important minerals Approach: Significant properties and usage of important minerals Incorrect Solution: b) Justification: Gallium is a soft, silvery metal that is often found in small amounts in various minerals. Gallium has a low melting point, making it useful for applications such as thermometers and as a component in alloys. It is also used in the manufacture of semiconductors, LEDs, and various electronic devices. Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf + July current affairs Trend: Important minerals Approach: Significant properties and usage of important minerals

#### 25. Question

The low melting point of Gallium makes it suitable for use in

• thermometers

• semiconductors

• light emitting diodes

Which of the above is/are correct?

• b) 1, 2 and 3

• c) 1 and 2 only

Solution: b)

Justification: Gallium is a soft, silvery metal that is often found in small amounts in various minerals. Gallium has a low melting point, making it useful for applications such as thermometers and as a component in alloys. It is also used in the manufacture of semiconductors, LEDs, and various electronic devices.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf + July current affairs

Trend: Important minerals

Approach: Significant properties and usage of important minerals

Solution: b)

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/CA-30-AUG-2023-MONTHLY_compressed.pdf + July current affairs

Trend: Important minerals

Approach: Significant properties and usage of important minerals

• Question 26 of 30 26. Question 1 points The Indian model of democracy and secularism, which accommodates religious, ethnic, linguistic and other diversities, could be a viable model for the peaceful coexistence of formerly antagonistic groups. The European model of the annihilation of natives in the Americas and Australia, last tried on the Jews in Nazi Germany, is not a solution which we can morally countenance and practically resort to. Which of the following is best implied by the passage? A. Indian secularism is a mixture of indigenous and western elements B. Coexistence is crucial for survival of any democracy C. India sees world as one family D. India evolved a unique model of accommodating the victors and the vanquished Correct Answer: D In the Above passage Option A –The statement is not true because the passage present a contrast between the Indian and western model so it cannot implied that Indian secularism is a mixture of indigenous and western elements. Option B – Co-existence is certainly crucial for survival of any democracy but this is neither implied in the passage nor explicitly can be derived from the passage. Option C – This is also out of the context of the passage and randomly given so it can be eliminated. Option D – It is very true and also can be derived from the passage that Indian democracy is accommodating not only for victors but also for vanquished. Incorrect Answer: D In the Above passage Option A –The statement is not true because the passage present a contrast between the Indian and western model so it cannot implied that Indian secularism is a mixture of indigenous and western elements. Option B – Co-existence is certainly crucial for survival of any democracy but this is neither implied in the passage nor explicitly can be derived from the passage. Option C – This is also out of the context of the passage and randomly given so it can be eliminated. Option D – It is very true and also can be derived from the passage that Indian democracy is accommodating not only for victors but also for vanquished.

#### 26. Question

The Indian model of democracy and secularism, which accommodates religious, ethnic, linguistic and other diversities, could be a viable model for the peaceful coexistence of formerly antagonistic groups. The European model of the annihilation of natives in the Americas and Australia, last tried on the Jews in Nazi Germany, is not a solution which we can morally countenance and practically resort to.

Which of the following is best implied by the passage?

• A. Indian secularism is a mixture of indigenous and western elements

• B. Coexistence is crucial for survival of any democracy

• C. India sees world as one family

• D. India evolved a unique model of accommodating the victors and the vanquished

In the Above passage

Option A –The statement is not true because the passage present a contrast between the Indian and western model so it cannot implied that Indian secularism is a mixture of indigenous and western elements.

Option B – Co-existence is certainly crucial for survival of any democracy but this is neither implied in the passage nor explicitly can be derived from the passage.

Option C – This is also out of the context of the passage and randomly given so it can be eliminated.

Option D – It is very true and also can be derived from the passage that Indian democracy is accommodating not only for victors but also for vanquished.

In the Above passage

Option B – Co-existence is certainly crucial for survival of any democracy but this is neither implied in the passage nor explicitly can be derived from the passage.

Option C – This is also out of the context of the passage and randomly given so it can be eliminated.

Option D – It is very true and also can be derived from the passage that Indian democracy is accommodating not only for victors but also for vanquished.

• Question 27 of 30 27. Question 1 points The Indian model of democracy and secularism, which accommodates religious, ethnic, linguistic and other diversities, could be a viable model for the peaceful coexistence of formerly antagonistic groups. The European model of the annihilation of natives in the Americas and Australia, last tried on the Jews in Nazi Germany, is not a solution which we can morally countenance and practically resort to. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Israel and India have similar approach to stateless people Indian model prefers peace not victory Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer: B In the above passage Assumption 1 – The passage presents a contrast between the both models so there cannot be a similar approach for the stateless people by both the nation so statement 1 is incorrect. Assumption 2 – It is true that Indian model prefers peace over victory which can come at the cost of violence so statement 2 can be the valid assumption. Incorrect Answer: B In the above passage Assumption 1 – The passage presents a contrast between the both models so there cannot be a similar approach for the stateless people by both the nation so statement 1 is incorrect. Assumption 2 – It is true that Indian model prefers peace over victory which can come at the cost of violence so statement 2 can be the valid assumption.

#### 27. Question

• On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made: Israel and India have similar approach to stateless people Indian model prefers peace not victory

• Israel and India have similar approach to stateless people

• Indian model prefers peace not victory

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

• C. Both 1 and 2

• D. Neither 1 nor 2

In the above passage

Assumption 1 – The passage presents a contrast between the both models so there cannot be a similar approach for the stateless people by both the nation so statement 1 is incorrect.

Assumption 2 – It is true that Indian model prefers peace over victory which can come at the cost of violence so statement 2 can be the valid assumption.

In the above passage

Assumption 1 – The passage presents a contrast between the both models so there cannot be a similar approach for the stateless people by both the nation so statement 1 is incorrect.

Assumption 2 – It is true that Indian model prefers peace over victory which can come at the cost of violence so statement 2 can be the valid assumption.

• Question 28 of 30 28. Question 1 points A, B and C entered into a partnership by investing in the ratio of 4 : 2: 3. At the end of the year, the total profit is in the ratio of 12 : 4 : 9. Find the ratio of period of time they invested in the business? (A)3 : 2 : 3 (B)5 : 2 : 4 (C)2 : 5 : 3 (D)7 : 4 : 5 Correct Correct option is : A) 3 : 2 : 3 Solution: The ratio of investment = 4 : 2 : 3 The ratio of profit = 12 : 4 : 9 Ratio of investment Ratio of Period = The ratio of Profit Ratio of Period = The ratio of Profit/ Ratio of investment According to the question, = > (12/4) : (4/2) : (9/3) = > 3 : 2 : 3 Incorrect Correct option is : A) 3 : 2 : 3 Solution: The ratio of investment = 4 : 2 : 3 The ratio of profit = 12 : 4 : 9 Ratio of investment Ratio of Period = The ratio of Profit Ratio of Period = The ratio of Profit/ Ratio of investment According to the question, = > (12/4) : (4/2) : (9/3) = > 3 : 2 : 3

#### 28. Question

A, B and C entered into a partnership by investing in the ratio of 4 : 2: 3. At the end of the year, the total profit is in the ratio of 12 : 4 : 9. Find the ratio of period of time they invested in the business?

• (A)3 : 2 : 3

• (B)5 : 2 : 4

• (C)2 : 5 : 3

• (D)7 : 4 : 5

Correct option is : A) 3 : 2 : 3

The ratio of investment = 4 : 2 : 3

The ratio of profit = 12 : 4 : 9

Ratio of investment * Ratio of Period = The ratio of Profit

Ratio of Period = The ratio of Profit/ Ratio of investment

According to the question,

= > (12/4) : (4/2) : (9/3)

= > 3 : 2 : 3

Correct option is : A) 3 : 2 : 3

The ratio of investment = 4 : 2 : 3

The ratio of profit = 12 : 4 : 9

Ratio of investment * Ratio of Period = The ratio of Profit

Ratio of Period = The ratio of Profit/ Ratio of investment

According to the question,

= > (12/4) : (4/2) : (9/3)

= > 3 : 2 : 3

• Question 29 of 30 29. Question 1 points Pure ghee costs Rs. 100 per kg. After adulterating it with vegetable oil costing Rs. 50 per kg, a shopkeeper sells the mixture at the rate of Rs. 96 per kg, thereby making a profit of 20%. In what ratio does he mix the two ? a) 1:2 b) 2:4 c) 3:2 d) 4:5 Correct Ans. C) 3:2 Mean cost price = Rs. (100 x 96/120) = Rs. 80 per kg. By the rule of alligation : Cp of 1 kg ghee=100 Hence, Required ratio = 30: 20 = 3: 2. Incorrect Ans. C) 3:2 Mean cost price = Rs. (100 x 96/120) = Rs. 80 per kg. By the rule of alligation : Cp of 1 kg ghee=100 Hence, Required ratio = 30: 20 = 3: 2.

#### 29. Question

Pure ghee costs Rs. 100 per kg. After adulterating it with vegetable oil costing Rs. 50 per kg, a shopkeeper sells the mixture at the rate of Rs. 96 per kg, thereby making a profit of 20%. In what ratio does he mix the two ?

Ans. C) 3:2

Mean cost price = Rs. (100 x 96/120) = Rs. 80 per kg.

By the rule of alligation :

Cp of 1 kg ghee=100

Hence, Required ratio = 30: 20 = 3: 2.

Ans. C) 3:2

Mean cost price = Rs. (100 x 96/120) = Rs. 80 per kg.

By the rule of alligation :

Cp of 1 kg ghee=100

Hence, Required ratio = 30: 20 = 3: 2.

• Question 30 of 30 30. Question 1 points A milkman claims to sell milk at its cost price, still, he is making a profit of 30% since he has mixed some amount of water in the milk. What is the % of milk in the mixture? A) 71.02% B) 76.92% C) 63.22% D) 86.42% Correct Answer: B) 76.92% Explanation: Let the milk he bought is 1000 ml Let C.P of 1000 ml is Rs. 100 Here let he is mixing K ml of water He is getting 30% profit => Now, the selling price is also Rs. 100 for 1000 ml => 100 : K% = 100 : 30 10 : 3 is ratio of milk to water => Percentage of milk = 10 x 100/13 = 1000/13 = 76.92% Incorrect Answer: B) 76.92% Explanation: Let the milk he bought is 1000 ml Let C.P of 1000 ml is Rs. 100 Here let he is mixing K ml of water He is getting 30% profit => Now, the selling price is also Rs. 100 for 1000 ml => 100 : K% = 100 : 30 10 : 3 is ratio of milk to water => Percentage of milk = 10 x 100/13 = 1000/13 = 76.92%

#### 30. Question

A milkman claims to sell milk at its cost price, still, he is making a profit of 30% since he has mixed some amount of water in the milk. What is the % of milk in the mixture?

Answer: B) 76.92%

Explanation:

Let the milk he bought is 1000 ml

Let C.P of 1000 ml is Rs. 100

Here let he is mixing K ml of water

He is getting 30% profit

=> Now, the selling price is also Rs. 100 for 1000 ml

=> 100 : K%

= 100 : 30

10 : 3 is ratio of milk to water

=> Percentage of milk = 10 x 100/13 = 1000/13 = 76.92%

Answer: B) 76.92%

Explanation:

Let the milk he bought is 1000 ml

Let C.P of 1000 ml is Rs. 100

Here let he is mixing K ml of water

He is getting 30% profit

=> Now, the selling price is also Rs. 100 for 1000 ml

=> 100 : K%

= 100 : 30

10 : 3 is ratio of milk to water

=> Percentage of milk = 10 x 100/13 = 1000/13 = 76.92%

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